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Thursday, October 21, 2021

Question of Jurisdiction in special courts = We hold that, in accordance with Section 6(7), the ATS Nanded was not barred from continuing with its investigation till the NIA Mumbai actually took up the investigation. Further, we hold that the CJM, Nanded could have committed the case to trial before the ASJ, Nanded upon the filing of charge-sheet by the ATS Nanded since they were the designated Courts for the ATS Nanded and no Special Court had been designated by the Government of Maharashtra under Section 22 of the NIA Act.

1

Reportable

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

Criminal Appeal No 1165 of 2021

Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai … Appellant

Versus

The State of Maharashtra & Anr. … Respondents

With

Criminal Appeal No 1166 of 2021

J U D G M E N T

Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, J

This judgment has been divided into sections to facilitate analysis. They are:

A Facts

B Submissions

C Provisions of the NIA Act

D Continuation of investigation by the ATS Nanded

E CJM, Nanded’s jurisdiction for remand and committal to trial

F Conclusion

PART A

2

A Facts

1 This batch of two appeals arises from a judgment dated 5 July 2018 of a

Division Bench of the High Court of Judicature at Bombay.

2 On 14 July 2016, an FIR1 was registered under Sections 120-B and 471 of

the Indian Penal Code 18602 read with Sections 13, 16, 18, 18-B, 20, 38 and 39 of

the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act 19673 and Sections 4, 5 and 6 of the

Explosive Substances Act 19084

. It was registered with the Anti-Terrorism Squad5 at

the Kala Chowki Police Station Mumbai on the basis of written information provided

by Manik Vitthal Rao Bedre6

, against two persons: (i) Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai (the

appellant in the first of the two appeals7

); and (ii) Farooq (who was residing in Syria).

The complaint alleged that the ATS had received source information that Naser Bin

Abu Bakr Yafai was in contact through the internet with members of the Islamic

State8

/Islamic State of Iraq and Syria9

/Islamic State of Iraq and Levant10/Daesh,

terrorist organizations banned by the United Nations and the Indian Government. He

was alleged to have been planning to assist Farooq (a member of

IS/ISIS/ISIL/Daesh) in making bombs/IEDs to cause a blast during the month of

Ramzan, for which he had procured the required material in July 2016. The ATS

 1 CR No 8 of 2016 2 “IPC” 3 “UAPA” 4 “ES Act” 5 “ATS” 6 A Police Inspector in ATS, Nanded Unit, Nanded, Maharashtra 7 Criminal Appeal No 1165 of 2021 8 “IS” 9 “ISIS” 10 “ISIL”

PART A

3

arrested four persons from Parbhani, namely: (i) Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai; (ii)

Mohammad Shahed Khan (the appellant in the companion appeal11); (iii) Iqbal

Ahmed; and (iv) Mohammad Raisuddin.

3 On 26 August 2016, the Government of Maharashtra, in exercise of powers

conferred by Section 11 read with Section 185 of the Code of Criminal Procedure

197312 issued a notification designating the Chief Judicial Magistrate13, Nanded, as

a Court of remand and the Court of Additional Sessions Judge14, Nanded, as a

Special Court to try cases filed by the ATS Nanded.

4 On 8 September 2016, the Ministry of Home Affairs of the Union

government15 directed the National Investigation Agency16 to take over further

investigation in the present case by exercising powers under Section 6(4) of the

National Investigation Agency Act 200817. On 14 September 2016, the NIA Mumbai

renumbered the case18 for taking up further investigation.

5 The ATS continued with the investigation and filed a charge-sheet on 7

October 2016 against the aforesaid accused persons under Sections 120-B and 471

of the IPC read with Sections 13, 16, 18, 18-B, 20, 38 and 39 of the UAPA and

Sections 4, 5 and 6 of the ES Act before the CJM, Nanded. The CJM, Nanded took

 11 Criminal Appeal No 1166 of 2021 12 “CrPC” 13 “CJM” 14 “ASJ” 15 F.No. 11011/24/2016-IS.IV 16 “NIA” 17 “NIA Act” 18 RC-03/2016/NIA/MUM

PART A

4

cognizance of the offence and on 18 October 2016 committed the case19 to the

Court of ASJ, Nanded.

6 On 23 November 2016, the NIA Mumbai informed the ATS Nanded of having

taken over the investigation and sought the papers/records of the case. On 8

December 2016, the ATS Nanded handed over the case papers to the NIA Mumbai.

At present, the NIA Mumbai is seized of the matter and is conducting further

investigation.

7 During the course of the above events, Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai had filed an

application on 21 October 2016 before the ASJ, Nanded, under Section 167(2) of

the CrPC. In his application, he contended that the offences under the UAPA are

scheduled offences under the NIA Act, and hence, the CJM, Nanded had no

jurisdiction to pass an order on remand, to take cognizance and pass an order of

committal of the proceedings to the ASJ, Nanded since it was not a “Court”

established under Sections 11 or 22 of the NIA Act. On 14 November 2016, the ASJ,

Nanded rejected Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai’s application since, at that time, the NIA

Mumbai had not taken over the investigation from the ATS Nanded and hence, the

ATS Nanded had to continue with the investigation under Section 6(7) of the NIA

Act. Therefore, the ATS Nanded, in light of the notifications issued by the

Government of Maharashtra, was held to have correctly filed the charge-sheet

before the CJM, Nanded who committed the case to trial before the ASJ, Nanded.

 19 Sessions Case No 106 of 2016

PART A

5

8 The appellant filed a criminal writ petition20 before the High Court of

Judicature at Bombay to challenge the order of the ASJ, Nanded. During the

pendency of the petition, the NIA Mumbai filed an application21 under Section 407(2)

of the CrPC before the High Court seeking transfer of the records and proceedings

in the trial from the ASJ, Nanded to the NIA Special Court, Mumbai on the ground

that the NIA Mumbai was taking up further investigation of the case.

9 By judgment and order dated 5 July 2018, a Division Bench of the High Court

dismissed the writ petition filed by Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai and allowed the

application filed by NIA Mumbai and transferred the case from the Court of the ASJ,

Nanded to the NIA Special Court, Mumbai. The High Court observed that the power

of investigation by the police officer of the State government would cease only after

the NIA takes over the investigation of a scheduled offence. Further, in the view of

the High Court, the NIA Mumbai had taken over the investigation in the present case

only on 8 December 2016, when it had received the papers from ATS Nanded. The

High Court also held that the ASJ, Nanded had jurisdiction under the CrPC to try the

offences under the UAPA, even though they were scheduled offences under the NIA

Act, until the investigation was entrusted to and taken over by the NIA, after which

the Special Court constituted under Section 11 of the NIA Act would exclusively try

such scheduled offences. Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai then filed a special leave

petition22 before this Court challenging the order of the Bombay High Court.

 20 Criminal Writ Petition No 5022 of 2017 21 Criminal Application No 27 of 2017 22 “SLP”

PART A

6

10 On the other hand, on 4 September 2017, Mohammad Shahed Khan (the

appellant in the companion appeal) had written a letter to the Chief Justice of the

Bombay High Court for his release and arguing that his detention was illegal since

the ATS Nanded could not have filed the charge-sheet once the NIA Mumbai had

taken over the investigation. The letter was converted into a writ petition, and is

pending before the Bombay High Court.

11 Mohammad Shahed Khan also filed an application for bail before the NIA

Special Court, Mumbai on 27 April 2021, which was rejected by an order dated 22

June 2021. While dismissing Mohammad Shahed Khan’s application, the NIA

Special Court, Mumbai observed that:

“15. Considering the fact that the issue in respect of

jurisdiction for remand, cognizance and committal of the case

has already been decided by the Learned Sessions Judge,

Nanded and that the same has been confirmed by the

Hon'ble Bombay High Court, wherein the applicant was also

one of the parties, he cannot be allowed to reopen said issue

before this court. Therefore, I am of the view that the

application being devoid of substance, deserves to be

rejected.”

12 Mohammad Shahed Khan then filed an SLP to challenge the judgment and

order dated 5 July 2018, though he was not a party to the proceedings before the

Bombay High Court.

PART B

7

B Submissions

13 The SLPs which invoke the jurisdiction of this Court under Article 136 have

been instituted essentially on two grounds. The first ground is that once the Central

government entrusted the investigation to the NIA under Section 6(4) of the NIA Act,

ATS Nanded had no jurisdiction to continue with the investigation into a scheduled

offence under the NIA Act. The second ground is that since the offences under the

UAPA are scheduled offences under the NIA Act, even if investigated by the State

Investigating Agency, they would be exclusively triable by a Special Court

constituted under the NIA Act and the CJM, Nanded had no jurisdiction to remand

the accused persons and commit the case for trial before the ASJ, Nanded.

14 The above submissions have been advanced during the course of arguments

by Mr Farrukh Rasheed, Counsel appearing on behalf of Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai.

Buttressing the submissions, Mr Rasheed urged that:

(i) The expression “Special Court” as defined in Section 2(h) of the NIA Act is to

mean a Special Court constituted under Section 11 or, as the case may be,

under Section 22;

(ii) Where the Central government issues a direction, upon the formation of an

opinion that the offence is a scheduled offence and is fit to be investigated by

the NIA, the consequence is provided by sub-Section (6) of Section 6;

(iii) Upon the issuance of a direction under sub-Section (4) or sub-Section (5) of

Section 6, neither the State government nor a police officer of the State 

PART B

8

Agency investigating the offence can proceed with the investigation and must

forthwith transmit the relevant documents and records to the NIA;

(iv) Section 11 empowers the Central government to constitute Special Courts for

the trial of scheduled offences, while Section 22 empowers the State

governments to constitute Special Courts for the trial of offences specified in

the Schedule to the NIA Act;

(v) In the present case, in spite of a direction under Section 6(4), the ATS

Nanded continued with its investigation and filed a charge-sheet in breach of

the provisions of sub-Section (6) of Section 6; and

(vi) Since all offences punishable under the UAPA are scheduled offences under

the NIA Act, the CJM, Nanded is divested of their jurisdiction. Further, since a

Special Court was designated by the Government of Maharashtra under

Section 22, only that Court had jurisdiction in the present case.

15 Advancing his submissions in the companion appeal, Mr Colin Gonsalves,

Senior Counsel appearing on behalf of Mohammad Shahed Khan submitted that:

(i) The registration of an FIR on 14 September 2016 by NIA Mumbai was the

beginning of the investigation by them;

(ii) After the FIR was renumbered by the NIA on 14 September 2016, the ATS

Nanded continued to investigate and filed a charge-sheet before the CJM,

Nanded on 7 October 2016;

(iii) Sub-Sections (4) and (6) of Section 6 of the NIA Act contain three stipulations: 

PART B

9

(a) The Central government, where it is of the opinion that the offence is a

scheduled offence and is fit to be investigated by the NIA, shall direct

the NIA to investigate the offence;

(b) Upon the issuance of such a direction under sub-Section (4), the State

government and its Police Officers shall not proceed with the

investigation any further; and

(c) The relevant documents and records must be transmitted to the NIA

forthwith;

(iv) The NIA Act and the UAPA are criminal statutes of the utmost severity, and

there is a statutory obligation upon the NIA and the State Police Agency to

collect papers immediately and transmit them to the NIA, respectively;

(v) In the alternative, and even assuming that the State Police could have

investigated, the charge-sheet filed before the CJM, Nanded is a nullity

because it could have been filed only in the Special Court constituted under

Section 22 of the NIA Act; and

(vi) The committal proceedings are also a nullity because Section 16(1)

empowers the Special Court to take cognizance of any offence without the

committal of the accused to it for trial, and hence the charge-sheet ought to

have been filed by the ATS Nanded in a Special Court in view of the

provisions of Section 22.

On the basis of the above submissions, Mr Gonsalves, urged that since the chargesheet was not filed within the stipulated period in a proper court entrusted with 

PART B

10

jurisdiction, the accused have an indefeasible right to bail under the provisions of

Section 43D of the UAPA.

16 The above submissions have been contested by Mr K M Nataraj, Additional

Solicitor General23 appearing on behalf of the NIA. The ASG urged that:

(i) Sub-Section (7) of Section 6 of the NIA Act declares, for the removal of

doubts, that till the NIA takes up the investigation of the case, it shall be the

duty of the officer-in-charge of the police station to continue the investigation;

(ii) The expression “it shall be the duty” connotes that it is obligatory for the

officer-in-charge of the police station to continue with the investigation till the

investigation is taken up by the NIA;

(iii) In other words, until the State Police is informed or intimated by the NIA of the

case having been taken up for investigation, the officer-in-charge of the police

station is under a mandate to investigate;

(iv) If the submission which is urged by the appellants is accepted, that would

result in a vacuum in the investigation between the date of the issuance of a

direction under Section 6(4) and the actual taking over of the investigation by

the NIA;

(v) Section 10 of the NIA Act recognises the powers of the State government to

investigate scheduled offences;

(vi) Section 13 prescribes that every scheduled offence investigated by the

“Agency” shall be tried only by the Special Court within whose local

 23 “ASG”

PART B

11

jurisdiction it was committed. The expression “Agency” is defined in Section

2(a) as the “National Investigation Agency” and as a consequence of Section

13, no embargo is placed on any other Court until such time as the scheduled

offence is investigated by the NIA;

(vii) The provisions of the NIA Act have to be construed harmoniously so as to

achieve its purposes;

(viii) Sections 13 and Section 22 only govern the trial of offences and not pre-trial

procedures;

(ix) The enabling provisions under Section 16(1) for a Special Court to take

cognizance of any offence without the accused being committed to it for trial

would not render the order of the CJM, Nanded a nullity in the present case;

and

(x) In this context, the principles which are enunciated in Section 465 of the CrPC

would stand attracted.

17 Adopting the submissions of Mr K M Nataraj, Mr Rahul Chitnis, Standing

Counsel for the State of Maharashtra urged that:

(i) The mandate of Section 6 is that unless relevant documents and records are

transmitted, the NIA would not be construed to have taken up the

investigation;

(ii) On 23 November 2016, NIA Mumbai intimated the ATS Nanded to transfer

the case records, following which on 8 December 2016, the papers and

records were transmitted; and

PART C

12

(iii) While construing the provisions of the NIA Act, which deals with serious

offences bearing on national security, no vacuum can be allowed to exist in

the investigation. Hence, both the investigation by the ATS Nanded and the

filing of the charge-sheet before the CJM, Nanded on 7 October 2016, were

before the investigation was handed over to the NIA Mumbai. Therefore, there

was no illegality and the appeals should be dismissed.

18 The rival submissions now fall for consideration.

C Provisions of the NIA Act

19 The long title to the NIA Act elaborates upon its object, and the intent of

Parliament in enacting the law. According to the long title, the NIA Act is:

“An Act to constitute an investigation agency at the national

level to investigate and prosecute offences affecting the

sovereignty, security and integrity of India, security of State,

friendly relations with foreign States and offences under Acts

enacted to implement international treaties, agreements,

conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its

agencies and other international organisations and for

matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.”

20 Section 2(a) of the NIA Act defines the expression “Agency” to mean the

“National Investigation Agency” constituted under Section 3. The expression

“Scheduled Offence” is defined in Section 2(g) to mean offences specified in the

Schedule to the NIA Act. Section 2(h) defines the expression “Special Court” to

mean a Special Court constituted under Section 11, or as the case may be, under 

PART C

13

Section 22. Further, words and expressions used but not defined in the NIA Act, but

defined in the CrPC, have the meaning assigned to them in the CrPC. The NIA has

been constituted as “a special agency” under Section 3(1) for the investigation and

prosecution of offences under the enactments specified in the Schedule to the NIA

Act. The Schedule to the Act is extracted below:

“1. The Atomic Energy Act, 1962 (33 of 1962);

2. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (37 of 1967);

3. The Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 (65 of 1982);

4. The Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil

Aviation Act, 1982 (66 of 1982);

5. The SAARC Convention (Suppression of Terrorism) Act,

1993 (36 of 1993);

6. The Suppression of Unlawful Acts Against Safety of

Maritime Navigation and Fixed Platforms on Continental Shelf

Act, 2002 (69 of 2002);

7. The Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery

Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act, 2005 (21 of

2005);

8. Offences under—

(a) Chapter VI of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860)

[sections 121 to 130 (both inclusive)];

(b) Sections 489-A to 489-E (both inclusive) of the Indian

Penal Code (45 of 1860).”

21 The controversy in the batch of appeals before this Court revolves

substantially on the interpretation of Section 6 of the NIA Act. Section 6 is extracted

below, as it stood before its amendment with effect from 2 August 2019:

PART C

14

“6. Investigation of Scheduled Offences.—(1) On receipt of

information and recording thereof under Section 154 of the

Code relating to any Scheduled Offence the officer-in-charge

of the police station shall forward the report to the State

Government forthwith.

(2) On receipt of the report under sub-section (1), the State

Government shall forward the report to the Central

Government as expeditiously as possible.

(3) On receipt of report from the State Government, the

Central Government shall determine on the basis of

information made available by the State Government or

received from other sources, within fifteen days from the date

of receipt of the report, whether the offence is a Scheduled

Offence or not and also whether, having regard to the gravity

of the offence and other relevant factors, it is a fit case to be

investigated by the Agency.

(4) Where the Central Government is of the opinion that the

offence is a Scheduled Offence and it is a fit case to be

investigated by the Agency, it shall direct the Agency to

investigate the said offence.

(5) Notwithstanding anything contained in this section, if the

Central Government is of the opinion that a Scheduled

Offence has been committed which is required to be

investigated under this Act, it may, suo motu, direct the

Agency to investigate the said offence.

(6) Where any direction has been given under sub-section (4)

or sub-section (5), the State Government and any police

officer of the State Government investigating the offence shall

not proceed with the investigation and shall forthwith transmit

the relevant documents and records to the Agency.

(7) For the removal of doubts it is hereby declared that till the

Agency takes up the investigation of the case it shall be the

duty of the officer-in-charge of the police station to continue

the investigation.”

22 The salient aspects which emerge from the provisions of Section 6 need to be

formulated at this stage. They are:

PART C

15

(i) On the receipt and recording of information under Section 154 of the CrPC

relating to a scheduled offence under the NIA Act, a report must be forwarded

to the State government by the officer in-charge of the police station (subSection (1) of Section 6);

(ii) The State government on receipt of the report under sub-Section (1) must, as

expeditiously as possible, forward it to the Central government (sub-Section

(2) of Section 6);

(iii) The purpose of the first and second steps embodied in sub-Sections (1) and

(2) of Section 6 is to enable the Central government to make a decision in

terms of sub-Section (3);

(iv) Upon receiving a report from the State government, the Central government

must determine within fifteen days, on the basis of the information made

available by the State government or received from other sources, whether:

(a) the offence is a scheduled offence; and (b) if it is fit case to be investigated

by the NIA, having regard to the gravity of the offence and other relevant

factors (sub-Section (3) of Section 6);

(v) If the Central government is of the opinion that the offence is a scheduled

offence and it is a fit case to be investigated by the NIA, it shall direct the NIA

to investigate the offence (sub-Section (4) of Section 6);

(vi) An overriding power is entrusted to the Central government (evident from the

incorporation of a non-obstante provision in sub-Section (5)) to suo motu

direct the NIA to investigate the offence if it is of the opinion that: (a) a 

PART C

16

scheduled offence has been committed under the NIA Act; and (b) that it is

required to be investigated by the NIA (sub-Section (5) of Section 6);

(vii) Upon the issuance of a direction by the Central government under subSections (4) or (5) of Section 6, two consequences emanate under subSection (6) of Section 6: (a) the State government and any police officer of the

State government investigating the offence shall not proceed with the

investigation; and (b) the relevant documents and records must be

transmitted to the NIA forthwith (sub-Section (6) of Section 6);

(viii) By way of abundant caution (“for the removal of doubts”), sub-Section (7) of

Section 6 contains a declaration that till the NIA “takes up the investigation of

the case”, it shall be the duty of the office in-charge of the police station to

continue the investigation (sub-Section (7) of Section 6);

(ix) The provisions of sub-Sections (6) and (7) of Section 6 must be read together

and in harmony in order to fulfill the purpose and intent of the Parliament in a

holistic manner;

(x) The object and underlying purpose of sub-Section (7) is to ensure that there is

no hiatus in the course of the investigation. Hence, while sub-Section (6)

stipulates a two-fold requirement, that upon the issuance of a direction under

sub-Sections (4) or (5) of Section 6 neither the State government nor the

police shall proceed with the investigation and must transmit the documents

and records to the NIA forthwith, sub-Section (7) imposes a statutory

obligation on the officer in-charge of the police station to continue the

investigation till the NIA actually takes over; and

PART C

17

(xi) While enacting the provisions of sub-Section (7) of Section 6, the Parliament

was conscious of the fact that an interlude may occur between the date of the

issuance of a direction and the actual taking up of the investigation by the

NIA. However, between the issuance of a direction under sub-Sections (4) or

(5) of Section 6 and the actual taking up of the investigation by the NIA, there

should be no hiatus in the investigation to the detriment of the interests of

national security involved in the enactment of the legislation.

23 As a consequence, sub-Section (7) of Section 6 imposes a duty on the officer

in-charge of the police station to continue the investigation till the NIA actually takes

up the investigation of the case. The taking up of the investigation by the NIA is

evidently in pursuance of the directions issued under sub-Sections (4) or (5) of

Section 6. Having regard to the seriousness and gravity of the scheduled offences

under the NIA Act, the continuation of the investigation by the officer in-charge of the

police station is not a matter of discretion but a mandate imposed by the peremptory

words employed in sub-Section (7) of Section 6.

24 Now it is in this backdrop that it would be material to advert to the relationship

between the State Investigation Agencies and the NIA, contemplated by the

provisions of the enactment. Section 724 indicates that while investigating an offence

under the NIA Act, the NIA may, having regard to the gravity of the offence and

other relevant factors, either:

 24 “7. Power to transfer investigation to State Government.— While investigating any offence under this Act, the

Agency, having regard to the gravity of the offence and other relevant factors, may—

(a) if it is expedient to do so, request the State Government to associate itself with the investigation; or

(b) with the previous approval of the Central Government, transfer the case to the State Government for investigation

and trial of the offence.”

PART C

18

(i) Request the State government to associate itself with the investigation, if it is

expedient to do so; or

(ii) Transfer the case to the State government for investigation and trial of the

offence with the previous approval of the Central government.

25 Section 925 mandates that the State government shall extend all assistance

and cooperation to the NIA for the investigation of scheduled offences.

26 Further, Section 10 is in the following terms:

“10. Power of State Government to investigate Scheduled

Offences.—Save as otherwise provided in this Act, nothing

contained in this Act shall affect the powers of the State

Government to investigate and prosecute any Scheduled

Offence or other offences under any law for the time being in

force.“

The plain language of Section 10 indicates that unless there is a contrary provision

in the NIA Act, nothing contained in it would affect the powers of the State

government to investigate and prosecute any scheduled offence or other offences

under any law for the time being in force. Hence, unless the power which is

entrusted to the State government by Section 10 to investigate (and prosecute) a

scheduled offence under the NIA Act is taken away by a provision of the same

statute, that power is preserved by Section 10.

27 Therefore, what emerges is that upon the issuance of a direction under subSections (4) and (5) of Section 6, the State government and a police officer of the

 25 “9. State Government to extend assistance to National Investigation Agency.—The State Government shall extend

all assistance and co-operation to the Agency for investigation of the Scheduled Offences.”

PART C

19

State government investigating the offence are not to proceed with the investigation

and have to forthwith transmit the documents and records to the NIA (Section 6(6))

but equally, it is the duty of the officer in-charge of the police station to continue the

investigation till the NIA actually takes up the investigation of the case (Section 6(7)).

In other words, the power of the officer in-charge of the police station to continue

with the investigation is denuded upon the issuance of a direction under subSections (4) or (5) of Section 6 and the NIA actually taking up the investigation of the

case. Thus, both the issuance of directions under sub-Sections (4) and (5) of

Section 6 and the NIA actually taking up the investigation of the case would result in

the power of the officer in-charge of the police station being denuded. Until then, the

power of the State government to investigate and prosecute any scheduled offence,

by virtue of the provisions of Section 10, is preserved.

28 Sections 11 to 22 of the NIA Act are comprised in Chapter IV which is titled

“Special Courts”. Sub-Section (1) of Section 11 provided as follows, before its

amendment with effect from 2 August 2019:

“11. Power of Central Government to constitute Special

Courts.—

(1) The Central Government shall, by notification in the

Official Gazette, for the trial of Scheduled Offences, constitute

one or more Special Courts.”


29 Section 13 provides for the jurisdiction of the Special Courts. Sub-Section (1)

of Section 13 is in the following terms:

“13. Jurisdiction of Special Courts.—

PART C

20

(1) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code, every

Scheduled Offence investigated by the Agency shall be tried

only by the Special Court within whose local jurisdiction it was

committed.”

30 Section 16 provides for the procedure and powers of the Special Courts. SubSection (1) of Section 16 is in the following terms:

“16. Procedure and powers of Special Courts.—

(1) A Special Court may take cognizance of any offence,

without the accused being committed to it for trial, upon

receiving a complaint of facts that constitute such offence or

upon a police report of such facts.”

31 Under Section 22, the State government is empowered to constitute one or

more Special Courts for the trial of offences under the enactments specified in the

Schedule to the NIA Act. Section 22 is in the following terms:

“22. Power of State Government to constitute Special

Courts.—

(1) The State Government may constitute one or more

Special Courts for the trial of offences under any or all the

enactments specified in the Schedule.

(2) The provisions of this Chapter shall apply to the Special

Courts constituted by the State Government under subsection (1) and shall have effect subject to the following

modifications, namely—

(i) references to “Central Government” in Sections 11 and 15

shall be construed as references to State Government;

(ii) reference to “Agency” in sub-section (1) of Section 13 shall

be construed as a reference to the “investigation agency of

the State Government”;

PART C

21

(iii) reference to “Attorney-General for India” in sub-section (3)

of Section 13 shall be construed as reference to “AdvocateGeneral of the State”.

(3) The jurisdiction conferred by this Act on a Special Court

shall, until a Special Court is constituted by the State

Government under sub-section (1) in the case of any offence

punishable under this Act, notwithstanding anything contained

in the Code, be exercised by the Court of Session of the

division in which such offence has been committed and it

shall have all the powers and follow the procedure provided

under this Chapter.

(4) On and from the date when the Special Court is

constituted by the State Government the trial of any offence

investigated by the State Government under the provisions of

this Act, which would have been required to be held before

the Special Court, shall stand transferred to that Court on the

date on which it is constituted.”

32 Section 11(1) of the NIA Act empowers the Central government to constitute

Special Courts “for the trial of scheduled offences”. Under sub-Section (1) of Section

13, every scheduled offence which has been investigated by the NIA shall be tried

only by the Special Court within whose local jurisdiction the offence was committed.

The exclusive jurisdiction which is conferred on the Special Court to try a scheduled

offence investigated by the NIA is amplified by the non-obstante provision which

overrides the provisions contained in the CrPC. Section 22(1) empowers the State

government to constitute Special Courts for the trial of offences under the

enactments which have been specified in the Schedule to the NIA Act, and which

have been investigated by the State Investigative Agency. 

PART D

22

D Continuation of investigation by the ATS Nanded

33 Having analysed the interplay of the provisions of the NIA Act, we come to the

first ground raised in the present appeals. The submission of the appellants is that

once the Central government directed the NIA Mumbai to take over the investigation

under Section 6(4), the consequence under Section 6(6) was that ATS Nanded

could not continue with the investigation (and file a charge-sheet) thereafter. The

plain text of Section 6 indicates that the above proposition is incorrect. Sub-Section

(4) of Section 6 contemplates a direction by the Central government to the NIA to

investigate an offence, where it is of the opinion that the offence is a scheduled

offence and that it is fit to be investigated by the NIA. Sub-Section (5) also confers a

suo motu power on the Central government to direct the NIA to investigate a

scheduled offence. Under sub-Section (6), upon the issuance of a direction under

sub-Sections (4) or (5) of Section 6, the State government and the officer in-charge

of the police station investigating the offence “shall not proceed with the

investigation and shall forthwith transmit the relevant documents and records to the

[NIA]”. However, this stipulation has to be read in the context of sub-Section (7),

under which the investigation by the officer in-charge of the police station has to

continue till the NIA takes up the investigation of the case. Sub-Section (7) is a

provision for the “removal of doubts”. Such a provision clarifies the intent of the lawmaker so as to place it beyond the realm of ambiguity. Hence, on a conjoint reading

of sub-Sections (4), (5), (6) and (7) of Section 6, what emerges is that the ATS

Nanded had a duty to continue with the investigation till the NIA Mumbai actually 

PART D

23

took over the investigation from it. Therefore, we must now determine when did the

NIA Mumbai actually commence the investigation in the present case.

34 In order to appreciate when the NIA Mumbai began its investigation, we must

first understand the meaning of the term. A three Judge Bench of this Court in H N

Rishbud and Inder Singh v. State of Delhi26 (“H N Rishbud”) outlined the various

steps of an investigation under the CrPC, while noting that investigation begins once

the police receives information that discloses the commission of a cognizable

offence. The Court held that investigation encompasses the steps taken by the

police to ascertain facts of the case and ends either with the filing of a charge-sheet

or a closure report based on such facts. Justice Jagannadhadas held thus:

“5…Investigation usually starts on information relating to

the commission of an offence given to an officer in

charge of a police station and recorded under Section

154 of the Code. If from information so received or

otherwise, the officer in charge of the police station has

reason to suspect the commission of an offence, he or

some other subordinate officer deputed by him, has to

proceed to the spot to investigate the facts and

circumstances of the case and if necessary to take

measures for the discovery and arrest of the offender.

Thus investigation primarily consists in the

ascertainment of the facts and circumstances of the

case. By definition, it includes “all the proceedings under the

Code for the collection of evidence conducted by a police

officer”. For the above purposes, the investigating officer is

given the power to require before himself the attendance of

any person appearing to be acquainted with the

circumstances of the case. He has also the authority to

examine such person orally either by himself or by a duly

authorised deputy. The officer examining any person in the

course of investigation may reduce his statement into writing

and such writing is available, in the trial that may follow, for

 26 (1955) 1 SCR 1150

PART D

24

use in the manner provided in this behalf in Section 162.

Under Section 155 the officer in charge of a police station has

the power of making a search in any place for the seizure of

anything believed to be necessary for the purpose of the

investigation. The search has to be conducted by such officer

in person. A subordinate officer may be deputed by him for

the purpose only for reasons to be recorded in writing if he is

unable to conduct the search in person and there is no other

competent officer available. The investigating officer has also

the power to arrest the person or persons suspected of the

commission of the offence under Section 54 of the Code. A

police officer making an investigation is enjoined to enter his

proceedings in a diary from day-to-day. Where such

investigation cannot be completed within the period of 24

hours and the accused is in custody he is enjoined also to

send a copy of the entries in the diary to the Magistrate

concerned. It is important to notice that where the

investigation is conducted not by the officer in charge of the

police station but by a subordinate officer (by virtue of one or

other of the provisions enabling him to depute such

subordinate officer for any of the steps in the investigation)

such subordinate officer is to report the result of the

investigation to the officer in charge of the police station. If,

upon the completion of the investigation it appears to the

officer in charge of the police station that there is no sufficient

evidence or reasonable ground, he may decide to release the

suspected accused, if in custody, on his executing a bond. If,

however, it appears to him that there is sufficient evidence or

reasonable ground, to place the accused on trial, he is to take

the necessary steps therefore under Section 170 of the Code.

In either case, on the completion of the investigation he has

to submit a report to the Magistrate under Section 173 of the

Code in the prescribed form furnishing various details. Thus,

under the Code investigation consists generally of the

following steps: (1) Proceeding to the spot, (2)

Ascertainment of the facts and circumstances of the

case, (3) Discovery and arrest of the suspected offender,

(4) Collection of evidence relating to the commission of

the offence which may consist of (a) the examination of

various persons (including the accused) and the

reduction of their statements into writing, if the officer

thinks fit, (b) the search of places or seizure of things

considered necessary for the investigation and to be

produced at the trial, and (5) Formation of the opinion as

to whether on the material collected there is a case to

place the accused before a Magistrate for trial and if so 

PART D

25

taking the necessary steps for the same by the filing of a

charge-sheet under Section 173…”

(emphasis supplied)

35 In Ramsinh Bavaji Jadeja v. State of Gujarat27, a two Judge Bench of this

Court held that the question as to when an investigation commences has to be

answered based upon the facts and circumstances of each case, with one of the

factors to be considered being whether the actions of the police were guided by

information which disclosed the commission of a cognizable offence. Justice N P

Singh held:

“7. From time to time, controversy has been raised, as to

at what stage the investigation commences. That has to

be considered and examined on the facts of each case,

especially, when the information of a cognizable offence has

been given on telephone. If the telephonic message is cryptic

in nature and the officer in charge, proceeds to the place of

occurrence on basis of that information to find out the details

of the nature of the offence itself, then it cannot be said that

the information, which had been received by him on

telephone, shall be deemed to be first information report. The

object and purpose of giving such telephonic message is not

to lodge the first information report, but to request the officer

in charge of the police station to reach the place of

occurrence. On the other hand, if the information given on

telephone is not cryptic and on the basis of that information,

the officer in charge, is prima facie satisfied about the

commission of a cognizable offence and he proceeds from

the police station after recording such information, to

investigate such offence then any statement made by any

person in respect of the said offence including details about

the participants, shall be deemed to be a statement made by

a person to the police officer “in the course of an

investigation”, covered by Section 162 of the Code. That

statement cannot be treated as first information report…”

 27 (1994) 2 SCC 685

PART D

26

36 In Union of India v. Prakash P. Hinduja28, another two Judge Bench held

that investigation includes all proceedings under the CrPC for the collection of

evidence by the police, which ends when there is enough evidence to determine

whether to place the accused person before a Magistrate. Justice G P Mathur

observed:

“11…Section 2(h) CrPC defines “investigation” and it includes

all the proceedings under the Code for the collection of

evidence conducted by a police officer or by any person

(other than a Magistrate) who is authorised by a Magistrate in

this behalf. It ends with the formation of the opinion as to

whether on the material collected, there is a case to place the

accused before a Magistrate for trial and if so, taking the

necessary steps for the same by filing of a charge-sheet

under Section 173 [see State of U.P. v. Bhagwant Kishore

Joshi [AIR 1964 SC 221 : (1964) 1 Cri LJ 140] , AIR (para 8)

and H.N. Rishbud v. State of Delhi [AIR 1955 SC 196 : (1955)

1 SCR 1150 : 1955 Cri LJ 526] , SCR at p. 1157].”

37 From the above line of cases, what emerges is that an investigation

commences upon the receipt of information by the police which discloses the

commission of a cognizable offence. However, the mere receipt and recording of

such information (through an FIR) by itself does not mean that the investigation has

also commenced. Rather, the investigation commences when the police takes the

first step (of proceeding to the spot or collecting evidence or speaking to a witness

or arresting the accused person) on the basis of such information.

38 In the present case, the investigation was initiated by the ATS Nanded

following the registration of the FIR on 14 July 2016, on receipt of source information

 28 (2003) 6 SCC 195

PART D

27

that Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai was in contact over the internet with members of

IS/ISIS/ISIL/Daesh. This led to the arrest of four accused persons, including Naser

Bin Abu Bakr Yafai and Mohammad Shahed Khan. Thereafter, considering the

gravity of the offence involved, the Central government directed the NIA Mumbai to

take up further investigation of the case on 8 September 2016, exercising its powers

under Section 6(4) of the NIA Act. The NIA Mumbai re-numbered the case on 14

September 2016. However, the NIA Mumbai intimated the ATS Nanded to transfer

the case records to them on 23 November 2016, and it was only on 8 December

2016 that the records were handed over to the NIA Mumbai by the ATS Nanded.

ATS Nanded filed the charge-sheet before the CJM, Nanded on 7 October 2016

(which was prior to even the letter of the NIA Mumbai dated 23 November 2016 for

the handing over of the case records). Likewise, the CJM, Nanded took cognizance

of the offence and committed the case to trial before the ASJ, Nanded on 18

October 2016.

39 The contention of the ATS Nanded is that the investigation by them until the

NIA Mumbai took up the investigation of the case was in terms of the mandate of

sub-Section (7) of Section 6 since the provision states that “till the [NIA] takes up the

investigation of the case, it shall be the duty of the officer in-charge of the Police

Station to continue the investigation”. In the present case, the NIA Mumbai intimated

the ATS Nanded to transfer the case papers on 23 November 2016, following which

the ATS Nanded sent the papers on 8 December 2016. While the NIA Mumbai may

have re-numbered the case file on 14 September 2016, it could not have taken the

PART E

28

initial step of its investigation into the case till it had access to the case papers,

which it only received from the ATS Nanded on 8 December 2016. Thus, the mere

renumbering of the case filed by the NIA Mumbai did not take away the power of the

ATS Nanded to continue the investigation. The said authority could do so till the

records of the case were received by the NIA Mumbai. Hence, the investigation

conducted by the ATS Nanded prior to this was within the mandate of sub-Section

(7) of Section 6 of the NIA Act. The said provision is clarificatory in nature so as to

remove any doubt about the duty of the officer in-charge of the police station to

continue the investigation till the ‘Agency’, i.e., the NIA Mumbai in the instant case,

took up the investigation on receipt of the case papers. Therefore, the continuation

of the investigation, and the filing of the charge-sheet upon its conclusion, by the

ATS Nanded was in terms of the statutory mandate under Section 6(7) of the NIA

Act.

E CJM, Nanded’s jurisdiction for remand and committal to trial

40 The second ground which has been urged on behalf of the appellants is that

the submission of the charge-sheet before the CJM, Nanded and the order of

committal are a nullity since the jurisdiction to investigate the offence was entrusted

to the NIA Mumbai and the jurisdiction was vested with the Special Court. The

continuation of the investigation by the ATS Nanded has been analysed above and it

has been held to be in accordance with the mandate of Section 6(7) of the NIA Act.

Now, sub-Section (1) of Section 11 empowers the Central government to constitute 

PART E

29

Special Courts “for the trial of scheduled offence”. Sub-Section (1) of Section 13

provides that, notwithstanding anything contained in the CrPC, every scheduled

offence investigated by the NIA shall be tried only by the Special Court. Hence, the

exclusive jurisdiction of the Special Court to try a scheduled offence under subSection (1) of Section 13 attaches where the scheduled offence has been

“investigated by the [NIA]”. Further, sub-Section (1) of Section 16 is an enabling

provision which empowers a Special Court to take cognizance of any offence

without the accused being committed to it for trial upon receiving a complaint of facts

which constitute such offence or upon a police report of such offence. However, this

clearly would not affect either the antecedent investigation by the ATS Nanded prior

to the NIA Mumbai having taken up the investigation or the submission of the

charge-sheet as a logical consequence of the investigation which was conducted by

the ATS Nanded. The enabling provisions of sub-Section (1) of Section 16 would not

invalidate the submission of the charge-sheet to the CJM, Nanded or the order of

committal made to the ASJ, Nanded.

41 In this context, it would be worthwhile to revisit the fundamental principle

which was enunciated by the Bench of three learned Judges in H N Rishbud

(supra). It was held that the cognizance or trial based on it would not necessarily be

nullified even in a case where the investigation was found to be invalid. The Court,

speaking through Justice Jagannadhadas, held:

“9...Now, trial follows cognizance and cognizance is preceded

by investigation. This is undoubtedly the basic scheme of the

Code in respect of cognizable cases. But it does not 

PART E

30

necessarily follow that an invalid investigation nullifies the

cognizance or trial based thereon. Here we are not concerned

with the effect of the breach of a mandatory provision

regulating the competence or procedure of the Court as

regards cognizance or trial…”

The Court held that if therefore cognizance is in fact taken, on a police report vitiated

by the breach of a mandatory provision relating to an investigation, “there can be no

doubt that the result of the trial which follows cannot be set aside unless illegality in

the investigation can be shown to have brought about a miscarriage of justice”:

“9… If, therefore, cognizance is in fact taken, on a police

report vitiated by the breach of a mandatory provision relating

to investigation, there can be no doubt that the result of the

trial which follows it cannot be set aside unless the illegality in

the investigation can be shown to have brought about a

miscarriage of justice. That an illegality committed in the

course of investigation does not affect the competence and

the jurisdiction of the Court for trial is well settled as appears

from the cases in Prabhu v. Emperor [AIR 1944 Privy Council

73] and Lumbhardar Zutshi v. King [AIR 1950 Privy Council

26] . These no doubt relate to the illegality of arrest in the

course of investigation while we are concerned in the present

cases with the illegality with reference to the machinery for

the collection of the evidence. This distinction may have a

bearing on the question of prejudice or miscarriage of justice,

but both the cases clearly show that invalidity of the

investigation has no relation to the competence of the Court.

We are, therefore, clearly, also, of the opinion that where the

cognizance of the case has in fact been taken and the case

has proceeded to termination, the invalidity of the precedent

investigation does not vitiate the result, unless miscarriage of

justice has been caused thereby.”

42 We must of course clarify that in the present case, the Court is dealing with a

situation where the investigation by the ATS Nanded was valid in terms of the

provisions of Section 6(7) of the NIA Act.

PART E

31

43 However, a second argument which has been urged by the appellants is that

even if the ATS Nanded had the power to continue with its investigation and file a

charge-sheet, it could only be before a Special Court under the NIA Act since the

appellants have been charged under the UAPA, which is a scheduled offence under

the NIA Act.

44 In support of this proposition, reliance has been placed upon a judgment of a

three Judge Bench of this Court in Bikramjit Singh v. State of Punjab29 (“Bikramjit

Singh”). In Bikramjit Singh (supra), an FIR was registered on 18 November 2018

implicating offences under Sections 302, 307, 452, 427, 341 and 34 of the IPC

together with Section 25 of the Arms Act 1959, Sections 3 to 6 of the ES Act and

Section 13 of the UAPA. The appellant was arrested on 22 November 2018. After

the 90 days period expired on 31 December 2019, the appellant submitted an

application for default bail to the Sub-Divisional Judicial Magistrate30, which was

dismissed by an order dated 25 February 2019, on the ground that by an order

dated 13 February 2019, the SDJM had already extended time from 90 to 180 days

under Section 167 of the CrPC, as amended by Section 43D(2) of the UAPA. The

revision petition filed by the petitioner, against the SDJM’s order dated 12 February

2019, before the ASJ, which was the Special Court designated under Section 22 of

the NIA Act, succeeded on 25 March 2019 with the finding that only the Special

Court was competent to pass an order on an application moved under Section

43D(2) of the UAPA. A day subsequent to it, on 26 March 2019, a charge-sheet was

 29 (2020) 10 SCC 616 30 “SDJM”

PART E

32

filed before the Special Court. Thereafter, despite the order dated 25 March 2019, a

revision petition filed by the appellant against the order dated 25 February 2019 was

dismissed by the Special Court on 11 April 2019, thereby refusing to grant default

bail. The High Court then observed that since the investigation was being carried out

by the State Police, the Magistrate had the power under Section 167(2) of the CrPC

read with Section 43A of the UAPA to extend the period of investigation up to 180

days and then commit the case to the Court of Sessions. In this backdrop, Justice

Rohinton F Nariman, speaking for the three Judge Bench, held that a notification by

the Government of Punjab had been issued under Section 22 for setting up Special

Courts within the State of Punjab on 10 June 2014. After adverting to Sections 13(1)

and Section 22(2) of the NIA Act, the Court observed:

“25. When these provisions are read along with Section

2(1)(d) and the provisos in Section 43-D(2) of the UAPA, the

scheme of the two Acts, which are to be read together,

becomes crystal clear. Under the first proviso in Section 43-

D(2)(b), the 90-day period indicated by the first proviso to

Section 167(2) of the Code can be extended up to a

maximum period of 180 days if “the Court” is satisfied with the

report of the Public Prosecutor indicating progress of

investigation and specific reasons for detention of the

accused beyond the period of 90 days. “The Court”, when

read with the extended definition contained in Section

2(1)(d) of the UAPA, now speaks of the Special Court

constituted under Section 22 of the NIA Act. What

becomes clear, therefore, from a reading of these

provisions is that for all offences under the UAPA, the

Special Court alone has exclusive jurisdiction to try such

offences. This becomes even clearer on a reading of

Section 16 of the NIA Act which makes it clear that the

Special Court may take cognizance of an offence without

the accused being committed to it for trial upon receipt of

a complaint of facts or upon a police report of such facts.

What is equally clear from a reading of Section 16(2) of the

NIA Act is that even though offences may be punishable with 

PART E

33

imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years, the Special

Court alone is to try such offence — albeit in a summary way

if it thinks it fit to do so. On a conspectus of the

abovementioned provisions, Section 13 read with Section

22(2)(ii) of the NIA Act, in particular, the argument of the

learned counsel appearing on behalf of the State of Punjab

based on Section 10 of the said Act has no legs to stand on

since the Special Court has exclusive jurisdiction over every

Scheduled Offence investigated by the investigating agency

of the State.

26. Before the NIA Act was enacted, offences under the

UAPA were of two kinds — those with a maximum

imprisonment of over 7 years, and those with a maximum

imprisonment of 7 years and under. Under the Code as

applicable to offences against other laws, offences having a

maximum sentence of 7 years and under are triable by the

Magistrate's courts, whereas offences having a maximum

sentence of above 7 years are triable by Courts of Session.

This scheme has been completely done away with by the

NIA Act, 2008 as all Scheduled Offences i.e. all offences

under the UAPA, whether investigated by the National

Investigation Agency or by the investigating agencies of

the State Government, are to be tried exclusively by

Special Courts set up under that Act. In the absence of

any designated court by notification issued by either the

Central Government or the State Government, the

fallback is upon the Court of Session alone. Thus, under

the aforesaid scheme what becomes clear is that so far

as all offences under the UAPA are concerned, the

Magistrate's jurisdiction to extend time under the first

proviso in Section 43-D(2)(b) is non-existent, “the Court”

being either a Sessions Court, in the absence of a

notification specifying a Special Court, or the Special

Court itself. The impugned judgment in arriving at the

contrary conclusion is incorrect as it has missed Section 22(2)

read with Section 13 of the NIA Act. Also, the impugned

judgment has missed Section 16(1) of the NIA Act which

states that a Special Court may take cognizance of any

offence without the accused being committed to it for trial,

inter alia, upon a police report of such facts.”

(emphasis supplied)

PART E

34

The above narration would indicate that the power to extend the 90 days period,

indicated by the first proviso to Section 167(2) of the CrPC, up to a maximum of 180

days was vested with “the Court”. “The Court”, read with the definition contained in

Section 2(1)(d) of the UAPA, was held to refer to the Special Court constituted under

Section 22 of the NIA Act. Hence, this Court held that the Special Court constituted

under Section 22 of the NIA Act had exclusive jurisdiction over every scheduled

offence under the NIA Act investigated by the investigating agency of the State.

45 The judgment in Bikramjit Singh (supra) has been cited in another three

Judge Bench in M Ravindran v. Intelligence Officer, Directorate of Revenue

Intelligence31. In that case, the appellant was arrested and remanded to judicial

custody on 4 August 2018, for alleged offences punishable under the Narcotic Drugs

and Psychotropic Substances Act 198532. After the completion of 180 days from the

remand day (31 January 2019), an application for bail was filed on 1 February 2019

under Section 167(2) of the CrPC before the Special Court for exclusive trial of

cases under the NDPS Act. After the completion of the arguments of the appellant

on the application for bail, the respondent-complainant filed an additional complaint

on 1 February 2019, and sought the dismissal of the bail petition on the basis that

the investigation was not complete and the charge-sheet had not been filed. The trial

Court allowed the application for bail but this was set aside by the High Court, since

the additional complaint was filed on 1 February 2019 and the application for bail

under Section 167(2) was not disposed of by the time the additional complaint was

 31 (2021) 2 SCC 485 32 “NDPS Act”

PART E

35

filed. Justice M M Shantanagoudar, speaking for the three Judge Bench, referred to

the judgment in Bikramjit Singh (supra) and observed that so long as the

application for the grant of default bail was made on the expiry of the period of 90

days before a charge-sheet has filed, the right to default bail becomes complete.

Hence, the Court held that so long as an application has been made for default bail

on the expiry of the stated period (before time is further extended to a maximum of

180 days) default bail being an indefeasible right of the accused under the first

proviso to Section 167(2) of the CrPC kicks in and must be granted. Applying the

law to the facts, the Court held:

“25. Therefore, in conclusion:

25.1. Once the accused files an application for bail under the

proviso to Section 167(2) he is deemed to have “availed of” or

enforced his right to be released on default bail, accruing after

expiry of the stipulated time-limit for investigation. Thus, if the

accused applies for bail under Section 167(2) CrPC read with

Section 36-A(4), NDPS Act upon expiry of 180 days or the

extended period, as the case may be, the court must release

him on bail forthwith without any unnecessary delay after

getting necessary information from the Public Prosecutor, as

mentioned supra. Such prompt action will restrict the

prosecution from frustrating the legislative mandate to release

the accused on bail in case of default by the investigating

agency.

25.2. The right to be released on default bail continues to

remain enforceable if the accused has applied for such bail,

notwithstanding pendency of the bail application; or

subsequent filing of the charge-sheet or a report seeking

extension of time by the prosecution before the court; or filing

of the charge-sheet during the interregnum when challenge to

the rejection of the bail application is pending before a higher

court.

25.3. However, where the accused fails to apply for default

bail when the right accrues to him, and subsequently a

charge-sheet, additional complaint or a report seeking 

PART E

36

extension of time is preferred before the Magistrate, the right

to default bail would be extinguished. The Magistrate would

be at liberty to take cognizance of the case or grant further

time for completion of the investigation, as the case may be,

though the accused may still be released on bail under other

provisions of the CrPC.

25.4. Notwithstanding the order of default bail passed by the

court, by virtue of Explanation I to Section 167(2), the actual

release of the accused from custody is contingent on the

directions passed by the competent court granting bail. If the

accused fails to furnish bail and/or comply with the terms and

conditions of the bail order within the time stipulated by the

court, his continued detention in custody is valid.”


46 The judgment in Bikramjit Singh (supra) has been followed in another recent

decision by a three Judge Bench in Sadique v. State of Madhya Pradesh33, where

it was held that the appellants were entitled to default bail since the CJM, Bhopal

had no jurisdiction to extend time for investigation under Section 43D(2)(b) of the

UAPA, as such jurisdiction vested only with Special Courts. In Fakhrey Alam v.

State of Uttar Pradesh34, a two Judge Bench of this Court distinguished Bikramjit

Singh (supra) in a case where the CJM had granted 180 days for the filing of

charge-sheet by accepting the submission that “in State of Uttar Pradesh the

competent Court was of the special Chief Judicial Magistrate and it is only recently

now about a month back that special Courts had been notified” and by holding that

“the situation in the State of Uttar Pradesh is different and it is not as if there were

any notified special courts in existence”.

 33 Criminal Appeal No 963 of 2021, order dated 7 September 2021 34 2021 SCC OnLine SC 532

PART E

37

47 In the present case, the appellants were arrested on 14 July 2016. The

charge-sheet was submitted on 7 October 2016. The 90 days period of remand

would have been completed on 14 October 2016. Applying the principles enunciated

in Bikramjit Singh (supra) (in relation to the power of the CJM to extend

investigation up to 180 days) to the present case (in relation to the jurisdiction of the

CJM in relation to remand and committal of case to trial), the first consideration

would be whether there existed a Special Court under Section 22 of the NIA Act to

divest the CJM, Nanded of its jurisdiction. The appellants have produced before us

various notifications issued by the Government of Maharashtra designating Special

Courts under Section 22 for trial of schedules offences under the NIA Act. The

earliest of those notifications is dated 13 April 2017. In its counter-affidavit before

this Court, the State of Maharashtra has stated that:

“8…the present Crime No. i.e. 08/2016 has been registered

against accused/Petitioner on 14/07/2016. As per record of

the office of deponent it appears that till the date of

registration of Crime No. 08/2016, the State Government has

not established Special Court under Section 22 National

Investigation Act, 2008 at Nanded.”

Hence, the principle enunciated by this Court in Bikramjit Singh (supra) would not

apply to the present case since there existed no Special Courts in the State of

Maharashtra designated under Section 22 of the NIA Act (since the investigation

was being conducted by the ATS Nanded, which had the jurisdiction over the case).

PART E

38

48 We have already held that the continuance of the investigation by the ATS

Nanded in terms of Section 6(7) of the NIA Act, till the investigation had been taken

up by the NIA Mumbai, was legitimate. A reading of Section 10 of the NIA Act

indicates that there is no embargo on the State Investigating Agency to investigate a

scheduled offence, which would include offences under the UAPA. Consequently, till

the investigation was taken up by the NIA Mumbai, the ATS Nanded was acting

within jurisdiction in investigating the offence and filing the charge-sheet in the

present case. Both of these took place prior to 8 December 2016, which is when the

investigation was handed over to the NIA Mumbai. Admittedly, once the NIA Mumbai

took up the investigation, the Special Court designated under Section 11 of the NIA

Act would have sole jurisdiction to try the case. In the present case, the NIA Mumbai

took up the investigation only on 8 December 2016 after receiving the records from

the ATS Nanded, and thereupon it filed an application for transfer of the case from

the ASJ, Nanded to the NIA Special Court, Mumbai constituted under Section 11 of

the NIA Act.

49 However, till the NIA Mumbai took over the investigation, jurisdiction would

reside with a Court which ordinarily had it. The Government of Maharashtra in

exercise of powers conferred by Section 11 read with Section 185 of the CrPC

issued a notification dated 26 August 2016 designating the CJM, Nanded as the

remand court and the ASJ, Nanded as a Special Court for the trial of cases filed by

the ATS Nanded. There is no challenge to the notification dated 26 August 2016. In

PART F

39

this backdrop, the CJM, Nanded has been designated as a Court of remand and the

ASJ, Nanded as a Special Court under the CrPC for the trial of cases filed by the

ATS Nanded. Hence, they both had the jurisdiction to entertain the present case

under the UAPA till the NIA Mumbai took over the investigation on 8 December

2016, and sought a transfer of the case to the NIA Special Court at Mumbai

constituted under Section 11 of the NIA Act.

F Conclusion

50 For the above reasons, we affirm the judgment and order of the High Court

dated 5 July 2018. We hold that, in accordance with Section 6(7), the ATS Nanded

was not barred from continuing with its investigation till the NIA Mumbai actually took

up the investigation. Further, we hold that the CJM, Nanded could have committed

the case to trial before the ASJ, Nanded upon the filing of charge-sheet by the ATS

Nanded since they were the designated Courts for the ATS Nanded and no Special

Court had been designated by the Government of Maharashtra under Section 22 of

the NIA Act.

PART F

40

51 The appeals shall, accordingly, stand dismissed.

52 Pending application(s), if any, stand disposed of.

…..…….………….…………………...........................J.

[Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud]

…..…….………….…………………...........................J.

 [Vikram Nath]

…..…….………….…………………...........................J.

 [BV Nagarathna]

New Delhi;

October 20, 2021.

Whether the assignee can execute the decree = The Explanation clearly stipulates that nothing in Order XXI Rule 16 of the CPC would affect the provisions of Section 146 and the transferee of the right in property which is subject matter of a suit may apply for execution of the decree without separate assignment of the decree as required by law. No doubt the appellants are not parties in the suit proceedings but they claim as assignees of the decree holder.

Reportable

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

CIVIL APPEAL NO.18278 OF 2017

VAISHNO DEVI CONSTRUCTION Rep. Thr.

Sole Proprietor (D) Thr. LRs & Anr. … Appellants

Versus

UNION OF INDIA & ORS. …Respondents

With

C.A. No.18279/2017

J U D G M E N T

SANJAY KISHAN KAUL, J.

1. The contours of the legal controversy which arise for consideration

in the present appeal emanate from the plea of the appellants claim based

as an assignee of the decree holder in terms of Order XXI Rule 16 of the

Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (hereinafter referred to as the ‘CPC’) in

their application filed under Section 47 of the CPC by taking recourse to

Section 146 of the CPC read with Section 2(1)(g) of the Arbitration

&Conciliation Act, 1996 (hereinafter referred to as the ‘A&C Act’). The

1

significant aspect is the addition of the explanation to Order XXI Rule 16

of the CPC, which was added pursuant to the recommendation made by

the Law Commission of India in its 54th Report on the CPC in 1973,

which in turn was a sequitur to the conflicting views of the High Courts

on the matter in issue.

The facts:

2. In order to appreciate the controversy, relevant facts are being set

out. On 29.12.1995, a contract was awarded by the Union of India to one

Surendra Nath Kanungo @ S.N. Kanungo for executing the work of

extension of runway at Port Blair Airport (hereinafter referred to as

‘Works’). Shri S.N. Kanungo passed away in the year 2012 and is

represented by legal heirs in the present proceedings as respondent Nos.2

to 7, while respondent No.1 is the contract awarding authority.

3. Shri S.N. Kanungo entered into an arrangement whereby the

Works were assigned to Vaishno Devi Constructions, a sole

proprietorship concern of Prabhat Bhushan Kanungo (appellant No.1 in

CA No. 18278 of 2017). It appears that appellant No.2, Surya Prakash

Kanungo was also taking care of the work. A different part of the work

was assigned to BeeDee Builders, a sole proprietorship of Swapna Das

2

and, once again, apparently her husband Bijoy Kumar Das was playing a

role in executing the Works as the said two parties are impleaded as

appellant Nos.1 and 2 in CA No. 18279/2017. Shri S.N. Kanungo was a

special class contractor and it appears from the case set up by the

appellants that they were to act on behalf of S.N. Kanungo to carry out

the Works for which they were to be paid monthly remuneration and

hiring charges of certain equipment that was to be provided by the

appellants herein. The appellants claim to have supervised the work of

extension of runway on behalf of Shri S.N. Kanungo but apparently some

part of their dues were not paid. Shri S.N. Kanungo is stated to have

executed an Assignment Deed along with a cheque in favour of Mr.

Prabhat Bhushan Kanungo for Rs.1 crore as security on 27.10.1999 to

secure payment of such dues. The claims were in respect of both the

appellants.

4. It appears that some disputes arose between Shri S.N. Kanungo

and respondent No.1 which were referred to arbitration and an award was

passed in his favour on 22.03.1999. Shri S.N. Kanungo received the

money under the award on 28.01.2001.

5. Another reference was made in respect of another set of non3

payments claimed by Shri S.N. Kanungo from respondent No.1.The

dispute was referred to the sole arbitration of Shri T.K. Mishra, who

passed an award in favour of S.N. Kanungo on 31.10.2006. Respondent

No.1 filed proceedings before the High Court of Calcutta to set aside the

award under Section 34 of the A&C Act. The proceedings succeeded in

terms of an order of the learned single Judge of the High Court dated

28.09.2007. On appeal being preferred before the Division Bench of the

High Court, the judgment of the learned single Judge was reversed by a

judgment dated 03.03.2008 and the appeal was allowed.

6. Shri S.N. Kanungo, in order to recover the amount, filed an

execution case before the District Judge, Port Blair, being Other

Execution Case No.01/2008.During the pendency of the execution

proceedings, respondent No.1 filed an SLP in the Supreme Court, being

SLP(C) No.21507/2008, challenging the judgment of the Division Bench

dated 03.03.2008 and seeking stay of the execution proceedings. Notice

was issued and stay of execution proceedings was granted in his favour.

During the pendency of the SLP, Shri S.N. Kanungo passed away in 2012

and was substituted by his legal heirs in both the SLP and the execution

proceedings. The Supreme Court ultimately dismissed the SLP vide

4

order dated 19.01.2016 making only an alteration of the rate of interest

while observing that the interest awarded was on the higher side and,

therefore modifying it to 8% (simple interest) from the date of the bill.

7. It is at that stage that the appellants in the two appeals before us

came into the proceedings by filing objections in the form of an

application under Section 47 read with Order 22 Rules 1&2 of the CPC

read with Sections 2(1)(g) and 36 of the A&C Act.

8. The claims made by the appellants were on the basis of an

assignment made by Shri S.N. Kanungo and, thus, sought to keep any

order for release of the amount in abeyance in full or in part to protect

their interests. It appears that the prayer for interim relief did not succeed

as the applications were dismissed on 08.04.2016.Ultimately on

26.12.2016, both sets of objections claiming a right in the decretal

amount were also rejected by the executing court on the basis that the

Assignment Deed and cheque had not been proved in those proceedings

to establish the fact of assignment. It may, however, be noted that there

was no trial in this matter before the executing court.

9. The aforesaid order was then sought to be assailed before the

Calcutta High Court by filing a civil revision petition which was

5

dismissed vide impugned judgment dated 13.02.2017. On the SLP being

preferred, notice was issued on 17.04.2017 and a direction to maintain

status quo was also simultaneously issued pending disposal of the matter.

Since the dispute between the two sets of private parties would cause

liability of interest on respondent No.1, in terms of order dated

06.03.2018, the request of respondent No.1 to deposit the decretal

amount in the executing court was accepted. One would presuppose that

this amount would be kept in an interest-bearing deposit.

Appellants’ Submissions:

10. Learned counsel for the appellants sought to contend that the

appellants were the authorised assigned representatives of Shri S.N.

Kanungo. They relied on the amended provisions contained in Order 21

Rule 16 of the CPC in their application under Section 47 of the CPC by

taking recourse to Section 146 of the CPC read with Section 2(1)(g) of

the A&C Act, claiming that Shri S.N. Kanungo voluntarily executed an

assignment deed on 27.10.1999, which is a document in writing, while

simultaneously issuing a cheque as security.

11. Order XXI of the CPC is titled as “Execution of Decrees and

Orders”. Rule 16 of Order XXI deals with “application for execution by

6

transferee of decree” and reads as under:

“Order XXI

Execution of Decrees and Orders

.... .... .... ....

16. Application for execution by transferee of decree.—Where a

decree or, if a decree has been passed jointly in favour of two or

more persons, the interest of any decree-holder in the decree is

transferred by assignment in writing or by operation of law, the

transferee may apply for execution of the decree to the Court which

passed it; and the decree may be executed in the same manner and

subject to the same conditions as if the application were made by

such decree-holder:

Provided that, where the decree, or such interest as aforesaid, has

been transferred by assignment, notice of such application shall be

given to the transferor and the judgment-debtor, and the decree shall

not be executed until the Court has heard their objections (if any) to

its execution:

Provided also that, where a decree for the payment of money against

two or more persons has been transferred to one of them, it shall not

be executed against the others.

[Explanation. —Nothing in this rule shall affect the provisions of

section 146, and a transferee of rights in the property, which is the

subject matter of the suit, may apply for execution of the decree

without a separate assignment of the decree as required by this

rule.]”

12. It may be observed that the Explanation was inserted by Act 104 of

1976 (hereinafter referred to as the ‘Code of Civil Procedure

(Amendment) Act, 1976’) w.e.f. 01.02.1977 and has a material bearing

in the conspectus of the respective arguments. The recourse to Section

7

47 of the CPC in the application arises from this provision specifying the

questions to be determined by the court executing a decree, and it reads

as under:

“47. Questions to be determined by the Court executing decree.

—(1) All questions arising between the parties to the suit in which

the decree was passed, or their representatives, and relating to the

execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree, shall be

determined by the Court executing the decree and not by a separate

suit.

[***]

(3) Where a question arises as to whether any person is or is not the

representative of a party, such question shall, for the purposes of this

section, be determined by the Court.

[Explanation 1.—For the purposes of this section, a plaintiff whose

suit has been dismissed and a defendant against whom a suit has

been dismissed are parties to the suit.

Explanation II—(a) For the purposes of this section, a purchaser of

property at a sale in execution of a decree shall be deemed to be a

party to the suit in which the decree is passed; and

(b) all questions relating to the delivery of possession of such

property to such purchaser or his representative shall be deemed to

be questions relating to the execution, discharge or satisfaction of

the decree within the meaning of this section.]”

13. Section 146 of the CPC deals with the “Proceedings by or against

representatives” and reads as under:

“146. Proceedings by or against representatives.—Save as

otherwise provided by this Code or by any law for the time being in

8

force, where any proceeding may be taken or application made by or

against any person then the proceeding may be taken or the

application may be made by or against any person claiming under

him.”

14. It was, thus, the case of the appellants that their claim raised a

question to be determined by an executing court within the parameters of

Section 47 of the CPC in the context of the appellants claiming rights

under the assignment of Shri S.N. Kanungo (as per Section 146 of the

CPC). Section 2(1)(g) of the A&C Act being part of the definition clause

reads as under:

“2. Definitions. —

(1) In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires,—

.... .... .... .... ....

(g) “legal representative” means a person who in law represents the

estate of a deceased person, and includes any person who

intermeddles with the estate of the deceased, and, where a party acts

in a representative character, the person on whom the estate

devolves on the death of the party so acting;”

15. The provisions of the CPC were thus sought to be made applicable

to these proceedings for execution of an award which had culminated in a

decree in the capacity of an assignee/representative to claim from Shri

S.N. Kanungo on account of the assignment.

16. In the conspectus of the aforesaid dispute, the common case is that

the judgment of this Court in Jugalkishore Saraf v. M/s. Raw Cotton

9

Co. Ltd.1

 is of utmost significance. This is so as the failure of the

appellants to succeed before the courts below is predicated on the

reasoning that this judgment of the Supreme Court covers the case

against the appellants. A specific reliance was placed on para 26, as per

which Order XXI Rule 16 contemplates the actual transfer of the decree

by an assignment in writing executed “after the decree is passed”. Thus,

while a transfer of or an agreement to transfer a decree that may be

passed in the future may, in equity, entitle the intending transferee to

claim the beneficial interest in the decree after it is passed, such equitable

transfer does not relate back to the prior agreement and does not render

the transferee a transferee of the decree by an assignment in writing

within the meaning of Order XXI Rule 16 of the CPC.

17. Learned counsel for the appellants sought to invite our attention to

certain other paragraphs in support of the proposition they seek to

advance, more specifically paras 52, 54, 56 and 59. Earlier judicial

precedent of the Bombay High Court and the Calcutta High Court were

referred to for the proposition that Order XXI Rule 16 was not intended

to apply to cases where serious contest arose with respect to the rights of

persons to an equitable interest in a decree. Two views were mentioned,

1 AIR 1955 SC 376.

10

i.e., the strict view about the requirement of existence of a decree; and

the other view based on equity, when an agreement has been entered into

in writing albeit prior to the decree which may be optional for the courts

depending on the extent of investigation required to arrive at a

conclusion.2

 This is followed up by a discussion in para 53 of the

judgment on the scope of Order XXI Rule 16 of the CPC. The SC opined

that until a person applying for execution establishes his title as the

transferee of a decree, he cannot claim the benefit of that provision.

Such assignment can be in writing or by operation of law. In this behalf

Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 defines “transfer of

property” as an act by which the transferor conveys property in present or

in future to the transferee or transferees. In that context it was observed

that a decree which is the subject matter of transfer must be in existence

as on the date of the transfer. The words “in present or in future” qualify

the word “conveys” and not the word “property” in Section 5 and would,

thus, not operate to a decree which would come into existence in the

future. Such a decree could not be said to be transferred by an

assignment in writing and the matter resting merely in a contract to be

performed in the future which may be specifically enforced as soon as

2Prabhashinee Debi v. Rasiklal Banerji 1931 ILR 59 Cal 297.

11

the decree was passed would be no transfer automatically in favour of the

transferee of the decree when passed. The discussion ends with the

opinion that any warrant for importing this equitable principle while

construing the statutory provision enacted under Order XXI Rule 16 of

the CPC would not be appropriate as it does not prescribe any mode in

which such an assignment in writing has to be executed in order to

effectuate a transfer of a decree.

18. The Supreme Court noticed that the High Court of Calcutta in

Purna Chandra Bhowmick v. Barna Kumari Devi3

had applied the

equitable principle and held that the plaintiff in whose favour the

defendant had executed a mortgage bond assigning by way of security

the decree that would be passed in a suit instituted against a third party

for recovery of money due on unpaid bills for work done, was entitled to

a declaration that he was an assignee of the decree passed in favour of the

defendant and as such, was entitled to realise the decretal debt either

amicably or by execution. The high court further held that there could be

no objection to decide a question involving investigation of complicated

facts or difficult questions of law in execution proceedings, as Section 47

of the CPC authorised the Court executing the decree to decide all

3 AIR 1939 Cal 715.

12

questions arising therein and relating to execution of the decree, as it

facilitates adjudication and obviates the necessity of filing a separate suit

for determination of the same.

19. A distinction was made in respect of transfer of an actionable

claim within the meaning of Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act,

1882. In cases of transfer of book debt or property coming within the

definition of actionable claim, the same necessarily involved transfer of a

transferor’s right in a decree which may be passed in his favour in a

pending litigation and the moment a decree is passed in his favour by the

court of law, that decree is automatically transferred in favour of the

transferee by virtue of the assignment in writing already executed by the

transferor. The book debt does not lose its character of a debt by its

being merged in the decree and without anything more, the transferee is

entitled to the benefit of the decree passed by the court in favour of the

transferor. The transferee of an actionable claim would, thus, step into

the shoes of the transferor and claim to be transferee of the decree by

virtue of the assignment in writing executed by the transferor in his

favour. The transferee could, therefore, claim to execute the decree

under Order XXI Rule 16 of the CPC.

13

20. In the conspectus of the discussion what was submitted by learned

counsel for the appellant was that the amendments made to the CPC vide

the Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1976 are of significance

as the judgment is pre that amendment. Of course, this was an

alternative plea to the plea based on a claim of an assignment deed being

an actionable claim.

Respondents’ Submissions:

21. The respondents, on the other hand, disputed the right of the

appellants and claimed that the Assignment Deed itself is a disputed

document which had not seen the light of the day for 17 years till 2016,

and did not find a mention in the appellants’ legal notices. The

appellants could have taken recourse to the Assignment Deed when an

award was delivered in favour of late Shri Surendra Nath Kanungo on

22.03.1999. The cheque given as a security could have been encashed

when the awarded money was paid to Shri S. N. Kanungo in 2001. The

appellants took no steps in pursuance of that award but have raised the

issue only at the stage when the second award had been made in 2006.

Notably, the second award was confirmed by the Supreme Court as well.

The appellants were not the legal representatives of Shri S.N. Kanungo,

14

but at best that was an independent claim that could be adjudicated in

appropriate civil proceedings. The decree not being in existence, the

respondent claimed they were fully covered by the judgment in

Jugalkishore Saraf4

and that the amendments to Order XXI Rule 16

would not change the position of law as laid down therein.

22. It was pleaded that the appellants were amongst such persons who

were engaged by Shri S.N. Kanungo and had been paid their dues. There

was no amount outstanding and nothing was owed to them. The

Assignment Deed and the cheque dated 27.10.1999 were fraudulent

documents and the letter head and the signed cheque of Shri S.N.

Kanungo had been misused.

Conclusion:

23. On analysis of the submissions there is little doubt that the

impugned judgments would have been completely in accordance with

law if the amendments were not made in 1976 and would have been fully

covered by the judgment in Jugalkishore Saraf5

. Thus, the only aspect

which we have to consider is whether that amendment made any

difference to the legal position as enunciated in the said judgment.

4 (supra)

5 (supra)

15

24. It is an admitted position that the explanation was added to Order

XXI Rule 16 which did not exist earlier, pursuant to the

recommendations made by the Law Commission of India in its 54th

Report on the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. The Explanation was so

added due to conflicting High Courts’ decisions on the question, i.e.,

whether a person who does not have a written assignment of the decree,

but who has succeeded to a decree holders’ right, is entitled to such

decree under Section 146 of the CPC.

25. In Penniah Pillai v. T. Natarajan Asari6

 the Madras High Court

decided this question in the affirmative. The high court gave liberty to

the transferees to avail of Section 146 if they did not fall within the

provisions of Order XXI Rule 16 of the CPC and, thus, would cover

transferees of a property after the decree was passed. In this behalf the

learned Judge disagreed with an earlier judgment of the Madras High

Court in K.N. Sampath Mudaliar v. Sakunthala Ammal7

 opining that

Section 146 of the CPC could not have the effect of overriding Order

XXI Rule 16 of the CPC. The Law Commission agreed with the view

taken in the former judgment (which was delivered at a later point of

6 AIR 1968 Mad 190.

7 1964 2 MLJ 563.

16

time) and further noted that this view was supported by the High Courts

of Andhra Pradesh8

, Patna9

 and Kerala10 as well. Thus, the Law

Commission recommended amending Order XXI Rule 16 to clarify that

it does not affect the provisions of Section 146 and that a transferee of

rights in the subject matter of the suit can obtain execution of a decree

without separate assignment of the decree. The objective appears to be to

not have multifarious proceedings to determine the issue of assignment,

but to determine the issue of assignment in the execution proceedings

itself.

26. In the conspectus of the aforesaid we are of the view that the

objective of amending Order XXI Rule 16 of the CPC by adding the

Explanation was to deal with the scenario as exists in the present case, to

avoid separate suit proceedings being filed therefrom and to that extent

removing the distinction between an assignment pre the decree and an

assignment post the decree. Thus, what has been discussed even in the

judgment in Jugalkishore Saraf11 as a view based on the equitable

principle was sought to be incorporated in Order XXI Rule 16 of the

CPC by adding the Explanation, something which had not been done

8 Satyanarayana v. Arun Maik AIR 1955 AP 81.

9 Ramnath v. Anardei Devi AIR 1964 Pat 311.

10 Mani Devasia v. Varkey Scaria (1960) Ker. LT 1077.

11 (supra)

17

earlier. Once the legislative intent is clear, and the law is amended, then

the earlier position of law cannot be said to prevail post the amendment

and it is not in doubt that the present case is one post the amendment.

27. We may further add that while considering the divergent views of

the High Courts, the Law Commission took note of the fact that two

different interpretations of Jugalkishore Saraf12had been adopted. Thus,

the Law Commission really sought to clarify the legal position so that the

conflicting interpretation of the Supreme Court judgment would not

survive. The Explanation clearly stipulates that nothing in Order XXI

Rule 16 of the CPC would affect the provisions of Section 146 and the

transferee of the right in property which is subject matter of a suit may

apply for execution of the decree without separate assignment of the

decree as required by law. No doubt the appellants are not parties in the

suit proceedings but they claim as assignees of the decree holder.

28. We make it clear that we are not going into the validity of the

document, i.e., the Assignment Deed or the cheque as that would be a

matter to be decided by the executing court. The question was as to

whether at the threshold, the appellants’ objection could be rejected on

the ground that they were assignees who had acquired the rights prior to

12 (supra)

18

the passing of the decree. The rest of the job would be of the executing

court, despite the considerable prolongation which has taken place. We

may only add that our endeavour to see that an amicable solution is

found by the parties was not successful, thus we have little option but to

set aside the impugned judgments and remit the matter back to the

executing court for determination in terms of the judgment of this Court.

Considering the lapse of time that has already taken place, the executing

court will endeavour to give its consideration as early as possible.

29. The appeals are accordingly allowed leaving the parties to bear

their own costs.

...……………………………J.

[Sanjay Kishan Kaul]

...……………………………J.

[B.R. Gavai]

New Delhi.

October 21, 2021.

19

whether prior approval dated 14.08.2018 granted by the Commissioner of Police, Bengaluru City, in connection with offence registered as Crime No.221/2017, is valid or otherwise. - the High Court has completely glossed over the crucial fact that the writ petition was filed only after the sanction was accorded by the competent authority under Section 24(2) and more so cognizance was also taken by the competent Court of the offence of organized crime committed by the members of organized crime syndicate including the writ petitioner — to which there was no challenge. The High Court has not analysed the efficacy of these developments as disentitling the writ petitioner belated relief claimed in respect of prior approval under Section 24(1)(a) of the 2000 Act. Further, the High Court has clearly exceeded its jurisdiction in quashing the chargesheet filed against the writ petitioner­Mohan Nayak.N for offences punishable under Section 28 3(2), 3(3) and 3(4) of the 2000 Act at this stage [of prior approval under Section 24(1)(a)].- We have held that the same does not suffer from any infirmity including qua private respondent­Mohan Nayak.N having noted his intimate nexus with the brain behind the entire event being none other than Amol Kale and master arms trainer Rajesh D. Bangera who are part and parcel of an organized crime syndicate and committed organized crimes as such.

1

REPORTABLE

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

CRIMINAL APPEAL NO.      OF 2021

(ARISING OUT OF S.L.P. (CRIMINAL) NO._________ OF 2021)

(@ DIARY NO.13309 OF 2021)

KAVITHA LANKESH        …APPELLANT

VERSUS

STATE OF KARNATAKA & ORS.        …RESPONDENT(S)

WITH

CRIMINAL APPEAL NO.        OF 2021

(ARISING OUT OF S.L.P. (CRIMINAL) NO. 5387/2021)

J U D G M E N T

A.M. KHANWILKAR, J.

1. These appeals emanate from the judgment and order dated

22.04.2021 passed by the High Court of Karnataka at Bengaluru in

Writ Petition No.9717 of 2019 (GM­RES), whereby the High Court

partly allowed the writ petition and quashed the order bearing

2

No.CRM(1)/KCOCA/01/2018   dated   14.08.2018   issued   by   the

Commissioner of Police, Bengaluru City according prior approval to

invoke   offences   under   Section   3   of   the   Karnataka   Control   of

Organised   Crimes   Act,   20001

  against   Mohan   Nayak.N   (private

respondent   herein)2

  being   crime   registered   with   Rajarajeshwari

Nagar Police Station as FIR No.221/2017 dated 05.09.2017 and to

enquire into the same.

2. Shorn of unnecessary details, be it noted that the present

appeals pertain to the incident which had occurred on 05.09.2017

in which one Gauri Lankesh, who was a leading journalist, was

shot   dead   by   certain   unknown   assailants   near   her   house   at

Rajarajeshwari   Nagar,   Bengaluru.     Her   sister­Kavitha   Lankesh

(appellant herein) rushed to the spot and after seeing her sister in

a precarious condition, immediately lodged a complaint with the

Rajarajeshwari Nagar Police Station, which came to be registered

for offences punishable under Section 302 of the IPC and Section

25   of   the   Arms   Act,   19593

  being   FIR   No.221/2017   dated

1 for short, ‘the 2000 Act’

2 Writ   Petitioner   before   the   High   Court;   not   named   in   FIR   No.221/2017   and

preliminary   chargesheet;  shown   as   accused   No.8   in   the   prior   approval   and   as

accused No.11 in the additional chargesheet.

3 for short, ‘the Arms Act’

3

05.09.2017.     The   investigation   of   the   crime   was   thereafter

entrusted to the Special Investigating Team4

 on 06.09.2017.  

3. In the course of investigation, a preliminary chargesheet came

to be filed against the concerned accused on 29.05.2018.   The

crime was then committed to the City Civil and Sessions Judge as

CC   No.14578   of   2018.     The   Investigating   Officer   had   sought

permission   of   the   Magistrate   to   file   an   additional   chargesheet

under   Section   173(8)   of   the   Criminal   Procedure   Code   as   the

investigation was still underway.   The private respondent­Mohan

Nayak.N came to be arrested on 18.07.2018 in connection with the

stated crime.  The further investigation revealed that the accused

persons in Special CC No.872 of 2018 were involved in organized

crime as a syndicate which attracted the provisions of Section 3 of

the   2000   Act.     The   SIT   submitted   that   report   to   the   Chief

Investigating   Officer,   who   then   sought   approval   of   the

Commissioner   of   Police,   Bengaluru   City   vide   proposal   dated

07.08.2018,   to   invoke   Section   3   of   the   2000   Act   concerning

organized crime.

4 for short, ‘the SIT'

4

4. After due consideration of the stated report and the entire

investigation papers and record of evidence collected by the SIT,

the Commissioner of Police, Bengaluru City in exercise of powers

under Section 24(1)(a) of the 2000 Act accorded prior approval for

invoking Section 3 of the 2000 Act in respect of crime being FIR

No.221/2017, vide communication dated 14.08.2018.

5. After completion of the investigation, the Additional Director

General   of   Police   and   Commissioner   of   Police,   Bengaluru   City

accorded sanction under Section 24(2) of the 2000 Act.  The final

police report then came to be filed on 23.11.2018 before the Special

Court at Bengaluru, for offences punishable under Sections 302,

120B, 114, 118, 109, 201, 203, 204 and 35 of the IPC.  Further

charges were also invoked under Sections 25(1), 25(1B) and 27(1)

of the Arms Act and Section 3(1)(i), 3(2), 3(3) and 3(4) of the 2000

Act.   The additional chargesheet came to be filed against named

accused Nos.1 to 18 before the Principal City Civil and Sessions

Judge Court (CCH­1) in Special C.C.No.872 of 2018 under the

stated provisions, in which private respondent­Mohan Nayak.N was

5

named   as   accused.     The   Court   then   took   cognizance   on

17.12.2018.

6. It is only after the cognizance was taken by the competent

Court, the private respondent­Mohan Nayak.N was advised to file

Writ   Petition   No.9717   of   2019   before   the   High   Court   on

25.02.2019, for the following reliefs:

“PRAYER

WHEREFORE,   the   Petitioner   above   named   most

respectfully   prays   that   this   Hon’ble   Court   may   be

pleased to;

(a) Issue a writ in the nature of certiorari or any other

writ   or   order   or   direction,   quashing   the   order

dated:   14.08.2018   passed   by   the   third

Respondent   herein   in   No.CRM(1)

KCOCA/01/2018   thereby   passing   an   order   of

approval under section 24(1)(a) of the Karnataka

Control   of   Organised   Crimes   Act,   2000   (herein

after referred to as KCOCA Act for short) to invoke

the   section   3   of   the   said   Act   in   Crime

No.221/2017 registered by the fifth Respondent

herein for the offences punishable under section

302, 120B, 118, 114 read with section 35 of the

Indian Penal Code and sections 3 and 25 of the

Indian Arms Act and also the additional charge

sheet   filed   by   the   fourth   Respondent   herein

against the Petitioner in so far as section 3(i), 3(ii),

3(iii)   and   3(iv)   of   the   KCOCA   Act,   which   are

produced as ANNEXURES­A & B respectively; and

(b) Grant such other and further reliefs as deems fit

in the circumstances of the case in the interest of

justice and equity.”

6

7. The High Court vide impugned judgment noted that it was

called   upon   to   examine   whether   the   impugned   order   dated

14.08.2018 issued by the Commissioner of Police, Bengaluru City

in   exercise   of   power   under   Section   24(1)(a)   of   the   2000   Act

according prior approval to invoke Section 3 of the 2000 Act for

investigation against concerned accused including writ petitionerMohan Nayak.N is legal and valid.  In the context of that relief, the

High Court noted the submissions made by the counsel for the writ

petitioner in the following words:

“7.   Sri Gautham S. Bharadwaj, learned Counsel for

the   petitioner   challenges   the   order   Annexure­A

granting permission under Section 24(1)(a) of the Act

against the petition on the following grounds:

(i) The  petitioner  was  not  involved in  continuing

unlawful activity as contemplated in Section 2(1)(d) of

the Act;

(ii) The   charge   sheet   allegations   do   not   attract

organized crime as contemplated under Section 2(e) of

the Act; &

(iii) By such unlawful invocation of Section 24(1)(a)

of the Act, personal liberty of the petitioner is violated,

thereby the order Annexure­A is violative of Article 21

of the Constitution of India, 1950.”

8. The High Court also adverted to the three decisions pressed

into service by the writ petitioner­Mohan Nayak.N, namely, State

7

of  Maharashtra  &  Ors.   vs.  Lalit  Somdatta  Nagpal  &  Anr.5

,

State (NCT of Delhi) vs. Brijesh Singh @ Arun Kumar & Anr.6

and Muniraju R. vs. State of Karnataka & Ors.7

.

9. The High Court then proceeded to note the objections taken

by the prosecution in the following words:

“9. Sri H.S. Chandramouli, learned Special Public

Prosecutor   opposes   the   petition   on   the   following

grounds:

(i) There is no dispute that accused Nos.7 and 10

were   involved   in   two   criminal   cases   each,   accused

Nos.9, 1 to 4 were involved in one criminal case each.

The   said   offences   were   cognizable   offences   and   the

cognizance was taken in those cases;

(ii) If one of the members of the organized crime

syndicate is involved in more than one case and the

charge   sheet   was   filed,   Section   2(d)   of   the   Act   is

attracted.     Therefore  even  if  the  petitioner was not

involved in other cases, respondent No.3 has rightly

invoked Section 2(d) of the Act;

(iii) Annexure­A   shows   that   the   approval   was

granted for investigation on due application of mind;

(iv) After the charge sheet was filed, the trial Court

has taken cognizance of the offences and the petitioner

has not sought quashing of the charge sheet or the

order   taking   cognizance,   therefore   challenge   to

Annexure­A is not maintainable;

5 (2007) 4 SCC 171

6 (2017) 10 SCC 779

7  Criminal Petition No.391 of 2019 decided on 05.02.2019 by the High Court of

Karnataka at Bengaluru

8

(v) The petitioner filed Crl.P.No.8325/2018 seeking

bail.  In that petition, he raised the same contentions.

This Court while passing the order rejected the said

contention   and   that   order   has   attained   finality.

Therefore it is not open to the petitioner to challenge

Annexure­A on the same grounds;

(vi) The petitioner did not file any application for

discharge   on   the   same   grounds,   under   such

circumstances, Annexure­A is vexatious; &

(vii) The judgments relied upon by learned counsel

for the petitioner are not applicable.”

The High Court then adverted to the decisions relied upon by the

prosecution,   namely,  Vinod   G.   Asrani   vs.   State   of

Maharashtra8

,  John   D’Souza   vs.   Assistant   Commissioner   of

Police9

, Prasad Shrikant Purohit vs. State of Maharashtra &

Anr.10

,  Govind   Sakharam   Ubhe   vs.   State   of   Maharashtra11

,

Digvijay Saroha vs. State12 and K.T. Naveen Kumar @ Naveen

vs. State of Karnataka13

.

8 (2007) 3 SCC 633 

9 Manu/MH/0797/2007

10 (2015) 7 SCC 440

11 2009 SCC OnLine Bom 770

12 2019 SCC OnLine Del 10324

13 Crl. P.No.5507/2019 decided on 10.01.2020 by the High Court of Karnataka at

Bengaluru

9

10. After   having   noted   the   rival   submissions,   the   High   Court

posed a question to itself whether Section 3 of the 2000 Act applies

to the writ petitioner­Mohan Nayak.N?

11. The High Court noted the role of the writ petitioner­Mohan

Nayak.N, as imputed by the prosecution, that he had acted on

instructions of co­accused Amol Kale14 to take a house on rent in

Tagachukuppe,   Kumbalgodu   in   the   guise   of   running   an

acupressure clinic, which was in fact meant to accommodate the

members of the syndicate and even after commission of murder of

Gauri Lankesh, he harboured the actual assailants therein.  The

High Court then noted the fact that accused Nos.3, 5, 7 to 9, 11,

13 to 16 were not chargesheeted in any single case for cognizable

offences, nor cognizance of such offences had been taken by a

competent court against them as required under Section 2(1)(d) of

the 2000 Act.  The High Court then noticing the exposition in Lalit

Somdatta Nagpal15

,  Brijesh Singh16 and  Muniraju R.17

,  opined

14 Not named in FIR No.221/2017 and in the preliminary chargesheet; shown as

accused   No.3   in   the   prior   approval   and   as   accused   No.1   in   the   additional

chargesheet.

15 supra at Footnote No.5

16 supra at Footnote No.6

17 supra at Footnote No.7

10

that in absence of at least two chargesheets filed against the writ

petitioner­Mohan Nayak.N in respect of specified offences and of

which   cognizance   had   been   taken   by   the   competent   Court   as

required   to   attract   the   offence   of   organized   crime,   he   was   not

engaged in continuing unlawful activity.  On this finding, the High

Court concluded that the writ petitioner­Mohan Nayak.N cannot be

proceeded further and thus, partly allowed the writ petition by not

only quashing the order dated 14.08.2018 of the Commissioner of

Police, Bengaluru City according approval for invoking Section 3 of

the   2000   Act,   but   also   the   chargesheet   filed   against   the   writ

petitioner­Mohan Nayak.N for offences punishable under Section

3(1)(i), 3(2), 3(3) and 3(4) of the 2000 Act.  As regards the decisions

relied upon by the prosecution, the High Court noted that the same

were of no avail to the prosecution.

12. Being aggrieved, the complainant­Kavitha Lankesh as well as

the   State   of   Karnataka   have   filed   separate   appeals   before   this

Court questioning the correctness of the view taken by the High

Court.  The arguments as canvassed before the High Court have

11

been reiterated by both sides including reliance has been placed on

the reported decisions referred hitherto.

13. We have heard Mr. Huzefa Ahmedi, learned Senior Counsel

appearing   for   the   appellant­Kavitha   Lankesh,   Mr.   V.N.

Raghupathy, learned Counsel for the State of Karnataka and Mr.

Basava Prabhu S. Patil, learned Senior Counsel appearing for the

private respondent.

14. To recapitulate the relevant factual background, be it noted

that FIR under Section 154 of the Criminal Procedure Code was

registered with Rajarajeshwari Nagar Police Station being Crime

No.221/2017 dated 05.09.2017 initially  for offences punishable

under Section 302 of the IPC and Section 25 of the Arms Act at the

instance   of   the   appellant­Kavitha   Lankesh   against   unknown

persons.   Considering the nature of offence, the Government of

Karnataka constituted a SIT vide order dated 06.09.2017 headed

by Mr. B.K. Singh, IPS, IGP, Intelligence, Bengaluru.   Mr. M.N.

Anucheth,   IPS,   DCP   (West)   was   nominated   as   the   Chief

Investigating Officer of the SIT.   The SIT after taking over the

12

investigation submitted preliminary chargesheet dated 29.05.2018

against   accused   K.T.   Naveen   Kumar   @   Naveen18  before   the

concerned Court for offences punishable under Sections 302, 114,

118, 120B and 35 of the IPC read with Sections 3 and 25 of the

Arms Act.   The preliminary chargesheet was accompanied with

documents and list of witnesses.  On the basis of material collected

during   further   investigation,   report   dated   07.08.2018   was

submitted   by   the   Chief   Investigating   Officer   of   the   SIT   to   the

Commissioner   of   Police,   Bengaluru   City   for   according   prior

approval for invoking provisions of the 2000 Act in respect of crime

already registered.   The Commissioner of Police, Bengaluru City

after going through the stated report, entire investigation papers

and record of evidence collected until then, was satisfied that the

accused   Parshuram   Wagmore19,   Amith   Baddi20,   and   Ganesh

18 Not   named   in   FIR   No.221/2017;   shown   as   accused   No.1   in   the   preliminary

chargesheet   and   in   prior   approval   and   as   accused   No.17   in   the   additional

chargesheet.

19 Not named in FIR No.221/2017 and in the preliminary chargesheet; shown as

accused   No.7   in   the   prior   approval   and   as   accused   No.2   in   the   additional

chargesheet.

20 Not named in FIR No.221/2017 and in the preliminary chargesheet; shown as

accused   No.10   in   the   prior   approval   and   as   accused   No.4   in   the   additional

chargesheet.

13

Miskin21 were involved in more than two specified offences in the

past through their illegal actions of sedition, promoting enmity

between   two   groups   of   people,   inciting   communal   violence,

assaulting and injuring public servants, damaging public property

and causing grave disturbance to public order.  The Commissioner

of Police also recorded his satisfaction that K.T. Naveen Kumar @

Naveen,   Sujith   Kumar22,   Amol   Kale   and   Amit   Degvekar23,   have

jointly committed an offence having punishment of three years or

more   within   the   preceding   period   of   ten   years   and   the

chargesheet(s) had been filed against them before the competent

Court and cognizance thereof has been taken.  He then formed an

opinion that these accused had jointly conspired to assassinate

one   Prof.   K.S.   Bhagawan   for   expressing   his   views   which   were

inimical to that of their ideology.  They intended to instil fear in the

hearts and minds of those whose views were antithesis to their own

21 Not named in FIR No.221/2017 and in the preliminary chargesheet; shown as

accused   No.9   in   the   prior   approval   and   as   accused   No.3   in   the   additional

chargesheet.

22 Not named in FIR No.221/2017 and in the preliminary chargesheet; shown as

accused   No.2   in   the   prior   approval   and   as   accused   No.13   in   the   additional

chargesheet.

23 Not named in FIR No.221/2017 and in the preliminary chargesheet; shown as

accused   No.4   in   the   prior   approval   and   as   accused   No.5   in   the   additional

chargesheet.

14

views   and   stifle   the   fundamental   right   of   free   speech   and

expression.  The Commissioner of Police was also convinced that

the arrested accused Nos.1 to 12 and the absconding accused No.5

were active members of an organized crime syndicate and have

committed the present offence in furtherance of their organized

crime activity in order to promote insurgency.   The Commissioner

of   Police   adverted   to   the   findings   in   the   investigation   record

revealing that one Rajesh D. Bangera24  gave training in arms to

various members of the syndicate since 2012 at various places in

and around Karnataka and Maharashtra.  After having taken note

of these facts, the Commissioner of Police recorded his satisfaction

in the following words:

“Investigation findings have clearly revealed that these

members   of   the   organized   crime   syndicate   were   in

constant   touch   with   one   another   and   actively

underwent   arms   training,   arms   shooting   practice,

crude bomb making and indoctrination.   They met,

conspired and trained at various places in and around

Karnataka   and   Maharashtra   with   the   intention   of

promoting insurgency.   Documents seized during the

investigation clearly reveal the intention of the accused

to assassinate 8 writers/thinkers of Karnataka and 26

other writers/thinkers from the rest of the country.

24 Not named in FIR No.221/2017 and in the preliminary chargesheet; shown as

accused   No.11   in   the   prior   approval   and   as   accused   No.8   in   the   additional

chargesheet.

15

Documents seized in the course of investigation

conducted reveal the plans of how the organized crime

syndicate   intended   to   cause   grave   disturbance   to

public   order   during   the   release   of   a   movie   titled

‘Padmaavat’ by attacking films theatres where the said

movie would have been exhibited by the use of deadly

substances   like   petrol   bombs,   acid   etc.   and   cause

bodily harm to the viewers and economically hurt the

film distributors.  These documents further reveal the

intention of the syndicate to procure and use RDX,

petrol bombs, acids, poisons and other incendiary and

chemical materials.

Investigation findings have prima facie revealed

that these members of the organized crime syndicate

conspired and murdered Ms. Gauri Lankesh to further

their cause and to promote insurgency.

Thus, on perusal and evaluation of the entire

material   brought   on   record   and   also   taking   into

consideration the factual circumstances of the case

including the proximity and time gap in committing

the crimes and having applied my mind, I am satisfied

and convinced that the arrested and wanted accused

have committed the offence as defined in section 2(1)

of   the   Karnataka   Control   of   Organized   Crimes   Act,

2000.

NOW, THEREFORE, in exercise of the powers

conferred upon me by Section 24(1)(a) of the said Act,

I, T. Suneel Kumar, IPS, Additional Director General of

Police   and   Commissioner   of   Police,   Bengaluru   City

hereby   grant/accord   my   prior   approval   to   invoke

Section   3   of   The   Karnataka   Control   of   Organized

Crimes   Act   2000,   to   Sri   M.N.   Anucheth,   IPS,   DCP

(Administration),   Bengaluru   City   and   Chief

Investigating Officer (Special Investigation Team) in the

Bengaluru   City   Rajarajeshwari   Nagar   Police   Station

Crime No. 221/217 u/s 302, 120(B), 118, 114 r/w 35

of Indian Penal Code and 3, 25 of Indian Arms Act.

Sri M.N. Anucheth, Chief Investigating Officer,

shall   scrupulously   follow   and   comply   with   the

16

provisions   of   The   Karnataka   Control   of   Organized

Crimes Act, 2000.

This order given under my signature and seal

today i.e. 14th August, 2018.”

15. It   is   plain   that   tangible   material   was   placed   before   the

Commissioner regarding information about the commission of an

organized   crime   by   the   members   of   organized   crime   syndicate,

which warranted grant of prior approval to invoke Section 3 of the

2000 Act.  This prior approval was assailed before the High Court

by way of writ petition filed much after the appropriate authority

had already accorded sanction and the competent court had taken

cognizance of that crime on 17.12.2018. 

16. The   High   Court   opened   the   judgment   by   noting   that   the

challenge is to the order dated 14.08.2018 of the Commissioner of

Police, Bengaluru City granting approval to invoke Section 3 of the

2000 Act.  In the latter part of the judgment, however, it posed a

wrong question to itself which was obviously not relevant at this

stage — as to whether Section 3 of the 2000 Act applies to the writ

petitioner­Mohan Nayak.N?  Notably, the High Court was not called

upon   nor   has   it   analysed   the   entire   material   collected   by   the

17

Investigating Agency, which had been made part of the chargesheet

filed   before   the   competent   Court   and   in   respect   of   which

cognizance is also taken.

17. For the time being for deciding the matter in issue, there is no

need to advert to the contents of the chargesheets and the material

collated during the investigation by the SIT against each of the

accused in respect of which cognizance has already been taken by

the competent Court.  

18. The moot question to be answered in these appeals is about

the purport of Section 24 of the 2000 Act.  Section 24(1)(a), which

is crucial for our purpose, reads thus:

“24.   Cognizance   of   and   investigation   into   an

offence.­(1)   Notwithstanding   anything   contained   in

the Code, ­

(a) No information about the commission of an

offence   of   organized   crime   under   this   Act   shall   be

recorded by a police officer without the prior approval

of the police officer not below the rank of the Deputy

Inspector General of Police;

…...”

19. The purport of this section, upon its textual construct, posits

that information regarding commission of an offence of organized

crime under the 2000 Act can be recorded by a police officer only

18

upon obtaining prior approval of the police officer not below the

rank   of   the   Deputy   Inspector   General   of   Police.     That   is   the

quintessence for recording of offence of organized crime under the

Act by a police officer.

20.  What is crucial in this provision is the factum of recording of

offence of organized crime and not of recording of a crime against

an offender as such.  Further, the right question to be posed at this

stage   is:   whether   prior   approval   accorded   by   the   competent

authority under Section 24(1)(a) is valid?   In that, whether there

was  discernible  information  about   commission  of  an   offence  of

organized   crime   by   known   and   unknown   persons   as   being

members   of   the   organized   crime   syndicate?     Resultantly,   what

needed to be enquired into by the appropriate authority (in the

present case, Commissioner of Police) is: whether the factum of

commission of offence of organized crime by an organized crime

syndicate can be culled out from the material placed before him for

grant of prior approval?  That alone is the question to be enquired

into even by the Court at this stage.  It is cardinal to observe that

only   after   registration   of   FIR,   investigation   for   the   concerned

19

offence would proceed — in which the details about the specific

role and the identity of the persons involved in such offence can be

unravelled and referred to in the chargesheet to be filed before the

competent Court.

21. Concededly, the original FIR registered in the present case

was for an ordinary crime of murder against unknown persons.  At

the   relevant   time,   the   material   regarding   offence   having   been

committed by an organized crime syndicate was not known.  That

information came to the fore only after investigation of the offence

by the SIT, as has been mentioned in the report submitted to the

Commissioner   of   Police,   Bengaluru   City   for   seeking   his   prior

approval to invoke Section 3 of the 2000 Act.  Once again, at this

stage, the Commissioner of Police had focussed only on the factum

of information regarding the commission of organized crime by an

organized crime syndicate and on being prima facie satisfied about

the presence of material on record in that regard, rightly proceeded

to accord prior approval for invoking Section 3 of the 2000 Act.

The prior approval was not for registering crime against individual

offenders   as   such,   but   for   recording   of   information   regarding

20

commission of an offence of organized crime under the 2000 Act.

Therefore, the specific role of the concerned accused is not required

to be and is not so mentioned in the stated prior approval.  That

aspect   would   be   unravelled   during   the   investigation,   after

registration of offence of organized crime.  The High Court, thus,

examined   the   matter   by   applying   erroneous   scale.     The

observations made by the High Court in the impugned judgment

clearly reveal that it has glossed over the core and tangible facts. 

22. Notably,   the   High   Court,   without   analysing   the   material

presented along with chargesheet on the basis of which cognizance

has been taken by the competent Court including against the writ

petitioner­Mohan   Nayak.N,   concerning   commission   of   organized

crime by the organized crime syndicate of which he is allegedly a

member, committed manifest error and exceeded its jurisdiction in

quashing the chargesheet filed before the competent Court qua the

writ petitioner­Mohan Nayak.N regarding offences under Section

3(1)(i), 3(2), 3(3) and 3(4) of the 2000 Act.  The High Court did so

being impressed by the exposition of this Court in Lalit Somdatta

21

Nagpal25

, in   particular   paragraph   63   thereof.     Indeed,   that

exposition would have bearing only if the entire material was to be

analysed by the  High Court to  conclude that  the  facts do  not

disclose justification for application of provisions of the 2000 Act

including qua the writ petitioner­Mohan Nayak.N, provided he was

being proceeded only for offence of organized crime punishable

under Section 3(1) of the 2000 Act.   For, the reported decision

deals   with   the   argument   regarding   invocation   of   provision

analogous   to   Section   3(1)   of   the   2000   Act.     Be   it   noted   that

requirement of more than two chargesheets is in reference to the

continuing unlawful activities of the organized crime syndicate and

not qua individual member thereof.  Reliance was also placed on

Brijesh  Singh26.   Even this decision is of no avail to the private

respondent­Mohan   Nayak.N   for   the   same   reason   noted   whilst

distinguishing Lalit Somdatta Nagpal27

.   Further, the questions

considered in that case, as can be discerned from paragraph 12 of

the reported decision, are regarding jurisdiction of the competent

Court   to   take   notice   of   chargesheets   filed   against   the   accused

25 supra at Footnote No.5

26 supra at Footnote No.6 (paragraph 25)

27 supra at Footnote No.5

22

outside   the   State.     It   is   not   an   authority   on   the   issue   under

consideration. 

23. We may hasten to add that the fact that the Investigating

Agency was unable to collect material during investigation against

the writ petitioner­Mohan Nayak.N for offence under Section 3(1) of

the   2000   Act,   does   not   mean   that   the   information   regarding

commission of a crime by him within the meaning of Section 3(2),

3(3) or 3(4) of the 2000 Act cannot be recorded and investigated

against him as being a member of the organized crime syndicate

and/or   having   played   role   of   an   abettor,   being   party   to   the

conspiracy to commit organized crime or of being a facilitator, as

the  case may be.   For the latter category of offence, it is not

essential that more than two chargesheets have been filed against

the   person   so   named,   before   a   competent   court   within   the

preceding period of ten years and that court had taken cognizance

of such offence.  That requirement applies essentially to an offence

punishable only under Section 3(1) of the 2000 Act.

23

24. As regards offences punishable under Section 3(2), 3(3), 3(4)

or 3(5), it can proceed against any person  sans  such previous

offence registered against him, if there is material to indicate that

he happens to be a member of the organized crime syndicate who

had committed the offences in question and it can be established

that there is material about his nexus with the accused who is a

member   of   the   organized   crime   syndicate.     This   position   is

expounded in the case of Ranjitsingh Brahmajeetsing Sharma

vs. State of Maharashtra28 which has been quoted with approval

in paragraph 85 of the judgment in Prasad Shrikant Purohit29

.

The same reads thus:

“85. A reading of para 31 in Ranjitsing Brahmajeetsing

Sharma   case30   shows   that   in   order   to

invoke MCOCA even if a person may or may not have

any direct role to play as regards the commission of an

organised crime, if a nexus either with an accused who

is a member of an “organised crime syndicate” or with

the offence in the nature of an “organised crime” is

established   that   would   attract   the   invocation   of

Section 3(2) of MCOCA.  Therefore,   even   if   one  may

not   have   any   direct   role   to   play   relating   to   the

commission of an “organised crime”, but when the

nexus   of   such   person   with   an   accused   who   is   a

member of the “organised crime syndicate” or such

nexus   is   related   to   the   offence   in   the   nature   of

28 (2005) 5 SCC 294

29 supra at Footnote No.10

30 supra at Footnote No.28

24

“organised   crime”   is   established   by   showing   his

involvement with the accused or the offence in the

nature   of   such   “organised   crime”,   that   by   itself

would   attract   the   provisions   of MCOCA.   The   said

statement of law by this Court, therefore, makes the

position clear as to in what circumstances MCOCA can

be applied in respect of a person depending upon his

involvement in an organised crime in the manner set

out in the said paragraph. In paras 36 and 37, it was

made   further   clear   that   such   an   analysis   to   be

made to ascertain the invocation of MCOCA against

a person need not necessarily go to the extent for

holding   a  person   guilty   of   such  offence   and   that

even a finding to that extent need not be recorded.

But such findings have to be necessarily recorded for

the purpose of arriving at an objective finding on the

basis   of   materials   on   record   only   for   the   limited

purpose of grant of bail and not for any other purpose.

Such   a   requirement   is,   therefore,   imminent   under

Section 21(4)(b) of MCOCA.”

(emphasis supplied)

25. It   is   not   necessary   to   multiply   authorities   in   this   regard.

Suffice it to observe that the High Court in the present case was

essentially concerned with the legality of prior approval granted by

the Commissioner of Police, Bengaluru City dated 14.08.2018 for

invoking Section 3 of the 2000 Act and thus, to allow recording of

information regarding commission of offence of organized crime

under the 2000 Act and to investigate the same.   As aforesaid,

while considering the proposal for grant of prior approval under

25

Section 24(1)(a) of the 2000 Act, what is essential is the satisfaction

of the competent authority that the material placed before him

does reveal presence of credible information regarding commission

of an offence of organized crime by the organized crime syndicate

and, therefore, allow invocation of Section 3 of the 2000 Act.  As a

consequence of which, investigation of that crime can be taken

forward by the Investigating Agency and chargesheet can be filed

before the concerned Court and upon grant of sanction by the

competent authority under Section 24(2), the competent Court can

take cognizance of the case.

26. At the stage of granting prior approval under Section 24(1)(a)

of the 2000 Act, therefore, the competent authority is not required

to wade through the material placed by the Investigating Agency

before him along with the proposal for grant of prior approval to

ascertain   the   specific   role   of   each   accused.     The   competent

authority   has   to   focus   essentially   on   the   factum   whether   the

information/material reveals the commission of a crime which is

an organized crime committed by the organized crime syndicate.

In that, the prior approval is qua offence and not the offender as

26

such.   As long as the incidents referred to in earlier crimes are

committed by a group of persons and one common individual was

involved in all the incidents, the offence under the 2000 Act can be

invoked.  This Court in Prasad Shrikant Purohit31 in paragraphs

61 and 98 expounded that at the stage of taking cognizance, the

competent   Court   takes   cognizance   of   the   offence   and   not   the

offender.  This analogy applies even at the stage of grant of prior

approval for invocation of provisions of the 2000 Act.   The prior

sanction under Section 24(2), however, may require enquiry into

the specific role of the offender in the commission of organized

crime, namely, he himself singly or jointly or as a member of the

organized crime syndicate indulged in commission of the stated

offences so as to attract the punishment provided under Section

3(1) of the 2000 Act.  However, if the role of the offender is merely

that of a facilitator or of an abettor as referred to in Section 3(2),

3(3), 3(4) or 3(5), the requirement of named person being involved

in more than two chargesheets registered against him in the past is

not relevant.  Regardless of that, he can be proceeded under the

2000  Act,   if   the   material   collected   by  the   Investigating   Agency

31 supra at Footnote No.10

27

reveals that he had nexus with the accused who is a member of the

organized crime syndicate or such nexus is related to the offence in

the nature of organized crime.  Thus, he need not be a person who

had direct role in the commission of an organized crime as such.

27. A priori, the conclusion reached by the High Court in partly

allowing   the   writ   petition   filed   by   the   writ   petitioner­Mohan

Nayak.N, is manifestly wrong and cannot be countenanced.  In any

case, the High Court has completely glossed over the crucial fact

that the writ petition was filed only after the sanction was accorded

by   the   competent   authority   under   Section   24(2)   and   more   so

cognizance was also taken by the competent Court of the offence of

organized crime committed by the members of organized crime

syndicate including the writ petitioner — to which there was no

challenge.  The High Court has not analysed the efficacy of these

developments   as   disentitling   the   writ   petitioner   belated   relief

claimed in respect of prior approval under Section 24(1)(a) of the

2000   Act.     Further,   the   High   Court   has   clearly   exceeded   its

jurisdiction   in   quashing   the   chargesheet   filed   against   the   writ

petitioner­Mohan Nayak.N for offences punishable under Section

28

3(2), 3(3) and 3(4) of the 2000 Act at this stage [of prior approval

under Section 24(1)(a)].

28. Taking   any   view   of   the   matter,   therefore,   these   appeals

deserve to be allowed and the impugned judgment and order of the

High Court needs to be set aside.

29. While parting, we may clarify that rejection of writ petition

filed by the private respondent­Mohan Nayak.N will not come in his

way in pursuing other remedies as may be available to him and

permissible in law.  We may not be understood to have expressed

any opinion either way on the merits of such remedy.   In other

words, this judgment is limited to the consideration of question

whether   prior   approval   dated   14.08.2018   granted   by   the

Commissioner of Police, Bengaluru City, in connection with offence

registered as Crime No.221/2017, is valid or otherwise.  We have

held that the same does not suffer from any infirmity including qua

private   respondent­Mohan   Nayak.N   having   noted   his   intimate

nexus with the brain behind the entire event being none other than

Amol Kale and master arms trainer Rajesh D. Bangera who are

29

part and parcel of an organized crime syndicate and committed

organized crimes as such.  

30. In view of the above, the appeals are allowed.  The impugned

judgment and order dated 22.04.2021 passed by the High Court is

set aside and the writ petition filed by Mohan Nayak.N stands

dismissed.

Pending application(s), if any, stands disposed of.

………………………………J.

      (A.M. Khanwilkar)

………………………………J.

(Dinesh Maheshwari)

………………………………J.

      (C.T. Ravikumar)

New Delhi;

October 21, 2021.