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Special Court (Trial of Offences relating to Transactions in Securities) Act, 1992 – The miscellaneous applications were filed by the respondent-Custodian in the year 2008 seeking to recover the amounts of Rs.50 lakhs from appellant-S towards the dues of respondent Nos. 6 and 7 and amount of Rs.25 lakhs from appellant-L towards the dues of respondent No.8 – The Income Tax Department, vide letter dated 05.05.1998 informed the Custodian about respondent No. 2 being the benami owner of the companies (respondent Nos. 4 to 8 herein) – Special Court in its separate judgments directed appellants to pay the respective amounts due to the respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8, being benami companies of respondent No. 2 – Propriety:

* Author

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 294 : 2024 INSC 170

Suman L. Shah

v.

The Custodian & Ors.

(Civil Appeal No(s). 4577 of 2011)

05 March 2024

[Pamidighantam Sri Narasimha and Sandeep Mehta,* JJ.]

Issue for Consideration

There were questionable transactions between the appellants

and respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8, the alleged benami companies

of respondent No. 2 (notified party). Whether the Special Court

committed manifest error in facts as well as in law in holding that

the appellants herein were the garnishees of respondent No. 2.

Whether the conclusions and findings passed by the Special Court,

that the appellant herein failed to prove the fact that amounts

had been repaid to the benami companies of the notified personrespondent No.2, can be sustained.

Headnotes

Special Court (Trial of Offences relating to Transactions in

Securities) Act, 1992 – The miscellaneous applications were

filed by the respondent-Custodian in the year 2008 seeking to

recover the amounts of Rs.50 lakhs from appellant-S towards

the dues of respondent Nos. 6 and 7 and amount of Rs.25 lakhs

from appellant-L towards the dues of respondent No.8 – The

Income Tax Department, vide letter dated 05.05.1998 informed

the Custodian about respondent No. 2 being the benami owner

of the companies (respondent Nos. 4 to 8 herein) – Special

Court in its separate judgments directed appellants to pay

the respective amounts due to the respondent Nos. 6, 7 and

8, being benami companies of respondent No. 2 – Propriety:

Held: Respondent No. 2 was notified under the Act of 1992 on

06.10.2001 and thus, by virtue of s.3(3) of the Act of 1992, all

properties belonging to him stood automatically attached from the

date of such notification – The appellants herein had borrowed the

amounts in question from respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8, way back in

the years 1996-1997 – By that date, there could not have existed

any justifiable reason for the appellants herein to have entertained 

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 295

Suman L. Shah v. The Custodian & Ors.

a belief that these were the benami companies of respondent No.

2 or that there was any breach of the provisions of the Act of 1992

by respondent no.2 or the respondent companies – The foundation

behind the assertion made by the Custodian that the appellants herein

were garnishees of respondent No. 2 through respondent Nos. 6,

7 and 8 is based entirely on a communication dated 05.05.1998

purportedly issued by the Income Tax Department – No witness from

the Income Tax Department was examined in evidence before the

Special Court in miscellaneous applications for recovery – Even the

communication forwarded by the Income Tax Department and relied

upon by the Custodian was not proved by proper evidence – Also, a

bare perusal of ss.3 and 9A, it would become clear that the properties

of the person notified u/s. 3(2) would stand attached automatically

with effect from the date of notification by virtue of s.3(3) – Since

respondent No.2 was notified (as being a debtor of the originally

notified company FFSL) with effect from 06.10.2001, a fortiori, his

properties would be deemed to be attached with effect from that date

and not prior thereto – The applications for recovery having been

filed by the Custodian with the allegation that the appellants herein

were the debtors of the benami companies of the notified person,

the primary onus of proving this assertion would be on the Custodian

by virtue of s.101 of Evidence Act – It is only after the Custodian

discharged this primary burden and established the existence of

the debt, then by virtue of s.102 of the Evidence Act, perhaps, the

onus could be shifted on to the appellants to rebut the same – The

appellants herein took a categoric stand in their depositions that

they had returned the amounts borrowed from respondent Nos. 6,

7 and 8, but the books of accounts were not available because of

lapse of time – It was neither a requirement in law nor could it be

expected from the appellants herein to retain the books of accounts

after more than a decade of the alleged suspicious transactions –

Therefore, the conclusions drawn and the findings recorded in the

impugned judgments passed by the Special Court that the appellants

herein failed to prove the fact that the amounts had been repaid to

the benami companies of the notified person-respondent no.2 do

not stand to scrutiny and cannot be sustained as being contrary to

facts and law. [Paras 32-39]

List of Acts

Special Court (Trial of Offences relating to Transactions in

Securities) Act, 1992; Evidence Act, 1872.

296 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

List of Keywords

Recovery of money; Benami; Benami owner of companies;

Attachment of property; Garnishee; Debtors of the benami

companies; Primary burden of proof; Shift of burden of proof;

Books of account; Lapse of time.

Case Arising From

CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION : Civil Appeal No.4577 of 2011

From the Judgment and Order dated 11.03.2011 of the Special Court

Constituted under the Provisions of Special Court (Trial of Offences

Relating to Transaction in Securities), Act, 1992 in Miscellaneous

Application Nos.162 of 2008, 343 of 1994 and 193 of 1993

With

Civil Appeal No.4583 of 2011

Appearances for Parties

Anirudh Joshi, Mahesh Agarwal, Rishi Agrawala, Ankur Saigal, Ms.

S. Lakshmi Iyer, Ms. Sukriti Bhatnagar, Ms. Chitra Agarwal, Ms.

Manavi Agarwal, Ms. Divya Singh, Sunil, E. C. Agrawala, Advs. for

the Appellant.

Arvind Kumar Tewari, Ms. Yosha Dutt, Advs. for the Respondents.

Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court

Judgment

Mehta, J.

1. The factual and legal issues involved in these appeals are common

and hence the same have been heard together and are being decided

by this common judgment.

2. The instant appeals under Section 10 of the Special Court (Trial of

Offences relating to transactions in Securities) Act, 1992 (hereinafter

being referred to as the ‘Act of 1992’) arise out of the final judgments

passed by the Special Court, Bombay constituted under the Act of

1992 of even date i.e. 11th March, 2011, in MA Nos. 162 and 184 of

2008 in MA No.343 of 1994 in MA No. 193 of 1993.

3. Before proceeding to consider the appeals on merits, it would be

apposite to consider the broad scheme of the Act of 1992.

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 297

Suman L. Shah v. The Custodian & Ors.

4. The Act was promulgated as large-scale irregularities committed

by some share brokers in collusion with the employees of Banks

and Financial Institutions(in short ‘FIs’) came to light in relation to

transaction in Government/other securities leading to diversion of

funds from the banks/FIs to the individual accounts of certain brokers.

5. The Act provided a mechanism to deal with the above situations

and in particular, to ensure speedy recovery of the huge amounts

illegally diverted, punish the guilty and restore the confidence of

public at large in the security transactions and also to uphold and

maintain the basic integrity and credibility of banks and FIs. The

period of transactions in securities under the purview was from

1st April, 1991 to 6th June, 1992. A Special Court headed by a

sitting Judge of the High Court was established for speedy trial

of offences relating to transactions in securities and disposal of

properties attached. The Act also provided for appointment of one

or more custodians under Section 3 so as to attach the property/

properties of the offenders with a view to preventing diversion of

such properties by the offenders.

6. Section 3(2) stipulates that the Custodian may, on being satisfied

on information received that any person has been found involved in

any offence relating to transactions in securities after 1st April, 1991

and on or before 6th June, 1992, notify the name of such person

in Official Gazette.

7. Section 3(3) provides that any property, movable or immovable

or both, belonging to the notified persons would stand attached

simultaneously with the date of issuance of the notification.

8. Section 3(4) mandates the Custodian to deal with the attached

properties in such manner as the Special Court may direct.

9. Section 11(1) empowers the Special Court to pass appropriate

order(s) directing the Custodian for disposal of the attached property.

10. Under Section 11(2), liabilities of notified persons are required to

be paid or discharged in full by distributing monies so realized after

disposal of the attached assets.

11. Having taken into account the relevant provisions of the statute, the

brief facts arising for consideration in the present appeals may be

noted as below:-

298 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

(i) On 2nd July, 1992, Fairgrowth Financial Services Limited

(hereinafter being referred to as the ‘FFSL’) was notified under

Section 3(2) of the Act and all its properties stood attached. In

1993, the Custodian filed Miscellaneous Application No. 193

of 93 in the Special Court for the recovery of various sums of

money belonging to FFSL from respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth.

(ii) The Special Court passed a consent decree on 24th February,

1994 directing respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth to pay a sum

of Rs.51,49,07,417.92/- to the Custodian on behalf of FFSL.

Respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth committed default and as a

consequence, the Custodian initiated attachment of his assets

to recover the decretal amount.

(iii) During the years 1996-1997, the appellant-Suman L. Shah

had borrowed a sum of Rs.50 lakhs from respondent No.

6-Klar Chemicals(P) Ltd. and a sum of Rs. 25 lakhs from

respondent No. 7-Malika Foods (P) Ltd. (original respondent

Nos. 5 and 6 before the Special Court) whereas appellantLaxmichand Shah had borrowed Rs.45 lakhs from respondent

No. 8-Jainam Securities(P) Ltd. (original respondent No.7

before the Special Court). As per the case set up by the

Custodian before the Special Court, these were the benami

companies of respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth who had illegally

parked the tainted money received from FFSL, the notified

company in these benami companies (respondent Nos.6, 7

and 8) created by himself.

(iv) The Custodian notified respondent No.2-Pallav Sheth under

Section 3(2) of the Act on 6th October, 2001. He was declared

insolvent on 5th November, 2003 and as a consequence, all

his assets and properties got vested in the Official Assignee i.e.

respondent No.9 herein. As respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth failed

to pay the decretal amount, the Custodian sought information

from respondent No. 3- Income Tax Department regarding the

assets of respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth. In turn, the Income

Tax Department, vide letter dated 5th May, 1998 informed the

Custodian about respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth being the

benami owner of the companies (respondent Nos. 4 to 8 herein).

(v) The Special Court, by an order passed in miscellaneous

application registered for initiating contempt proceedings 

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 299

Suman L. Shah v. The Custodian & Ors.

against respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth observed that

respondent Nos. 4 to 8 were benami companies of respondent

No.2-Pallav Sheth.

12. The Custodian claims to have acquired knowledge/information that

the appellant Suman L. Shah had received an amount of Rs. 50

lakhs from respondent No. 6(out of which Rs. 25 lakhs were repaid

by cheque and the entry dated 5th May, 1997 is available in the

passbook) and Rs. 25 lakhs from respondent No.7 and that the

appellant-Laxmichand Shah had received an amount of Rs.25 lakhs

from respondent No.8.

13. Accordingly, Miscellaneous Application Nos. 162 of 2008 and 184

of 2008 were filed by the Custodian before the Special Court for

recovery of Rs. Rs. 50 lakhs from the appellant Suman L. Shah (Civil

Appeal No.4577 of 2011) and for recovery of Rs. 25 lakhs from the

appellant/Laxmichand Shah (Civil Appeal No. 4583 of 2011), both

being garnishees of respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth i.e. the owner

of the benami companies (respondent Nos.4 to 8).

14. The Special Court, vide judgment dated 11th March, 2011 passed

in Miscellaneous Application No. 162 of 2008 directed the appellant

Suman L. Shah to pay a sum of Rs. 50 lakhs(Rs. 25 lakhs each due

to respondent Nos. 6 and 7) being benami companies of respondent

No. 2-Pallav Sheth, to the Custodian with interest @ 12% per annum

from 1st April, 1997 till realisation of the amount.

15. Vide another judgment of even date passed in Miscellaneous

Application No. 184 of 2008, the Special Court directed appellantLaxmichand Shah to pay a sum of Rs. 25 lakhs due to respondent

No. 8, benami company of respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth, to the

Custodian with interest @ 12% per annum from 1st April, 1997 till

realisation of the amount.

16. The Special Court further directed that the appellants shall deposit

the amounts with the Custodian within a period of two months from

the date of the judgment failing which the Custodian would be free

to execute the orders as decrees of the Civil Court. Upon recovery,

the amounts were directed to be paid to respondent No. 9-Official

Assignee whereafter the appellants would stand discharged of their

liabilities towards the benami companies of respondent No.2 Pallav

Sheth.

300 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

17. Aggrieved by the judgments dated 11th March, 2011, Suman L.

Shah and Laxmichand Shah have instituted Civil Appeal Nos. 4577

of 2011 and 4583 of 2011 before this Court.

18. While entertaining the appeals, vide order dated 13th May, 2011, this

Court directed appellant-Suman L. Shah to deposit Rs.50 lakhs and

appellant-Laxmichand Shah to deposit Rs. 25 lakhs with the Officer

on Special Duty attached with the Special Court and to furnish a

bank guarantee to the Custodian towards the balance amount, i.e.,

interest.

19. Both the appeals were dismissed by this Court vide order dated

23rd April, 2012 on account of non-compliance of the order dated

13th May, 2011.

20. The IAs seeking restoration of these Civil Appeals were accepted

vide order dated 14th March, 2014, subject to deposit of a total sum

to the tune of Rs. 2.20 crores by the appellants with the Officer on

Special Duty, Special Court. The amount has been deposited and

accordingly the appeals were taken on board.

21. Learned counsel representing the appellants contended that the

Special Court committed manifest error in facts as well as in law in

holding that the appellants herein were the garnishees of respondent

No. 2-Pallav Sheth. It was contended that the questionable

transactions between the appellants and respondent Nos. 6, 7 and

8, the alleged benami companies of respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth

(notified party) and judgment debtor of FFSL(notified party) were

13-14 years old and as no documentary proof relating to these

transactions was provided by the Custodian on the record of the

proceedings before the Special Court, the statement of appellants

that the entire amounts of loan taken from respondent Nos. 6, 7 and

8 were repaid ought not to have been brushed aside.

22. It was contended that the appellants herein had taken the loans

from respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8 in the years 1996-1997, i.e., long

before respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth came to be notified under

Section 3(2) of the Act of 1992, i.e., 6th October, 2001 and thus, the

burden of proof regarding the existence of liability could not have

been shifted on to the appellants and the onus essentially lay upon

the Custodian to prove that these amounts had not been repaid and

were still recoverable.

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 301

Suman L. Shah v. The Custodian & Ors.

23. It was contended that the specific assertion made by the appellants

in their deposition affidavits that the amounts in question borrowed

from respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8 had been repaid partly by cheque

and partly by material supplied to these respondents could not

be unsettled by the Custodian in crossexamination. Only a bald

suggestion was given to the appellants in cross-examination that

they did not have any document in the form of vouchers, receipts,

invoices or entries in the book accounts to show the adjustment of

the remaining amount.

24. It was urged that the letter dated 5th May, 1998 issued by respondent

No. 3-Income Tax Department was referred to in the cross-examination

of the appellants. However, the said letter was not proved by exhibiting

the same in the proceeding before the Special Court. Learned

counsel urged that the since the Custodian failed to bring the letter

of the Income Tax Department on record, either by summoning the

income tax officials or by producing any other admissible evidence,

the Special Court committed a grave error on placing implicit reliance

on such communication.

25. It was contended that the appellants herein being respondent Nos.

8 before the Special Court were not cross-examined either by

respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth or on behalf of the benami companies

i.e. respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8 and thus it could not be said with

any degree of certainty that the amounts borrowed remained unpaid.

26. The pertinent assertion of learned counsel for the appellants was

that since the appellants were never notified under the Act of 1992,

the burden of proof could not have been shifted upon them so as

to require them to disprove the case set up by the Custodian in

the applications for recovery. In this regard, learned counsel for the

appellants referred to the following observations made by the Special

Court in the impugned order:-

“7. It is true that oral evidence cannot be ignored, but at

the same time, it has to be borne in mind that the Official

Assignee - respondent No.9 has to recover the properties

and assets of respondent No.1 for satisfaction of the decree

against him. For the reasons best known to respondent

No.1 or respondent Nos. 5 and 6, neither they filed any

reply nor cross-examined respondent No.8. At the same

time, it cannot be forgotten that the respondent No.8 is a 

302 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

businessman and he was expected to maintain accounts

of his business. It is impossible to believe that he would

not have maintained accounts of his business. According to

him, he had partly repaid these amounts to respondent Nos.

5 and 6 by cheques and partly the amounts were adjusted

against the purchases made by respondent Nos. 5 and 6

from Shree Jalaram Timber Depot Pvt. Ltd. He has shown

payment of Rs.25 lakh by cheque to respondent No.5 and

that is reflected in his passbook. Whenever any payment is

made by cheque and the cheque is encashed, naturally the

debit entry is taken in the account of the person, who has

issued the cheque. For a moment, if it is believed that other

documents were not available, at least respondent No.8

could produce the passbook of his account showing the

debit entries indicating payment by cheque to respondent

Nos. 5 and 6. However, respondent No.8 did not produce

any such passbook to show that certain payments were

made by cheque and those cheques were encashed

and the amounts were debited in his account. If Shree

Jalaram Timber Depot Pvt. Ltd belonging to respondent

No.8 had supplied certain material to respondents Nos.

5 and 6 and that amount was adjusted against the dues

payable to respondents Nos. 5 and 6, there must have

been some documents in the form of bill books, vouchers,

receipts, entries in the account books. However, no such

document was produced. It is true that respondent No.8

was not crossexamined by respondent No.1 or respondent

Nos.5 and 6. Still, it is to be noted that best evidence in

the form of documentary evidence was available with the

respondent No.8, but he chose not to produce the best

evidence and relied only on his oral testimony. Even though

respondent No.8 contended that the documents are not

traceable he has nowhere stated that the records were

lost or destroyed. There is no satisfactory clarification

as to why the records are not traceable. When the best

evidence, which is expected to be available with him, has

not been produced, the Court may draw an inference that

if such record would be produced, it would go against his

claim. Therefore, his contention that the amount of Rs.25

lakh each payable to respondent Nos. 5 and 6 has been 

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 303

Suman L. Shah v. The Custodian & Ors.

actually repaid partly by cheque and partly by adjustment of

the price of material supplied to them cannot be accepted.

Therefore, I hold that the respondent No.8 is liable to pay

amount of Rs.25 lakh to respondent No.5 and Rs.25 lakh

to respondent No.6.

27. It was fervently contended by learned counsel for the appellants

that the impugned judgments do not stand to scrutiny inasmuch as

the onus of proof has been shifted on to the appellants without any

justification and contrary to the principles enshrined in the Indian

Evidence Act, 1872(hereinafter being referred to as the ‘Evidence

Act’). He thus, implored the Court to accept the appeals and set

aside the judgments passed by the Special Court.

28. Per contra, learned counsel for the respondents submitted that the

bald statements of the appellants herein in their affidavits that the

amount borrowed from respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8 i.e. the benami

companies of the notified person i.e. respondent No.2- Pallav Sheth

had been returned by way of adjustment towards material supplied

was rightly discarded by the Special Court because such statements

were not supported by any tangible proof, either oral or documentary.

He urged that the appellants claim to be reputed businessmen and

thus, it is wholly unbelievable that accounts of business had not been

maintained by them so as to substantiate the plea of repayment

being made to respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8 by way of adjustment of

material supplied. He thus, implored the Court to affirm the impugned

judgments and dismiss the instant appeals.

29. We have given our anxious consideration to the submissions

advanced at the bar and have perused the material available on

record.

30. For adjudicating the issues raised in these appeals, few admitted

facts need to be noted. The miscellaneous applications were filed

by the respondent-Custodian in the year 2008 seeking to recover

the amounts of Rs.50 lakhs from appellant Suman L. Shah towards

the dues of respondent Nos. 6 and 7 and amount of Rs.25 lakhs

from appellant Laxmichand Shah towards the dues of respondent

No.8. The respondent Nos.6, 7 and 8 are alleged to be the benami

companies of the respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth.

31. Respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth is the judgment debtor of FFSL which

was a company notified under the provisions of the Act of 1992. 

304 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

Respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth was notified under the Act of 1992

on 6th October, 2001 and thus, by virtue of Section 3(3) of the Act of

1992, all properties belonging to him stood automatically attached

from the date of such notification. The appellants herein had borrowed

the amounts in question from respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8, way back

in the years 1996-1997. By that date, there could not have existed

any justifiable reason for the appellants herein to have entertained

a belief that these were the benami companies of respondent No.

2-Pallav Sheth or that there was any breach of the provisions of the

Act of 1992 by Pallav Sheth or the respondent companies.

32. Even if it is assumed for the sake of arguments that respondent

Nos. 4 to 8 were the benami companies of respondent No. 2-Pallav

Sheth, he not having been notified under the Act of 1992 by the time

the amounts were borrowed, the appellants could not be expected

to entertain any doubt regarding the operation of the Act of 1992

either against these companies or even against respondent No.

2-Pallav Sheth or that the companies were the benami companies

of Pallav Sheth.

33. The foundation behind the assertion made by the Custodian that

the appellants herein were garnishees of respondent No. 2- Pallav

Sheth through respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8 is based entirely on a

communication dated 5th May, 1998 purportedly issued by the Income

Tax Department. An affidavit was filed on behalf of the Department in

the proceedings before the Special Court but in such affidavit, there

is no reference whatsoever to the outstanding dues of respondent

Nos. 6, 7 and 8 or that the appellants were its debtors. Furthermore,

there is no reference whatsoever in this affidavit with regard to letter

dated 5th May, 1998 which was annexed with the affidavit filed on

behalf of the Custodian and was heavily relied upon by the Special

Court. No witness from the Income Tax Department was examined

in evidence before the Special Court in miscellaneous applications

for recovery.

34. While initiating recoveries, the Custodian relied upon the provisions

of Sections 3 and 9A of the Act of 1992 which are reproduced

hereinbelow:-

“3. Appointment and functions of Custodian. —

(1) The Central Government may appoint one or more

Custodians as it may deem fit for the purposes of this Act.

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 305

Suman L. Shah v. The Custodian & Ors.

(2) The Custodian may, on being satisfied on information

received that any person has been involved in any offence

relating to transactions insecurities after the 1st day of

April, 1991 and on and before the 6th June, 1992, notify

the name of such person in the Official Gazette.

(3) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code and any

other law for the time being in force, on and from the date

of notification under sub-section (2), any property, movable

or immovable, or both, belonging to any person notified

under that subsection shall stand attached simultaneously

with the issue of the notification.

(4) The property attached under sub-section (3) shall be dealt

with by the Custodian in such manner as the Special

Court may direct.

(5) The Custodian may take assistance of any person while

exercising his powers or for discharging his duties under

this section and section 4.

9A. Jurisdiction, powers, authority and procedure of Special

Court in civil matters. —

(1) On and from the commencement of the Special Court

(Trial of Offences Relating to Transactions in Securities)

Amendment Act, 1994 (24 of 1994) the Special Court shall

exercise all such jurisdiction, powers and authority as were

exercisable, immediately before such commencement, by

any civil court in relation to any matter or claim—

(a) relating to any property standing attached under

sub-section (3) of section 3;

(b) arising out of transactions in securities entered

into after the 1st day of April, 1991, and on or

before the 6th day of June, 1992, in which a

person notified under subsection (2) of section

3 is involved as a party, broker, intermediary or

in any other manner.

(2) Every suit, claim or other legal proceeding (other than

an appeal) pending before any court immediately

before the commencement of the Special Court (Trial 

306 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

of Offences Relating to Transactions in Securities)

Amendment Act, 1994 (24 of 1994), being a suit, claim

or proceeding, the cause of action whereon it is based is

such that it would have been, if it had arisen after such

commencement, within the jurisdiction of the Special

Court under sub-section (1), shall stand transferred on

such commencement to the Special Court and the Special

Court may, on receipt of the records of such suit, claim

or other legal proceeding, proceed to deal with it, so far

as may be, in the same manner as a suit, claim or legal

proceeding from the stage which was reached before

such transfer or from any earlier stage or de novo as the

Special Court may deem fit.

(3) On and from the commencement of the Special Court

(Trial of Offences Relating to Transactions in Securities)

Amendment Act, 1994 (24 of 1994), no court other than

the Special Court shall have, or be entitled to exercise,

any jurisdiction, power or authority in relation to any matter

or claim referred to in sub-section (1).

(4) While dealing with cases relating to any matter or claim

under this section, the Special Court shall not be bound by

the procedure laid down by the Code of Civil Procedure,

1908 (5 of 1908), but shall be guided by the principles of

natural justice, and subject to the other provisions of this

Act and of any rules, the Special Court shall have power

to regulate its own procedure.

(5) Without prejudice to the other powers conferred under

this Act, the Special Court shall have, for the purposes

of discharging its functions under this section, the same

powers as are vested in a civil court under the Code of

Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908), while trying a suit, in

respect of the following matters, namely: —

(a) summoning and enforcing the attendance of any

person and examining him on oath;

(b) requiring the discovery and production of

documents;

(c) receiving evidence on affidavits;

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 307

Suman L. Shah v. The Custodian & Ors.

(d) subject to the provisions of sections 123 and 124

of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872),

requisitioning any public record or document or

copy of such record or document from any office;

(e) issuing commissions for the examination of

witnesses or documents;

(f) reviewing its decisions;

(g) dismissing a case for default or deciding it ex

parte;

(h) setting aside any order of dismissal of any case

for default or any order passed by it ex parte; and

(i) any other matter which may be prescribed by

the Central Government under sub-section (1)

of section 14.”

35. From a bare perusal of these provisions, it would become clear

that the properties of the person notified under Section 3(2) would

stand attached automatically with effect from the date of notification

by virtue of Section 3(3). Since respondent No.2- Pallav Sheth was

notified (as being a debtor of the originally notified company FFSL)

with effect from 6th October, 2001, a fortiori, his properties would be

deemed to be attached with effect from that date and not prior thereto.

36. The appellants herein took a pertinent plea before the Special Court

that the dues towards respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8, generated from

borrowings made in the years 1996-1997 stood repaid and closed

because the amounts had been repaid by cheque(s) and by way

of adjustments towards materials supplied. The applications for

recovery having been filed by the Custodian with the allegation that

the appellants herein were the debtors of the benami companies

of the notified person, the primary onus of proving this assertion

would be on the Custodian by virtue of Section 101 of Evidence

Act. It is only after the Custodian discharged this primary burden

and established the existence of the debt, then by virtue of Section

102 of the Evidence Act, perhaps, the onus could be shifted on to

the appellants to rebut the same.

37. The entire case of the Custodian regarding subsisting debts of

the appellant towards respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8 was based on 

308 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

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a communication received from the Income Tax Department. The

appropriate witness to prove such communication would be the

official concerned from the Income Tax Department. However, as has

been mentioned above, no witness from the Income Tax Department

was examined in support of the recovery application. Even the

communication forwarded by the Income Tax Department and relied

upon by the Custodian was not proved by proper evidence.

38. The appellants herein took a categoric stand in their depositions that

they had returned the amounts borrowed from respondent Nos. 6, 7

and 8, but the books of accounts were not available because of lapse

of time. The said plea of the appellants herein could not be treated

as unnatural or an afterthought because once the transactions were

completed and the loans were repaid, there was no reason for the

appellants to have entertained a belief that after a period of about 13

years, they would be required to present the account books pertaining

to transactions. It was neither a requirement in law nor could it be

expected from the appellants herein to retain the books of accounts

after more than a decade of the alleged suspicious transactions.

39. Resultantly, the conclusions drawn and the findings recorded in the

impugned judgments passed by the Special Court that the appellants

herein failed to prove the fact that the amounts had been repaid to

the benami companies of the notified person, namely, Pallav Sheth

do not stand to scrutiny and cannot be sustained as being contrary

to facts and law.

40. As an upshot of the above discussion, the impugned judgments are

hereby quashed and set aside.

41. The appeals are allowed accordingly.

42. The amounts deposited by the appellants in furtherance of the order

dated 14th March, 2014 shall be reimbursed to them forthwith.

43. Pending application(s), if any, shall stand disposed of.

Headnotes prepared by: Ankit Gyan Result of the case:

Appeals allowed.

Criminal Law – Police Report – Section 173 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – Section 2 (r) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973: Held: The Police Report under Section 173(2) Cr.P.C. being a very important piece of document from the view point of the prosecution, the defence and the court, it is incumbent upon the Investigating Officer to strictly comply with the requirements of the said provisions, as non-compliance thereof gives rise to many legal issues in the court of law. [Para 7] Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – s.173(2) – Report under Section 173(2) forms basis for cognizance – Charge Sheet is an opinion of the investigating officer to the concerned court: Held : Only a report forwarded by the Police Officer to the Magistrate under Section 173(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure can form the basis for the competent court to take cognizance thereupon – A Charge Sheet under Section 173(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure is an opinion or intimation of the investigating officer to the concerned court that on the material collected during investigation, an offence appears to have been committed by the particular person/s. [Paras 12 and 13] Criminal Law – Magistrate has three options where Police Report concludes offence is made out; and where Police Report concludes that no offence is made out.

* Author

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 614 : 2024 INSC 197

Dablu Kujur

v.

The State of Jharkhand

(Criminal Appeal No. 1511 of 2024)

12 March 2024

[Bela M. Trivedi* and Pankaj Mithal, JJ]

Issue for Consideration

The issue for consideration was the compliance of the requirements

of a Police Report under Section 173(2) of the Code of Criminal

Procedure, 1973.

Headnotes

Criminal Law – Police Report – Section 173 of the Code of

Criminal Procedure, 1973 – Section 2 (r) of the Code of Criminal

Procedure, 1973:

Held: The Police Report under Section 173(2) Cr.P.C. being a very

important piece of document from the view point of the prosecution,

the defence and the court, it is incumbent upon the Investigating

Officer to strictly comply with the requirements of the said provisions,

as non-compliance thereof gives rise to many legal issues in the

court of law. [Para 7]

Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – s.173(2) – Report under

Section 173(2) forms basis for cognizance – Charge Sheet is

an opinion of the investigating officer to the concerned court:

Held : Only a report forwarded by the Police Officer to the

Magistrate under Section 173(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure

can form the basis for the competent court to take cognizance

thereupon – A Charge Sheet under Section 173(2) of the Code of

Criminal Procedure is an opinion or intimation of the investigating

officer to the concerned court that on the material collected during

investigation, an offence appears to have been committed by the

particular person/s. [Paras 12 and 13]

Criminal Law – Magistrate has three options where Police

Report concludes offence is made out; and where Police

Report concludes that no offence is made out.

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 615

Dablu Kujur v. The State of Jharkhand

Held : When a Police Report concludes that an offence appears

to have been committed, the Magistrate has three options : (i) he

may accept the report and take cognizance and issue process; (ii)

he may direct further investigation under Section 156(3); (iii) he

may disagree with the report, and discharge the accused – When

the Police Report concludes that no offence appears to have been

committed, the Magistrate has three options : (i) he may accept

the report and drop the proceedings; (ii) he may disagree with

the report and conclude that there is sufficient ground to proceed

further, and take cognizance and issue process; (iii) he may direct

further investigation under Section 156(3) of the Code of Criminal

Procedure. Reliance placed on the Judgment in Bhagwant Singh

v. Commissioner of Police & Anr., [1985] 3 SCR 942 :1985 INSC

103 : (1985) 2 SCC 537. [Para 14]

Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – s.173(2) & (5) – Whether

Final Report keeping investigation open qua other accused, or

without all documents under Section 173(5) is in compliance

with Section 173(2) – Would not vitiate the charge sheet:

Held : Reliance placed on the Judgment in Satya Narian Musadi

& Ors. v. State of Bihar (1980) 3 SCC 152, wherein it was held

that the statutory requirement of Section 173(2) Cr.P.C. would be

complied with if various details prescribed therein are included in the

report. The report is complete if it is accompanied with all documents

and statements of witnesses as required by Section 173(5) Cr.P.C.

Reliance is also placed on the Judgment in Dinesh Dalmia v. CBI,

[2007] 9 SCR 1124 : 2007 INSC 941 : (2007) 8 SCC 770, wherein

it was held that even if all the documents are not filed, by reason

thereof, the charge-sheet itself would not be vitiated in law. Relied

upon the Judgment in CBI v. Kapil Wadhwan, [2024] 1 SCR 677 :

2024 INSC 58, holding that pendency of further investigation qua

other accused or non-availability of documents at the time of filing

of charge sheet would not vitiate the charge sheet. [Para 15]

Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – Investigation – Procedure

for investigation under Section 157 to Section 172 of the Code

of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – Reports by the Police:

Held: Under Section 157 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973,

if an officer-in-charge of a Police Station has reason to suspect the

commission of an offence, which he is empowered to investigate

under Section 156 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, he shall 

616 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

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forthwith send a report of the same to the Magistrate – Such report

would be in the nature of preliminary report – Under Section 169,

upon completion of investigation, if it appears to the Officer-in-charge

of the Police Station that there is not sufficient evidence or reasonable

ground of suspicion to justify the forwarding of the accused to a

Magistrate, such officer shall, release such person, and direct him to

appear as and when required before the Magistrate empowered to

take cognizance of the offence – Section 170 of the Code of Criminal

Procedure deals with cases when evidence is sufficient – Section 172

pertains to Diary of proceedings in investigation – Every Police Officer

making an investigation under Chapter XII of the Code of Criminal

Procedure is required to enter his proceedings in the investigation in a

diary day-by-day – Section 172(1A) requires statements of witnesses

to be inserted in the case diary; and Section 172(1B) requires such

diary to be in a volume and duly paginated. [Para 10 and 11]

Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – s.173(2) – Mandatory

requirements under Section 173(2) of the Code of Criminal

Procedure – Directions for compliance issued to Police

Officers:

Held : The Report of a Police Officer on the completion of

investigation shall contain : (i) A report in the form prescribed

by the State Government stating-(a) the names of the parties;

(b) the nature of the information; (c) the names of the persons

who appear to be acquainted with the circumstances of the

case; (d) whether any offence appears to have been committed

and, if so, by whom;(e) whether the accused has been arrested;

(f) whether he has been released on his bond and, if so, whether

with or without sureties; (g) whether he has been forwarded in

custody under section 170. (h) Whether the report of medical

examination of the woman has been attached where investigation

relates to an offence under [sections 376, 376A, 376AB, 376B,

376C, 376D, 376DA, 376DB] or section 376E of the Indian Penal

Code (45 of 1860); (ii) If upon the completion of investigation,

there is no sufficient evidence or reasonable ground of suspicion

to justify the forwarding of the accused to a Magistrate, the

Police officer in charge shall clearly state in the Report about the

compliance of Section 169 Cr.PC.; (iii) When the report in respect

of a case to which Section 170 applies, the police officer shall

forward to the Magistrate along with the report, all the documents

or relevant extracts thereof on which the prosecution proposes 

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 617

Dablu Kujur v. The State of Jharkhand

to rely other than those already sent to the Magistrate during

investigation; and the statements recorded under Section 161

of all the persons whom the prosecution proposes to examine

as its witnesses; (iv) In case of further investigation, the Police

officer in charge shall forward to the Magistrate a further report

or reports regarding such evidence in the form prescribed and

shall also comply with the details mentioned in the above sub

para (i) to (iii). [Para 17]

Case Law Cited

Bhagwant Singh v. Commissioner of Police & Anr.

[1985] 3 SCR 942 : 1985 INSC 103 : (1985) 2 SCC

537; Satya Narain Musadi & Ors. v. State of Bihar

(1980) 3 SCC 152; Dinesh Dalmia v. CBI, [2007] 9

SCR 1124 : 2007 INSC 941 : (2007) 8 SCC 770; CBI

v. Kapil Wadhwan [2024] 1 SCR 677 : 2024 INSC

58 – relied on.

List of Acts

Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

List of Keywords

Police Report; Charge Sheet; Compliance of Section 173 Cr.P.C.;

Directions for Final Report.

Case Arising From

CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION : Criminal Appeal No.1511

of 2024

From the Judgment and Order dated 17.01.2023 of the High Court

of Jharkhand at Ranchi in BA No.11895 of 2022

Appearances for Parties

Sudhanshu Chaudhari, Sr. Adv., Vatsalya Vigya, Advs. for the

Appellant.

Sharan Dev Singh Thakur, A.A.G., Vishnu Sharma, Shantanu Sagar,

Puneet Singh Bindra, Anil Kumar, Gunjesh Ranjan, Vaibhav Jain,

Rajesh Ranjan, Attin Shankar Rastogi, A. Vasudeva, Prateek Yadav,

Azmat Hayat Amanullah, Ms. Ruchira Goel, Siddharth Thakur,

Sharanya Sinha, Mustafa Sajad, Ms. Keerti Jaya, Adit Jayeshbhai

Shah, Advs. for the Respondent.

618 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

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Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court

Judgment

Bela M. Trivedi, J.

1. Leave granted.

2. The appellant-accused, by way of the present appeal has challenged

the impugned judgment and order dated 17.01.2023 passed by

the High Court of Jharkhand at Ranchi in B.A. No.11895 of 2022,

whereby the High Court has dismissed the said application seeking

his release on bail in respect of the FIR being Sukhdeonagar P.S.

Case No.-238/2022 dated 30.05.2022 registered for the offences

under Sections 302, 120-B/34 of IPC and Section 25(1-B) A/26/27/35

of the Arms Act.

3. During the course of arguments, it was apprised to the Court that

the trial is at the fag end and almost all the witnesses have been

examined by the prosecution except one witness.

4. In view of the above, we are not inclined to release the appellant on

bail, more particularly, when the trial is at the fag end.

5. Before parting, it may be noted that on 17.07.2023, this Court

(Coram- Mr. Justice Sanjiv Khanna and Ms. Justice Bela M. Trivedi)

had passed the following order: -

“The learned counsel for the State of Jharkhand states

that Sections 34 and 120B of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

have been SLP(Crl.) No. 2874/2023 invoked against the

petitioner - Dablu Kujur.

Having gone through the chargesheet, we must observe

that it is bereft of any details and particulars. The Director

General of Police (DGP), State of Jharkhand will examine

whether the said chargesheet is in accordance with law,

and if such chargesheets are being filed, appropriate steps

should be taken in compliance with the relevant provisions

of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. The DGP, State

of Jharkhand will file an action report within a period of

four weeks from today.

We are told that similar chargesheets bereft of details

and particulars are being filed in the States of Bihar and 

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 619

Dablu Kujur v. The State of Jharkhand

Uttar Pradesh. A copy of this order will also be sent to the

relevant DGPs for the States of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh,

who will submit their respective reports on the steps taken

by them within four weeks from today.

Keeping in view the facts of the present case, we are

inclined to direct the trial court to examine the public

witnesses within a period of four months from today, without

fail. Status report along with copy of the order sheets will

be filed immediately upon completion of four months.

List for consideration and orders in the first half of

December 2023”.

6. In compliance with the said order, the affidavits are filed on behalf of

the State of Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar with regard to the

steps taken/being taken by them for submitting the Chargesheets/

Police Reports in accordance with law.

7. The Police Report submitted by the police under Section 173(2)

being very important piece of document from the view point of

the prosecution, the defence and the court, we deem it necessary

to elaborately deal with the various aspects involved in the said

provision. For the reasons stated hereinafter, we are of the opinion

that it is incumbent on the part of the Investigating Officer to

strictly comply with the requirements of the said provisions, as

non-compliance thereof gives rise to many legal issues in the

court of law.

8. As per Section 2(r) of Cr.P.C, “Police Report” means a report

forwarded by a Police Officer to a Magistrate under sub-section (2)

of Section 173.

9. Section 173 reads as under: -

“173. Report of police officer on completion of investigation. —

(1) Every investigation under this Chapter shall be

completed without unnecessary delay.

[(1A) The investigation in relation to [an offence under

sections 376,376A, 376AB, 376B, 376C, 376D, 376DA,

376DB or 376E] from the date on which the information

was recorded by the officer in charge of the police station.]

620 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

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(2) (i) As soon as it is completed, the officer in charge of the

police station shall forward to a Magistrate empowered to

take cognizance of the offence on a police report, a report

in the form prescribed by the State Government, stating—

(a) the names of the parties;

(b) the nature of the information;

(c) the names of the persons who appear to be

acquainted with the circumstances of the case;

(d) whether any offence appears to have been

committed and, if so, by whom;

(e) whether the accused has been arrested;

(f) whether he has been released on his bond and,

if so, whether with or without sureties;

(g) whether he has been forwarded in custody

under section 170.

(h) whether the report of medical examination of the

woman has been attached where investigation

relates to an offence under 2 [sections 376,376A,

376AB, 376B, 376C, 376D, 376DA, 376DB] or

section 376E of the Indian Penal Code (45 of

1860)].]

(ii) The officer shall also communicate, in such manner as

may be prescribed by the State Government, the action

taken by him, to the person, if any, by whom the information

relating to the commission of the offence was first given.

(3) Where a superior officer of police has been appointed

under section 158, the report shall, in any case in which

the State Government by general or special order so

directs, be submitted through that officer, and he may,

pending the orders of the Magistrate, direct the officer in

charge of the police station to make further investigation.

(4) Whenever it appears from a report forwarded under this

section that the accused has been released on his bond,

the Magistrate shall make such order for the discharge of

such bond or otherwise as he thinks fit.

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 621

Dablu Kujur v. The State of Jharkhand

(5) When such report is in respect of a case to which

section 170 applies, the police officer shall forward to the

Magistrate along with the report—

(a) all documents or relevant extracts thereof on

which the prosecution proposes to rely other

than those already sent to the Magistrate during

investigation;

(b) the statements recorded under section 161 of

all the persons whom the prosecution proposes

to examine as its witnesses.

(6) If the police officer is of opinion that any part of any

such statement is not relevant to the subject-matter of

the proceedings or that its disclosure to the accused is

not essential in the interests of justice and is inexpedient

in the public interest, he shall indicate that part of the

statement and append a note requesting the Magistrate

to exclude that part from the copies to be granted to the

accused and stating his reasons for making such request.

(7) Where the police officer investigating the case finds it

convenient so to do, he may furnish to the accused copies

of all or any of the documents referred to in sub-section (5).

(8) Nothing in this section shall be deemed to preclude

further investigation in respect of an offence after a

report under sub-section (2) has been forwarded to the

Magistrate and, where upon such investigation, the officer

in charge of the police station obtains further evidence,

oral or documentary, he shall forward to the Magistrate a

further report or reports regarding such evidence in the

form prescribed; and the provisions of sub- sections (2) to

(6) shall, as far as may be, apply in relation to such report

or reports as they apply in relation to a report forwarded

under sub-section (2)”.

10. The procedure for investigation has been laid down in Section 157

of Cr.P.C. which states inter alia that if from the information received

or otherwise, an officer in charge of a police station has reason

to suspect the commission of an offence which he is empowered

under Section 156 to investigate, he shall forthwith send a report 

622 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

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of the same to a Magistrate empowered to take cognizance of

such offence upon a police report and shall proceed in person,

or shall depute one of his subordinate officers to proceed, to the

spot, to investigate the facts and circumstances of the case, and,

if necessary, to take measures for the discovery and arrest of the

offender. Such report would be in the nature of preliminary report.

As per Section 169, upon the completion of the investigation, if it

appears to the officer in charge of the police station that there is

not sufficient evidence or reasonable ground of suspicion to justify

the forwarding of the accused to a Magistrate, such officer shall,

if such person is in custody, release him on his executing a bond,

with or without sureties, as such officer may direct, to appear, if

and when so required, before the Magistrate empowered to take

cognizance of the offence on a police report, and to try the accused

or commit him for trial. Section 170 deals with the cases to be

sent to Magistrate when evidence is sufficient. The relevant part of

Section 170(1) reads as under: -

“170. Cases to be sent to Magistrate, when evidence is

sufficient.—(1) If, upon an investigation under this Chapter,

it appears to the officer in charge of the police station

that there is sufficient evidence or reasonable ground as

aforesaid, such officer shall forward the accused under

custody to a Magistrate empowered to take cognizance of

the offence upon a police report and to try the accused or

commit him for trial, or, if the offence is bailable and the

accused is able to give security, shall take security from

him for his appearance before such Magistrate on a day

fixed and for his attendance from day to day before such

Magistrate until otherwise directed.”

11. Section 172 pertains to the Diary of proceedings in investigation, which

requires every police officer making an investigation under Chapter

XII Cr.P.C. to enter his proceedings in the investigation in a diary day

by day. Sub-section (IA) of Section 172 requires that the statements

of the witnesses recorded during the course of investigation under

section 161 have to be inserted in the case diary; and sub-section

(1B) of Section 172 requires that such diary shall be a volume and

duly paginated.

12. We are more concerned with Section 173(2) as we have found that

the investigating officers while submitting the chargesheet/Police 

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 623

Dablu Kujur v. The State of Jharkhand

Report do not comply with the requirements of the said provision.

Though it is true that the form of the report to be submitted under

Section 173(2) has to be prescribed by the State Government and

each State Government has its own Police Manual to be followed

by the police officers while discharging their duty, the mandatory

requirements required to be complied with by such officers in the

Police Report/Chargesheet are laid down in Section 173, more

particularly sub-section (2) thereof.

13. It may be noted that though there are various reports required to

be submitted by the police in charge of the police station before,

during and after the investigation as contemplated in Chapter XII

of Cr.P.C., it is only the report forwarded by the police officer to

the Magistrate under sub-section (2) of Section 173 Cr.P.C. that

can form the basis for the competent court for taking cognizance

thereupon. A chargesheet is nothing but a final report of the police

officer under Section 173(2) of Cr.P.C. It is an opinion or intimation

of the investigating officer to the concerned court that on the material

collected during the course of investigation, an offence appears to

have been committed by the particular person or persons, or that

no offence appears to have been committed.

14. When such a Police Report concludes that an offence appears

to have been committed by a particular person or persons, the

Magistrate has three options: (i) he may accept the report and take

cognizance of the offence and issue process, (ii) he may direct further

investigation under sub-section (3) of Section 156 and require the

police to make a further report, or (iii) he may disagree with the report

and discharge the accused or drop the proceedings. If such Police

Report concludes that no offence appears to have been committed,

the Magistrate again has three options: (i) he may accept the report

and drop the proceedings, or (ii) he may disagree with the report

and taking the view that there is sufficient ground for proceeding

further, take cognizance of the offence and issue process, or (iii)

he may direct further investigation to be made by the police under

sub-section (3) of Section 1561

.

15. The issues with regard to the compliance of Section 173(2) Cr.P.C.,

may also arise, when the investigating officer submits Police Report

1 Bhagwant Singh vs. Commissioner of Police & Anr.; [1985] 3 SCR 942 : (1985) 2 SCC 537

624 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

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only qua some of the persons-accused named in the FIR, keeping

open the investigation qua the other persons-accused, or when all

the documents as required under Section 173(5) are not submitted. In

such a situation, the question that is often posed before the court is

whether such a Police Report could be said to have been submitted

in compliance with sub-section (2) of Section 173 Cr.P.C. In this

regard, it may be noted that in Satya Narain Musadi & Ors. vs.

State of Bihar2

, this Court has observed that statutory requirement

of the report under Section 173(2) would be complied with if various

details prescribed therein are included in the report. The report is

complete if it is accompanied with all the documents and statements

of witnesses as required by Section 175(5). In Dinesh Dalmia vs.

CBI 3

, however, it has been held that even if all the documents are

not filed, by reason thereof the submission of the chargesheet itself

would not be vitiated in law. Such issues often arise when the accused

would make his claim for default bail under Section 167(2) of Cr.P.C.

and contend that all the documents having not been submitted as

required under Section 173(5), or the investigation qua some of the

persons having been kept open while submitting Police Report under

Section 173(2), the requirements under Section 173(2) could not be

said to have been complied with. In this regard, this Court recently

held in case of CBI vs. Kapil Wadhwan & Anr.4 that: -

“Once from the material produced along with the

chargesheet, the court is satisfied about the commission of

an offence and takes cognizance of the offence allegedly

committed by the accused, it is immaterial whether the

further investigation in terms of Section 173(8) is pending

or not. The pendency of the further investigation qua the

other accused or for production of some documents not

available at the time of filing of chargesheet would neither

vitiate the chargesheet, nor would it entitle the accused

to claim right to get default bail on the ground that the

chargesheet was an incomplete chargesheet or that the

chargesheet was not filed in terms of Section 173(2) of

Cr.P.C.”

2 (1980) 3 SCC 152

3 [2007] 9 SCR 1124 : (2007) 8 SCC 770

4 [2024] 1 SCR 677 : Criminal Appeal No. 391 of 2024 (@ SLP (Crl) No. 11775 of 2023)

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 625

Dablu Kujur v. The State of Jharkhand

16. The above referred discussion has been necessitated for highlighting

the significance of the compliance of requirements of the provisions

contained in Section 173(2) of Cr.P.C.

17. Ergo, having regard to the provisions contained in Section 173 it is

hereby directed that the Report of police officer on the completion

of investigation shall contain the following: -

(i) A report in the form prescribed by the State Government stating-

(a) the names of the parties;

(b) the nature of the information;

(c) the names of the persons who appear to be acquainted

with the circumstances of the case;

(d) whether any offence appears to have been committed

and, if so, by whom;

(e) whether the accused has been arrested;

(f) whether he has been released on his bond and, if so,

whether with or without sureties;

(g) whether he has been forwarded in custody under section

170.

(h) Whether the report of medical examination of the woman

has been attached where investigation relates to an offence

under [sections 376, 376A, 376AB, 376B, 376C, 376D,

376DA, 376DB] or section 376E of the Indian Penal Code

(45 of 1860)”

(ii) If upon the completion of investigation, there is no sufficient

evidence or reasonable ground of suspicion to justify the

forwarding of the accused to a Magistrate, the Police officer in

charge shall clearly state in the Report about the compliance

of Section 169 Cr.PC.

(iii) When the report in respect of a case to which Section 170

applies, the police officer shall forward to the Magistrate along

with the report, all the documents or relevant extracts thereof

on which the prosecution proposes to rely other than those

already sent to the Magistrate during investigation; and the

statements recorded under Section 161 of all the persons

whom the prosecution proposes to examine as its witnesses. 

626 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

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(iv) In case of further investigation, the Police officer in charge shall

forward to the Magistrate a further report or reports regarding

such evidence in the form prescribed and shall also comply with

the details mentioned in the above sub para (i) to (iii).

18. It is further directed that the officer in charge of the police stations in

every State shall strictly comply with the afore-stated directions, and

the non-compliance thereof shall be strictly viewed by the concerned

courts in which the Police Reports are submitted.

19. Copy of this order be sent to all the Chief Secretaries of the States/

UTs as also to Registrar Generals of the High Courts for perusal and

compliance. The appeal stands disposed of accordingly.

Headnotes prepared by: Result of the case:

Vidhi Thaker, Hony. Associate Editor Appeal disposed of

(Verified by: Liz Mathew, Sr. Adv.)

Whether the Tribunal was justified in entertaining the reference of an industrial dispute when a binding settlement under Section 18 (1) read with Section 19(2) and Section 36 of the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 was arrived at between the parties.

* Author

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 627 : 2024 INSC 199

Mahanadi Coalfields Ltd.

v.

Brajrajnagar Coal Mines Workers’ Union

(Civil Appeal No. 4092-4093 of 2024)

12 March 2024

[Pamidighantam Sri Narasimha* and Sandeep Mehta, JJ.]

Issue for Consideration

Whether the Tribunal was justified in entertaining the reference of

an industrial dispute when a binding settlement under Section 18

(1) read with Section 19(2) and Section 36 of the Industrial Dispute

Act, 1947 was arrived at between the parties.

Headnotes

Industrial Dispute Act, 1947-Section 10 - Reference of disputes;

Section 18 (1) read with Section 19(2) - Settlement binding

on all parties.

32 workers, working continuously for 10 years, sought regularisation

on the basis of Clause 11.5.1 and Clause 11.5.2 of the National

Wage Agreement IV - Settlement arrived between the labour

union and management under Rule 58 of the Industrial Disputes

(Central) Rules, 1957 - 19 workers regularised - 13 workers’ job

described as ‘purely casual’ – Central Government invoked power of

reference to Tribunal - Tribunal found that the (1) 13 workers were

on same footing as regularised workers, granted regularisation (2)

job was perennial in nature (3) management could not establish

distinction - Concurrent findings by High Court in Writ Petition and

Review Petition.

Held: 13 workers entitled to regularisation on parity basis –

Workers entitled to back wages on grounds of wrongful denial of

employment and regularisation – Back wages to be calculated

from the date Tribunal’s decision in reference – Under Article 136

only substantial questions of law can be entertained [Paras 16,

18, 20, 22, 23, 24].

Case Law Cited

J.K. Synthetics Ltd. v. K.P. Agarwal [2007] 2 SCR 60 :

(2007) 2 SCC 433 – referred to.

628 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

List of Acts

Industrial Dispute Act, 1947; Industrial Disputes (Central) Rules,

1957.

List of Keywords

Settlement; Back Wages; Artificial Distinction; Nature of Job; Same

footing; Reference; Conciliation; Regularisation; Wrongful Denial

of employment.

Case Arising From

CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION : Civil Appeal Nos. 4092-4093

of 2024

From the Judgment and Order dated 11.01.2017 in WPC No.2002 of

2002 and dated 11.11.2021 in RVWPET No.77 of 2017 of the High

Court of Orissa at Cuttack

Appearances for Parties

Aman Lekhi, Sr. Adv., Soumyajit Pani, Aishwary Bajpai, Siddharth

Jain, Advs. for the Appellant.

Ashok Kumar Panda, Sr. Adv., Tejaswi Kumar Pradhan, Mohan

Prasad Gupta, Manoranjan Paikaray, Shashwat Panda, Advs. for

the Respondent.

Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court

Judgment

Pamidighantam Sri Narasimha, J.

1. Delay condoned. Leave granted.

2. The Appellant, Mahanadi Coalfields Ltd., a subsidiary of Coal India

Ltd. floated a tender for the transportation of crushed coal and

selected a successful contractor for performance of the agreement

for the period 1984 to 1994. The contractor employed workmen for

execution of this contract.

3. The respondent-union espoused the cause of the workmen who were

engaged by the contractor and sought permanent status for them.

It relied on clauses 11.5.1 and 11.5.2 of the National Coal Wage

Agreement-IV dated 27.07.1989. Under these clauses, it was agreed

that the employer shall not engage contract labour with respect to 

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 629

Mahanadi Coalfields Ltd. v. Brajrajnagar Coal Mines Workers’ Union

jobs which are permanent and perennial in nature. They also provide

that such jobs shall be executed through regular employees.

4. Following the representation of the respondent-union, the Assistant

Labour Commissioner sent a notice to the appellant for conciliation.

The conciliation process eventually culminated in a settlement dated

05.04.1997 under Rule 58 of the Industrial Disputes (Central) Rules,

1957. The relevant portion of the settlement is as follows:

“The Union has submitted a list of 32 persons said to have

been engaged by the contractors and demanded for their

regularisation. Alter verification, it was observed, that the

following persons are engaged in Bunker for operating

Chutes.

SI

No.

Name of the Person Father’s

Name

01. Sri Sadanand Bhoi Keshab

02. Sri Purusottam Dau Govardhan

03. Sri Anta Barik Gadadhar

04. Sri Aditya Nikhandia Cheru

05. Sri Bhabagrahi Pradhan D. Pradhan

06. Sri Sudarshan Khandit Masru

07. Sri Ashok Kumar Rout Sitaram

08. Sri Krishna Dau Goverdhan

09, Sri Abhimanyu Kisan Chhala

10. Sri Lakhan Bhoi Keshab

11. Sri Jay Narayan Bhoi Chaitan

12. Sri Sanatan Kisan Ugresan

13. Sri Giridhari Raudia Goverdhan

14. Sri Daitari Pradhan Nira

15. Sri Subram Bag Buchhu

16. Sri Madhu Marai Dasa

17. Sri Fakir Khamari Kartik

18. Sri Sanatan Naik Ram Krishna

19. Sri Sanatan Bhoi Tiharu

Since this operation is of permanent and

perennial nature, it was agreed to regularise

the above 19 (nineteen) persons as General 

630 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

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Mazdoor, Category-I, in the NCWA-V Pay Scale

of Rs. 65.40-1.08-85.52.

In respect of other persons, it was contended,

that they are engaged in purely casual nature

of jobs, which are not prohibited under Contract

Labour (R&A) Act, 1970, and accordingly, they

are not eligible for regularisation.”

5. In view of the fact that the settlement is confined to only 19 workmen,

the Central Government referred the entire dispute to the Industrial

Tribunal under Section 10 (2A)(1)(d) of the Industrial Disputes Act,

1947, on 20.05.1997 registered as Dispute Case no. 27/2001 before

the Industrial Tribunal, Rourkela, Odisha. Before the Tribunal, the

workmen examined 3 witnesses in support of their case and the

management examined 4 witnesses.

6. By its judgment dated 23.05.2002, the Tribunal allowed the industrial

dispute and directed the regularization of the remaining 13 workmen.

The important findings of the Tribunal are as follows. At the outset, the

Tribunal rejected the preliminary objection that it had no jurisdiction

under the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition Act), 1970 and

proceeded to consider the nature of the work that the 13 workmen

were performing. Having considered the matter in detail, the Tribunal

held that the work of removing spillages in the railway siding, below

the bunker and operation of chutes (in the bunker) are regular

and perennial in nature. Having considered the evidence of the

management witnesses, the Tribunal concluded that the nature of

the work is perennial. Accordingly, the remaining 13 workers were

directed to be regularized in the following terms:

“The evidence is straight and clear that all the 32 persons

were attending the same of. The rest 13 persons whose

cases have not been regularized were attending the same

job, which was being attended by 19 persons whose services

has been regularized. So standing on the same footing the

cases of the rest 13 persons should not have been ignored

on the ground that, they did not deserve to be regularized as

reflected in the settlement. In my opinion when 19 persons

have been regularized the case of rest 13 persons who

were attending the same type of work should have been

regularized without any cause. The ground stated in the 

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 631

Mahanadi Coalfields Ltd. v. Brajrajnagar Coal Mines Workers’ Union

settlement that they do not deserve, in my opinion does not

appears to be a genuine ground to discard the cases of the

rest 13 persons. I am not inclined to burden the award by

placing all the submissions made on behalf of the parties.

It is necessary to refer the evidence of the Witness No. 2

examined on behalf of the 1st Party Management. As per

clause 11.5.0 of N.C.W.A. IV the Contract Labourers cannot

be engaged for permanent and perennial nature of job. He

has further stated that, they had entered to a settlement

regarding those 19 persons. His further evidence is that the

persons out of 13 were also working in Coal Handling Plant,

which is a permanent and perennial in nature. The evidence

of the Witness No. 3 of the 1st Party Management is that,

the work of railway siding is also a regular and perennial in

nature for which the 19 persons have been regularized. All

the 32 persons were attending the job of removing spillages

for railway Biding below the bunker and also the operation

of the chutes in the bunker. So in view of such evidence it

cannot be said that the rest 13 persons were not attending

the job which were being attended by the 19 persons whose

services has been regularized. So in my opinion, even if

there has been a settlement between the parties regularizing

19 persons the rest of 13 persons has got cause of action

to raise the Industrial separate and their case should not

have been ignored. In the other words the action of the 1st

Party Management in not regularizing the services of the

rest 13 persons in accordance was N.C.W.A. IV is illegal

and unjustified. Hence, this Issue is answered accordingly.”

7. Questioning the legality and validity of the Tribunal’s judgment, the

appellant filed a Writ Petition (C) numbered 2002/2002 before the

Orissa High Court.

8. The Division Bench of the High Court heard the matter, and by its

judgment, impugned before us, dismissed the writ petition. The High

Court referred to the nature of work performed by the workmen

and affirmed the findings of the Tribunal based on the evidence of

witnesses such as MW3, the personal manager in the appellant

company. The High Court took note of his evidence that the work on

railway sidings was regular and perennial in nature. He also admitted

that it is with respect to that work for which the 19 workers were 

632 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

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regularized. The High Court also observed that there was no evidence

to dispute that all 32 workers were engaged in removing spillages

from railway sidings and below the bunker, which is in addition to

operating chutes. The High Court, therefore, upheld the view taken

by the Tribunal. The Review Petition bearing No. 77/2017 filed by

the management was also dismissed by the order dated 11.11.2021.

9. We have heard Mr. Aman Lekhi, learned Senior Counsel appearing

on behalf of the appellant, assisted by Mr. Siddharth Jain, Mr.

Soumyajit Pani and Ms. Aishwary Bajpai, Advocates and also Mr.

Ashok Kumar Panda, learned Senior Counsel for the respondentunion, assisted by Mr. Tejaswi Kumar Pradhan, Mr. Mohan Prasad

Gupta, Mr. Manoranjan Paikaray and Mr. Shashwat Panda, Advocates.

10. Submissions of the appellant: Before this court, the appellant

company contends that the Award dated 23.05.2002 is bad in law. It

argues that the settlement was binding on the parties due to Section

18(1) read with Section 36, Industrial Disputes Act and it continues

to be so by virtue of Section 19(2) of the Act, since the settlement

was never terminated.

10.1 The settlement was reached after verification of the nature of

works performed. It was found that 19 workers were performing

perennial and permanent work and the work of the remaining

13 workers was ‘casual’ in nature.

10.2 There was no provision to regularize such workers under the

NCWA-IV. The only provision under which regularization could

be claimed would be Section 25F of the Industrial Disputes

Act, but the said provision applies only to workers who worked

under the direct supervision of the company for a certain period

and wrongfully stopped thereafter. In the present case, as the

workmen worked under the supervision of a contractor and not

the appellant, Section 25F will have no application.

10.3 Lastly, it is contended that the Tribunal had wrongly directed

the appellant to disburse backwages to the 13 workers. This

is contrary to the settled principle that grant of backwages can

never be automatic or a natural consequence of regularization.

The workers seeking regularization and backwages have an

onus to show that they are not gainfully employed. For this,

the appellant relied on J.K. Synthetics Ltd. v. K.P. Agrawal &

anr. reported as (2007) 2 SCC 433 to support this contention.

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 633

Mahanadi Coalfields Ltd. v. Brajrajnagar Coal Mines Workers’ Union

11. Submissions of the respondent-union: The respondent-union

submitted that all 32 workers were engaged in works of a similar

nature. They assert that the list in the industrial reference dated

20.05.1997 shows that workers were arbitrarily deprived of

regularization, wherein certain workers from the bunker and the

plant were left out of the settlement without any reason. It is also

argued that the work in the railway siding was perennial and regular

in nature, similar to the works in the bunker.

11.1 To support its contentions, the respondent-union relies on the

evidence of MW3 and MW4, who were the personal manager

and the project officer in the appellant company, respectively.

While MW3 categorically admitted that the removal of spilled

coal from the railway siding, the bunker and the Coal Handling

Plant is regular and perennial in nature, MW4 stated that all 32

workers were engaged similarly. It is therefore submitted that

their evidence proves that the 13 workers actively participated

in tasks deemed regular and perennial.

11.2 Since there was no resolution of the claim of regularization

of similarly placed workers, they have the right to pursue the

remedy under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. It is submitted

that Rule 58 of the Industrial Dispute (Central) Rules, 1957

under which the settlement occurred, nowhere poses a legal

obstruction to the remedy.

11.3 It is finally submitted that the 13 workmen suffered for no fault

of theirs and an order of regularization must naturally lead to

grant of consequential backwages.

12. Analysis and findings: Having heard the parties in detail, we are

of the opinion that the present appeals can be disposed of for the

following reasons.

13. At the outset, the appellant objected to the Tribunal entertaining

the industrial dispute passing of the award on the ground that a

settlement under S. 18(1) read with S. 36 of the Industrial Disputes

Act is binding on all the parties under S. 19(2) of the Act. This is

the substantive part of the submission on behalf of the appellant.

The facts of this case, as they unfold, leading to the arrival of the

settlement, followed by the reference to the Industrial Tribunal, and

then the award, are necessary for our consideration. 

634 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

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14. At the first place, all the 32 workmen commenced their work

through the contractor from 1984 and continued till 1994. In 1994,

the respondent-union espoused the cause of all the 32 workers

and the Asst. Labour Commissioner took up the entire cause. This

culminated in the settlement dated 05.04.1997, relied upon by the

appellant.

15. To appreciate the submission that the settlement is the last word

and that the Tribunal could not have entertained the reference or

passed the Award, the following facts become crucial.

16. The settlement itself talks about the claim of the 32 workers raised

by the respondent-union. It then talks about the contention of the

management that others are engaged in ‘purely casual’ nature of jobs.

In the very next sentence, it agreed to regularize 19 contractors. It is

important to note that, being conscious of the fact that the settlement

provides for the regularization of 19 out of the 32 workmen, the

Government invoked the power of reference to refer the matter to

the Tribunal to adjudicate the interest of all the 32 workers. The

Tribunal was naturally bound by the reference to consider the claim

of all the 32 workers.

17. Despite the fact that there was a settlement with respect to some

of the workmen, the Tribunal was tasked to examine the entire

reference and give independent findings on the issue. Thus, the

Tribunal was justified in giving its award on the reference made by

the central government. This answers the objection raised by the

appellant about the jurisdiction of the Tribunal.

18. We are also conscious of the fact that the jurisdiction that we exercise

is under Article 136 of the Constitution. The findings of fact arrived

at by the Tribunal are unassailable. We are also of the opinion that

the High Court has correctly rejected the writ petition filed against

the award. Apart from the concurrent findings of fact, we see no

substantial question of law in these appeals.

19. Even otherwise, the present case is not one where this court would

exercise its discretion. What appeals to us is that the 32 workers who

entered the service of the appellant in 1984, continued uninterruptedly

till 1994, when the respondent-union sought their permanence. In the

settlement arrived in 1997, the stand of the appellant with respect

to the 13 workers is as follows:

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 635

Mahanadi Coalfields Ltd. v. Brajrajnagar Coal Mines Workers’ Union

“In respect of other persons, it was contended that they

are engaged in purely casual nature of jobs which are

not prohibited under Contract Labour (R&A) Act, 1970

and accordingly, they are not eligible for regularisation.”

20. It is proved that the remaining workers stand on the same footing as

the regularized employees, and they were wrongly not made part of

the settlement. This is established by the Tribunal, by examining the

nature of work undertaken by the first set of 19 workmen and that of

the other 13 workmen. It also examined Shri Arun Ch. Hota (WW3),

the Deputy General Manager (MW2), Mr. Udayshankar Gonelal, the

Personal Manager (MW3) and Shri S. Agarwal, the Project Officer

(MW4). The Tribunal finally came to the conclusion that the nature

of the duties performed by the 13 workmen are perennial in nature.

The appellant has failed to establish any distinction between the two

sets of workers. The Tribunal was, therefore, justified in answering

the reference and returning the finding that they hold the same status

as the regularized employees.

21. We are also not impressed with the artificial distinction which the

appellant sought to bring about between the 19 workers who were

regularized and the 13 workers who were left out. The evidence on

record discloses that, of the total 32 workmen, 19 workers worked in

the bunker, 6 worked in the Coal Handling Plant, and 7 worked on

the railway siding. However, of the 19 workers who were regularized,

16 worked in the bunker, and 3 worked in the Coal Handling Plant.

However, 3 workers from the same bunker, 3 workers from the same

Coal Handling Plant and again 7 workers from the same railway

siding were not regularized. A tabulated representation of the above

description is as follows:

Site of work No. of

workers who

executed

works

No. of

workers

who were

regularized

No. of

workers not

regularized

Bunker 19 16 3

Coal Handling Plant 6 3 3

Railway Siding 7 - 7

Total: 32 19 13

636 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

22. The above-referred facts speak for themselves, and that is the

reason why the Tribunal has come to a conclusion that the denial

of regularization of the 13 workmen is wholly unjustified. As stated

previously, we do not find any grounds in the artificial distinction

asserted by the appellant. However, as the case was argued at length

we thought it appropriate to give reasons for rejecting the appeals.

What we have referred to hereinabove are all findings of fact by the

Tribunal as affirmed by the High Court. In view of the concurrent

findings of fact on the issue of nature of work, the continuing nature

of work, continuous working of the workmen, we are of the opinion

that there is no merit in the appeals filed by the appellant.

23. This is a case of wrongful denial of employment and regularization,

for no fault of the workmen and therefore, there will be no order

restricting their wages.

24. With respect to payment of backwages, we are of the opinion that

the workmen will be entitled to backwages as observed by the

Industrial Tribunal. However, taking into account, the long-drawn

litigation affecting the workmen as well as the appellant in equal

measure and taking into account the public interest, we confine the

backwages to be calculated from the decision of the Tribunal dated

23.05.2002. This is the only modification in the order of the Tribunal,

and as was affirmed by the judgment of the High Court.

25. For the reasons stated above, the appeals arising out of the final

judgment and order of the High Court in W.P. (C) No. 2002/2002

and order in Review Petition No. 77/2017 are dismissed with the

direction that the concerned workmen shall be entitled to backwages

with effect from 23.05.2002. There shall be no order as to costs.

Headnotes prepared by: Result of the case:

Aishani Narain, Hony. Associate Editor Appeals dismissed

(Verified by: Madhavi Divan, Sr. Advocate) with directions

Electoral Bonds – Directions to SBI in judgment dated 15 February 2024 – submission of the following details to the ECI by 6 March 2024: (a) Details of each Electoral Bond purchased including the date of purchase, the name of the purchaser and the denomination of the Electoral Bond; (b) Details of each Electoral Bond redeemed by political parties including the date of encashment and the denomination of the Electoral Bond – ECI to collate the information to be submitted by the SBI and publish it on its website by 13 March 2024 [Paras 1-4] Electoral Bonds – Extension of Time for Compliance with Court Directions – SBI prayed for extension of time until 30 June 2024 for complying with the directions because: information received by SBI maintained in two separate silos – Per SBI, direction of this Court require a matching exercise – of the details of donor and recipient political parties with respect to a particular bond – Clause 7(4), Electoral Bond Scheme – Electoral Bond information shall be disclosed when called upon to do so by a competent court [Para 6-7] Electoral Bonds – Matching of information – SBI submitted information is not available in a digital format centrally – Donor details and the recipient details are available in two separate silos – At the end of each phase, details of the purchasers of Electoral Bonds and information on the redemption of Electoral Bonds (stored in a sealed cover and sent to the SBI, Mumbai Branch – Matching of information in the two silos is a timeconsuming process – Large number of data sets to decipher: total of 22,217 bonds were purchased between 12 April 2019 to 15 February 2024 – Total 44,434 data sets [Para 8] Electoral Bonds – SBI MA dismissed – FAQs on Electoral Bonds-Details of Purchasers readily available – Information about a political party’s encashment readily available – Court not inclined to exercise the contempt jurisdiction at this stage in the Petitioners’ contempt petition

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 637 : 2024 INSC 195

State Bank of India

v.

Association for Democratic Reforms and Others

(Miscellaneous Application No 486 of 2024

In

Writ Petition (Civil) No 880 of 2017)

WITH

(Contempt Petition (Civil) No 138 of 2024

In

Writ Petition (Civil) No 880 of 2017)

&

(Contempt Petition (Civil) No 140 of 2024

In

Writ Petition (Civil) No 59 of 2018)

11 March 2024

[Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, CJI, Sanjiv Khanna,

B R Gavai, J B Pardiwala and Manoj Misra, JJ.]

Issue for Consideration

This case pertains to a Miscellaneous Application filed by the State

Bank of India (SBI) seeking an extension of time until 30 June

2024 - two days before the expiry of the stipulated deadline - for

complying with the directions given by the Supreme Court in its

judgment dated 15 February 2024. Vide the aforesaid judgment,

the Court had directed the SBI, which was the authorized Bank

to deal with Electoral Bonds under the Electoral Bond Scheme,

to, inter alia, submit to the Election Commission of India (ECI),

details of the Electoral Bonds purchased by the contributors and

redeemed by political parties between 12 April 2019 till the date

of the judgment, by 6 March 2024. The Petitioners in this case -

Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) and the Communist

Party of India (Marxist) - instituted a petition invoking the contempt

jurisdiction of this Court against SBI for wilful disobedience of the

order of this Court; Whether the directions issued by the Court

required the SBI to disclose information which is readily available

with it; as also, Whether the SBI is justified in seeking an extension

of time.

638 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

Headnotes

Electoral Bonds – Directions to SBI in judgment dated 15

February 2024 – submission of the following details to the ECI

by 6 March 2024: (a) Details of each Electoral Bond purchased

including the date of purchase, the name of the purchaser

and the denomination of the Electoral Bond; (b) Details of

each Electoral Bond redeemed by political parties including

the date of encashment and the denomination of the Electoral

Bond – ECI to collate the information to be submitted by the

SBI and publish it on its website by 13 March 2024 [Paras 1-4]

Electoral Bonds – Extension of Time for Compliance with Court

Directions – SBI prayed for extension of time until 30 June

2024 for complying with the directions because: information

received by SBI maintained in two separate silos – Per SBI,

direction of this Court require a matching exercise – of the

details of donor and recipient political parties with respect

to a particular bond – Clause 7(4), Electoral Bond Scheme

– Electoral Bond information shall be disclosed when called

upon to do so by a competent court [Para 6-7]

Electoral Bonds – Matching of information – SBI submitted

information is not available in a digital format centrally – Donor

details and the recipient details are available in two separate

silos – At the end of each phase, details of the purchasers of

Electoral Bonds and information on the redemption of Electoral

Bonds (stored in a sealed cover and sent to the SBI, Mumbai

Branch – Matching of information in the two silos is a timeconsuming process – Large number of data sets to decipher:

total of 22,217 bonds were purchased between 12 April 2019

to 15 February 2024 – Total 44,434 data sets [Para 8]

Electoral Bonds – SBI MA dismissed – FAQs on Electoral

Bonds-Details of Purchasers readily available – Information

about a political party’s encashment readily available – Court

not inclined to exercise the contempt jurisdiction at this stage

in the Petitioners’ contempt petition

Held: Operative directions of this Court directed the SBI to disclose

the transactions as set out in direction (b) and direction (c) of

para 219 of the Judgment – SBI submits that donor details and

redemption details are available in separate silos – The directions

which have been issued by this Court require the SBI to disclose 

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 639

State Bank of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms and Others

the information which is readily available with it – FAQs on Electoral

Bonds published by the SBI – ‘Know Your Customer’ documents

must be submitted by the purchaser each time the Electoral Bond is

purchased, irrespective of whether the purchaser has a KYC verified

SBI account – One set of documents can only be used to purchase

one Electoral Bond – Contributors who have an SBI account as well

as those who do not have to submit the Electoral Bond application,

KYC documentation and proof of payment – Details of the Electoral

Bonds which have been purchased and which have been directed to

be disclosed by this Court are readily available – FAQs states that

each political party can open only one current account for Electoral

Bond redemption – Information about a political party’s encashment

of Electoral Bonds would only be stored in these branches which

would be clearly accessible – ADR submits that the information

which was directed to be disclosed by this Court can easily be

disclosed by the SBI because of the unique number which is printed

on the Electoral Bond – SBI application sufficiently indicate that the

information which has been directed to be disclosed by this Court is

readily available – Miscellaneous Application filed by the SBI seeking

an extension of time for disclosure of details of the purchase and

redemption of Electoral Bonds until 30 June 2024 dismissed – SBI

directed to disclose the details by the close of business hours on 12

March 2024 – ECI to compile the information and publish the details

on its official website no later than by 5 pm on 15 March 2024 – ECI

to forthwith publish details of the information supplied to the Court in

pursuance of the interim orders on its official website – Affidavit of

SBI Chairman and Managing Director upon compliance to be filed –

Court not inclined to exercise the contempt jurisdiction at this stage

bearing in mind the application which was submitted for extension

of time – SBI placed on notice – Court will be inclined to proceed

against it for wilful disobedience of the judgment if SBI does not

comply with the directions of this Court as set out in its judgment

dated 15 February 2024 by the timelines indicated. [Paras 9-18]

Case Law Cited

Association for Democratic Reforms & Anr. v. Union of

India & Ors. [2024] 2 SCR 420 : 2024 INSC 113

List of Keywords

Electoral Bond Scheme, 2018; State Bank of India; Election

Commission of India; Matching; KYC; Disclosure; Extension; Donor;

Redemption; Contempt

640 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

Case Arising From

CIVIL ORIGINAL JURISDICTION : Miscellaneous Application No.486

of 2024

In

Writ Petition (Civil) No.880 of 2017

From the Judgment and Order dated 15.02.2024 in W.P. (C) No.880

of 2017 of the Supreme Court of India

With

Contempt Petition (Civil) No.138 of 2024 in Writ Petition (Civil) No.880

of 2017 and Contempt Petition (Civil) No.140 of 2024 in Writ Petition

(Civil) No.59 of 2018

Appearances for Parties

Tushar Mehta, SG, Harish Salve, R. Balasubramanium, Kapil Sibal,

Sr. Advs., Sanjay Kapur, Ms. Divya Singh Pundir, Devesh Dubey,

Ms. Mahima Kapur, Ms. Mansi Kapur, Mrs. Shubhra Kapur, Arjun

Bhatia, Surya Prakash, Ms. Isha Virmani, Prashant Bhushan, Ms.

Neha Rathi, Pranav Sachdeva, Ms. Kajal Giri, Ms. Shivani Kapoor,

Kamal Kishore, Shadan Farasat, Harshit Anand, Abhishek Babbar,

Ms. Hrishika Jain, Ms. Natasha Maheshwari, Ms. Mreganka Kukreja,

Aman Naqvi, Ms. Seema Bengani, Shyam Gopal, Ms. Shradha

Deshmukh, Chinmayee Chandra, Kanu Agrawal, Rajat Nair, Raman

Yadav, Chitvan Singhal, Abhishek Kr. Pandey, Kartikay Aggarwal,

Kukesh Kr. Singh, Ameyakirama Thanvi, Advs. for the appearing

parties.

Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court

Order

1. By a judgment dated 15 February 20241

, this Court declared the

Electoral Bond Scheme and the provisions of the Finance Act 2017

which amended the provisions of the Representation of People

Act 1951 and the Income Tax Act 1961, unconstitutional on the

ground that the non-disclosure of information regarding the funding

of political parties is violative of the right to information of citizens

1 2024 INSC 113

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 641

State Bank of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms and Others

under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution. The amendments which

were introduced by the Finance Act 2017 to the provisions of the

Companies Act 2013, permitting unlimited funding of political parties

by corporate entities were held to be arbitrary and violative of Article

14 of the Constitution.

2. In order to give full effect to the judgment which was rendered by

the Constitution Bench, this Court directed the State Bank of India2

,

which was the authorized Bank to deal with Electoral Bonds under

the Electoral Bond Scheme to submit details of the Electoral Bonds

purchased by the contributors and redeemed by political parties

between 12 April 2019 (the date on which an interim order was

passed by this Court directing the Election Commission of India3

 to

collect details of the contributions) till 15 February 2024 (the date

of the judgment).

3. This Court directed the SBI to submit the following details by 6 March

2024 to the ECI:

(a) Details of each Electoral Bond purchased including the date

of purchase, the name of the purchaser and the denomination

of the Electoral Bond; and

(b) Details of each Electoral Bond redeemed by political parties

including the date of encashment and the denomination of the

Electoral Bond.

4. The ECI was directed to collate the information to be submitted by the

SBI and publish it on its website by 13 March 2024. The directions

of this Court are extracted below:

“219. In view of our discussion above, the following

directions are issued:

a. The issuing bank shall herewith stop the issuance of

Electoral Bonds;

b. SBI shall submit details of the Electoral Bonds purchased

since the Interim order of this Court dated 12 April 2019

till date to the ECI. The details shall include the date of

2 “SBI”

3 “ECI”

642 [2024] 3 S.C.R.

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purchase of each Electoral Bond, the name of the purchaser

of the bond and the denomination of the Electoral Bond

purchased;

c. SBI shall submit the details of political parties which have

received contributions through Electoral Bonds since the

interim order of this Court dated 12 April 2019 till date to

the ECI. SBI must disclose details of each Electoral Bond

encashed by political parties which shall Include the date of

encashment and the denomination of the Electoral Bond;

d. SBI shall submit the above information to the ECI within

three weeks from the date of this judgment, that is, by 6

March 2024;

e. The ECI shall publish the information shared by the SBI

on Its official website within one week of the receipt of the

Information, that is, by 13 March 2024; and

f. Electoral Bonds which are within the validity period of

fifteen days but that which have not been encashed by the

political party yet shall be returned by the political party

or the purchaser depending on who is in possession of

the bond to the issuing bank. The Issuing bank, upon the

return of the valid bond, shall refund the amount to the

purchaser’s account.”

5. The SBI filed a Miscellaneous Application before this Court two days

before the expiry of the deadline seeking an extension of time until 30

June 2024 for complying with the directions. The petitioners before

this Court – Association for Democratic Reforms4

 and the Communist

Party of India (Marxist) – instituted a petition invoking the contempt

jurisdiction of this Court against SBI for willful disobedience of the

order of this Court.

6. In support of the application by the SBI, we have heard Mr Harish N

Salve, senior counsel. Mr Salve submitted that the information which

was received by the SBI was maintained in two separate silos and

was maintained with the utmost secrecy to fulfill the core purpose of

the Electoral Bond Scheme. The learned Senior counsel submitted

4 “ADR”

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 643

State Bank of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms and Others

that there is no difficulty in the disclosure of information available in

two separate silos which are referred to in (b) and (c) of the operative

directions. The counsel submitted that this exercise can be completed

within three weeks. However, it is submitted that the difficulty of SBI

arose since it construed the direction of this Court as requiring it to

carry out a matching exercise of the donor and bond details with the

corresponding details pertaining to encashment by political parties.

7. While evaluating the submission made on behalf of the SBI, a reference

to some of the key aspects of the Scheme would be in order at this

stage. Clause 7(4) of the Electoral Bond Scheme stipulates that the

information furnished by the buyer of an Electoral Bond shall be

treated as confidential by the authorized bank and shall be disclosed

only when called upon to do so by a competent court or upon the

registration of an offence by a law enforcement agency. Thus, in terms

of the provisions of the Electoral Bond Scheme itself, SBI is mandated

to disclose information when demanded by a court. What has to be

analyzed is whether SBI is justified in seeking an extension of time.

8. The SBI seeks an extension of time on the ground that the process

of “decoding the Electoral Bonds and matching the donor to the

donations” is a complex and time-consuming exercise. To substantiate

this argument, the SBI has averred that:

(a) Information is not available in a digital format: Clause 7.1.2

of the Standard Operating Procedure regarding the sale and

redemption of Electoral Bonds stipulates that “no details of bond

purchaser including KYC and other details will be entered in

the core banking system.” Thus, the details of the purchases

of bonds are not available centrally;

(b) The donor details and the recipient details are available in two

separate silos: The details of the purchasers of Electoral Bonds

were kept in a sealed cover at the designated branch. These

sealed covers were deposited in the main branch of the SBI in

Mumbai at the end of each phase of the issuance of the Electoral

Bonds. The information on the redemption of Electoral Bonds

(that is, the original bond and the pay-in slip) were stored in a

sealed cover and sent to the SBI, Mumbai Branch;

(c) Matching of information in the two silos is a time-consuming

process: The matching of the information on the purchase and 

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redemption of Electoral Bonds would be a time-consuming

process since donor information and redemption information is

maintained in two separate silos, independent of each other; and

(d) There is a large number of data sets to decipher: A total of

22,217 bonds were purchased between 12 April 2019 to 15

February 2024. This would cumulatively add up to 44,434 data

sets since there are two silos of information. In other words,

the compilation of this information would be a time-consuming

process because of the large number of data-sets.

9. The crux of the submission of the SBI is that the matching of

information to ascertain who contributed to which political party is a

time-consuming process since the information is maintained in two

separate silos. The operative directions of this Court directed the SBI

to disclose the transactions as set out in direction (b) and direction

(c) extracted above. The SBI submits in its application itself that the

donor details and redemption details are available, albeit in separate

silos. In other words, the directions which have been issued by this

Court require the SBI to disclose the information which is readily

available with it.

10. At this stage, it would be material to refer to the FAQs on Electoral

Bonds published by the SBI which states that the ‘Know Your

Customer’5

 documents must be submitted by the purchaser each

time the Electoral Bond is purchased, irrespective of whether the

purchaser has a KYC verified SBI account6

. That is, one set of

documents (the Electoral Bond application form, KYC documents

and pay-in slip) can only be used to purchase one Electoral Bond7

.

Contributors who have an SBI account as well as those who do not

have to submit the Electoral Bond application, KYC documentation

and proof of payment through NEFT, cheque or demand draft.8

 Thus,

5 “KYC”

6 FAQ Question No. 16. I have an SBI Bank Account, Do I still need to Re-submit the KYC Documents?

Yes. KYC norms will be applicable regardless of whether the applicant is an SBI account holder or a

non-SBI account holder.

7 FAQ Question No. 45. Can I use more than one Instrument with one Electoral Bond Application Form?

No. On single set Documents i.e. Electoral Bond Application Form, KYC Documents, Citizenship

Documents and Pay-in slip for purchase of Electoral Bonds, Donor can use only one Instrument. In case

Donor desires to use another Instrument, he/she has to submit another set of documents i.e. Electoral

Bond Application Form, KYC Documents, Citizenship Documents and Pay-in slip to the Authorized SBI

Branch.

8 FAQ Question No. 19: I am not maintaining account with any Branch of State Bank of India. How can 

[2024] 3 S.C.R. 645

State Bank of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms and Others

the details of the Electoral Bonds which have been purchased and

which have been directed to be disclosed by this Court are readily

available.

11. Similarly, the FAQs on Electoral Bonds published by the SBI with

respect to redemption of Bonds states that each political party can

open only one current account for Electoral Bond redemption.9

 The

current account could be opened by the political party only in twentynine designated branches all over the country. Thus, information

about a political party’s encashment of Electoral Bonds would only

be stored in these branches which would be clearly accessible. The

authorized branches must submit the pay-in-slip and other details to

the main branch. There is no dispute about the fact that this process

was duly followed.

12. Together with the application which has been filed by the SBI for

the extension of time, ADR has filed a contempt petition in which it

submits that the information which was directed to be disclosed by

this Court can easily be disclosed by the SBI because of the unique

number which is printed on the Electoral Bond. Irrespective of whether

the unique identification number which is not discernible to the naked

eye will enable the disclosure of details, the submissions of SBI in

I purchase Electoral Bond? Purchaser not maintaining account with State Bank of India can purchase

Electoral Bond through a. Cheque / DD drawn in favour of the Authorized SBI Branch and payable at

the local Clearing House.

Steps involved:

i. Purchaser submits the Electoral Bond Application Form alongwith pay-in-slip, Citizenship &

KYC documents and Cheque/ DD at Authorized SBI Branch. The same need to be submitted

at least three working days before the closure of the scheme, so that clear funds for issuance of

Electoral Bonds, are available with the Authorized SBI Branch. In case of payment through DD, a

confirmation letter from the DD issuance Branch on the prescribed format should also be provided.

ii. The Cheque/ DD should be in favour of “State Bank of India A/c Electoral Bond Scheme -2018”

iii. Once the Citizenship and KYC documents are verified the instrument will be sent in clearing.

Tear off portion of pay-in-slip will be handed over to the Applicant. On the third working day the

Purchaser/ Authorised Representative need to visit the Branch with the tear off portion of pay-inslip and collect the EB from the Branch against acknowledgment.

9 FAQ Question No. 4. For redemption of Electoral Bond, can a Political Party open Current Account with

any Bank? No. The Current Account will be opened only in the presently 4 Authorized SBI

Branches as under:

(i) Chennai Main Branch (00800) : 84, Rajaji Salai, Chennai – 600001

(ii) Kolkata Main Branch (00001) : Samriddhi Bhawan, 1, Strand Road, Kolkata –700001

(iii) Mumbai Main Branch (00300) : Horniman Circle, Fort, Mumbai – 400001

(iv) New Delhi Main Branch (00691) : 11, Parliament Street, New Delhi – 110 001.

This was updated to 29 Branches later.

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the application sufficiently indicate that the information which has

been directed to be disclosed by this Court is readily available.

13. In view of the discussion, the Miscellaneous Application filed by the

SBI seeking an extension of time for the disclosure of details of the

purchase and redemption of Electoral Bonds until 30 June 2024 is

dismissed. SBI is directed to disclose the details by the close of

business hours on 12 March 2024.

14. ECI shall compile the information and publish the details on its official

website no later than by 5 pm on 15 March 2024.

15. During the pendency of the proceedings before the Constitution

Bench, ECI had, in compliance with the interim order passed by

this Court, filed its statements which have been maintained in the

custody of the Court. Copies of the statements which were filed by

the ECI before this Court would be maintained in the Office of the

ECI. ECI shall forthwith publish the details of the information which

was supplied to this Court in pursuance of the interim orders on its

official website.

16. The SBI shall file an affidavit of its Chairman and Managing Director

upon compliance with the directions which have been issued above.

We are not inclined to exercise the contempt jurisdiction at this stage

bearing in mind the application which was submitted for extension

of time. However, we place SBI on notice that this Court will be

inclined to proceed against it for willful disobedience of the judgment

if SBI does not comply with the directions of this Court as set out

in its judgment dated 15 February 2024 by the timelines indicated

in this order.

17. The Miscellaneous Application for extension of time shall accordingly

stand dismissed. The Contempt Petitions shall stand disposed of at

this stage in the above terms.

18. Pending applications, if any, stand disposed of.

Headnotes prepared by: Result of the case:

Harshit Anand, Hony. Associate Editor Miscellaneous Application

(Verified by: Shadan Farasat, Adv.) by the SBI dismissed.

Contempt Petitions disposed of.