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Friday, August 9, 2024

i) The appeals are allowed; (ii) The impugned judgment and order dated 21st May 2024 passed by the High Court of Delhi in Bail Application Nos. 1557 and 1559 of 2024 is quashed and set aside; (iii) The appellant is directed to be released on bail in connection with ED Case No. HIU-II/14/2022 38 registered against the appellant by the ED and FIR No. RC0032022A0053 of 2022 registered against the appellant by the CBI on furnishing bail bonds for a sum of Rs.10,00,000/- with two sureties of the like amount; (iv) The appellant shall surrender his passport with the Special Court; (v) The appellant shall report to the Investigating Officer on every Monday and Thursday between 10-11 AM; and (vi) The appellant shall not make any attempt either to influence the witnesses or to tamper with the evidence.

2024 INSC 595

1

REPORTABLE

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

CRIMINAL APPEAL NO. OF 2024

[Arising out of SLP(Criminal) No. 8781 of 2024]

MANISH SISODIA …APPELLANT(S)

VERSUS

DIRECTORATE OF ENFORCEMENT …RESPONDENT(S)

WITH

CRIMINAL APPEAL NO. OF 2024

[Arising out of SLP(Criminal) No. 8772 of 2024]

J U D G M E N T

B.R. GAVAI, J.

1. Leave granted. Appeals heard on merits.

2. The present appeals challenge the judgment and order

dated 21st May 2024 passed by the learned Single Judge of

the High Court of Delhi at New Delhi in Bail Application Nos.

1557 and 1559 of 2024, thereby rejecting the said

applications filed by the present appellant for grant of bail.

The aforesaid two applications were filed seeking bail in

connection with ED Case No. HIU-II/14/2022 registered 

2

against the appellant by the Directorate of Enforcement (for

short, ‘ED’) and First Information Report (FIR) No.

RC0032022A0053 of 2022 registered against the appellant

by the Central Bureau of Investigation (for short, ‘CBI’).

3. FIR No. RC0032022A0053 of 2022 came to be

registered by the CBI on 17th August 2022, and ED Case No.

HIU-II/14/2022 came to be registered by the ED on 22nd

August 2022.

4. Since both the cases arise out of similar facts, the latter

being the predicate offence and the former being a case

registered on the basis of the predicate offence, both these

appeals are heard and decided together.

FACTS IN BRIEF:

5. The present case travelled two rounds before the trial

court, the High Court and this Court. This is now the third

round before this Court wherein the appellant is seeking bail

in connection with the aforesaid two cases.

6. On the basis of a letter dated 20th July 2022 addressed

by Shri Vinai Kumar Saxena, the Lieutenant Governor of

Delhi, alleging irregularities in the framing and 

3

implementation of Delhi’s Excise Policy for the year 2021-22,

the Director, Ministry of Home Affairs had directed an

enquiry into the said matter vide Office Memorandum dated

22nd July 2022. On 26th February 2023, the appellant came

to be arrested by the CBI. Subsequently, the appellant was

arrested by the ED on 9th March 2023.

7. After investigation, CBI filed charge-sheet on 25th April

2023 for the offences punishable under Sections 7, 7A, 8 and

12 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 (for short, ‘PC

Act’) read with Sections 420, 201 and 120B of the Indian

Penal Code, 1860 (for short, ‘IPC’). Upon completion of

investigation, the ED filed a complaint under Section 3 of the

Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (for short, ‘PMLA’)

on 4th May 2023.

8. The first application for regular bail of the appellant in

CBI matter came to be rejected by the High Court on 30th

May 2023. Subsequently, the first application for regular bail

of the appellant in ED matter came to be rejected by the High

Court on 3rd July 2023. This Court, vide common order

dated 30th October 2023 (hereinafter referred to as “the first

order of this Court”) rejected the regular bail applications of 

4

the appellant in the CBI matter and the ED matter, with

certain observations which we will refer to in the subsequent

paragraphs.

9. Subsequently, in view of the liberty granted by this

Court, the appellant filed second bail application before the

trial court on 27th January 2024. In the said proceedings,

the appellant was granted interim protection. However, by

an order dated 30th April 2024, the trial court rejected the

said bail application on the ground that there was no change

in the circumstances.

10. The appellant thereafter filed second bail application

before the High Court on 2nd May 2024. Vide impugned

judgment and order dated 21st May 2024, the learned Single

Judge of the High Court rejected the said bail application

also.

11. Being aggrieved thereby, the appellant had approached

this Court by filing Special Leave Petition (Criminal) Nos.

7795 and 7799 of 2024.

12. The matter was heard on 4th June 2024. This Court, in

the said order (hereinafter referred to as “the second order of

this Court”) recorded the submissions of the learned Solicitor 

5

General that the investigation would be concluded and final

complaint/charge-sheet would be filed expeditiously and at

any rate on or before 3rd July 2024 and immediately

thereafter, the trial court would be free to proceed with the

trial. This Court recorded the submissions made by the

learned Solicitor General and observed that having regard to

the fact that the period of “6-8 months” fixed by this Court by

order dated 30th October 2023 had not yet come to an end,

disposed of the said petition with liberty to revive his prayer

afresh after filing of the final complaint/charge-sheet.

13. Accordingly, after filing of the final complaint/chargesheet, the appellant has approached this Court by way of the

present appeals. This Court, vide order dated 16th July 2024

had issued notice. In response thereto, counter affidavit has

been filed on behalf of the ED as well as the CBI opposing the

present appeals.

SUBMISSIONS:

14. We have extensively heard Dr. Abhishek Manu Singhvi,

learned Senior Counsel appearing on behalf of the appellant

and Shri Suryaprakash V. Raju, learned Additional Solicitor

General (ASG) appearing on behalf of the respondents.

6

15. A preliminary objection has been raised on behalf of the

learned ASG that the appellant cannot be permitted to file

second set of SLPs to challenge the order of the High Court

dated 21st May 2024 when the earlier SLPs arising out of the

same order were disposed of. He submitted that the liberty

granted by this Court vide order dated 4th June 2024 has to

be construed as a liberty to apply to the trial court afresh. It

is submitted that, only after the appellant approaches the

trial court and in the event he does not succeed before the

trial court, thereafter he approaches the High Court and in

the event he also does not succeed before the High Court,

then only he would be entitled to approach this Court. He

therefore submitted that the present appeals deserve to be

rejected thereby relegating the appellant to approach the trial

court afresh. To buttress his submission, Shri Raju relied on

the judgment of this Court in the case of Kunhayammed

and Others v. State of Kerala and Others1.

16. The said preliminary objection has been opposed by Dr.

Singhvi, learned Senior Counsel appearing on behalf of the

appellant contending that this Court had specifically, vide its

1

(2000) 6 SCC 359 : 2000 INSC 339

7

first order dated 30th October 2023, granted liberty to the

appellant to move a fresh application for bail in case the trial

does not conclude within next 6-8 months and also in case

the trial is protracted and proceeds at a snail’s pace in next

three months. He submitted that, admittedly, the trial has

not been concluded within a period of 6-8 months from the

date of the first order of this Court. He further submitted

that the record would show that the trial was protracted and

proceeded at a snail’s pace in the period of three months

after the first order of this Court was passed. He submitted

that the second order of this Court clearly reserves the right

of the appellant to revive the request afresh after filing of the

final complaint/charge-sheet as assured by the learned

Solicitor General. Dr. Singhvi therefore prays for rejection of

the preliminary objection.

17. On merits, Dr. Singhvi submitted that this Court, vide

its first order dated 30th October 2023, has given various

findings in favour of the appellant. It is submitted that, a

perusal of the same would clearly reveal that at number of

places, this Court has given findings which would show that

the respondents have not been in a position to make out a 

8

prima facie case. Dr. Singhvi further submitted that a

perusal of the record would reveal that even the investigation

in the case is not complete. He therefore submitted that

unless the investigation is complete, the trial cannot proceed.

He submitted that three more supplementary complaints

have been filed on 10th May 2024, 17th May 2024 and 20th

June 2024 in the ED matter and as on 27th July 2024, there

were 40 persons who have been arrayed as accused in the

proceedings with more than 8 complaints. He further

submitted that, in the ED matter, the ED has cited 224

witnesses and produced 32,000 pages of documents. He

further submitted that, in the CBI matter, the CBI has cited

269 witnesses and produced around 37,000 pages of

documents. It is therefore submitted that in all there are 493

witnesses, excluding the ones in the 4th Supplementary

Charge-sheet filed by the CBI, who will have to be examined

and that in total the documents are running into around

69,000 pages.

18. Dr. Singhvi submitted that the ED has deliberately

concealed the documents it acquired during investigation by

putting documents exculpating the accused persons in the 

9

category of “un-relied upon documents”. It is submitted that,

as such, it was necessary for the appellant to inspect such

“un-relied upon documents”. He further submitted that there

was an inordinate delay on the part of the ED and the CBI in

producing the list of “un-relied upon documents”.

19. Dr. Singhvi submitted that, taking into consideration

the voluminous number of witnesses and documents, there

is no possibility of the trial seeing the light of the day and

therefore the appeals filed by the appellant deserve to be

allowed.

20. Shri Raju vehemently opposed the present appeals. He

submitted that this Court, in its first order, after

enumerating various factors on merits of the matter in

paragraph 25 has held that the Court was not inclined to

accept the prayer for grant of bail. It is therefore submitted

that the appeals of the present appellant on merits were

specifically rejected.

21. Shri Raju further submitted that, though the Court

granted liberty to file a fresh application in the circumstances

enumerated in paragraph 29, it was held that the same

would be considered by the trial court on merits without 

10

being influenced by the dismissal of the earlier bail

applications including the said first order. It is therefore

submitted that the trial court as well as the High Court were

required to take into consideration the merits of the matter.

However, the present appellant opposed the consideration of

the application on merits and insisted on consideration of the

application only on the ground of delay in trial. It is

therefore submitted that both the courts have rightly

considered the merits of the matter and after considering the

merits, found that the appellant was not entitled to grant of

bail. He submitted that no interference would be warranted.

22. Shri Raju submitted that the trial court and the High

Court have specifically come to a finding that the appellant

has delayed the pre-charge proceedings by taking recourse to

the provisions of Section 207 of Criminal Procedure Code,

1973 (for short, ‘Cr.P.C.’). He submitted that more than

hundred applications have been filed out of which many are

under Section 207 Cr.P.C. These applications have been

filed only for the purpose of delaying the trial. It is submitted

that though in view of the law laid down by this Court in the 

11

case of P. Ponnusamy v. State of Tamil Nadu2

, such

applications could have been filed only after framing of the

charges, the same have been intentionally filed at a precharge stage of the trial, so as to delay the framing of the

charges. He submitted that though the appellant is entitled

to file an application for discharge, the same has not been

filed only in order to protract the trial. He submitted that the

totality of the circumstances would reveal that it is the

appellant who has been protracting the trial. It is submitted

that as the appellant himself is responsible for protracting

the trial, he cannot be permitted to take the benefit of the

same.

23. The learned ASG submitted that unless the triple

conditions as stipulated under Section 45 of the PMLA are

satisfied, no person accused of an offence shall be released

on bail. It is submitted that, in the present case, this Court

itself by the first order has found that the appellant was not

entitled for bail on merits and as such, the second condition

stipulated under Section 45 of the PMLA that there are

2 2022 SCC OnLine SC 1543 : 2022 INSC 1175

12

reasonable grounds for believing that he is not guilty of such

offence, would not be satisfied in the present case.

24. The learned ASG further submitted that the appellant is

a very influential person having occupied the office of Deputy

Chief Minister of Delhi when the crime was committed. He

submitted that if the appellant is released on bail, there is

every possibility of him influencing the witnesses or

tampering with the evidence.

25. Dr. Singhvi, in rejoinder, has submitted that the

contention that the trial is being delayed due to the

applications being filed by the appellant under Section 207

Cr.P.C. is totally incorrect. He submitted that the said

applications were required to be filed since the prosecution

had not placed on record the documents exculpating the

accused persons by placing the same in the category of “unrelied upon documents”. He submitted that in order to avail

the right of a fair trial and in adherence to the principles of

natural justice as encapsulated in Section 207 Cr.P.C., the

appellant was forced to file such applications. However, each

of these applications were vehemently opposed by the

prosecution. It is submitted that the said material ought to 

13

have been placed on record by the prosecution themselves,

however, for the reasons best known to the prosecution, they

have not done so. He submitted that the appellant has filed

only 14 applications in ED case and 13 applications in CBI

case and that all these applications have been allowed by the

learned trial judge. He lastly submitted that even as per the

prosecution, if the entire “un-relied upon documents” are to

be supplied in digital form, it will take a long time. To

support his submission, Dr. Singhvi places reliance on the

compliance report dated 7th May 2024 filed by the Assistant

Director of ED which would fortify this position.

CONSIDERATION OF PRELIMINARY OBJECTION:

26. We will first deal with the preliminary objection of the

learned ASG with regard to the filing of the second set of

appeals before this Court challenging the order of the High

Court dated 21st May 2024 i.e., on the point of

maintainability.

27. Undisputedly, the appellant had earlier challenged the

same order dated 21st May 2024 vide SLP (Criminal) Nos.

7795 and 7799 of 2024. On doing so, a Division Bench of

this Court passed the order dated 4th June 2024. It will be 

14

apposite to refer to the observations made by this Court in

the said order, which read thus:

“Though, elaborate arguments have been made, we

do not propose to go into the said arguments or

dwell upon it and then record our reasons for the

simple reason that Co-ordinate Bench while

dismissing the appeals vide order dated 30.10.2023,

as noticed hereinabove has granted liberty to the

appellant, i.e., the petitioner herein to move a fresh

application for bail by placing reliance on the

assurance given on behalf of the prosecution that

they would conclude the trial by taking appropriate

steps within next 6-8 months and as such the

liberty was extended to the petitioner herein to move

a fresh application in case of change in

circumstances, or in case the trial is protracted and

proceeds at a snail’s pace in next three months. It

was also observed that if such an application is filed

in the aforesaid circumstances, the same would be

considered by the trial court on merits without

being influenced by the dismissal of the earlier bail

application including the judgment of this Court.

Shri Tushar Mehta, learned Solicitor General on

instructions would submit that the investigation

would be concluded and final complaint/charge

sheet would be filed expeditiously and at any rate

on or before 03.07.2024 and immediately thereafter,

the trial court will be free to proceed with trial. In

the light of the said submissions made and having

regard to the fact that the period of “6-8 months”

fixed by this Court by Order dated 30.10.2023

having not come to an end, it would suffice to

dispose of these petitions with liberty to the

petitioner to revive his prayer afresh after filing of

the final complaint/Charge-sheet as assured by

learned Solicitor General. Needless to state that in

the event of such an application being filed, the

same would be considered on its own merits as 

15

already observed by this Court vide paragraph 29

(supra). Contentions of both parties kept open.

Accordingly, these petitions stand disposed of. All

pending applications consigned to record.”

28. Before considering the submissions of the learned ASG

with regard to maintainability of the present appeals on

account of the second order of this Court, it will be apposite

to refer to certain observations made by this Court in its first

order, which read thus:

“26. However, we are also concerned about the

prolonged period of incarceration suffered by the

appellant – Manish Sisodia. In P. Chidambaram v.

Directorate of Enforcement (2020) 13 SCC 791,

the appellant therein was granted bail after being

kept in custody for around 49 days [P.

Chidambaram v. Central Bureau of

Investigation (2020) 13 SCC 337], relying on the

Constitution Bench in Shri Gurbaksh Singh

Sibbia and Others v. State of Punjab (1980) 2

SCC 565, and Sanjay Chandra v. Central Bureau

of Investigation (2012) 1 SCC 40, that even if the

allegation is one of grave economic offence, it is not

a rule that bail should be denied in every case.

Ultimately, the consideration has to be made on a

case to case basis, on the facts. The primary object

is to secure the presence of the accused to stand

trial. The argument that the appellant therein was a

flight risk or that there was a possibility of

tampering with the evidence or influencing the

witnesses, was rejected by the Court. Again, in

Satender Kumar Antil v. Central Bureau of

Investigation and Another (2022) 10 SCC 51, this

Court referred to Surinder Singh Alias Shingara

Singh v. State of Punjab (2005) 7 SCC 387 and

Kashmira Singh v. State of Punjab (1977) 4 SCC 

16

291, to emphasise that the right to speedy trial is a

fundamental right within the broad scope of Article

21 of the Constitution. In Vijay Madanlal

Choudhary (supra), this Court while highlighting

the evil of economic offences like money laundering,

and its adverse impact on the society and citizens,

observed that arrest infringes the fundamental right

to life. This Court referred to Section 19 of the PML

Act, for the in-built safeguards to be adhered to by

the authorised officers to ensure fairness, objectivity

and accountability. [See also Pankaj Bansal v.

Union of India and Ors. 2023 SCC OnLine SC

1244] Vijay Madanlal Choudhary (supra), also

held that Section 436A of the Code can apply to

offences under the PML Act, as it effectuates the

right to speedy trial, a facet of the right to life,

except for a valid ground such as where the trial is

delayed at the instance of the accused himself. In

our opinion, Section 436A should not be construed

as a mandate that an accused should not be

granted bail under the PML Act till he has suffered

incarceration for the specified period. This Court, in

Arnab Manoranjan Goswami v. State of

Maharashtra and Others (2021) 2 SCC 427, held

that while ensuring proper enforcement of criminal

law on one hand, the court must be conscious that

liberty across human eras is as tenacious as

tenacious can be.

27. The appellant – Manish Sisodia has argued that

given the number of witnesses, 294 in the

prosecution filed by the CBI and 162 in the

prosecution filed by the DoE, and the documents

31,000 pages and 25,000 pages respectively, the

fact that the CBI has filed multiple charge sheets,

the arguments of charge have not commenced. The

trial court has allowed application of the accused for

furnishing of additional documents, which order

has been challenged by the prosecution under

Section 482 of the Code before the High Court. It

was stated at the Bar, on behalf of the prosecution

that the said petition under Section 482 will be

withdrawn. It was also stated at the Bar, by the 

17

prosecution that the trial would be concluded

within next six to eight months.

28. Detention or jail before being pronounced guilty

of an offence should not become punishment

without trial. If the trial gets protracted despite

assurances of the prosecution, and it is clear that

case will not be decided within a foreseeable time,

the prayer for bail may be meritorious. While the

prosecution may pertain to an economic offence, yet

it may not be proper to equate these cases with

those punishable with death, imprisonment for life,

ten years or more like offences under the Narcotic

Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985,

murder, cases of rape, dacoity, kidnaping for

ransom, mass violence, etc. Neither is this a case

where 100/1000s of depositors have been

defrauded. The allegations have to be established

and proven. The right to bail in cases of delay,

coupled with incarceration for a long period,

depending on the nature of the allegations, should

be read into Section 439 of the Code and Section 45

of the PML Act. The reason is that the constitutional

mandate is the higher law, and it is the basic right

of the person charged of an offence and not

convicted, that he be ensured and given a speedy

trial. When the trial is not proceeding for reasons

not attributable to the accused, the court, unless

there are good reasons, may well be guided to

exercise the power to grant bail. This would be truer

where the trial would take years.

29. In view of the assurance given at the Bar on

behalf of the prosecution that they shall conclude

the trial by taking appropriate steps within next six

to eight months, we give liberty to the appellant –

Manish Sisodia to move a fresh application for bail

in case of change in circumstances, or in case the

trial is protracted and proceeds at a snail’s pace in

next three months. If any application for bail is filed

in the above circumstances, the same would be

considered by the trial court on merits without

being influenced by the dismissal of the earlier bail 

18

application, including the present judgment.

Observations made above, re.: right to speedy trial,

will, however, be taken into consideration. The

appellant – Manish Sisodia may also file an

application for interim bail in case of ill health and

medical emergency due to illness of his wife. Such

application would be also examined on its own

merits.”

29. A perusal of the aforesaid would reveal that this Court

was concerned about the prolonged period of incarceration

suffered by the appellant. After considering various earlier

pronouncements, this Court emphasised that the right to

speedy trial is a fundamental right within the broad scope of

Article 21 of the Constitution. Relying on Vijay Madanlal

Choudhary and Others v. Union of India and Others3,

this Court observed that Section 436A Cr.P.C. should not be

construed as a mandate that an accused should not be

granted bail under the PMLA till he has suffered

incarceration for the specified period. This Court recorded

the assurance given by the prosecution that they shall

conclude the trial by taking appropriate steps within next 6-8

months. This Court, after recording the said submissions,

granted liberty to the appellant to move a fresh application

for bail in case of change in circumstances or in case the trial

3

(2022) SCC OnLine SC 929 : 2022 INSC 756

19

was protracted and proceeded at a snail’s pace in next three

months. This Court observed that if any application was

filed, the same would be considered by the trial court on

merits without being influenced by the dismissal of the

earlier bail applications including its own judgment. It

further observed that the observations made regarding the

right to speedy trial will be taken into consideration.

30. Since the trial proceeded at a snail’s pace in the period

after three months of the first order of this Court, the

appellant filed the second application for bail before the trial

court. The same came to be rejected by the trial court on

30th April 2024. It can thus be seen that it took a period of

almost three months for the trial court to decide the said

application. By the time the appellant approached the High

Court, a period of more than six months had elapsed from

the date on which the first order of this Court was passed.

The same also came to be rejected on 21st May 2024.

31. When the appellant approached this Court in the

second round and when the second order was passed by this

Court on 4th June 2024, a period of 7 months and 4 days

had elapsed from the date of the first order of this Court. 

20

However, this Court took into consideration the statement of

the learned Solicitor General that the investigation would be

concluded and final complaint/charge-sheet would be filed

expeditiously and at any rate on or before 3rd July 2024 and

thereafter, the trial court would be free to proceed with the

trial. It, after observing that “having regard to the fact that

the period of 6-8 months fixed by this Court in its first order

having not come to an end”, disposed of the petitions with

liberty to the appellant to revive his prayer afresh after filing

of the final complaint/charge-sheet.

32. It could thus be seen that this Court had granted liberty

to the appellant to revive his prayer after filing of the chargesheet. Now, relegating the appellant to again approach the

trial court and thereafter the High Court and only thereafter

this Court, in our view, would be making him play a game of

“Snake and Ladder”. The trial court and the High Court have

already taken a view and in our view relegating the appellant

again to the trial court and the High Court would be an

empty formality. In a matter pertaining to the life and liberty

of a citizen which is one of the most sacrosanct rights 

21

guaranteed by the Constitution, a citizen cannot be made to

run from pillar to post.

33. A careful reading of the second order of this Court dated

4th June 2024 would show that this Court recorded that they

did not propose to go into the arguments or dwell upon it in

view of the liberty granted in the first order of this Court.

Thereafter, this Court noticed the assurance of the learned

Solicitor General that the investigation would be concluded

and final complaint/charge-sheet would be filed at any rate on

or before 3rd July 2024. This Court further observed in its

second order that since the period of 6-8 months fixed by it in

its first order had not come to an end, it was inclined to

dispose of this petition with liberty to the appellant to revive

his prayer. It will be a travesty of justice to construe that the

carefully couched order preserving the right of the appellant to

revive his prayer for grant of special leave against the High

Court order, to mean that he should be relegated all the way

down to the trial court. The memorable adage, that procedure

is a hand maiden and not a mistress of justice rings loudly in

our ears.

22

34. In this respect, we may also gainfully refer to one of the

recent pronouncements by a bench of this Court to which

one of us (B.R. Gavai, J.) was a member in the case of Prabir

Purkayastha v. State (NCT of Delhi)4, which reads thus:

“21. The Right to Life and Personal Liberty is the

most sacrosanct fundamental right guaranteed

under Articles 20, 21 and 22 of the Constitution of

India. Any attempt to encroach upon this

fundamental right has been frowned upon by this

Court in a catena of decisions. In this regard, we

may refer to following observations made by this

Court in the case of Roy V.D. v. State of Kerala3:—

“7. The life and liberty of an individual is

so sacrosanct that it cannot be allowed to

be interfered with except under the

authority of law. It is a principle which

has been recognised and applied in all

civilised countries. In our Constitution

Article 21 guarantees protection of life

and personal liberty not only to citizens of

India but also to aliens.””

35. In our view, the liberty reserved by this Court vide its

second order, to revive the request of the appellant will have

to be construed as a liberty given by this Court to revive his

prayer afresh after filing of the final complaint/charge-sheet.

Undisputedly, the present appeals have been filed after the

final complaint/charge-sheet has been filed by the

4 2024 SCC OnLine SC 934 : 2024 INSC 414

23

respondents. In that view of the matter, we are not inclined

to entertain the preliminary objection and the same is

rejected.

CONSIDERATION AS TO WHETHER THE APPELLANT IS

ENTITLED FOR BAIL:

36. Having rejected the preliminary objection, we will

proceed to consider as to whether in the facts and

circumstances of the present case, the appellant is entitled to

grant of bail or not.

37. Insofar as the contention of the learned ASG that since

the conditions as provided under Section 45 of the PMLA are

not satisfied, the appellant is not entitled to grant of bail is

concerned, it will be apposite to refer to the first order of this

Court. No doubt that this Court in its first order in paragraph

25, after recapitulating in paragraph 24 as to what was

stated in the charge-sheet filed by the CBI against the

appellant, observed that, in view of the aforesaid discussion,

the Court was not inclined to accept the prayer for grant of

bail at that stage. However, certain paragraphs of the said

order cannot be read in isolation from the other paragraphs.

The order will have to be read in its entirety. In paragraph 

24

28 of the said order, this Court observed that the right to bail

in cases of delay, coupled with incarceration for a long

period, depending on the nature of the allegations, should be

read into Section 439 Cr.P.C. and Section 45 of the PMLA.

The Court held that the constitutional mandate is the higher

law, and it is the basic right of the person charged of an

offence and not convicted that he be ensured and given a

speedy trial. It further observed that when the trial is not

proceeding for reasons not attributable to the accused, the

court, unless there are good reasons, would be guided to

exercise the power to grant bail. The Court specifically

observed that this would be true where the trial would take

years. It could thus clearly be seen that this Court, in the

first round of litigation between the parties, has specifically

observed that in case of delay coupled with incarceration for

a long period and depending on the nature of the allegations,

the right to bail will have to be read into Section 45 of PMLA.

38. A Division Bench of this Court in the case of

Ramkripal Meena v. Directorate of Enforcement5 was

considering an application of the petitioner therein who was

5 SLP(Crl.) No. 3205 of 2024 dated 30.07.2024

25

to receive a bribe of rupees five crore and from whom, an

amount of Rs.46,00,000/- was already recovered. In the said

case, the petitioner was arrested on 26th January 2022 in

connection with FIR No. 402/2021 registered against him for

the offences punishable under Sections 406, 420, 120B of

IPC and Section 4/6 of the Rajasthan Public Examination

(Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 1992. He was released on

bail by this Court vide order dated 18th January 2023.

Thereafter, the petitioner was arrested by the ED on 21st

June 2023. The Court observed thus:

“7. Adverting to the prayer for grant of bail in the

instant case, it is pointed out by learned counsel for

ED that the complaint case is at the stage of

framing of charges and 24 witnesses are proposed

to be examined. The conclusion of proceedings,

thus, will take some reasonable time. The petitioner

has already been in custody for more than a year.

Taking into consideration the period spent in

custody and there being no likelihood of conclusion

of trial within a short span, coupled with the fact

that the petitioner is already on bail in the predicate

offence, and keeping in view the peculiar facts and

circumstances of this case, it seems to us that the

rigours of Section 45 of the Act can be suitably

relaxed to afford conditional liberty to the petitioner.

Ordered accordingly.”

39. In the light of the specific observations of this Court in

paragraph 28 of the first order, we are not inclined to accept 

26

the submission of the learned ASG that the provisions of

Section 45 of the PMLA would come in the way of

consideration of the application of the appellant for grant of

bail.

40. From the first order of this Court, it would be clear that

an assurance was given at the Bar on behalf of the

prosecution that they shall conclude the trial by taking

appropriate steps within next 6-8 months. In view of the

said statement, this Court did not consider the application of

the appellant for bail at that stage, however, granted liberty

to the appellant to move a fresh application for bail in case of

change in circumstances, or in case the trial is protracted

and proceeded at a snail’s pace in next three months.

Though, this Court observed that if any application for bail

was filed on the grounds mentioned in paragraph 29, the

same would be considered by the trial court without being

influenced by the dismissal of the earlier bail applications

including the present judgment, however, it clarified that the

observations made by the Court with regard to right to

speedy trial would be taken into consideration. The liberty

was also granted to the appellant to file an application for 

27

interim bail in case of ill-health and medical emergency due

to illness of his wife.

41. A perusal of the impugned judgment and order would

reveal that though the learned Single Judge of the High

Court has dismissed the applications for bail on merits, on

medical grounds, it has permitted the appellant to visit his

residence to meet his wife in custody once every week.

42. It could thus clearly be seen that this Court expected

the trial to be concluded within a period of 6-8 months. The

liberty was reserved to approach afresh if the trial did not

conclude within the period of 6-8 months. The liberty was

also granted in case the trial proceeded at a snail’s pace in

next three months.

43. A perusal of the material placed on record would clearly

reveal that far from the trial being concluded within a period

of 6-8 months, it is even yet to commence. Though in the

first order of this Court, liberty was reserved to move afresh

for bail if the trial proceeded at a snail’s pace within a period

of three months from the date of the said order, the

commencement of the trial is yet to see the light of the day.

In these circumstances, in view of the first order of this 

28

Court, the appellant was entitled to renew his request. When

the appellant renewed his request, the learned Special Judge

(trial court) as well as the High Court was required to

consider the said applications in the light of the observations

made by this Court in paragraphs 28 and 29 of the first

order. In paragraph 29 of the first order, this Court

specifically observed that though the observations on the

aspect of merit were not binding, the observations of right to

speedy trial were required to be taken into consideration.

44. The learned Special Judge and the learned Single Judge

of the High Court have considered the applications on merits

as well as on the grounds of delay and denial of right to

speedy trial. We see no error in the judgments and orders of

the learned Special Judge as well as the High Court in

considering the merits of the matter. In view of the

observations made by this Court in the first order, they were

entitled to consider the same. However, the question that

arises is as to whether the trial court and the High Court

have correctly considered the observations made by this

Court with regard to right to speedy trial and prolonged

period of incarceration. The courts below have rejected the 

29

claim of the appellant applying the triple test as

contemplated under Section 45 of the PMLA. In our view, this

is in ignorance of the observations made by this Court in

paragraph 28 of the first order wherein this Court specifically

observed that right to bail in cases of delay coupled with

incarceration for a long period should be read into Section

439 Cr.P.C. and Section 45 of the PMLA.

45. The trial court, in its order, has held that the appellant

individually and along with different accused persons have

been filing one or the other applications/making oral

submissions frequently. It further observed that some of

them were frivolous. It was observed that this was apparently

done as a concerted effort for accomplishing the shared

purpose of causing delay in the matter. The trial court

therefore rejected the contention of the appellant that he had

not contributed to delay in proceedings or that the case has

been proceeding at a snail’s pace. However, in the very

subsequent paragraph i.e., paragraph 80, the court observed

that, in order to avoid any delay and considering the time

being taken by the counsel for the accused in inspecting the

“un-relied upon documents”, it had vide order dated 18th

30

April 2024 put a query to the prosecution if the entire “unrelied upon documents” can be provided to the accused

persons in a digitized form. It further recorded that the ED

accepted the suggestion that it would expedite the

proceedings. However, some time was sought to consider the

same. A perusal of the compliance report filed by the

Assistant Director of ED dated 7th May 2024 which could be

found at page 757 of the paperbook, would reveal that the

Cyber Lab has informed that it would take 70-80 days to

prepare one copy (cloning) of the data contained in the said

unrelied digital devices.

46. It could further be seen that, though it has been

submitted on behalf of the ED that hundreds of applications

have been filed for supply of “un-relied upon documents”, the

record would not substantiate the said position. Though

various applications have been filed by different accused

persons, insofar as the present appellant is concerned, he

has filed only 13 applications in the CBI matter and 14 in the

ED matter. It would reveal that some of the applications are

for seeking permission to meet his wife or permission to file

vakalatnama, to put signature on the documents, seeking 

31

permission to sign a cheque etc. Most of the applications are

for supply of missing documents and legible copies under

Section 207/208 Cr.P.C. Some of the applications are for

inspection of the “un-relied upon documents”. It is pertinent

to note that all these applications have been allowed by the

learned trial court. It is further pertinent to note that some

of these orders were also challenged before the High Court

wherein stay was granted. However, a statement was made

on behalf of the prosecution before this Court when the first

order was passed that the said petitions filed under Section

482 Cr.P.C would be withdrawn. The said statement is

recorded in paragraph 27 of the first order of this Court. We

may state that, when we specifically asked the learned ASG

to point out any order wherein the learned trial judge found

any of the applications of the appellant to be frivolous, not a

single order could be pointed out.

47. In that view of the matter, we find that the finding of the

learned trial judge that it is the appellant who is responsible

for delaying the trial is not supported by the record. The

learned Single Judge of the High Court endorses the finding

of the trial court on the ground that the accused persons 

32

have taken three months’ time from 19th October 2023 to 19th

January 2024 for inspection of “un-relied upon documents”

despite repeated directions from the learned trial court to

conclude the same expeditiously. It is to be noted that there

are around 69,000 pages of documents involved in both the

CBI and the ED matters. Taking into consideration the huge

magnitude of the documents involved, it cannot be stated

that the accused is not entitled to take a reasonable time for

inspection of the said documents. In order to avail the right

to fair trial, the accused cannot be denied the right to have

inspection of the documents including the “un-relied upon

documents”.

48. It is further to be noted that a perusal of the second

order of this Court would itself reveal that this Court

recorded the submissions of the learned Solicitor General,

which were made on instructions, that the investigation

would be concluded and final complaint/charge-sheet would

be filed expeditiously and at any rate on or before 3rd July

2024. Accordingly, 8th charge-sheet has been filed on 28th

June 2024 by the ED. It could thus be seen that, even

according to the respondents, the investigation was to be 

33

concluded on or before 3rd July 2024. In that view of the

matter, we find that the contention raised by the learned

ASG is self-contradictory. If the investigation itself was to

conclude on or before 3rd July 2024, the question is how

could the trial have commenced prior to that? If the

investigation itself was to conclude after a period of 8 months

from the date of the first order of this Court, there was no

question of the trial being concluded within a period of 6-8

months from the date of the first order of this Court. We find

that both the High Court and the trial court have failed to

take this into consideration.

49. We find that, on account of a long period of

incarceration running for around 17 months and the trial

even not having been commenced, the appellant has been

deprived of his right to speedy trial.

50. As observed by this Court, the right to speedy trial and

the right to liberty are sacrosanct rights. On denial of these

rights, the trial court as well as the High Court ought to have

given due weightage to this factor.

51. Recently, this Court had an occasion to consider an

application for bail in the case of Javed Gulam Nabi Shaikh 

34

v. State of Maharashtra and Another6 wherein the

accused was prosecuted under the provisions of the Unlawful

Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967. This Court surveyed the

entire law right from the judgment of this Court in the cases

of Gudikanti Narasimhulu and Others v. Public

Prosecutor, High Court of Andhra Pradesh7

, Shri

Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia and Others v. State of Punjab8

,

Hussainara Khatoon and Others (I) v. Home Secretary,

State of Bihar9, Union of India v. K.A. Najeeb10 and

Satender Kumar Antil v. Central Bureau of

Investigation and Another11. The Court observed thus:

“19. If the State or any prosecuting agency

including the court concerned has no wherewithal

to provide or protect the fundamental right of an

accused to have a speedy trial as enshrined under

Article 21 of the Constitution then the State or any

other prosecuting agency should not oppose the

plea for bail on the ground that the crime

committed is serious. Article 21 of

the Constitution applies irrespective of the nature of

the crime.”

52. The Court also reproduced the observations made in

Gudikanti Narasimhulu (supra), which read thus:

6 2024 SCC OnLine SC 1693

7

(1978) 1 SCC 240 : 1977 INSC 232

8

(1980) 2 SCC 565 : 1980 INSC 68

9

(1980) 1 SCC 81 : 1979 INSC 34

10 (2021) 3 SCC 713 : 2021 INSC 50

11 (2022) 10 SCC 51 : 2022 INSC 690

35

“10. In the aforesaid context, we may remind the

trial courts and the High Courts of what came to be

observed by this Court in Gudikanti

Narasimhulu v. Public Prosecutor, High Court

reported in (1978) 1 SCC 240. We quote:

“What is often forgotten, and therefore

warrants reminder, is the object to keep a

person in judicial custody pending trial or

disposal of an appeal. Lord Russel, C.J.,

said [R v. Rose, (1898) 18 Cox]:

“I observe that in this case bail

was refused for the prisoner. It

cannot be too strongly impressed

on the, magistracy of the country

that bail is not to be withheld as a

punishment, but that the

requirements as to bail are merely

to secure the attendance of the

prisoner at trial.””

53. The Court further observed that, over a period of time,

the trial courts and the High Courts have forgotten a very

well-settled principle of law that bail is not to be withheld as

a punishment. From our experience, we can say that it

appears that the trial courts and the High Courts attempt to

play safe in matters of grant of bail. The principle that bail is

a rule and refusal is an exception is, at times, followed in

breach. On account of non-grant of bail even in straight

forward open and shut cases, this Court is flooded with huge

number of bail petitions thereby adding to the huge 

36

pendency. It is high time that the trial courts and the High

Courts should recognize the principle that “bail is rule and

jail is exception”.

54. In the present case, in the ED matter as well as the CBI

matter, 493 witnesses have been named. The case involves

thousands of pages of documents and over a lakh pages of

digitized documents. It is thus clear that there is not even

the remotest possibility of the trial being concluded in the

near future. In our view, keeping the appellant behind the

bars for an unlimited period of time in the hope of speedy

completion of trial would deprive his fundamental right to

liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution. As observed time

and again, the prolonged incarceration before being

pronounced guilty of an offence should not be permitted to

become punishment without trial.

55. As observed by this Court in the case of Gudikanti

Narasimhulu (supra), the objective to keep a person in

judicial custody pending trial or disposal of an appeal is to

secure the attendance of the prisoner at trial.

56. In the present case, the appellant is having deep roots

in the society. There is no possibility of him fleeing away from 

37

the country and not being available for facing the trial. In any

case, conditions can be imposed to address the concern of

the State.

57. Insofar as the apprehension given by the learned ASG

regarding the possibility of tampering the evidence is

concerned, it is to be noted that the case largely depends on

documentary evidence which is already seized by the

prosecution. As such, there is no possibility of tampering

with the evidence. Insofar as the concern with regard to

influencing the witnesses is concerned, the said concern can

be addressed by imposing stringent conditions upon the

appellant.

CONCLUSION:

58. In the result, we pass the following order:

(i) The appeals are allowed;

(ii) The impugned judgment and order dated 21st May

2024 passed by the High Court of Delhi in Bail

Application Nos. 1557 and 1559 of 2024 is quashed

and set aside;

(iii) The appellant is directed to be released on bail in

connection with ED Case No. HIU-II/14/2022 

38

registered against the appellant by the ED and FIR

No. RC0032022A0053 of 2022 registered against the

appellant by the CBI on furnishing bail bonds for a

sum of Rs.10,00,000/- with two sureties of the like

amount;

(iv) The appellant shall surrender his passport with the

Special Court;

(v) The appellant shall report to the Investigating Officer

on every Monday and Thursday between 10-11 AM;

and

(vi) The appellant shall not make any attempt either to

influence the witnesses or to tamper with the

evidence.

59. Pending application(s), if any, shall stand disposed of in

the above terms.

..............................J.

(B.R. GAVAI)

..............................J.

(K.V. VISWANATHAN)

NEW DELHI;

AUGUST 09, 2024.

 

Sunday, August 4, 2024

Lex non cogit ad impossibilia’ means ‘the law does not compel a man to do what he cannot possibly perform’. The said maxim is being followed as an adage and with alacrity. We are constrained to refer to the said maxim on being pained to see that despite a catena of decisions deprecating the practice of putting onerous conditions for pre-arrest bail such orders are being passed without giving due regard to the binding precedents

2024 INSC 567

Page 1 of 10

SLP (Crl.) No.2011 of 2024

Reportable

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

Criminal Appeal No. of 2024

(Arising out of SLP (Crl.) No.2011 of 2024)

Sudeep Chatterjee …Appellant(s)

Versus

The State of Bihar & Anr. …Respondent(s)

J U D G M E N T

C.T. RAVIKUMAR, J.

Leave granted.

1. ‘Lex non cogit ad impossibilia’ means ‘the law does

not compel a man to do what he cannot possibly

perform’. The said maxim is being followed as an adage

and with alacrity. We are constrained to refer to the said

maxim on being pained to see that despite a catena of

decisions deprecating the practice of putting onerous

conditions for pre-arrest bail such orders are being

passed without giving due regard to the binding

precedents. 

Page 2 of 10

SLP (Crl.) No.2011 of 2024

2. The case on hand arises from an order dated

30.08.2023 passed by the High Court of Judicature at

Patna in Criminal Miscellaneous No.57492 of 2023

whereby and whereunder the High Court granted

provisional pre-arrest bail in Complaint Case No.1100 of

2021 registered against the appellant herein, alleging

commission of offences punishable under Section 498A

of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (for short ‘the IPC’) and

Section 4 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961.

3. Heard the learned counsel appearing for the

appellant, learned counsel appearing for the State and

also the learned counsel appearing for the second

respondent. The second respondent filed reply affidavit

and resisted the prayer for interfering with the

conditions put in the impugned order. The counsel for

the State endorsed the view and contentions raised on

behalf of the second respondent.

4. Complaint Case No.1100 of 2021, produced in this

proceeding as Annexure P-1, would reveal that distrust

and discordancy among the couple viz., the appellant

and the second respondent led to disputes and then

divorceable situation. In fact, the appellant moved a

petition for dissolution of their marriage before the Court

of learned Principal Judge, Family Court, Bhagalpur.

Complaint Case No.1100 of 2021 has been filed by the 

Page 3 of 10

SLP (Crl.) No.2011 of 2024

second respondent-wife alleging commission of the

aforesaid offences against the appellant. Earlier, in

connection with the aforesaid Complaint Case, the

appellant moved an application for pre-arrest bail

before the Court of Sessions Judge, Katihar. On its

dismissal vide order dated 24.05.2023, the abovementioned application for an anticipatory bail was

moved before the High Court which culminated in the

impugned order. The relevant paragraphs in the

impugned order that compelled us to make the opening

remarks read thus: -

“6. Considering the desire of the parties, both

the parties are directed to file a joint affidavit

before the Court below to the effect that the parties

have agreed to live together and petitioner must

give specific statement in the said joint affidavit that

he undertakes to fulfill all physical as well as

financial requirement of the complainant so that

she can lead a dignified life without any

interference of any of the family members of the

petitioner.

7. If such affidavit is filed within a period of

four weeks, petitioner, above named, is directed to

be released on Provisional Bail, in the event of his

arrest or surrender before the Court below within

a period of four weeks from today, on furnishing 

Page 4 of 10

SLP (Crl.) No.2011 of 2024

bail bond of Rs. 10,000/- (Ten Thousand) each with

two sureties of the like amount each to the

satisfaction of learned C.J.M, Katihar in connection

with Complaint Case No.1100 of 2021, subject to

the condition as laid down under Section 438(2) of

the Cr.P.C.

8. It is made clear that Provisional bail shall

continue till four weeks from the date of passing of

this order to enable him to file joint affidavit along

with withdrawal order of the divorce case.”

5. Before scanning the conditions as mentioned

above, we think it appropriate to refer to some of the

relevant decisions of this Court, in the contextual

situation. A Constitution Bench of this Court in Shri

Gurbakash Singh Sibbia & Ors. v. State of Punjab1 held

thus: -

“26. We find a great deal of substance in

Mr.Tarkunde’s submission that since denial of bail

amounts to deprivation of personal liberty, the

court should lean against the imposition of

unnecessary restrictions on the scope of Section

438, especially when no such restrictions have

been imposed by the legislature in the terms of that

section. Section 438 is a procedural provision


1

(1980) 2 SCC 565

Page 5 of 10

SLP (Crl.) No.2011 of 2024

which is concerned with the personal liberty of the

individual, who is entitled to the benefit of the

presumption of innocence since he is not, on the

date of his application for anticipatory bail,

convicted of the offence in respect of which he

seeks bail. An over-generous infusion of

constraints and conditions which are not to be

found in Section 438 can make its provisions

constitutionally vulnerable since the right to

personal freedom cannot be made to depend on

compliance with unreasonable restrictions. The

beneficent provision contained in Section 438 must

be saved, not jettisoned. No doubt can linger after

the decision in Maneka Gandhi [Maneka Gandhi v.

Union of India, (1978) 1 SCC 248], that in order to

meet the challenge of Article 21 of the Constitution,

the procedure established by law for depriving a

person of his liberty must be fair, just and

reasonable. Section 438, in the form in which it is

conceived by the legislature, is open to no

exception on the ground that it prescribes a

procedure which is unjust or unfair. We ought, at

all costs, to avoid throwing it open to a

Constitutional challenge by reading words in it

which are not to be found therein.”

(emphasis supplied)

Page 6 of 10

SLP (Crl.) No.2011 of 2024

6. In Parvez Noordin Lokhandwalla v. State of

Maharashtra & Anr.

2

this Court held: -

“…The human right to dignity and the

protection of constitutional safeguards should

not become illusory by the imposition of

conditions which are disproportionate to the

need to secure the presence of the accused, the

proper course of investigation and eventually to

ensure a fair trial. The conditions which are

imposed by the court must bear a proportional

relationship to the purpose of imposing the

conditions. The nature of the risk which is

posed by the grant of permission as sought in

this case must be carefully evaluated in each

case.”

7. We do not think it necessary to burden this

judgment by multiplying the authorities on this subject

as the constant and consistent view of this Court on

matters granting a prayer for bail under Section 438 of

the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (for short ‘the

Cr.P.C.’) is that after forming an opinion, taking note of

all relevant aspects, that bail is grantable, conditions

shall not be put to make it impossible and impracticable


2

(2020) 10 SCC 77

Page 7 of 10

SLP (Crl.) No.2011 of 2024

for the grantee to comply with. As held by this Court in

Parvez Noordin’s case (supra), the ultimate purpose of

putting conditions while granting pre-arrest bail is to

secure the presence of the accused and thus, eventually

to ensure a fair trial and also for the smooth flow of the

investigating process.

8. In view of the unfortunate instances imposing very

onerous conditions, especially in cases which are

nothing but an off-shoot of matrimonial discordance, we

would reiterate the view that courts have to be very

cautious in imposing conditions while granting bail upon

finding pre-arrest bail to be grantable. This is to be done

warily, especially when the couple concerned who are

litigating in divorce proceedings, jointly though

lukewarmly, agreed to attempt to reconcile and re-unite.

The impugned order itself would reveal that the parties

who were about to part company, rethought and

expressed their readiness to bury the hatchet and to reunite and the appellant has also agreed to withdraw the

divorce case. One should not be oblivious of the fact that

a boy or girl, will be bonded to kith and kins besides

parents and siblings and such bonded relationships

cannot be severed solely due to affine and affinity

towards the affinal as also cognate relationships has to

be taken forward with same cordialness. Relation 

Page 8 of 10

SLP (Crl.) No.2011 of 2024

through marriage sans support from both the families

may not flourish but may perish. Viewed from any angle,

putting conditions as has been done in this case,

requiring a person to give an affidavit carrying a specific

statement in the form of an undertaking that he would

fulfil all physical as well as financial requirements of the

other spouse so that she could lead a dignified life

without interference of any of the family members of the

appellant, can only be described as an absolutely

improbable and impracticable condition. The second

respondent may not misuse such a condition. However,

giving such a carte blanche, is nothing but making one

dominant over the other, which in no way act as a catalyst

to create a comely situation in domesticity. On the

contrary, such conditions will only be counterproductive. There can be no doubt that a re-union after

a marital discord is possible only if the parties are put to

a conducive situation to regain the mutual respect,

mutual love and affection. No doubt putting a condition

that one of the parties should undertake to fulfil all

physical as well as financial requirements of the other

party could not bring about such a situation. It may

compel one among the couple to be susceptive and turn

the other supercilious. When the couple who are trying

to bridge their emotional differences putting one among 

Page 9 of 10

SLP (Crl.) No.2011 of 2024

them under such an onerous condition would deprive a

dignified life not only to the grantee but to both. It is to

be noted that with the said conditions the appellant was

granted only a provisional bail. In short, we stress upon

the need to put compliable conditions while granting

bail, recognizing the human right to live with dignity and

with a view to secure the presence of the accused as also

unhindered course of investigation, ultimately to ensure

a fair trial. In respect of matters relating to matrimonial

cases, conditions shall be put in such a way to make the

grantee of the bail as also the griever to regain the lost

love and affection and to come back to peaceful

domesticity. In this case, the parties, obviously,

expressed their desire and willingness to live together

and in that regard the appellant-husband, expressed his

willingness to withdraw the divorce case.

9. The above discussions tend us to hold that the

conditions as mentioned above contained in paragraph

6 of the impugned order for the release of the appellant

on the provisional bail cannot be sustained and as such

the said conditions to give undertaking that the appellant

would fulfil all physical and financial requirements by

way of an affidavit are set aside. However, this shall not

be understood to have an order releasing both of their

marital obligations and duties and we hope and trust that 

Page 10 of 10

SLP (Crl.) No.2011 of 2024

the couple will continue to strive to restore their

domesticity.

10. The order granting the bail is made absolute and

the appellant in the event of his arrest be released on bail

subject to the same terms stipulated by the High Court

under the impugned order regarding suretyship as also

the liability to comply with conditions as laid down under

Section 438(2), Cr. P.C. Needless to say, that this will

further be subject to the final outcome of the pending

complaint case. The impugned order stands set aside

only to the aforesaid extent and accordingly, the appeal

stands disposed of.

11. Pending application(s), if any, stands disposed of.

……………………, J.

 (C.T. Ravikumar)

………………….….……, J.

(Prashant Kumar Mishra)

New Delhi;

August 02, 2024. 

Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 – s. 34 – Application for setting aside arbitral awards – Period of limitation for filing petition u/s. 34 – On facts, petition u/s. 34 filed by the appellant challenging the arbitral award – Dismissed by the High Court, holding that it was not filed within the period specified under sub-section (3) of s. 34 – Correctness:

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[2024] 7 S.C.R. 1 : 2024 INSC 477


The State of West Bengal represented through the Secretary & Ors. v. Rajpath Contractors and Engineers Ltd.

(Civil Appeal No. 7426 of 2023)


08 July 2024


[Abhay S. Oka* and Pankaj Mithal, JJ.]

Issue for Consideration


Issue arose as regards correctness of the order passed by the High Court dismissing the petition u/s. 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, holding that it was not filed within the period specified under sub-section (3) of s. 34 of the Act.


Headnotes


Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 – s. 34 – Application for setting aside arbitral awards – Period of limitation for filing petition u/s. 34 – On facts, petition u/s. 34 filed by the appellant challenging the arbitral award – Dismissed by the High Court, holding that it was not filed within the period specified under sub-section (3) of s. 34 – Correctness:


Held: Period of limitation for filing a petition u/s. 34 will have to be reckoned from the day when the appellants received the award, i.e. 30th June 2022 – In view of s. 12(1) of the Limitation Act, the day from which the limitation period is to be reckoned must be excluded, as such 30th June 2022 will have to be excluded while computing the limitation period – Thus, in effect, the period of limitation, started running on 1st July 2022 – Period of limitation is of three months and not ninety days – Thus, from the starting point of 1st July 2022, the last day of the period of three months would be 30th September 2022 – Pooja vacation started on 1st October 2022 – Three months provided by way of limitation expired a day before the commencement of the pooja vacation – Furthermore, the prescribed period within the meaning of s. 4 of the Limitation Act ended on 30th September 2022 – Thus, the appellants are not entitled to take benefit of s. 4 – As per the proviso to sub-section (3) of s. 34, the period of limitation could have been extended by a maximum period of 30 days – Maximum period of 30 days expired on 30th October 2022 – Petition was filed on 31st October 2022 – Thus, the High Court was right in holding that the petition u/s. 34 was not filed within the period specified under sub-section (3) of s. 34 of the Act. [Paras 6, 7, 10,11]


Case Law Cited


State of Himachal Pradesh and Another v. Himachal Techno Engineers and Another [2010] 8 SCR 1025 : (2010) 12 SCC 210; Assam Urban Water Supply & Sewerage Board v. Subash Projects & Mktg. Ltd. [2012] 1 SCR 403 : (2012) 2 SCC 624; Union of India v. Popular Construction Co. [2001] Supp. 3 SCR 619 : (2001) 8 SCC 470 – referred to.


List of Acts


Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996; Limitation Act of 1963; Constitution of India; General Clauses Act, 1897.


List of Keywords


Arbitral awards; Period of limitation; Limitation period to be reckoned.


Case Arising From


CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Civil Appeal No.7426 of 2023


From the Judgment and Order dated 04.05.2023 of the High Court of Calcutta in AP No. 737 of 2022


Appearances for Parties


Ms. Madhumita Bhattacharjee, Ms. Urmila Kar Purkayasthe, Ms. Srija Choudhury, Advs. for the Appellants.


Saurav Agrawal, Priyankar Saha, Sarad Kumar Singhania, Mrs. Rashmi Singhania, Anshuman Choudhary, Advs. for the Respondent.


Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court


Judgment


Abhay S. Oka, J.


FACTUAL ASPECTS


1.The first appellant – the State of West Bengal appointed the respondent as a contractor for the construction of a bridge. As there was a dispute between the parties, the respondent invoked the arbitration clause in the contract, and a sole arbitrator was appointed. On 30th June 2022, the Arbitral Tribunal passed an award directing the appellants to pay a sum of Rs.2,11,67,054.00 (Two Crores Eleven Lakhs Sixty-Seven Thousand Fifty-Four Rupees Only) to the respondent with interest thereon, as directed. The counter-claim made by the appellants was dismissed. The appellants received a copy of the award on the same day. The High Court of Judicature at Calcutta was closed for pooja vacation from 1st October 2022 to 30th October 2022 (both days inclusive). On 31st October 2022, the appellants filed a petition under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (for short, ‘the Arbitration Act’) to challenge the award. By the impugned order dated 4th May 2023, the High Court dismissed the petition under Section 34 of the Arbitration Act filed by the appellants on the ground of bar of limitation. The High Court held that the period of limitation for filing a petition under Section 34 expired on 30th September 2022. Therefore, the appellants are not entitled to the benefit of Section 4 of the Limitation Act of 1963 (for short, ‘the Limitation Act’).


2.Being aggrieved by the view taken by the High Court, the appellants are in this appeal. We may note here that under the impugned judgment, the High Court granted a certificate to prefer an appeal before this Court by exercising powers under Article 133 (1) and Article 134(A)(a) of the Constitution of India.


SUBMISSIONS


3.The learned counsel appearing for the appellants submitted that as the period of limitation for filing a petition under Section 34 of the Arbitration Act ought to have been calculated from 1st July 2022, the prescribed period of limitation ended on 1st October 2022, which was the first day of pooja vacation. Therefore, the petition under Section 34 of the Arbitration Act filed immediately after the re-opening of the Court on 31st October 2022 must be held to be within limitation. The learned counsel relied upon Section 9 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 (for short, ‘the General Clauses Act’). The learned counsel also submitted that the petition could not be e-filed in pooja vacation as the relevant e-filing notification provided for e-filing of only urgent matters during the vacations. The learned counsel relied upon a decision of this Court in the case of State of Himachal Pradesh and Another v. Himachal Techno Engineers and Another1.


4.The learned counsel appearing for the respondent supported the findings recorded by the High Court. He submitted that in any event, the benefit of Section 4 of the Limitation Act is available only if the proceedings are filed within the prescribed period of limitation, which will be three months in this case in terms of Section 34(3) of the Arbitration Act. The learned counsel relied upon a decision made by this court in the case of Assam Urban Water Supply & Sewerage Board v Subash Projects & Mktg. Ltd.2. He also invited our attention to a decision of this Court in the case of Union of India v. Popular Construction Company 3. He submitted that, as held by this Court in the said decision, the applicability of Section 5 of the Limitation Act is excluded in view of the language used in the proviso to sub-section (3) of Section 34.


OUR VIEW


5.The facts are undisputed. The award made by the Arbitral Tribunal on 30th June 2022 was served upon the appellant on the same day. Between 1st October 2022 and 30th October 2022 (both days inclusive), the High Court was closed for pooja vacation. The petition under Section 34 of the Arbitration Act was filed on 31st October 2022.


6.The period of limitation for filing a petition under Section 34 of the Arbitration Act is governed by sub-section (3) of Section 34. Sub-section (3) of Section 34 reads thus:


“(3) An application for setting aside may not be made after three months have elapsed from the date on which the party making that application had received the arbitral award or, if a request had been made under section 33, from the date on which that request had been disposed of by the arbitral tribunal:


Provided that if the Court is satisfied that the applicant was prevented by sufficient cause from making the application within the said period of three months it may entertain the application within a further period of thirty days, but not thereafter.”


7.As per Section 12(1) of the Limitation Act, the day from which the limitation period is to be reckoned must be excluded. In this case, the period of limitation for filing a petition under Section 34 will have to be reckoned from 30th June 2022, when the appellants received the award. In view of Section 12(1) of the Limitation Act, 30th June 2022 will have to be excluded while computing the limitation period. Thus, in effect, the period of limitation, in the facts of the case, started running on 1st July 2022. The period of limitation is of three months and not ninety days. Therefore, from the starting point of 1st July 2022, the last day of the period of three months would be 30th September 2022. As noted earlier, the pooja vacation started on 1st October 2022.


8.We may note here that Section 43 of the Arbitration Act provides that the Limitation Act shall apply to the arbitrations as it applies to proceedings in the Court. We may note here that the consistent view taken by this Court right from the decision in the case of Union of India v. Popular Construction Co.3 is that given the language used in proviso to sub-section (3) of Section 34 of the Arbitration Act, the applicability of Section 5 of the Limitation Act to the petition under Section 34 of the Arbitration Act has been excluded.


9.Now, we proceed to consider whether the appellant will be entitled to the benefit of Section 4 of the Limitation Act. Section 4 of the Limitation Act reads thus:


“4. Expiry of prescribed period when court is closed.—Where the prescribed period for any suit, appeal or application expires on a day when the court is closed, the suit, appeal or application may be instituted, preferred or made on the day when the court re-opens.


Explanation.—A court shall be deemed to be closed on any day within the meaning of this section if during any part of its normal working hours it remains closed on that day.”


(underline supplied)


The meaning of “the prescribed period” is no longer res integra. In the case of Assam Urban Water Supply & Sewerage Board v. Subash Projects & Mktg. Ltd.2, in paragraphs nos. 13 and 14, the law has been laid down on the subject. The said paragraphs read thus:


“13. The crucial words in Section 4 of the 1963 Act are “prescribed period”. What is the meaning of these words?


14. Section 2(j) of the 1963 Act defines:


“2. (j) ‘period of limitation’ [which] means the period of limitation prescribed for any suit, appeal or application by the Schedule, and ‘prescribed period’ means the period of limitation computed in accordance with the provisions of this Act;


Section 2(j) of the 1963 Act when read in the context of Section 34(3) of the 1996 Act, it becomes amply clear that the prescribed period for making an application for setting aside an arbitral award is three months. The period of 30 days mentioned in the proviso that follows sub-section (3) of Section 34 of the 1996 Act is not the “period of limitation” and, therefore, not the “prescribed period” for the purposes of making the application for setting aside the arbitral award. The period of 30 days beyond three months which the court may extend on sufficient cause being shown under the proviso appended to sub-section (3) of Section 34 of the 1996 Act being not the “period of limitation” or, in other words, the “prescribed period”, in our opinion, Section 4 of the 1963 Act is not, at all, attracted to the facts of the present case.”


(underline supplied)


Even in this case, this Court was dealing with the period of limitation for preferring a petition under Section 34 of the Arbitration Act. We may note that the decision in the case of State of Himachal Pradesh and Another v. Himachal Techno Engineers and Another 1 which is relied upon by the appellant, follows the aforesaid decision.


10.In the facts of the case in hand, the three months provided by way of limitation expired a day before the commencement of the pooja vacation, which commenced on 1st October 2022. Thus, the prescribed period within the meaning of Section 4 of the Limitation Act ended on 30th September 2022. Therefore, the appellants were not entitled to take benefit of Section 4 of the Limitation Act. As per the proviso to sub-section (3) of Section 34, the period of limitation could have been extended by a maximum period of 30 days. The maximum period of 30 days expired on 30th October 2022. As noted earlier, the petition was filed on 31st October 2022.


11.Thus, looking from the angle, the High Court was right in holding that the petition filed by the appellants under Section 34 of the Arbitration Act was not filed within the period specified under sub-section (3) of Section 34. Hence, we find no merit in the appeal, and it is, accordingly, dismissed.


Result of the case: Appeal Dismissed.


1 [2010] 8 SCR 1025 : (2010) 12 SCC 210


2 [2012] 1 SCR 403 : (2012) 2 SCC 624


3 [2001] Supp. 3 SCR 619 : (2001) 8 SCC 470


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Penal Code, 1860 – ss. 302/34 – Conviction and sentence under – On facts, dispute over construction of wall – Verbal abuses hurled at the complainant – Two persons who constructed the wall physically assaulted by the opposite party, the appellant inflicted knife blow to one, and later both of them succumbed to their injuries – Appellant convicted u/ss. 302, 147, 148, and 149 and sentenced to life imprisonment – High Court upheld the appellant’s conviction u/s. 302/34, however, acquitted him u/ss. 147 and 148 – Correctness:

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[2024] 7 S.C.R. 218 : 2024 INSC 480


Dharmendra Kumar @ Dhamma v. State of Madhya Pradesh

(Criminal Appeal No. 2806 of 2024)


08 July 2024


[Surya Kant* and K. V. Viswanathan, JJ.]

Issue for Consideration


High Court if justified in upholding conviction and sentence of the appellant under ss. 302/34 IPC; the contradictions or discrepancies and the absence of blood group classification or inconclusive FSL results on the recovered weapon, if detrimental to the prosecution’s case; the Investigating Officer’s failure to obtain a fitness certificate from the medical officer, if would invalidate the consideration of the statement of the deceased recorded u/s. 161 CrPC before his death, as a ‘dying declaration; and disclosure statement made by the appellant leading to the discovery and subsequent seizure of the knife, if admissible in evidence.


Headnotes


Penal Code, 1860 – ss. 302/34 – Conviction and sentence under – On facts, dispute over construction of wall – Verbal abuses hurled at the complainant – Two persons who constructed the wall physically assaulted by the opposite party, the appellant inflicted knife blow to one, and later both of them succumbed to their injuries – Appellant convicted u/ss. 302, 147, 148, and 149 and sentenced to life imprisonment – High Court upheld the appellant’s conviction u/s. 302/34, however, acquitted him u/ss. 147 and 148 – Correctness:


Held: No contradictions or discrepancies in the prosecution case that would compel to take a view different than that of the courts below – When the testimonies of eyewitnesses are consistent, unimpeachable, and duly corroborated by medical evidence or the recovery of incriminating material like the weapon used, the deficiencies, if any, in the recording of FIR alone do not constitute a valid ground to overturn the conviction or undermine the prosecution case – Non-reading of contents of FIR to the complainant would not effect the prosecution case – Presence of appellant on the place of occurrence established – Disclosure statement by the appellant leading to the discovery and seizure of the knife admissible in evidence – Knife injury can be attributed to the appellant – Absence of blood group classification or inconclusive FSL results on the recovered weapon would not effect the prosecution case – Also, mere non-obtainment of a medical fitness certificate would not deter the court from considering a properly recorded statement u/s. 161 CrPC, to be a dying declaration – Thus, the order passed by the High Court upheld – Evidence. [Paras 44, 51, 58, 61, 69, 70]


Evidence – Contradictions in the prosecution case – Omission on the part of the Investigating Officer in marking a spot where incident took place, on the site plan – Effect:


Held: Mere omission on the part of the Investigating Officer does not deflect the prosecution case – Site plan merely denotes the location of the incident without implying further details – In light of the fact that the persons who had seen that to which they have testified, due weightage must be given to their first-hand version – Their evidence cannot be jettisoned merely because the I.O. forgot to describe the room on the spot map – It is a case where eyewitnesses corroborated each other; their depositions are reinforced by deceased himself in his statement recorded u/s. 161 CrPC, and the location of the incident is depicted on the spot map as a `brick room’ – Thus, stands established that there was another Jhuggi where the deceased sought refuge and was eventually assaulted – So-called contradiction fails to invade the corpus delicti. [Paras 33, 34]


First information report – Non-reading of contents of FIR to the complainant – Effect:


Held: Subject FIR fully satisfies all the ingredients of s. 154 CrPC – During the cross-examination, the complainant-informant claimed that the Police neither read out the FIR to her nor did it mention the contents of her statements which were recorded by the Police – Assuming it to be correct, such omission did not cause any prejudice to the appellant – Not a case where the appellant was not provided with a copy of the FIR or the charge sheet, which could have hindered his ability to effectively cross-examine the informant – Also no suggestion that he was not present at the scene, that he did not participate in the incident, or that he was falsely implicated for any reason – Appellant, thus, failed to demonstrate any prejudice resulting from the alleged non-reading of the contents of the FIR to the informant – Reading over of the information after it is written down, the signing of the said information by the informant, and the entry of its substance in the prescribed manner not obligatory, but procedural in nature, and the omission of any of them does not impact the legal consequences resulting from the information provided – Furthermore, when testimonies of eyewitnesses are consistent, unimpeachable, and duly corroborated by medical evidence or recovery of weapon used, the deficiencies, if any, in recording of FIR alone do not constitute a valid ground to overturn the conviction or undermine the prosecution case. [Paras 40-44]


Evidence – Presence of appellant on the place of occurrence, if doubtful:


Held: No reason to doubt that the appellant was not only present at the scene of crime, but he actively participated in the occurrence and gave one of the fatal blows to deceased – Submission of poor visibility owing to darkness at the spot of occurrence not tenable – Place of occurrence, was adjacent to that of the complainant making it easier for the witnesses to observe and identify the accused persons – Each accused, particularly the appellant, was familiar to the eyewitnesses – Considering that the incident occurred on a summer night, there would have been minimal obstruction to visibility for the witnesses – Appellant, in his 313 CrPC statement, nowhere took the plea of alibi also did not pursue this defence during the cross-examination of witnesses either, as also did not adduce any evidence in support thereof – Furthermore, not a case where the complainant or prosecution witness held grudges against the appellant and fabricated a story to implicate him after the incident – Rather, the name of the appellant surfaced in the very first version, duly recorded, within less than two hours of the occurrence – Also no motive to falsely implicate the appellant indicated. [Paras 48, 49, 51]


Evidence – Disclosure statement by the appellant leading to the discovery and seizure of the knife-weapon of offence – Admissibility in evidence – Knife injury, if can be attributed to the appellant:


Held: Disclosure statement of the appellant to the extent it led to the recovery of a knife correctly admitted in evidence – Prosecution version was accepted by the courts below – It cannot be ignored that both eyewitnesses, are illiterate labourers, and their testimonies were recorded after a considerable length of time had passed since the occurrence – Both the witnesses emphatically denied that they were tutored by Police or anyone else – Unfiltered testimony of a rustic witness, even if marred with some minor inconsistencies or discrepancies, cannot debilitate its perseverance – Evidence of such witnesses has to be evaluated comprehensively and carefully, especially when the cross-examination discreetly suggests that the accused persons did make a bid to win them over by exerting some extraneous pressure – Thus, the statements of the prosecution witness does not suffer from the discrepancy of such a nature that they should be discarded – Even the testimony of the Investigating Officer is devoid of any ulterior motive or attempt to fabricate evidence or falsely implicate the appellant and his co-accused – It would be too unfair and unreasonable to expect a witness, unless parroted, to recall every minute detail of the occurrence and present it with a totally accumulative narrative – Appellant’s submission that knife injury was not caused by him, bereft of any merit. [Paras 56-58]


Evidence – Absence of blood group classification – Inconclusive FSL results on the recovered weapon – Effect on the prosecution case:


Held: Upon a thorough examination of the FSL report, its confirmed that the blood group classification test conducted on the recovered knife yielded inconclusive results – However, the human blood was detected on the knife recovered at the instance of the appellant – Various weapons, including lathis and even the knife attributed to accused underwent an FSL examination, yet, no traces of human blood were found on them – Notably, human blood was solely found on the knife used by the appellant – Furthermore, non-explanation of human blood on the weapon of crime constitutes a circumstance against the accused – It is incumbent upon the accused to provide an explanation regarding the presence of human blood on the weapon – Appellant failed to do so – While it may not be a decisive factor to determine the guilt, but conspicuous silence does lend support to prosecution case. [Para 61]


Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – s. 161 – Statement made by deceased to a police officer u/s. 161, regarding cause of death – Admissibility as dying declaration:


Held: s.161 empowers the Police to examine orally any person who is acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case under investigation – Police may reduce such statement into writing also – s. 162(1), nonetheless, mandates that no statement made by any person to a Police Officer, if reduced to writing, be signed by the person making it, nor shall such statement be used in evidence except to contradict a witness in the manner provided by s. 145 of the Evidence Act – However, Sub-Section (2) of s. 162 carves out an exception to Sub-Section (1) that nothing in s. 162 shall be deemed to apply to any statement falling within the ambit of clause (1) of s. 32 of the Evidence Act – Statement made by a person who is dead, as to the cause of his death or to the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death, to a Police Officer and which has been recorded u/s. 161, shall be relevant and admissible, notwithstanding the express bar against use of such statement in evidence contained therein – In such eventuality, the statement recorded u/s. 161 assumes the character of a dying declaration – Since extraordinary credence has been given to such dying declaration, the court ought to be extremely careful and cautious in placing reliance thereupon. [Para 64]


Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – s. 161 – Consideration of the statement of one of the deceased recorded u/s. 161 before his death, as a dying declaration – Non-obtainment of a medical fitness certificate by the investigating officer from the medical officer – Effect:


Held: As regard to the assessment of mental fitness of the person making a dying declaration, it is indubitably the responsibility of the court to ensure that the declarant was in a sound state of mind – This is because there are no rigid procedures mandated for recording a dying declaration – If an eyewitness asserts that the deceased was conscious and capable of making the declaration, the medical opinion cannot override such affirmation, nor can the dying declaration be disregarded solely for want of a doctor’s fitness certification – Requirement for a dying declaration to be recorded in the presence of a doctor, following certification of the declarant’s mental fitness, is merely a matter of prudence – On facts, investigating officer recorded the statement instantly, a day after the incident, categorically stating that the medical report did not mention that the condition of the declarant, was serious in nature – On perusal of the statement, it is clear that the declarant was in a fit condition as not only did he properly explain the incident but has also markedly specified the role of the appellant – That apart, the injuries found during the post-mortem examination conducted by the doctor have duly corroborated the statement of deceased – Mere non-obtainment of a medical fitness certificate would not deter the Court from considering a properly recorded statement u/s. 161 to be a dying declaration. [Para 70]


First information report – Object of:


Held: FIR is not a substantive piece of evidence, and it can be used only to corroborate or contradict the version of an informant – Also written complaint to register the FIR not necessary – Even an oral communication to the Police disclosing the commission of a cognizable offence is sufficient to register the FIR – Object of the FIR is to inform the jurisdictional Magistrate and the Police Administration of the offence reported to the Police Station; to acquaint the Judicial Officer before whom the case is ultimately tried as to what are the actual facts stated immediately after the occurrence and on what materials the investigation commenced; and most importantly, to safeguard the accused against subsequent variations, exaggerations or additions. [Paras 38, 39]


Case Law Cited


Shivanna v. State of Hunsur Town Police [2010] 10 SCR 410 : (2010) 15 SCC 91; State v. N.S. Gnaneswaran (2013) 3 SCC 594; State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu [2005] Supp. 2 SCR 79 : (2005) 11 SCC 600; Heera v. State of Rajasthan [2007] 7 SCR 1065 (2007) : 10 SCC 175; Nathuni Yadav v. State of Bihar [1996] Supp. 10 SCR 905 : (1998) 9 SCC 238; Pulukuri Kottaya v. Emperor (1946) SCC OnLine PC 47; Raja @ Rajinder v. State of Haryana [2015] 3 SCR 947 : (2015) 11 SCC 43; John Pandian v. State [2010] 15 SCR 1012 : (2010) 14 SCC 129; Mukeshbhai Gopalbhai Barot v. State of Gujarat [2010] 9 SCR 632 : (2010) 12 SCC 224; Sri Bhagwan v. State of U.P. [2012] 12 SCR 774 : (2013) 12 SCC 137; Pradeep Bisoi v. State of Odisha [2018] 12 SCR 947 : (2019) 11 SCC 500; Koli Chunilal Savji v. State of Gujarat [1999] Supp. 3 SCR 284 : (1999) 9 SCC 562; Laxman v. State of Maharashtra [2002] Supp. 1 SCR 697 : (2002) 6 SCC 710 – referred to.


List of Acts


Penal Code, 1860; Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973; Evidence Act, 1872.


List of Keywords


Contradictions or discrepancies; Absence of blood group classification; Inconclusive FSL; Medical fitness certificate; Statement of the declarant recorded u/s. 161 CrPC before his death; Dying declaration; Disclosure statement; Admissible in evidence; Testimonies of eyewitnesses; First information report; Plea of alibi; Onus to prove; Test Identification tests.


Case Arising From


CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Criminal Appeal No.2806 of 2024


From the Judgment and Order dated 19.12.2017 of the High Court of M.P. Principal Seat at Jabalpur in CRA No.193 of 2006


Appearances for Parties


Dushyant Dave, Sr. Adv., Kuldip Singh, Mrs. Ayushi Gaur, Gaurav Yadava, Advs. for the Appellant.


Ms. Mrinal Gopal Elker, Saurabh Singh, Ashish Rawat, Advs. for the Respondent.


Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court


Judgment


Surya Kant, J.


Leave granted.


2.This appeal is directed against the judgment dated 19.12.2017, passed by the High Court of Madhya Pradesh at Jabalpur (hereinafter, ‘High Court’), dismissing the Criminal Appeal filed by the Appellant against his conviction and sentence under Section 302 read with Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (hereinafter, ‘IPC’) awarded by the Learned Additional Sessions Judge, Bhopal (hereinafter, ‘Trial Court’) vide judgment and order dated 10.11.2005.


FACTS :


3.At this juncture, it is imperative to delve into the factual matrix to set out the context of the present proceedings.


4.FIR No. 268 dated 20.06.2004 was registered at Police Station Kamla Nagar, Bhopal under Sections 307, 147, 148, and 149 of IPC on the statement of Usha Bai (P.W.10). The said Complainant stated that on the night of 20.06.2004, at around 9:30 pm, she was overseeing the construction of the wall of her Jhuggi (hut) by Devi Singh @ Tillu, and Tularam. At that moment, accused persons, Ahmad and his wife, Kanija Bi, arrived and objected to the construction. Tillu asserted that it was their Jhuggi and they had the right to build the wall. Meanwhile, other accused persons, including Vijay, Dharmendra @ Dhamma (Appellant), Katchu @ Ramswaroop, Ballu, Ravi, and Asgar, arrived and began verbally abusing the Complainant, Tillu, and Tularam. The situation intensified as all the accused, including the Appellant, rushed to physically assault Tillu. In defence, Tillu sought refuge inside a nearby unoccupied Jhuggi belonging to one Bhairav Shastri, locking the door from inside. However, the accused forcibly entered Bhairav Shastri’s Jhuggi by breaking open the door. Once inside, they surrounded Tillu, with the Appellant delivering a knife blow to Tillu in his abdomen, while Asgar inflicted another blow slightly lower on his stomach. Following this, the other accused persons also physically assaulted Tillu using their fists and sticks. Meanwhile, Tularam attempted to intervene, but he too was subjected to blows from Katchu and Ahmad, resulting in injuries to his head and hands. Upon hearing the commotion, residents from the locality arrived at the scene, prompting the accused to flee. The Complainant further stated that she attempted to intervene but was threatened with dire consequences if she did not leave the area.


5.After the incident, Tillu and Tularam, both injured, were taken to Katju Hospital for medical aid. The Emergency Medical Officer, Dr. R.S. Vijayvargiya (P.W.4), noted Tillu’s lack of pulse, as well as two stab wounds in his chest and three stab wounds in his abdomen, indicating a critical condition. Upon examining Tularam, Dr. Vijayvargiya observed severe injuries to the occipital and temporal regions of his head. Subsequently, both injured persons were referred to Hamidia Hospital for further treatment.


6.Tillu unfortunately succumbed to his injuries and was declared dead, while Tularam was still alive and was admitted to Hamidia Hospital.


7.Dr. C.S. Jain (P.W. 13) conducted the post-mortem examination on Tillu, determining that the cause of death was shock and haemorrhage resulting from multiple stab wounds across the body and head injuries. The wounds were inflicted by a sharp, penetrating weapon, causing the stab injuries, while the head injuries were inflicted by a hard and blunt object. The combined injuries to the head and abdomen were deemed sufficient to cause death.


8.Girish Bohre, the Investigating Officer (P.W.14), commenced the investigation by preparing a spot map (Ex.P.2) and also seized the blood-stained pieces of the floor from the place of occurrence (Ex.P.31).


9.As Tularam was alive though critically injured, the Investigating Officer (P.W. 14) documented his statement (Ex.P.40) under Section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (hereinafter, ‘CrPC’) wherein Tularam recounted the events during the subject incident. Tularam mentioned that he and Tillu were constructing the wall of Usha Bai’s Jhuggi at Navgrah Mandir. Around 9:15 pm, Ahmad and his wife, Kanija Bi, approached and opposed the construction. Despite Tillu’s assertion that it was their wall, Ahmad persisted in preventing them. Shortly after, Vijay, Dharmendra @ Dhamma (Appellant), Katchu @ Ramaswaroop, Ballu, Ravi, and Asgar arrived, initiating verbal abuse. The accused then assaulted Tillu, who sought refuge inside Bhairav Shastri’s nearby Jhuggi, locking himself inside. The assailants forcibly entered and surrounding Tillu, Dhamma (Appellant) inflicted a knife blow to Tillu’s abdomen, while Asgar also stabbed him near the navel. Additionally, the other accused engaged in physical assault using sticks, lathis, and fists. When Tularam attempted to intervene, Katchu and Ahmad struck him with sticks, inflicting injuries to his head, hands, and body. Tularam noted that Lallu (P.W.11) and one Ramesh were eyewitnesses to the incident.


10.Tularam too passed away approximately five days after undergoing surgery in Hamidia Hospital. Dr. Neelam Srivastava (P.W.15) conducted his post-mortem examination, concluding that the cause of death was cardio-respiratory failure resulting from a head injury. Moreover, the severity of the injury was such that it could have led to death under normal circumstances. This injury, deemed homicidal, was inflicted by hard, blunt, and heavy objects.


11.During the course of investigation, the Investigating Officer (P.W. 14), following a disclosure statement (Ex.P.14) made by the Appellant, recovered a knife, which the Appellant had concealed in Barrack No. 2 of Police Line Nehru Nagar. Lallu Vishwakarma (P.W.11) was a witness to this recovery. The knife was then submitted for forensic examination (Ex.P.39), where the human blood on the knife was detected but the blood group classification was inconclusive.


12.After the investigation, all the accused persons, including the Appellant, were charged under Sections 147, 148, 302/149, 307/149 of IPC.


13.In the trial, the prosecution examined as many as 15 witnesses to bring the guilt home, including Usha Bai, P.W.10 (Complainant) and Lallu Vishwakarma, P.W.11, both eyewitnesses. The prosecution case is largely based upon the version of these two eyewitnesses, who claimed that the fatal blows were caused to the victims in front of them.


14.The Trial Court, having found the version of the two eyewitnesses (P.W.10 and P.W.11) to be trustworthy, which was duly corroborated by the testimony of the Investigating Officer (P.W.14), the medical evidence and the recovery of the weapon, held the Appellant guilty of offences under Sections 302, 147, 148, and 149 of IPC and sentenced him to undergo life imprisonment.


15.The High Court, vide the impugned judgment, upheld the Appellant’s conviction under Section 302 read with Section 34 of the IPC, though it has acquitted him under Sections 147 and 148 of the IPC. The High Court has held that: (i) The presence of the Appellant stood established through the testimony of Lallu Vishwakarma (P.W.11), and his cross-examination further confirms that there was no motive for falsely incriminating the Appellant; (ii) The allegations against the Appellant, as detailed by eyewitnesses Usha Bai (P.W.10) and Lallu Vishwakarma (P.W.11), were duly corroborated by the medical opinions of Dr. C.S. Jain (P.W.13) and Dr. Neelam Shrivastava (P.W.15); (iii) The statement given by deceased Tularam, as recorded by P.W.14, aligns with other evidence relied upon for conviction; (iv) The weapon (knife) was seized based on the disclosure statement of the Appellant, making the recovery admissible under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (hereinafter, ‘IEA’); and (v) the testimony of Investigating Officer, P.W.14, also corroborated the weapon’s seizure.


16.Discontented with his conviction, the Appellant is in appeal before us.


Contentions Of Parties :


17.Mr. Dushyant Dave, learned Senior Counsel for the Appellant, argued that the High Court erred in upholding the Appellant’s conviction under Section 302/34 IPC. Substantiating this, he made the following submissions:


a)The prosecution’s case presented inherent contradictions. On the one hand, the two eyewitnesses (P.W.10 and P.W.11), relied upon by the courts below, testified that the entire incident unfolded inside Bhairav Shastri’s Jhuggi, situated near that of the Complainant, (P.W.10). On the other hand, the Investigating Officer (P.W.14), during his cross-examination, stated that no quarrel took place near P.W.10’s Jhuggi, and that there was no ‘Bhairon Baba Temple’ or residence near the site of occurrence. It was argued that since the incident admittedly occurred inside a Jhuggi, it is unbelievable that the eyewitnesses could have seen it.


b)It was contended that the presence of the Appellant at the place of incident is stoutly disputed, and such an inference can be well drawn from the statement of the Complainant herself. The incident took place around 9:30 pm, posing visibility challenges for the witnesses. Usha Bai (the Complainant, P.W.10) has deposed that she was familiar with accused Ahamd, Asghar Ali, Ravi, and Kanija Bi but was aware of the other accused by name only. This clearly indicates that P.W.10 was not acquainted with the Appellant. Barring the eyewitness account, there is no other credible evidence to suggest that the Appellant was present or participated in the occurrence.


c)Further, the knife injury could not be attributed to the Appellant, as testified by Lallu Vishwakarma (P.W.11), who explicitly stated that he couldn’t discern who assaulted whom.


d)That apart, it was urged that the weapon confiscated from the Appellant underwent a Forensic Science Laboratory (hereinafter, ‘FSL’) examination, producing inconclusive results, which bolsters the Appellant’s case that he was falsely implicated.


e)Finally, it was canvassed that the statement of the deceased Tularam, recorded by Investigating Officer Girish Bohre (P.W.14) under Section 161 CrPC, could not have been considered a ‘dying declaration’ due to the absence of certification from the doctor regarding Tularam’s mental fitness.


f)Even otherwise, a dying declaration made before the Investigating Officer/ Police is always shrouded by suspicious circumstances and no reliance thereupon can be made.


18.Per Contra, Ms. Mrinal Gopal Elker, learned counsel on behalf of the State, argued that the impugned judgment dated 19.12.2017 does not warrant any interference by this Court. She submitted as follows:


a)The Courts below have expressly affirmed the presence of the Appellant at the site of incident and his involvement in the occurrence, based on the testimony of Lallu Vishwakarma (P.W.11). She argued that Vishwakarma’s cross-examination provides no reason to doubt his version qua the Appellant.


b)There is a specific accusation against the Appellant of inflicting the knife blow on the deceased Tillu’s abdomen, which is supported by the Medical Legal Certificate (MLC) conducted by Dr. R.S. Vijayvargiya (P.W.4), who confirmed the presence of a stab wound on the abdomen with profuse bleeding.


c)he was apprehended, the Appellant voluntarily disclosed the location of the concealed knife to the Investigating Officer in the presence of witnesses. Such a recovery is admissible in evidence as an incriminating material against the Appellant.


d)Finally, Ms. Elker highlighted that the courts below have rightly considered the statement of deceased Tularam recorded under Section 161 of CrPC as a ‘dying declaration’, corroborating the prosecution’s case against the Appellant beyond any doubt.


ANALYSIS :


19.Having heard learned Senior Counsel/Counsel for the parties at a considerable length and on perusal of the statements of eyewitnesses along with other relevant material on record, we find that the following three questions fall for our consideration in the present appeal:


A.Have the Courts below erred in not appreciating the contradictions or discrepancies which would dislodge the prosecution’s case?


B.Is the absence of blood group classification or inconclusive FSL results on the recovered weapon detrimental to the prosecution’s case?


C.Does the Investigating Officer’s failure to obtain a fitness certificate from the medical officer invalidate the consideration of the statement of Tularam recorded under Section 161 CrPC before his death, as a ‘dying declaration’?


A.CONTRADICTIONS IN THE PROSECUCTION’S CASE:


20.Since the prosecution case against the Appellant predominantly hinges upon the testimonies of Usha Bai (P.W.10), Lallu Vishwakarma (P.W.11), Dr. C.S. Jain (P.W.13), Dr. Neelam Shrivastava (P.W.15) and Girish Bohre (P.W.14), we deem it appropriate to briefly summarise their testimonies hereunder:


21.Usha Bai (P.W.10) swore that on 20.06.2004, around 9.00 p.m., she was overseeing the construction of wall of her Jhuggi by Devi Singh alias Tillu and Tularam. Ahmad and Kanija Bi, two of the accused, arrived and ordered them to halt construction. Following this, Ahmad struck Tularam on the head with a lathi. Subsequently, Asgar, Ahmad’s son, incited the other accused to attack, prompting all the accused to rush in and assault Tillu, Tularam, and Lalaram with various weapons like sticks, rods, and pipes. When P.W.10 attempted to intervene by grabbing Ahmad’s lathi, she was verbally abused and told to step aside. Consequently, she retreated to the sidelines. The accused continued to beat Tillu and Tularam until they were incapacitated. Tillu succumbed to his injuries at the scene, while Tularam was barely breathing. Immediately after the incident, Tillu, Tularam, and Lalaram were rushed to Hamidia Hospital for treatment by the Kamla Nagar Police Station. Tillu passed away en route to the hospital. P.W.10 lodged a First Information Report (FIR) (Ex.P.7) detailing the incident.


22.Lallu Vishwakarma (P.W.11) recounted that the incident occurred near a wall owned by Usha Bai (P.W.10). Around 8-9:30 pm, Ahmad arrived wielding a lathi at the place of construction of Usha Bai’s wall, where P.W.11 and Tillu were sharing a meal. Ahmad confronted them, objecting to the wall’s construction. In response, Tillu urged them to allow the construction to proceed. Subsequently, all the other accused arrived and assaulted Tillu and another individual, although P.W.11 couldn’t discern the specific assailants. The accused wielded various weapons such as lathis, knives, sticks, rods, and pipes during the attack. Tillu was found injured inside Bhairon Baba’s room, while Tularam lay injured at the construction site. P.W.11 then arranged for the injured to be transported in an auto. He noted that Tillu’s intestines were protruding, which he wrapped in cloth and placed in the auto. Additionally, Tularam had suffered traumatic and haemorrhagic shock due to multiple injuries. The injured were then taken to Hamidia Hospital. The Police subsequently confiscated the knife and sticks from the Appellant (Ex.P.14) and prepared a memorandum, which P.W.11 signed.


23.In addition to the two eyewitnesses, the prosecution so as to lend corroboration to the ocular evidence, called upon medical experts, namely Dr. C.S. Jain (P.W.13) and Dr. Neelam Shrivastava (P.W.15), who conducted the post-mortem examinations of Tillu and Tularam, respectively.


24.Dr. C.S. Jain, P.W.13, reported that Tillu’s body was brought in for post-mortem examination on 21.06.2004, revealing four stab wounds on the front side of the abdomen, along with a laceration on the head and three abrasions. He concluded that the stab wounds were inflicted by a hard, sharp, and penetrating weapon, while the head injuries were caused by a hard and blunt object. The combined injuries to the head and abdomen were deemed sufficient to cause death.


25.Dr. Neelam Shrivastava, P.W.15, testified that Tularam’s body was brought for post-mortem examination on 24.06.2004, revealing multiple radial fractures, subdural subarachnoid haemorrhage, and various wounds. She concluded that Tularam’s death resulted from respiratory failure due to a head injury and its associated complications. The severity of the injury was sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature, and it was determined to be homicidal, inflicted by a hard, blunt, and heavy weapon. During cross-examination, she clarified that Tularam did not sustain any injuries from knives or swords on his body.


26.The prosecution also examined Girish Bohre, Investigating Officer (P.W.14), of the subject incident. He testified how the investigation was conducted, a spot map (Ex.P.2) of the location was prepared, and a blood-stained piece of flooring was also seized from the place of the incident. Additionally, he conducted a panchnama on Tillu’s dead body (Ex.P.32). He apprehended the Appellant and interrogated him in the presence of witnesses. During interrogation, the Appellant confessed to hiding the knife used in the assault in Barrack No. 2 of the Police Line Nehru Nagar. P.W.14 then drafted a memorandum, leading to the recovery of an iron knife at the instance of the Appellant. Following this, he arrested the Appellant and other co-accused. P.W.14 also prepared a panchnama (Ex.P.34) of Tularam’s dead body.


27.It is pertinent to mention at this stage that Ajjharruddin (P.W.1), Sukhram (P.W.2), and Reshambai (P.W.3) were also brought in as eyewitnesses to the incident. However, they were deemed hostile by the prosecution, as according to them, no incident occurred in their presence.


28.It is noteworthy to mention here that during the trial of the Appellant and other co-accused, one of the accused, Vijay Singh absconded. Subsequent to the judgment of the Trial Court in 2005, that Vijay Singh was apprehended and tried. The Trial Court vide another judgment delivered in the year 2007, convicted him based on the testimony of eyewitness Usha Bai (P.W.10), duly supported by the medical opinions of Dr. C.S. Jain (P.W.13) and Dr. Neelam Shrivastava (P.W.15) as well as the testimony of Girish Bohre, the Investigating Officer (P.W.14).


29.Having elaborated on the testimonies of the key witnesses in the instant case, we may now dredge up the contradictions highlighted on behalf of the Appellant.


A.1Bhairav Shastri’s Jhuggi


30.It was vehemently agitated that there is a latent dissension in the testimonies of the witnesses regarding the location of the occurrence. While Usha Bai, P.W.10 and Lallu Vishwakarma, P.W.11, deposed that the deceased Tillu entered the Jhuggi of Bhairav Shastri, where he was subsequently surrounded and assaulted in the abdomen by the Appellant wielding a knife, the Investigating Officer (P.W.14) veraciously admitted during cross-examination that he was unaware of any individual named Bhairon Baba residing near the scene of the incident. The I.O. further clarified that there was no house or temple associated with Bhairon Baba in the vicinity of the incident, which is why he did not name it in the spot map (Ex.P.2).


31.We have thoroughly scrutinized the testimonies of the witnesses in this regard. We find a consistent mention of Bhairav Shastri across all prosecution accounts, with Bhairav Shastri also being loosely referred to as Bhairon Baba. Lallu Vishwakarma, P.W. 11, has unerringly stated in his testimony that the deceased Tillu was discovered inside Bhairon Baba’s room following the incident. Additionally, the presence of Bhairon Shastri’s Jhuggi is noted in Section 161 CrPC statement of the deceased Tularam recorded by Girish Bohre, the Investigating Officer (P.W.14), wherein he unequivocally stated that Tillu sought refuge inside Bhairav Shastri’s hut and locked himself in. The mention of Bhairon Shastri’s Jhuggi is also evident in the FIR (Ex.P.7) filed by the Complainant, P.W.10, as well as in her statement (Ex.D.1) recorded under Section 161 CrPC.


32.It is true that while Girish Bohre (P.W.14), as per his statement, was unaware of any Bhairon Baba near the scene of occurrence, the location referred to as ‘Bhairon Shastri’s Jhuggi’ by the other witnesses is indeed depicted on the spot map (Ex.P.2) prepared by him. A plain examination of the spot map (Ex.P.2) reveals a marked structure labelled ‘B’, identified as a `brick room’ where the deceased took refuge. Even though the said structure is not captioned as Bhairav Shastri’s Jhuggi or by any other name, it gives credence to the version of the eye witnesses that Tillu was attacked in the neighbouring Jhuggi. Moreover, the defence has not disputed the depictions in the spot map while cross-examining the I.O. (P.W.14).


33.A mere omission on the part of the Investigating Officer in marking a spot on the site plan does not deflect the prosecution’s case. It is well-established that the site plan merely denotes the location of the incident without implying further details.1 In light of the fact that the persons who had seen that to which they have testified, due weightage must be given to their first-hand version. Their evidence cannot be jettisoned merely because the I.O. forgot to describe the room as ‘Bhairav Shastri’s Jhuggi’ on the spot map.


34.It is a case where eyewitnesses have corroborated each other; their depositions are reinforced by deceased Tularam himself in his statement recorded under Section 161 CrPC, and the location of the incident is depicted on the spot map (Ex.P.2) as a `brick room’. It, thus, stands established that there was another Jhuggi where the deceased sought refuge and was eventually assaulted. Given these circumstances, the so-called contradiction miserably fails to invade the corpus delicti.


A.2Legal Effect of Non-reading of Contents of FIR to the Complainant


35.It was then argued that the Complainant, Usha Bai (P.W.10), in her cross-examination, has candidly admitted that the FIR (Ex.P.7) was not read out to her and she put her thumb impression under the instructions of the Police. Reliance is placed on her deposition during cross-examination where she claims to have thumb marked on a blank paper, whereupon Ex.P.7 was prepared.


36.In order to appreciate the contention, we have gone through the translated version of the statement of Usha Bai (P.W.10), which the Appellant has appended along with the original paper book as well as a part of “Compilation of Depositions of Witnesses”. Since the translated version was seemingly incorrect, making it difficult to discern as to what the witness had deposed, we have also gone through the original Hindi version of Usha Bai’s (P.W.10) statement.


37.The statement of a witness has to be extolled in its entirety. It may be recapitulated that Usha Bai (P.W.10), in her complaint which led to the registration of the subject FIR, had categorically stated that, “Vijay, Dharmendra @ Dhamma, Katchu @ Ramswaroop, Ballu, Ravi, Asgar all came shouting that Tillu was indulging in Dadagiri and he be finished today……...” The FIR further states that, “ye sabhee log” [all these persons] started attacking, Tillu ran towards Bhairav Shastri’s Jhuggi, entered and closed the door from inside to save himself. “Sabhee ne” (all of them) forcefully broke the door open and entered the Jhuggi and surrounded Tillu ….. and Dharmendra @ Dhamma (Appellant) then gave a knife blow in the abdomen of Tillu.


38.It must also be borne in mind that FIR is not a substantive piece of evidence, and it can be used only to corroborate or contradict the version of an Informant. It is also not necessary that there should always be a written complaint to register the FIR. Even an oral communication to the Police disclosing the commission of a cognizable offence is sufficient to register the FIR.


39.The object of the FIR is three-fold: firstly, to inform the jurisdictional Magistrate and the Police Administration of the offence that has been reported to the Police Station; secondly, to acquaint the Judicial Officer before whom the case is ultimately tried as to what are the actual facts stated immediately after the occurrence and on what materials the investigation commenced; thirdly and most importantly, to safeguard the accused against subsequent variations, exaggerations or additions.


40.The subject FIR (Ex.P.7) fully satisfies all the ingredients of Section 154 CrPC. The occurrence is reported to have taken place on 20.06.2004 at 9.30 p.m., and the FIR was recorded on the same day at 10.45 p.m. The names of all the eight accused who allegedly participated in the occurrence are duly recorded. The FIR is written in a natural, consistent flow of handwriting, with no signs of spaces being left, words being overwritten or shrunken, or any word or sentence being interpolated. The last line of the FIR categorically records that the report was read out and explained to the Informant. The FIR is in the prescribed format and Usha Bai (P.W.10) has thereafter put her thumb impression.


41.It is true that during her cross-examination, Usha Bai (P.W.10), has claimed that the Police neither read out the FIR (Ex.P.7) to her nor did it mention the contents of her statements which were recorded by the Police on 5-6 occasions. She further stated that it could not be determined what version was included in Ex.P.7 since she is not a literate person. It seems that the Appellant made an overt attempt to influence the witness. However, despite Usha Bai’s innocuous intent to help the Appellant from the wrath of law, she could not deny the fact that the FIR was registered on her complaint or that Tillu and Tularam suffered fatal injuries in the occurrence reported by her.


42. Assuming that the Police failed to read out or apprise the informant about the contents of the FIR, the question that falls for consideration is whether such omission has caused any prejudice to the Appellant? In our considered opinion, the answer has to be in the negative. This is not a case where the Appellant was not provided with a copy of the FIR or the charge sheet, which could have hindered his ability to effectively cross-examine the Informant. The record reveals that Shri A.K. Shrivastava, Advocate, cross-examined Usha Bai (P.W.10) on behalf of the Appellant. Usha Bai did try to help the Appellant by not disclosing his name as one of the accused, but she could not hide the fact that besides Ahmad, Asgar, Ravi and Kanija Bi, she also knew the other accused by their names. The Appellant is admittedly one of those accused. She has further deposed that sabhee ne (all of them) assaulted Tillu with lathi, rods and pipes. She further stated that when she tried to intervene, Ahmad abused her and threatened to kill her. She then went and stood at some distance and witnessed that those aaropigan, i.e., all the accused, had given fatal assaults to Tillu and Tularam. Most importantly, she further testified that she, along with Lalaram, then went to the Police Station Kamla Nagar, whereafter the Police Officials immediately sent Lalaram and Tularam for treatment at Hamidia Hospital. Tillu, however, could not reach the hospital as he succumbed to the injuries on the way. Additionally, in paragraph 4 of her deposition, Usha Bai (P.W.10) unmistakably states that she reported the matter to Police Station Kamla Nagar through Ex.P.7, which is thumb marked by her. This part of her deposition has not been questioned by the Appellant while cross-examining Usha Bai (P.W.10). We have also gone through the Appellant’s own statement recorded under Section 313 CrPC. Aside from a vague denial and claims of false implication, there is no suggestion that he was not present at the scene; that he did not participate in the incident, or that he was falsely implicated for any reason. The Appellant, thus, has failed to demonstrate any prejudice resulting from the alleged non-reading of the contents of the FIR to the Informant. The contention raised in this regard is entirely misconceived.


43.Be that as it may, this Court in State v. N.S. Gnaneswaran 2 has ruled that the stipulations outlined in Section 154 CrPC concerning the reading over of the information after it is written down, the signing of the said information by the informant, and the entry of its substance in the prescribed manner are not obligatory. These requirements are procedural in nature, and the omission of any of them does not impact the legal consequences resulting from the information provided under the section.


44.It is equally well-settled that when the testimonies of eyewitnesses are consistent, unimpeachable, and duly corroborated by medical evidence or the recovery of incriminating material like the weapon used, the deficiencies, if any, in the recording of FIR alone do not constitute a valid ground to overturn the conviction or undermine the prosecution case.


A.3Presence of Appellant on the Place of Occurrence


45.Learned Senior Counsel for the Appellant argued that it is a case of false implication as the presence of the Appellant at the spot of occurrence has not been established beyond doubt. He relied upon the statement of Usha Bai (P.W.10), who, in the opening statement of her examination-in-chief, named Ahmad, Asgar, Ravi and Kanija Bi as accused and claimed that she did not know anyone else. It was highlighted that Usha Bai (P.W.10) not only failed to name the Appellant in her entire statement but also admitted during the cross-examination that she never provided the names of the assailants, as mentioned by the Police in the FIR (Ex.P.7).


46.We are, however, not impressed by the submission. We say so for the following reasons :


(a)The statement of Usha Bai (P.W.10) has to be read and appreciated in its entirety and not in piecemeal.


(b)She, as discussed earlier, deposed that she knew the remaining accused by name. She was indisputably referring to the remaining accused who were present in court which included the Appellant as well.


(c)She deposed that “all the accused” attacked Lalaram, Tularam and Devi Singh @ Tillu with dandas, rods and pipes.


(d)She further deposed that all the accused assaulted Tillu and Tularam with the intention to kill them.


(e)She also admitted that she went to Police Station Kamla Nagar and got the FIR (Ex.P.7) lodged, which bore her thumb impression.


(f)Having admitted these material facts, it would be too far-fetched to dissect Usha Bai’s version to hold that the Appellant was not present or participated in the occurrence.


(g)In any case, Lallu Vishwakarma (P.W.11), another eyewitness, explicitly stated that the Appellant was present and he participated in the incident by delivering a knife blow to Tillu’s abdomen.


(h)The knife injury attributed to the Appellant has been duly established by Dr. R.S. Vijayvargiya (P.W.4) and Dr. C.S. Jain (P.W.13).


(i)The Investigating Officer (P.W.14) successfully established the recovery of the weapon of offence, namely a knife, based on the Appellant’s disclosure statement. Lallu Vishwakarma (P.W.11), who witnessed the recovery, supported the Investigating Officer’s testimony.


(j)To dispel any doubts, Lallu Vishwakarma (P.W.11) identified the Appellant in court and specifically pointed out, “The person standing in front wearing a check shirt is Dharmendra”.


47.It is trite law that identification tests (TIP) do not serve as substantive evidence but are primarily intended to assist the investigating agency in ensuring that their progress in investigating the offence is on the correct path. Holding a TIP is not obligatory. Further, a failure to hold TIP cannot be a ground to eschew the testimony of witnesses whose evidence was concurrently accepted by the trial and appellate courts.3 Additionally, a failure to hold a parade would not make inadmissible the evidence of identification in the court.4


48.Similarly, the contention of poor visibility owing to darkness at the spot of occurrence is also not tenable. In analysing the incidents occurring at night, this Court in Nathuni Yadav v. State of Bihar 5 has taken into account several factors, including:


(i)The proximity at which the assailants would have confronted the injured.


(ii)The possibility of some ambient light reaching the scene from the stars.


(iii)The familiarity of the witnesses with the appearance of each assailant.


49.In the instant case, firstly, the place of occurrence, i.e., Bharav Shastri’s Jhuggi, was adjacent to that of the Complainant (P.W.10) making it easier for the witnesses to observe and identify the accused persons. Secondly, each accused, particularly the Appellant, was familiar to the eyewitnesses. Thirdly, considering that the incident occurred on a summer night, there would have been minimal obstruction to visibility for the witnesses. Fourthly and most importantly, the Appellant, in his 313 CrPC Statement, has nowhere taken the plea of alibi. He did not pursue this defence during the cross-examination of witnesses either.


50.There is no gainsaying that whosoever pleads alibi in contrast and derogation of the eyewitness version, is under cumbrous onus to prove absence from the scene and time of crime. The Appellant not only failed to raise this defence but also did not adduce any evidence in support thereof. Taking into consideration the cumulative effect of all these factors, we have no reason to doubt that the Appellant was not only present at the scene of crime, but he actively participated also in the occurrence and gave one of the fatal blows to Tillu (deceased).


51.We cannot overlook the fact that in a situation where two people are killed in a heated altercation, it is highly unlikely that the eyewitnesses would want the real perpetrators to escape justice. In the absence of any prior motive, it is not plausible that they would falsely accuse the Appellant in this case. This is not a scenario where the Complainant or P.W.11 held grudges against the Appellant and fabricated a story to implicate him after the incident. Rather, the name of the Appellant surfaced in the very first version, duly recorded vide Ex.P.7, within less than two hours of the occurrence. Pertinently, no motive to falsely implicate the Appellant has been suggested during the cross-examination of the eyewitnesses.


A.4Attribution of knife injury on the Appellant


52.It was maintained by Learned Senior Counsel for the Appellant that since the incident took place inside the Jhuggi and at night, it is highly improbable that the witnesses could see the manner in which the incident took place. Further, reliance was placed on the statement of Lallu Vishwakarma, P.W.11, who stated that he could not see who assaulted whom, and he could not tell which weapon was seized from whom. It was, thus, asserted that there is not even an iota of evidence to conclude that the knife injury was caused by the Appellant.


53.We have deeply analysed the submission. It is essential for this Court to examine the Disclosure Statement (Ex.P.14) of the Appellant, which resulted in the discovery of the weapon (knife) in question. The statement reads as under:


“On 20.04.2004, I along with my companions Ahmad, Asgar, Ravi, Vijay, Katchu @Ramswaroop, Ballu, and Kanija Bi committed Maarpeet with Tillu @ Devi Singh with knife and stick voluntarily, the knife, by which Tillu @ Devising was assaulted by me, has been hidden by me in the Barrack No. 2 of Police Line Nehru Nagar. Come with me, I will hand over it to you.”


54.The disclosure statement made by the Appellant led to the discovery and subsequent seizure of the knife, namely, the weapon of offence. Subsequently, a seizure memo (Ex.P.20) was prepared, which stated as follows:


“One knife made of iron with wooden handle the total length of which is about 14 ½ inches, the length of handle is about 4 ¾ inches and length of blade is about 10 inches and width of blade is about 1 ¼ inches, the tip of knife is pointed, blood is present in the front (agla) part of the blade which has dried up. On producing by accused Dharmendra @ Dhamma, the same was taken in possession of Police and sealed pack on the spot itself as evidence.”


55.The question that requires determination is whether the above-stated disclosure statement is admissible in evidence? The issue regarding the admissibility of a disclosure statement within the meaning of Section 27 of the IEA was comprehensively addressed by this Court in Pulukuri Kottaya v. Emperor,6 delineating the following briefly summed up criteria:


(i)There should be a discovery of the fact.


(ii)The discovery of fact should be in consequence of information received from a person accused of an offence.


(iii)The person giving the information should be in the custody of a Police Officer.


(iv)Only that portion of information which relates distinctly or strictly to the fact discovered can be proved.


56.The testimony of the Investigating Officer (P.W.14) unfolds that the Appellant voluntarily made the disclosure statement while he was in police custody, pursuant to which the weapon of offence (knife) was recovered. Whether the said statement was made voluntarily or was secured through coercion is essentially a question of fact. In this regard, the testimony of Lallu Vishwakarma (P.W.11) assumes significance as the disclosure statement was duly witnessed by him. In our considered opinion, the disclosure statement of the Appellant to the extent it led to the recovery of a knife fulfils the basic tenets of Section 27 of IEA and has been correctly admitted in evidence.


57.We may hasten to add at this stage that the prosecution version was not only accepted by the Trial Court but the High Court has also affirmed it in appeal. In our quest to find out whether the Appellant is guilty beyond a reasonable doubt, we have expanded the wings of our limited jurisdiction and assumed the role akin to that of the 1st Appellate Court. We are conscious of the fact that the jurisdictional magnification ought to be an exception and be invoked with great circumspection, in a case of extreme hardship, after taking into consideration the socio-economic conditions of the victim(s) of a crime, the accused, as well as the vulnerable witnesses. Keeping such parameters in view, it cannot be ignored that both eyewitnesses, P.W.10 and P.W.11, are illiterate labourers, and their testimonies were recorded after a considerable length of time had passed since the occurrence. Both the witnesses have emphatically denied that they were tutored by Police or anyone else. The unfiltered testimony of a rustic witness, even if marred with some minor inconsistencies or discrepancies, cannot debilitate its perseverance. The evidence of such witnesses has to be evaluated comprehensively and carefully, especially when the cross-examination discreetly suggests that the accused person(s) did make a bid to win them over by exerting some extraneous pressure. We are, thus, satisfied that the statements of P.W.10 and P.W.11 do not suffer from the discrepancy of such a nature that they should be discarded. Even the testimony of the Investigating Officer (P.W.14) is devoid of any ulterior motive or attempt to fabricate evidence or falsely implicate the Appellant and his co-accused.


58.It would be too unfair and unreasonable to expect a witness, unless parroted, to recall every minute detail of the occurrence and present it with a totally accumulative narrative. The Appellant’s contention is thus bereft of any merit.


B.Effect of Absence of Blood Group Classification on Prosecution’s Case


59.Learned Senior Counsel on behalf of Appellant asserted that the knife purportedly retrieved from him underwent examination at the Forensic Science Laboratory, where the test results were inconclusive, particularly regarding the determination of the blood group on the weapon. Consequently, the absence of a conclusive match in the blood group analysis should be construed in favour of the Appellant and against the prosecution.


60.Upon a thorough examination of the FSL report, it stands confirmed that the blood group classification test conducted on the recovered knife yielded inconclusive results. However, it is crucial to note that human blood was detected on the knife recovered at the instance of the Appellant (Exhibit “I” before FSL). This fact gains some importance, considering that various weapons, including lathis and even the knife attributed to accused Asgar, underwent an FSL examination, yet, no traces of human blood were found on them. Notably, human blood was solely found on the knife used by the Appellant.


61.In line with the precedents set forth by this Court in Raja @ Rajinder v. State of Haryana7 and John Pandian v. State8, the non-explanation of human blood on the weapon of crime constitutes a circumstance against the accused. It is incumbent upon the accused to provide an explanation regarding the presence of human blood on the weapon. The Appellant has failed to do so. The judgments delivered by both the Trial Court and the High Court also do not reveal that the Appellant rendered any satisfactory explanation concerning the presence of blood on the recovered knife.Top of Form While it may not be a decisive factor to determine the guilt, but a conspicuous silence does lend support to the prosecution case.


C.Consideration of Section 161 CrPC Statement of Deceased Tularam as Dying Declaration


62.It is contended on behalf of the Appellant that the courts below have erred in relying on the statement of Tularam (Ex.P.40) given to Investigating Officer, Girish Bohre (P.W.14) and that the said statement cannot be considered to be a ‘dying declaration’ as the Investigating Officer did not take any certification from the doctor regarding the fitness of mind of Tularam.


63.In this regard, the following part of the testimony of Investigating Officer, Girish Bohre (P.W.14), who recorded the statement of Tularam under Section 161 CrPC, becomes quintessential:


“It is correct that I did not take permission from the Doctor about the condition of giving statement of Tularam before recording statement of Tularam. It is correct that I knew this fact at the time of recording statement that one person has died in this case. As head injury was not told to be serious in the Medical Report, so it is incorrect to say that I knew this fact that Tularam had sustained lathi blow on his head and his condition was serious. It is incorrect to say that head injury caused to Tularam was serious and his condition was told to be serious in his medical report. It is correct that proceedings of recording dying declaration of Tularam was not conducted by me till Tularam was alive. It is incorrect to say that Tularam was not able to speak after sustaining the injuries and till his death, so I did not record his dying declaration. It is incorrect to say that due to this reason the statement of Exhibit P.40 has been falsely prepared.”


64.Before we proceed further, it would be apt to recapitulate Section 32(1) of the IEA, whereunder the statement made by a person, who is dead, as to the cause of his death or as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death, is relevant and admissible, irrespective of the fact that such person at the time of making the statement was not under expectation of death.


65.Section 161 CrPC empowers the Police to examine orally any person who is acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case under investigation. The Police may reduce such statement into writing also. Section 162(1) CrPC, nonetheless, mandates that no statement made by any person to a Police Officer, if reduced to writing, be signed by the person making it, nor shall such statement be used in evidence except to contradict a witness in the manner provided by Section 145 of the IEA. However, Sub-Section (2) of Section 162 CrPC carves out an exception to Sub-Section (1) as it explicitly provides that nothing in Section 162 shall be deemed to apply to any statement falling within the ambit of clause (1) of Section 32 of the IEA. In other words, a statement made by a person who is dead, as to the cause of his death or to the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death, to a Police Officer and which has been recorded under Section 161 CrPC, shall be relevant and admissible, notwithstanding the express bar against use of such statement in evidence contained therein. In such eventuality, the statement recorded under Section 161 CrPC assumes the character of a dying declaration. Since extraordinary credence has been given to such dying declaration, the court ought to be extremely careful and cautious in placing reliance thereupon. There are a catena of decisions of this Court which lend support to the inter-play between provisions of the CrPC and the IEA, as explained above9.


66.As regard to the assessment of mental fitness of the person making a dying declaration, it is indubitably the responsibility of the court to ensure that the declarant was in a sound state of mind. This is because there are no rigid procedures mandated for recording a dying declaration. If an eyewitness asserts that the deceased was conscious and capable of making the declaration, the medical opinion cannot override such affirmation, nor can the dying declaration be disregarded solely for want of a doctor’s fitness certification. The requirement for a dying declaration to be recorded in the presence of a doctor, following certification of the declarant’s mental fitness, is merely a matter of prudence.10


67.The Constitution Bench in Laxman v. State of Maharashtra11 has authoritatively ruled that:


“3. … …But where the eyewitnesses state that the deceased was in a fit and conscious state to make the declaration, the medical opinion will not prevail, nor can it be said that since there is no certification of the doctor as to the fitness of the mind of the declarant, the dying declaration is not acceptable. A dying declaration can be oral or in writing and any adequate method of communication whether by words or by signs or otherwise will suffice provided the indication is positive and definite. In most cases, however, such statements are made orally before death ensues and is reduced to writing by someone like a Magistrate or a doctor or a police officer. … … What is essentially required is that the person who records a dying declaration must be satisfied that the deceased was in a fit state of mind. Where it is proved by the testimony of the Magistrate that the declarant was fit to make the statement even without examination by the doctor the declaration can be acted upon provided the court ultimately holds the same to be voluntary and truthful. A certification by the doctor is essentially a rule of caution and therefore the voluntary and truthful nature of the declaration can be established otherwise.”


68.It is important in this case to appreciate that the Investigating Officer recorded the statement instantly, a day after the incident. He has categorically stated that the medical report did not mention that the condition of the declarant, Tularam, was serious in nature. More importantly, Tularam was able to convey his statement properly. Furthermore, on perusal of the statement, it is clear that the declarant Tularam was in a fit condition as not only did he properly explain the incident but has also markedly specified the role of the Appellant. That apart, the injuries found during the post-mortem examination conducted by P.W.13 and P.W.15 have duly corroborated the statement of deceased Tularam.


69.From the above discussion, it is manifest that the mere non-obtainment of a medical fitness certificate will not deter this Court from considering a properly recorded statement under Section 161 CrPC to be a dying declaration.


CONCLUSION:


70.For the reasons stated above, we are satisfied that there are no contradictions or discrepancies in the prosecution case of such a nature that would compel us to take a view different than that of the Trial Court and the High Court. We, therefore, do not find any merit in this appeal, which is, consequently, dismissed. If the Appellant is on bail, his bail bonds are cancelled, and he is directed to surrender and undergo the remainder of the sentence. However, if the Appellant is already in custody, in that event, he shall complete the remainder of the sentence.


71.Ordered accordingly.


Result of the case: Appeal dismissed.


1 Shivanna v. State of Hunsur Town Police (2010) 15 SCC 91


2 (2013) 3 SCC 594


3 State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu (2005) 11 SCC 600


4 Heera v. State of Rajasthan (2007) 10 SCC 175


5 [1996] Supp. 10 SCR 905 : (1998) 9 SCC 238


6 1946 SCC OnLine PC 47.


7 [2015] 3 SCR 947 : (2015) 11 SCC 43


8 [2010] 15 SCR 1012 : (2010) 14 SCC 129


9 See: i) Mukeshbhai Gopalbhai Barot v. State of Gujarat (2010) 12 SCC 224; (ii) Sri Bhagwan v. State of U.P. (2013) 12 SCC 137; (iii) Pradeep Bisoi v. State of Odisha (2019) 11 SCC 500


10 Koli Chunilal Savji v. State of Gujarat (1999) 9 SCC 562


11 [2002] Supp. 1 SCR 697 : (2002) 6 SCC 710


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