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Tuesday, December 24, 2024

Whether appellant had the intention to commit murder; whether the appellant’s act can be brought under section 304, IPC in light of the offence being committed in exercise of private defense and thereby exceeding the power given under the law, that is under exception 2 to section 300, IPC; whether appellant’s sentence should be reduced on the grounds of parity with his co-accused.


[2024] 12 S.C.R. 392 : 2024 INSC 937


Kunhimuhammed@Kunheethu v. The State of Kerala

(Criminal Appeal No. 5097 of 2024)


06 December 2024


[Vikram Nath* and Prasanna B. Varale, JJ.]

Issue for Consideration


Whether appellant had the intention to commit murder; whether the appellant’s act can be brought under section 304, IPC in light of the offence being committed in exercise of private defense and thereby exceeding the power given under the law, that is under exception 2 to section 300, IPC; whether appellant’s sentence should be reduced on the grounds of parity with his co-accused.


Headnotes


Penal Code, 1860 – ss.302, 324 and 326/34 – The sympathizers of two political groups fought against each other – Appellant along with other accused committed murder of victim-S and injured CW-1 – Trial Court held appellant guilty u/ss.302, 324 and 326/34 of IPC and sentenced him to life imprisonment and the same was upheld by the High Court – Correctness:


Held: The severity of the injuries inflicted on the deceased has been central to the Courts’ conclusion that the act qualifies as murder under Section 300 of the IPC – As per the post-mortem report, the deceased sustained both external and internal ante-mortem injuries that were identified as being inflicted by a sharp-edged knife – The prosecution established beyond doubt that these injuries were inflicted by the appellant-accused no. 1 using a knife, which was recovered during the investigation based on the appellant’s disclosure statement – Further, the doctor PW-6 has stated that these injuries were sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature – Cross-examination of these witnesses did not reveal any inconsistencies that could undermine the credibility of the evidence – Consequently, the courts have rightly concluded that the fatal injuries inflicted by the appellant were the direct cause of the deceased’s death – As far as intention of appellant to commit murder is concerned, the injuries were concentrated on the vital parts of the deceased’s body, such as the chest and ribs, which house critical organs like the heart and lungs – The deliberate targeting of these areas indicates a clear intent to cause harm that could lead to death – There is also the testimony of the injured witnesses that accused used considerable force while stabbing – The other co-accused were reportedly armed with sticks, the appellant-accused no. 1 was in possession of a sharp knife, which was used to inflict severe injuries – The decision to carry and use such a weapon during the scuffle reflects a readiness to escalate violence beyond a mere physical altercation – The third clause of Section 300, IPC defines murder as the act of causing death by causing such bodily injury as is likely to result in death in the ordinary course of nature – In the instant case, the appellant’s actions satisfy these criteria – The appellant was armed with a knife, which he used to inflict multiple injuries on vital organs – The fatal nature of these injuries, as confirmed by medical evidence, and the circumstances of the attack clearly point to an intent to cause death or at least an intention to inflict injuries with the knowledge that they were likely to result in death – Even if it is presumed that the appellant-accused no. 1 did not have an intention to cause such bodily injury, the act of causing injuries with knife to vital parts is reflective of the knowledge that causing such injuries is likely to cause death in the ordinary course. [Paras 25.1, 25.7, 25.8, 25.16]


Penal Code, 1860 – s.304 – Whether the appellant’s act can be brought under section 304, IPC in light of the offence being committed in exercise of private defense and thereby exceeding the power given under the law, that is under exception 2 to section 300, IPC:


Held: The courts below have made a categorical finding that the appellant-accused no.1 and his co-accused were the aggressors in the altercation – The attack was initiated by the accused group, who were armed with sticks and a knife, with the intent to intimidate or harm the victim and his companions – This fact is substantiated by the testimony of PW-1, an injured eyewitness, who described the sequence of events leading up to the stabbing – Even if it were assumed that the appellant-accused no. 1 acted in self-defense, the evidence overwhelmingly demonstrates that the force used was excessive and disproportionate – The act of stabbing the deceased multiple times in vital organs such as the chest and heart goes far beyond what is permissible under the right of private defense – In the post-mortem report and corroborated by the testimony of PW-6 (the police surgeon), the injuries inflicted on the deceased were severe and intentional, including a fatal wound to the heart – In light of the above findings, the plea of exceeding the right of private defense under Exception 2 to Section 300, IPC, is not applicable to the appellant’s case. [Paras 26.5, 26.6, 26.7]


Penal Code, 1860 – ss.302, 324 and 326/34 – Appellant- accused no.1 was convicted u/ss.302, 324 and 326/34 of IPC and sentenced to life imprisonment – Whereas, accused no.2 was found guilty of offences punishable u/s.326 and u/ss.324/34 of IPC and he was sentenced to six years imprisonment u/s.326 and two years rigorous imprisonment u/s.324 of IPC – The third accused was also awarded the same sentence as accused no.2 – The sentences were to run concurrently – All the three accused filed separate appeals before the High Court, which were dismissed – The second and third accused preferred a separate SLP, wherein this Court extended benefit of doubt to accused no.3 whereas accused no.2’s conviction was upheld, however, his sentence u/s.326 for six years was reduced to three years – Whether appellant’s sentence should be reduced on the grounds of parity with his co-accused:


Held: The doctrine of parity ensures fairness in sentencing when co-accused persons are similarly situated and share the same level of culpability – However, parity is not an automatic entitlement; the role, intent, and actions of each accused must be individually assessed to determine their degree of involvement in the crime – In the instant case, the courts have carefully evaluated the evidence against each accused and tailored their sentences accordingly – The appellant’s argument for parity fails to recognize the qualitative differences in their roles and the gravity of their actions – The appellant’s actions were not only more severe but also demonstrated a clear intent to cause death – The fatal injuries inflicted on the deceased, as detailed in the post-mortem report, leave no room for doubt about the appellant-accused no. 1’s culpability – The courts below have correctly observed that the appellant’s role in the crime is incomparable to that of his co-accused – The principle of parity does not apply in the present case, as the appellant’s actions were materially different from those of his co-accused. [Paras 27.2, 27.6, 27.7]


Penal Code, 1860 – ss.302, 324 and 326/34 – Appellant convicted u/ss.302, 324 and 326/34 of IPC and sentenced to life imprisonment – Plea of old age and deteriorating health:


Held: A murder committed with the intent to target vital organs, particularly in a group setting, reflects a level of intent and cruelty that demands an appropriate punitive response – To reduce the sentence in such a case would risk undermining the seriousness of the crime and the sanctity of life itself, principles that the judicial system is duty-bound to uphold – While the Court acknowledges the appellant’s advanced age and medical condition, these factors cannot outweigh the need for justice and the imperative to uphold the rule of law – When the minimum sentence itself is life imprisonment, then grounds like parity, leniency, old age, health concerns, etc. shall not be of any aid to the accused while seeking reduction of sentence – Therefore, the appellant herein has been granted the minimum sentence for committing the offence of murder. [Paras 28.4, 28.5, 29]


Case Law Cited


Manubhai Atabhai v. State of Gujarat [2007] 7 SCR 1115 : (2007) 10 SCC 358; Arun Nivalaji More v. State of Maharashtra [2006] Supp. 4 SCR 301 : (2006) 12 SCC 613; Nishan Singh v. State of Punjab [2008] 4 SCR 500 : (2008) 17 SCC 505; Vinod Kumar v. Amritpal [2021] 11 SCR 954 : (2021) 19 SCC 181; Balkar Singh v. State of Uttarakhand [2009] 5 SCR 242 : (2009) 15 SCC 366; Darshan Singh v. State of Punjab [2010] 1 SCR 642 : (2010) 2 SCC 333; V. Subramani v. State of Tamil Nadu [2005] 2 SCR 536 : (2005) 10 SCC 358; Sone Lal v. State of U.P. [1981] 3 SCR 352 : (1981) 2 SCC 531 – referred to.


List of Acts


Evidence Act, 1872; Penal Code, 1860; Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.


List of Keywords


Third clause of Section 300, IPC; Injuries were sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature; Exception 2 to section 300, IPC; Private defence; Doctrine of parity; Reduction of sentence; Old age of accused; Deteriorating health of accused.


Case Arising From


CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Criminal Appeal No. 5097 of 2024


From the Judgment and Order dated 18.09.2018 of the High Court of Kerala at Ernakulam in CRLA No. 1477 of 2012


Appearances for Parties


Nikhil Goel, Sr. Adv., Haris Beeran, Azhar Assees, Anand B. Menon, Ms. Maneesha Sunilkumar, Radha Shyam Jena, Advs. for the Appellant.


P.V. Dinesh, Sr. Adv., Nishe Rajen Shonker, Mrs. Anu K Joy, Alim Anvar, Ms. Anna Oommen, Ms. Urvashi Chauhan, Advs. for the Respondent.


Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court


Judgment


Vikram Nath, J.


1.Leave granted.


2.This appeal assails the correctness of the judgment and order dated 18.09.2018 whereby the appeal of the appellant-accused no.1, against his conviction under sections 302, 324 and 326/34 of Indian Penal Code, 18601 has been dismissed. The prosecution story in brief is:


2.1.On 10.04.2006, the sympathizers of United Democratic Front (UDF) and Left Democratic Front (LDF) fought against each other in connection with the dispute regarding the drawing of their election symbol at a place near a library in Kunnappalli, Pathaikkara Village. A criminal case with non-bailable offences was registered against the sympathisers of UDF in connection with the above incident.


2.2.On 11.04.2006, The appellant along with the other accused who are sympathisers of Indian Union Muslim League on account of above enmity and with the intention to commit murder of deceased Subrahmannian and CW-1 Vasudevan Ramachandra, waited at Mukkilaplavu Junction for their arrival and at about 08:45 PM when the deceased along with Vasudevan Ramachandra reached at the above-mentioned place, the first accused attempted to beat the deceased with a tamarind stick, on his head. The deceased saved himself from the said attack and snatched the stick from the first accused and started assaulting the first accused on his forehead and back with the same stick. At this stage, the first accused took out a knife from his hip region and stabbed the deceased on the left side of chest, back of the head and the left shoulder. On seeing the above incident, CW-1 made an attempt to obstruct the first accused from assaulting the deceased, however, the first accused stabbed him on the left side of the buttock of CW-1 with the same knife. When CW-1 fell on the ground, the second accused caused a fracture on the right foot bone of CW-1 by beating him with another tamarind stick. Thereafter, the third accused assaulted CW-1 by beating on his right chest with a wooden stick.


2.3.After the said incident, the injured and the deceased were taken to the Maulana Hospital where Additional Sub-Inspector CW-32 reached and recorded the statement of CW-1 on the basis of which the First Information Report was registered as Crime No.260 of 2006 against the three accused under sections 302/324 read with section 34 IPC. The accused were thereafter arrested. The Investigating Officer prepared the inquest report, spot map, and recovered the knife under the seizure memo on the basis of the disclosure statement made by the first accused.


2.4.After completing the investigation, the charge sheet was submitted under sections 302/307 read with section 34 IPC. The Magistrate took cognizance and committed the case for trial to the Sessions Court. The Trial Court framed the charges under the aforesaid sections and read them over to the accused who denied the same and claimed trial.


3.The Prosecution examined 19 witnesses and filed 28 Exhibits and 18 material objects. The statements of the accused under section 313 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 19732 were recorded wherein again they claimed that they were innocent and had nothing to do with the said incident. They claimed to have been falsely implicated on account of political rivalry at the instance of the leaders of Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI(M)).


4.The Trial Court after appreciating the evidence led by the parties held that the appellantwas found guilty of offences punishable under sections 302, 324 and 326/34 IPC and accordingly sentenced him to life imprisonment with a fine of Rs.1 Lakh under section 302, IPC, six years rigorous imprisonment with a fine of Rs.25,000/- under section 326, IPC, and two years imprisonment under section 324, IPC. Accused no.2 was found guilty of offences punishable under section 326 and under sections 324/34 IPC and he was sentenced to six years imprisonment under section 326, IPC with a fine of Rs.25,000/- and two years rigorous imprisonment under section 324 IPC. The third accused was also awarded the same sentence as accused no.2. The sentences were to run concurrently.


5.Three appeals were preferred before the High Court by the three accused separately. The High Court by the impugned order dismissed all the three appeals. The second accused and the third accused had preferred a separate SLP registered as SLP(Crl.) No.2822 of 2019. In the said SLP, leave was granted, and it was partly allowed vide judgment and order dated 29.07.2019. This Court extended benefit of doubt to accused no.3 whereas accused no.2’s conviction was upheld, however, his sentence under section 326 for six years was reduced to three years.


6.We have heard Shri Nikhil Goel, learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant and Shri P.V. Dinesh, learned senior counsel appearing for the State of Kerala and perused the material on record. The submissions of Shri Goel are limited to the extent that this was not a case of premeditated pre planned murder. There was no mens rea for committing culpable homicide amounting to murder. The intention was only of assaulting with the stick but later on during the fight as the deceased overpowered the appellant and started assaulting him with the same stick after snatching it from the appellant, the appellant pulled out the knife from his back and stabbed the deceased and also the injured to save him. He has drawn attention to the evidence on record as also to the judgment of the Trial Court wherein specific finding was recorded to that extent by the Trial Court but despite the same, the Trial Court proceeded to record conviction under section 302 IPC and not section 304 IPC.


7.He also submitted that the appellant is aged 67 years and is suffering from multiple ailments and that having undergone almost twelve and half years of actual sentence, this Court may consider reducing the sentence by converting the conviction to under section 304 IPC Part II.


8.On the other hand, Mr. P.V. Dinesh, learned senior counsel appearing for the respondent-State submitted that the Trial Court and the High Court have both dealt with this aspect of the matter and have concurrently found that this was a case of culpable homicide amounting to murder. The fact that the appellant was carrying a knife and the number of assaults made by him on the deceased as also the injury would clearly show that the intention was to commit murder.


9.Having heard the learned counsels for the parties, we find it imperative to look into the evidence, witness testimonies, and injury reports to better understand and analyse the incident to see whether the culpable homicide in the present case amounts to murder or not. A meticulous analysis of the evidence on record is necessary to check whether the appellant had the intention to kill the deceased or if he can be given the benefit of reduction of sentence on the grounds pleaded in the appeal. To understand the evidence and their probative value in establishing the offence, it is necessary to look at the categorical findings of both the courts below.


FINDINGS OF THE TRIAL COURT


10.The Trial Court found appellant guilty of offences under Sections 302, 326, and 324, IPC. The Trial Court’s findings were primarily based on the direct testimony of PW1, an eyewitness who was also injured in the incident, and corroborative evidence from medical and forensic reports.


11.The evidence of PW1 was crucial to the prosecution’s case. The Trial Court carefully analyzed his testimony and found it credible, reliable, and consistent with the injuries sustained by the deceased and PW1, as recorded in the medical reports. Although the defense argued that PW1 was an interested witness and highlighted omissions and contradictions in his testimony, the Trial Court concluded that these discrepancies were minor and did not affect the core narrative. The Trial Court also noted that PW1’s statements were corroborated by PW2, who arrived at the scene shortly after the incident and observed the accused fleeing. PW2’s account was deemed trustworthy and supported the prosecution’s version.


12.The recovery of the murder weapon (a knife, marked as MO1) at the instance of appellant was a significant factor in the Trial Court’s findings. The knife was recovered under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 based on information provided by appellant during his custodial interrogation. Forensic examination confirmed that the knife bore human blood matching the deceased’s blood group. This finding provided compelling corroboration of PW1’s testimony regarding the role of Accused No. 1 in the fatal assault. Additional physical evidence, such as blood-stained sticks recovered from the crime scene, further substantiated the prosecution’s case.


13.Medical evidence also played a vital role. The postmortem report of the deceased, prepared by PW-6 (a police surgeon), confirmed that the cause of death was multiple stab injuries inflicted with a sharp-edged weapon like MO1. PW6 identified specific fatal injuries to the heart and lungs, which were consistent with the prosecution’s narrative of the assault. Similarly, the wound certificate of PW1 corroborated his account of the injuries he sustained during the attack. The Trial Court observed that the injuries detailed in the medical reports aligned with the testimonies of PW1 and PW2, reinforcing the prosecution’s case.


14.The defense attempted to argue that the incident occurred in the exercise of private defense, claiming that the accused were attacked by CPI(M) workers, including the deceased and PW1. However, the Trial Court rejected this claim, finding it unsubstantiated and improbable. The injuries on appellant, documented in the wound certificate, were deemed minor and inconsistent with the defense’s narrative of a large-scale attack. The Court concluded that the accused were the aggressors and were not entitled to claim the right of private defense.


15.Ultimately, the Trial Court held that the prosecution had proved beyond reasonable doubt that appellant intentionally caused the death of Subrahmannian and grievously injured PW1. The recovery of the murder weapon, corroborative forensic and medical evidence, and the reliable testimony of PW1 and PW2 were central to this conclusion. Accordingly, appellant was convicted under Sections 302, 326, and 324 IPC and sentenced to life imprisonment for the murder charge, along with additional terms for the other offenses.


FINDINGS OF THE HIGH COURT


16.The High Court of Kerala meticulously analyzed the roles and culpability of each accused based on the evidence presented during the trial. The findings highlight the distinct involvement of each accused in the crime, with a particular focus on the actions of appellant. This comprehensive assessment ensures that the degree of liability is proportionate to their individual actions and intentions as discerned from the evidence on record.


17.The High Court affirmed the findings of the Trial Court that Accused No. 1 played a pivotal role in the murder. The evidence of PW-1, an injured eyewitness, was central to establishing the sequence of events. PW-1 testified that appellant first beat the deceased with a wooden stick, causing injuries to his left shoulder. When the deceased tried to flee, appellant – accused no. 1 drew the knife and inflicted a stab wound to his back. As PW-1 intervened to protect the deceased, appellant–turned on him, stabbing him in the buttock. This act of aggression was corroborated by medical evidence, which indicated that PW-1 sustained injuries consistent with the use of the weapon recovered during the investigation. Despite PW-1’s injuries, appellant resumed his attack on the deceased, stabbing him multiple times in the chest and other vital areas.


18.The High Court emphasized the significance of the post-mortem report, which revealed eight incised wounds on the deceased, including fatal injuries to the chest, heart, and lungs. PW-6, the police surgeon, testified that these injuries were consistent with the knife recovered and that the fatal wounds were sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death. The chemical analysis linking the knife to appellant was further corroborated by the presence of human blood matching the deceased’s blood group on the weapon. The recovery of the knife, facilitated by a disclosure statement from appellant, lent further credence to the prosecution’s case.


19.The High Court also addressed the appellant’s argument that the testimony of PW-1 was unreliable due to alleged embellishments regarding the number of stab injuries. The Court rejected this contention, noting that minor omissions in the First Information Statement (FIS) could not undermine the credibility of PW-1’s account, especially given the traumatic circumstances under which the FIS was recorded. The court reasoned that PW-1, having sustained a stab injury himself, may not have been able to provide exhaustive details at the time but consistently identified appellant – accused no. 1 as the primary assailant. The testimony of PW-2, an independent eyewitness, corroborated PW-1’s account, further strengthening the prosecution’s case against appellant.


20.The High Court concluded that the actions of appellant demonstrated clear intent to cause death. The deliberate targeting of vital organs with a sharp weapon indicated premeditation or, at the very least, the formation of intent during the incident. The court observed that while the altercation may have initially involved the use of sticks, appellant’s decision to escalate the violence by drawing and using a knife was an intentional and unilateral act. This conduct set him apart from the other accused, whose actions were limited to assaulting the victims with sticks.


21.In contrast, accused nos. 2 and 3 were found guilty of lesser offenses under Section 326 IPC for causing grievous hurt to PW-1. The evidence established that they used sticks to beat PW-1, resulting in non-fatal injuries, including a fracture to his leg. The High Court concurred with the Trial Court’s finding that there was insufficient evidence to prove that Accused Nos. 2 and 3 shared a common intention with appellant to commit murder. The court noted that there was no evidence to suggest that they were aware of the knife concealed by appellant or his intent to use it. This lack of knowledge precluded the application of Section 34, IPC to hold them vicariously liable for the murder.


22.The High Court underscored the principle that liability must be determined based on the specific actions and intentions of each accused. While accused nos. 2 and 3 were complicit in the assault, their participation did not extend to the homicidal attack perpetrated by accused no. 1. The court further noted that the initial assault with sticks did not indicate a pre-arranged plan to kill the deceased. Had there been such an intention, the attack would have begun with the use of the knife rather than sticks.


23.The High court also dismissed the appellant’s plea for leniency based on parity with the co-accused. It emphasized that the role of appellant was materially different and far more culpable than that of accused Nos. 2 and 3. The fatal injuries inflicted by appellant on the deceased were deliberate, targeted, and intended to cause death, whereas the actions of the co-accused were confined to non-fatal assaults on PW-1. The principle of parity, therefore, did not apply in this case.


24.The High Court upheld the conviction of appellant under Section 302 IPC for the murder of Subrahmannian. The court noted that the evidence against him was overwhelming, including eyewitness testimonies, medical reports, and forensic findings. The sentences imposed on Accused Nos. 2 and 3 under Section 326 IPC were also affirmed, as they appropriately reflected their limited roles in the incident.


FINDINGS ON THE GROUNDS FOR REDUCTION OF SENTENCE


25.SCUFFLE AND LACK OF INTENT: The appellant’s counsel has argued that the incident arose out of a scuffle between two rival factions, during which the act of stabbing and killing the deceased was not premeditated but rather occurred spontaneously in the heat of the moment. According to the appellant, there was no deliberate intent to commit murder, and the unfortunate event resulted from a confrontation that escalated during the altercation. However, this submission has been closely examined and dismissed by both the Trial Court and the High Court, based on substantial evidence presented during the proceedings.


A.Fatal Injuries:


25.1The severity of the injuries inflicted on the deceased has been central to the Courts’ conclusion that the act qualifies as murder under Section 300 of the IPC. As per the post-mortem report, the deceased sustained both external and internal ante-mortem injuries that were identified as being inflicted by a sharp-edged knife. These injuries, detailed in the Trial Court’s order, include multiple incised penetration wounds to vital regions such as the chest, rib cage, lungs, and heart.


25.2The evidence of PW-6, the police surgeon who conducted the post-mortem examination, was instrumental in establishing the fatal nature of the injuries. He testified that the death resulted from multiple injuries, including several incised wounds caused by the knife recovered during the investigation. The injuries sustained by the deceased, as per the report, were as follows:


External Antemortem Injuries:


1.(a) Incised wound 4x2x0.5cm involving back of right side of head, horizontal, upper inner end at 2 cm below occiput and 2 cm outer to midline back, with tapering ends.


2.Incised penetrating wound 12x3x1-2cm involving top and back of left shoulder, extending vertically downwards and backwards, upper inner end at 17 cm outer to mid line front and on top of shoulder.


3.(a) Incised penetrating wound (stab wounds) 3x2x3.5cm involving front of left chest, oblique, upper end near to midline front than lower, upper inner end at 12 cm outer to midline front and II cm below middle of collar bone, directed downwards. backwards and right wards, with tapering ends, and contusion of margins.


4.(a) Incised penetrating wound (stab wound) 2x1.5x3.5cm including · front of right chest, oblique, upper end away from midline front than lower end, upper inner end at 10 cm outer to midline front and 17 cm below middle of collar bone, directed downwards, backwards and leftwards, with tapering ends and contusion of margins.


5.Incised wound 2x0.8x0.5cm involving dorsum of left hand at the root of middle finger.


Internal Antemortem Injuries:


1. (b)Contusions of scalp 17x10 em involving front half and 5x3cm involving right side of back. Inter one is. under neath and around the injury No. 1-(a).


2. (b) (i)contusion 23x9cm involving left front chest wall upper inner end at collar bone and in midline front.


(ii)Incised penetrating wound 8x0.5x I cm involving left front chest wall (rib cage and inter costal muscles), oblique, which penetrates into chest cavity, with fracture separation of 3rd and 4th ribs and contusion of edges the upper inner end at I 0 cm outer to midline front and 9 cm below middle of collar bone.


(iii)Incised penetrating wound 7x2x1.5 em involving left atrium and upper part of left ventricle of heart, which penetrates through entire thickness of antero lateral wall into cavity, tearing mitral valve leaflets, with contusion at the edges of the wound.


(iv)Laceration of left lung 4xlx0.5cm involving outer aspect of upper lobe and 2x2x0.5cm including outer aspect · of lower lobe and contusion 6x3 cm involving outer aspect of lower lobe just below the previous injury


Injury No. 3 (b) is underneath and corresponds with and continuation of injury no. (3) (a), and total depth of both injuries taken together is 6 cm.


4. (b) (i)Contusion 10x7 cm involving right front chest wall upper inner end at 13 cm belowcollar bone and in midline front.


(ii)Incised penetrating wound 4x2x2cm involving right front chest wall (rib cage and intercostale muscles), oblique, penetrates into the chest cavity, with fracture separation of 5th rib, the upper inner end at 9 cm outer to midline front and 20 cm below middle of collar bone, with contusion of edges.


(iii)Laceration of right lung 2x1x0.5 cm involving outer aspect of middle lobe.


Injury No. (4) (b) is underneath, corresponds with and continuation of injury No. (4) (a) and the total depth of both injuries taken together is 5 cm.


25.3Among the injuries, some were specifically identified as fatal, including:


i.Penetrating wounds to the chest and rib cage. These injuries caused significant trauma to the internal organs, including the lungs and heart.


ii.Laceration of the heart. The most critical injury involved a penetrating wound measuring 7x2x1.5 cm in the left atrium and the upper part of the left ventricle, which extended through the entire thickness of the anterolateral wall of the heart. This injury also tore the mitral valve leaflets and caused contusions at the edges of the wound. The medical expert opined that this particular injury was sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature. Additionally, other injuries inflicted on the deceased were of such severity that they compounded the fatal outcome.


25.4This Court held in Virsa Singh vs. State of Pepsu,3 that to see whether the injury intended and thus caused by the accused was sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death or not, it must be examined in each case on the basis of the facts and circumstances. In that case, the injury was caused with a knife blow to the stomach and it was inflicted with such force that the knife penetrated the abdomen of the deceased and caused injuries to the bowel. The expert opinion of the doctor therein stated on record that such an injury was sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death. Further, in the absence of any evidence or circumstances to prove that the injury was accidental or unintentional, it was presumed that the accused had intended to cause such injury, thus making it fall under clause 3 of Section, 300 IPC.


25.5It has been held by this Court in several cases such as Manubhai Atabhai vs. State of Gujarat,4 and Arun Nivalaji More vs. State of Maharashtra,5 that when the ocular evidence of eye witnesses are reliable and well corroborated by medical, and other evidence also inspires the confidence that the accused had the intention to cause such fatal injuries, then such evidence is enough to prove the charge of murder beyond reasonable doubt. This intention is to be gathered from a number of circumstances and evidence like the place of injury the nature of the weapon, the force applied while inflicting the injury, and other such considerations. Whether the accused had any intention to kill the deceased has to be judged upon taking into consideration the facts of each case.


25.6This position has been elaborated by this Court in the case of Nishan Singh vs. State of Punjab,6 where the accused person had snatched the weapon carried by someone else and brutally inflicted injuries on the deceased. The Court stated that in such a case it cannot be said that he did not have the intention to cause death.


25.7The prosecution established beyond doubt that these injuries were inflicted by the appellant–accused no. 1 using a knife, which was recovered during the investigation based on the appellant’s disclosure statement. PW-18, the Investigating Officer, corroborated this recovery, and the seizure report was further attested by PW-16, an independent witness. Further, the doctor PW-6 has stated that these injuries are sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature. Cross-examination of these witnesses did not reveal any inconsistencies that could undermine the credibility of the evidence. Consequently, the courts have rightly concluded that the fatal injuries inflicted by the appellant were the direct cause of the deceased’s death.


B.Intention to Commit Murder


25.8The appellant’s primary defence has been the absence of intent to commit murder. However, intent can be inferred from the circumstances surrounding the act, including the nature and location of the injuries inflicted, the weapon used, and the actions of the appellant during the incident. The injuries were concentrated on the vital parts of the deceased’s body, such as the chest and ribs, which house critical organs like the heart and lungs. The deliberate targeting of these areas indicates a clear intent to cause harm that could lead to death. According to the testimony of the injured eyewitness, the appellant stabbed the deceased with considerable force, further corroborating the prosecution’s argument that the injuries were inflicted intentionally or at least with the knowledge of their natural consequence. While other co-accused were reportedly armed with sticks, the appellant–accused no. 1 was in possession of a sharp knife, which was used to inflict severe injuries. The decision to carry and use such a weapon during the scuffle reflects a readiness to escalate violence beyond a mere physical altercation. Even if the appellant did not have a prior intention to murder the deceased, the circumstances demonstrate that such injuries were caused which were sufficient in the ordinary course to cause death. The deliberate act of stabbing vital parts of the body, coupled with the force used, indicates that the appellant must have been aware of the likely fatal consequences of his actions. Under the provisions of Section 300 IPC, an intention to cause such injuries that are sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death qualifies as murder, and even if ingredients other than intention to cause murder are proved, mere knowledge of the result of fatal actions is enough to ascribe culpability to the accused person.


25.9The lower courts have also dismissed the appellant’s argument that the act was not premeditated. While the attack may not have been planned in advance, intent can emerge in the heat of the moment, particularly during a violent confrontation. The appellant’s decision to use a lethal weapon and the precise targeting of the victim’s vital organs are sufficient to establish the requisite intent for murder or at least knowledge of the possible consequences of one’s actions and to hold the appellant liable for death of the deceased as per clause 3 of Section 300, IPC.


25.10This Court held in Virsa Singh (Supra), that the prosecution must prove that there was an intention to inflict that particular injury, that is to say that the injury was not accidental or unintentional or that some other kind of injury was intended, and that particular injury was sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death.


25.11The third clause of section 300 speaks of an intention to cause bodily injury which is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death. This Court in the above-mentioned judgment held that to bring the case under this part of the section the prosecution must establish objectively:


1.That a bodily injury is present;


2.That the nature of injury must be proved;


3.It must be proved that there was an intention to inflict that particular bodily injury;


4.That the injury inflicted is sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of the nature.


25.12The Court further held that:


“13. Once these four elements are established by the prosecution (and, of course, the burden is on the prosecution throughout) the offence is murder under S. 300, “Thirdly. It does not matter that there was no intention to cause death. It does not matter that there was no intention even to cause an injury of a kind that is sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature (not that there is any real distinction between the two). It does not even matter that there is no knowledge that an act of that kind will be likely to cause death. Once the intention to cause the bodily injury actually found to be present is proved, the rest of the enquiry is purely objective and the only question is whether, as a matter of purely objective inference, the injury is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death. No one has a licence to run around inflicting injuries that are sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature and claim that they are not guilty of murder. If they inflict injuries of that kind, they must face the consequences; and they can only escape if it can be shown, or reasonably deduced that the injury was accidental or otherwise unintentional.”


25.13This position has further been upheld by this Court recently in the case of Vinod Kumar vs. Amritpal,7 wherein the bench observed that:


“24. Once the prosecution establishes the existence of the three ingredients forming a part of “thirdly” in Section 300, it is irrelevant whether there was an intention on the part of the accused to cause death. Further, it does not matter that there was no intention even to cause the injury of a kind that is sufficient to cause death in ordinary course of nature. Even the knowledge that an act of that kind is likely to cause death is not necessary to attract “thirdly”.”


25.14This Court in the case of Balkar Singh vs. State of Uttarakhand,8 while following the judgment in Virsa Singh (Supra) further elaborated the position of law and laid down that culpable homicide is murder if two conditions are fulfilled:


a.the act which caused death is done with the intention of causing death or is done with the intention of causing a bodily injury; and


b.the injury intended to be inflicted in sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death.


25.15The Court in the above-mentioned judgment clarified that even if the intention of accused was limited to inflicting a bodily injury sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature, the offence of murder would still be made out.


25.16The third clause of Section 300, IPC defines murder as the act of causing death by causing such bodily injury as is likely to result in death in the ordinary course of nature. In the present case, the appellant’s actions satisfy these criteria. The appellant was armed with a knife, which he used to inflict multiple injuries on vital organs. The fatal nature of these injuries, as confirmed by medical evidence, and the circumstances of the attack clearly point to an intent to cause death or at least an intention to inflict injuries with the knowledge that they were likely to result in death. Even if it is presumed that the appellant – accused no. 1 did not have an intention to cause such bodily injury, the act of causing injuries with knife to vital parts is reflective of the knowledge that causing such injuries is likely to cause death in the ordinary course.


25.17The defence’s argument that the incident was a spontaneous scuffle does not absolve the appellant of liability. While the scuffle may have triggered the attack, the appellant’s use of a lethal weapon and the manner in which the injuries were inflicted elevate the act from culpable homicide to murder. Courts have consistently held that intent can be inferred from the nature and severity of injuries, as well as the choice of weapon and the manner of its use. The use of a lethal weapon and the deliberate targeting of vital parts of the body are strong indicators of such intent.


25.18In light of the evidence and the legal principles involved, the appellant’s plea for leniency on the grounds of spontaneity and lack of premeditation cannot be sustained. The nature and location of the injuries inflicted, the choice of weapon, and the circumstances of the attack unequivocally establish the liability of the appellant for causing the death of Subrahmannian. The argument that the act was committed in the spur of the moment does not diminish the gravity of the offence or the appellant’s culpability.


26.Plea of Private Defence: The appellant’s counsel has invoked the right of private defence arguing that the act of stabbing was carried out under a perceived threat to the appellant–accused no. 1’s life. It is further contended that the appellant exceeded the bounds of lawful defence, thereby bringing the act within the ambit of Exception 2 to Section 300, IPC, which reads:


“Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, in the exercise of good faith of the right of private defence of person or property, exceeds the power given to him by law and causes the death of the person against whom he is exercising such right.”


26.1To bring the appellant’s act under section 304, IPC in light of the offence being committed in exercise of private defense and thereby exceeding the power given under the law, that is under exception 2 to section 300, IPC – the ingredients therein must be proved. The ingredients for this exception are:


1.The accused must be free from fault in bringing about the encounter;


2.There must be an impending peril to life or of great bodily harm, either real or apparent;


3.Injuries received by the accused;


4.The injuries caused by the accused;


5.The accused did not have time or opportunity to take recourse to public authorities.


26.2This Court in Darshan Singh v. State of Punjab,9 held that the law provides for the right of private defense to citizens to enable them to protect themselves when confronted with imminent danger or unlawful aggression. But such protection must not be misused or extend beyond the necessities of the case.


26.3The counsel for the appellant has argued that the appellant acted under a genuine belief of impending harm. However, this argument falls short upon scrutiny of the injuries sustained by the appellant during the altercation. As per the wound certificate, the appellant suffered only minor injuries:


i.A contusion on the back of the buttock.


ii.An abrasion over the forehead.


26.4The medical evidence confirms that these injuries were superficial and did not pose any real or imminent threat to the appellant’s life or safety. The courts below have rightly concluded that the appellant’s perception of danger was neither reasonable nor proportional to the force he employed in response. It is a settled position of law that the number of injuries on the accused side by itself may not be sufficient to establish right of private defense, as has been held by this Court in V. Subramani vs. State of Tamil Nadu.10 But it has further been held that an overall view of the case has to be taken to check whether a case for private defense is made out from the evidence on record.


26.5Even if the appellant claims to have acted in defense, his role in bringing about the altercation cannot be overlooked. The appellant cannot benefit from the exception when he was instrumental in creating the circumstances that led to the confrontation. It has been held in the case of Sone Lal vs. State of U.P.,11 that when the aggressors, even if they receive injuries from the victims of their aggression, cannot have the right of private defence. The courts below have made a categorical finding that the appellant–accused no.1 and his co-accused were the aggressors in the altercation. The attack was initiated by the accused group, who were armed with sticks and a knife, with the intent to intimidate or harm the victim and his companions. This fact is substantiated by the testimony of PW-1, an injured eyewitness, who described the sequence of events leading up to the stabbing. Even if it were assumed that the appellant–accused no. 1 acted in self-defense, the evidence overwhelmingly demonstrates that the force used was excessive and disproportionate. The act of stabbing the deceased multiple times in vital organs such as the chest and heart goes far beyond what is permissible under the right of private defense.


26.6As noted in the post-mortem report and corroborated by the testimony of PW-6 (the police surgeon), the injuries inflicted on the deceased were severe and intentional, including a fatal wound to the heart. The appellant’s actions cannot be justified as a defensive response to the minor injuries he sustained.


26.7In light of the above findings, the plea of exceeding the right of private defense under Exception 2 to Section 300, IPC, is not applicable to the appellant’s case. The courts below have rightly rejected this argument, holding that the appellant was not under any imminent peril and that his actions were deliberate and excessive.


27.Parity with Other Accused Persons:


27.1The appellant has further contended that his sentence should be reduced on the grounds of parity with his co-accused. It is argued that since one co-accused had his sentence reduced, and another was acquitted by this Court, the appellant should be afforded similar leniency. The appellant is seeking similar leniency on the ground that the circumstances and involvement of all accused were substantially similar.


27.2The doctrine of parity ensures fairness in sentencing when co-accused persons are similarly situated and share the same level of culpability. However, parity is not an automatic entitlement; the role, intent, and actions of each accused must be individually assessed to determine their degree of involvement in the crime.


27.3The evidence presented during the trial clearly establishes that the appellant played a distinct and more culpable role in the incident. While the co-accused were armed with sticks and caused non-fatal injuries to the victims, the appellant alone was armed with a knife and used it to inflict fatal injuries on the deceased. The testimony of PW-1 reveals that the appellant stabbed the deceased after his stick was snatched during the altercation. This sequence of events demonstrates a deliberate escalation by the appellant, who resorted to using a deadly weapon with the intent to cause grievous harm.


27.4Nothing has been brought on record to show that the other accused persons had knowledge of appellant being in possession of the knife. Thus, there is no evidence to show that the other accused persons shared a common intention with the appellant to commit murder. The courts below have meticulously analyzed the evidence and concluded that the co-accused did not share a common intention to commit murder. While the group acted in concert to assault the victims, the fatal stabbing by the appellant was an independent and unilateral act. This finding is crucial in distinguishing the appellant’s culpability from that of his co-accused. The absence of common intention among the co-accused precludes the application of vicarious liability under Section 34, IPC, for the act of murder.


27.5The sentence of Accused No. 2 was reduced from six years to three years on the grounds that he caused only grievous hurt with a stick and did not participate in the stabbing and was also unaware of the knife in possession of appellant. Accused no.3 was given the benefit of doubt and was acquitted due to lack of evidence linking him to the assault.


27.6The courts have carefully evaluated the evidence against each accused and tailored their sentences accordingly. The appellant’s argument for parity fails to recognize the qualitative differences in their roles and the gravity of their actions. The appellant’s actions were not only more severe but also demonstrated a clear intent to cause death. The fatal injuries inflicted on the deceased, as detailed in the post-mortem report, leave no room for doubt about the appellant – accused no. 1’s culpability. The courts below have correctly observed that the appellant’s role in the crime is incomparable to that of his co-accused.


27.7The principle of parity does not apply in the present case, as the appellant’s actions were materially different from those of his co-accused. The sentence imposed on the appellant reflects the gravity of his offense and his individual culpability.


28.Plea of old age and deteriorating health:


28.1Another ground taken by the appellant for reduction in sentence is that he is a senior citizen and has severe health concerns necessitating continuous treatment and physiotherapy. This Court had once previously granted interim bail to the appellant on medical grounds owing to the fact that he had suffered a stroke and partial paralysis as a result.


28.2The Court is cognizant of the appellant’s advanced age and deteriorating medical condition, considerations that warrant a humane and compassionate approach to justice. These factors, when presented in cases of serious offences, often invite the judiciary to weigh individual circumstances against the broader interest of justice. However, the Court is also tasked with balancing these personal hardships against the severity and nature of the offence, as well as its impact on the rule of law and societal harmony.


28.3In the present case, the appellant has been convicted of murder, committed in the course of a group attack fueled by political rivalry. The act was not one of sudden provocation or impulse but arose from a premeditated and collective intent to harm the victim, even if the initial intention was to cause hurt. The evidence unequivocally establishes that the appellant actively participated in the attack, which culminated in the brutal stabbing of the victim in vital parts of the body, leading to his death. Such an act, carried out with the clear objective to eliminate the victim, underscores its heinous nature and deliberate execution.


28.4While this Court has carefully considered the appellant’s plea for leniency on account of old age and a medical condition, these factors alone cannot absolve or mitigate the responsibility for a crime of this magnitude. A murder committed with the intent to target vital organs, particularly in a group setting, reflects a level of intent and cruelty that demands an appropriate punitive response. To reduce the sentence in such a case would risk undermining the seriousness of the crime and the sanctity of life itself, principles that the judicial system is duty-bound to uphold.


28.5Furthermore, the offence occurred in a context of political rivalry, a factor that exacerbates its gravity. Crimes rooted in such motives often have far-reaching consequences beyond the immediate loss of life, contributing to social unrest and weakening public confidence in the rule of law. The Court must therefore ensure that its decisions reinforce the principle of accountability and deter the recurrence of such violent acts, particularly those that disrupt public order. The medical evidence, corroborated by eyewitness testimony and the recovery of the weapon, leaves no room for doubt. While the Court acknowledges the appellant’s advanced age and medical condition, these factors cannot outweigh the need for justice and the imperative to uphold the rule of law.


28.6In light of the above, while we empathize with the appellant’s personal circumstances, we find no compelling justification to interfere with the sentence imposed by the lower Court. The nature of the offence, its deliberate execution, and its societal implications necessitate that the punishment reflects the seriousness of the crime.


29.Lastly, once conviction under Section 302 of IPC is confirmed by all the Courts, then the minimum sentence is imprisonment for life, as provided under the provision itself. Thus, no ground or reason for granting a lesser sentence arises. When the minimum sentence itself is life imprisonment, then grounds like parity, leniency, old age, health concerns, etc. shall not be of any aid to the accused while seeking reduction of sentence. Therefore, the appellant herein has been granted the minimum sentence for committing the offence of murder.


30.After thoroughly examining the appellant’s submissions and the evidence presented in the case, the Court concludes that the appeal against conviction and the request for a reduction in sentence are without merit. The findings of both the Trial Court and the High Court are well-founded and supported by compelling evidence.


31.The courts below have rightly concluded that the appellant’s actions amount to murder under Section 300, IPC and thus punishable under Section 302, IPC. Accordingly, the appeal for reduction of the sentence is dismissed. The conviction and sentence are upheld.


Result of the case: Appeal dismissed.


1 IPC


2 CrPC


3 [1958] SCR 1495


4 [2007] 7 SCR 1115 : (2007) 10 SCC 358


5 [2006] Supp. 4 SCR 301 : (2006) 12 SCC 613


6 [2008] 4 SCR 500 : (2008) 17 SCC 505


7 [2021] 11 SCR 954 : (2021) 19 SCC 181


8 [2009] 5 SCR 242 : (2009) 15 SCC 366


9 [2010] 1 SCR 642 : (2010) 2 SCC 333


10 [2005] 2 SCR 536 : (2005) 10 SCC 358


11 [1981] 3 SCR 352 : (1981) 2 SCC 531



Armed Forces – Permanent Commissioning – Benefit of – Extension of benefit to similarly situated persons – Appellant-Short Commissioned Officer in Army Dental Crops, denied third opportunity for permanent Commission in view of amendment in 2013 – However, the Principle Bench of the AFT holding that the applicants (identically situated officers) were denied the third chance directed consideration of their cases for permanent absorption by granting one-time age relaxation by considering them under the unamended policy – Appellant not considered because she was not part of the application – Appellant filed Original Application before the AFT, Regional Bench seeking the relief granted to the batch of similarly situated ones by AFT, Principal Bench, which attained finality– Said application dismissed – Correctness:


[2024] 12 S.C.R. 381 : 2024 INSC 942


Lt. Col. Suprita Chandel v. Union of India and Ors.

(Civil Appeal No. 1943 of 2022)


09 December 2024


[B.R. Gavai and K.V. Viswanathan,* JJ.]

Issue for Consideration


Matter pertains to the correctness of the order passed by the Armed Forces Tribunal, dismissing the application of the Appellant seeking relief of Permanent Commissioning, granted by the AFT, Principal Bench to the applicants therein, who were identically situated officers.


Headnotes


Armed Forces – Permanent Commissioning – Benefit of – Extension of benefit to similarly situated persons – Appellant-Short Commissioned Officer in Army Dental Crops, denied third opportunity for permanent Commission in view of amendment in 2013 – However, the Principle Bench of the AFT holding that the applicants (identically situated officers) were denied the third chance directed consideration of their cases for permanent absorption by granting one-time age relaxation by considering them under the unamended policy – Appellant not considered because she was not part of the application – Appellant filed Original Application before the AFT, Regional Bench seeking the relief granted to the batch of similarly situated ones by AFT, Principal Bench, which attained finality– Said application dismissed – Correctness:


Held: Where a citizen aggrieved by an action of the government department has approached the court and obtained a declaration of law in his/her favour, others similarly situated ought to be extended the benefit without the need for them to go to court – No doubt, in exceptional cases where the court has expressly prohibited the extension of the benefit to those who have not approached the court till then or in cases where a grievance in personam is redressed, the matter may acquire a different dimension, and the department may be justified in denying the relief to an individual who claims the extension of the benefit of the said judgment – While the AFT Principal Bench granted relief to the applicants, it did not prohibit the department from considering similarly situated persons – Appellant is entitled to parity with those applicants who succeeded before the AFT, Principal Bench – Union of India not been able to point out any valid justification as to how the applicants who obtained the benefit from the AFT, Principal Bench and batch are not identically situated with the Appellant – Accepting the stand of the Union of India would result in this Court putting its imprimatur on an unreasonable stand adopted by the authorities – If the applicants who are identically situated to the appellant were found to be eligible to be given a third chance for promotion, because they acquired eligibility before the amendment, no reason why the appellant should not be treated alike – No delay in the appellant approaching the tribunal – Appellant wrongly excluded from consideration when other similarly situated officers were considered and granted permanent commission – Since nothing adverse placed on record with regard to performance of the Appellant, in exercise of powers u/Art. 142 of the Constitution, the Appellant ought to be given Permanent Commission – Appellant’s case be taken up for grant of Permanent Commission and be extended the benefit of Permanent Commission along with the all consequential benefits with effect from the same date the similarly situated persons who obtained benefits pursuant to the judgment of the AFT, Principal Bench – Order of the AFT, Regional Bench quashed and set aside – Constitution of India – Art. 142. [Paras 10, 13, 14, 16, 17, 18, 19, 21, 23-25]


Case Law Cited


Amrit Lal Berry v. Collector of Central Excise, New Delhi and Others [1975] 2 SCR 960 : (1975) 4 SCC 714; K.I. Shephard and Others v. Union of India and Others [1988] 1 SCR 188 : (1987) 4 SCC 431; State of Maharashtra and Another v. Chandrakant Anant Kulkarni and Others [1982] 1 SCR 665 : (1981) 4 SCC 130 – referred to.


List of Keywords


Armed Forces Tribunal; Permanent Commissioning; Identically situated officers; Extension of benefit to similarly situated persons; Short Commissioned Officer; Army Dental Crops; Third opportunity for permanent Commission; Permanent absorption; One-time age relaxation; Delay; Non-suited.


Case Arising From


CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Civil Appeal No. 1943 of 2022


From the Judgment and Order dated 05.01.2022 of the Armed Forces Tribunal in OA No. 241 of 2021


Appearances for Parties


Ms. Vibha Datta Makhija, Sr. Adv., Rakesh Kumar, Advs. for the Appellant.


R Bala, Sr. Adv., Mukesh Kumar Maroria, Vatsal Joshi, Sanjay Kumar Tyagi, S S Rebello, Anuj Srinivas Udupa, Akshay Amritanshu, Siddhant Kohli, Advs. for the Respondents.


Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court


Judgment


K.V. Viswanathan, J.


1.This appeal challenges the order of the Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT) Regional Bench, Lucknow dated 05.01.2022 in Original Application No. 241 of 2021. By the said order, the AFT dismissed the application of the appellant and declined her prayer for reliefs similar to the ones granted by the judgment dated 22.01.2014 of the AFT Principal Bench in O.A. No. 111 of 2013 and batch, to the applicants therein. The appellant claims that those applicants were identically situated with her.


2.The appellant on 10.03.2008 was commissioned as a Short Service Commissioned Officer in the Army Dental Corps (AD Corps). She was at that time 27 years 11 months and 28 days of age. The regulation, as it then stood, entitled her to three chances for taking up the departmental examination for permanent commission. It also provided extension of age limit. The relevant clauses, namely, Para 12 of Army Instruction 15 of 79 and Para 4(a) and 4(b) of AI 37 of 78 read as under:


“…Officers granted Short Service Commission will be given three chances for taking up the departmental examination for permanent commission. Two chances will be given after completion of 2 years of service and before completion of 4 years of service and third chance in extended tenure after completion of 5 years of service and before completion of 8 years of service provided they fulfill the conditions of eligibility as laid down in AI 37/78, as amended.”


Paras 4(a) and 4(b) of Annexure ‘A’ to the AI 37/78


“(a) Candidates must not have attained 28 years of age on 31st December of the year of receipt of application from them. This age limit may be extended upto 30 years by the Government of India on the recommendation of the AD Corps Selection Board in the case of candidates with additional Post-Graduate qualifications.


(b) A candidate with previous commissioned service in the Army Dental Corps will be entitled to extension of the above age limits as given below:-


Full period of previous reckonable service if such service was rendered while in possession of dental qualification recognized by the Dental Council of India (vide para 3 above).”


(Emphasis supplied)


3.It is undisputed that the appellant could not qualify in the first two chances on completion of two years of service and four years of service respectively. On 15.11.2012, her services were extended for another five years. By 9th of March 2013 the appellant had completed five years of service and was eligible to avail of her third chance, subject to age relaxation up to the full period of reckonable service.


4.However, on 20th of March, 2013, amendments were carried out to clause 4(a) and 4(b) of AI 37 of 78 as amended in AI 15 of 79, inasmuch as, while Para 4(a) was amended, Para 4(b) came to be deleted. The amended Para 4(a) of AI 37 of 78 introduced on 20.03.2013, reads as under:


“(a) Para 4(a) of Annexure ‘A’ to AI 37/78


Candidates must not have attained 30 years of age on 31st December of the year of receipt of application form from them for Departmental Permanent Commission. The age limit may be extended up to 35 years in respect of those candidates who are in receipt of PG qualification of Masters in Dental Surgery duly recognized by Dental Council of India, at the time of initial commission to Army Dental Corps.”


5.The net result was the appellant was deprived of her third chance since the extension was capped at 35 years and was confined to those who were in receipt of PG qualification of Masters in Dental Surgery on and from 20.03.2013.


6.According to the appellant, Officers similarly situated with the appellant who were also not given an opportunity to appear for the clinical test and interview, in view of the amendment, quickly moved applications before the AFT, Principal Bench in O.A. No. 111 of 2013 and batch of matters raising various contentions and contended that they have been wrongly deprived of availing the third chance for no fault of theirs. Though the amendments to the policy were upheld, the Principal Bench of the AFT granted relief in the following terms in the said batch of matters.


“35. The other contention of the learned counsel for the petitioners is that the Government can grant age relaxation in the given facts and circumstances of the case. It is trite that the Government has the power to relax the upper age limit if it is found that operation of the rule or policy has hardship on the persons working in the Corps. Nothing has been shown that the Government has no power to relax the upper age limit. Now coming to the question as to whether the operation of the policy has hardship, it would be seen that an exception was provided for SSC Officers for giving the benefit by extending the upper age limit. It is also admitted by the respondents in para-41 of their counter that one time age relaxation in the upper age limit has been granted in the case of an AMC officer who had joined as SSC Officer prior to the issuance of the impugned amendment. By deletion of para-4(b) some of the SSC Officers became ineligible for permanent absorption. The petitioners, who were working in the Corps continuously, expected to be given three chances to seek their permanent absorption. However, due to impugned amendment, they have been denied these chances. Therefore, as one time exception, the Government can relax the upper age limit in respect of those petitioners who have become ineligible on account of the impugned amendment.


36. In view of the above discussions, all the four petitions stand partly allowed with following directions:-


(1) The impugned policy of 2013 is held to be intra vires.


(2) A direction is issued to the respondents to consider the case of the petitioners, who were eligible in the year 2012 but became ineligible in the year 2013 for grant of permanent absorption on account of amendment of policy after clubbing the selection of 2012 with 2013. Their case shall be considered in terms of the previous policy.


(3) A further direction is issued to the respondents to grant one time age relaxation in favour of the petitioners for seeking permanent absorption as has been done in the case of AMC officers who had joined as SSC Officer prior to the issuance of the impugned amendment. The entire exercise for consideration of the petitioners for grant of permanent commission shall be completed within a period of two months from the date of receipt of a copy of this order. The petitioners’ case thereafter shall be considered by the ensuing Board for their permanent absorption in the Corps.”


7.According to the appellant, she could not join the applicants therein in the litigation as she was in her advance stage of pregnancy and while posted at Bareilly, she proceeded on maternity leave on 16.05.2013. The appellant delivered a child on 01.07.2013.


8.Consequent to the order of the Principal Bench, permanent commissions were granted to officers who were eligible prior to the amendment to avail a third chance but could not avail in view of the amendment of 20.03.2013. The appellant was not considered because she was not part of the Original Application.


9.A representation submitted by the appellant on 06.09.2014 did not yield any favorable result and was rejected with the following endorsement on 15.09.2014:-


“1. Ref advance copy of your application No. DS-12301/05/2004 dated 06 Sep 2014.


2. As per directions of MoD communicated vide DGAFMS letter No.12252/CC/AKJ/DGAFMS/LC dated 12 Aug 2014, hon’ble Armed Forces Tribunal (Principal Bench). New Delhi has granted ‘one time’ age relaxation in the eligibility criteria ‘only to the petitioners’. Hon’ble AFT has further clarified that this order will not form a precedence.


3. For your info please.”


(Emphasis Supplied)


10.At the outset itself, we may say that the phrase “Only to the Petitioners” in the order rejecting the representation is patently erroneous. While the AFT Principal Bench granted relief to the petitioners, it did not prohibit the department from considering similarly situated persons. Another representation was disposed of on 9th November 2017, inter alia, on the primary ground that she did not meet the criterion. In the meantime, the appellant’s services were further extended for a period of 4 years on 31.10.2017.


11.The appellant thereafter filed Original Application No. 241 of 2021 before the AFT, Regional Bench, Lucknow seeking relief similar to the ones granted to the batch of petitioners in O.A. 111 of 2013 by AFT, Principal Bench, New Delhi which attained finality. For the sake of completion of record, it should be mentioned that the appellant had in 2014 itself moved to the Armed Forces Tribunal by filing an application in Diary No. 1761 of 2014. However, the said application was withdrawn with liberty to move afresh. Thereafter, again she filed O.A. 70 of 2017 before the Principal Bench which was again withdrawn with liberty to move the appropriate Tribunal. It was thereafter that after making the representation on 4th October 2017 which was rejected on 09.11.2017 and after returning from the Arunachal Pradesh posting and further after the Covid-19 ordeal had reasonably subsided in January, 2021, she moved the AFT, Regional Bench, Lucknow by filing O.A. No. 241 of 2021, which has been dismissed by the impugned order.


12.The only reasoning given in the impugned order is in the following terms.


“(d) The applicant was not a petitioner in those petitions filed before AFT (PB), New Delhi, therefore, applicant cannot be granted any relief with regard to relaxation of age limit which is clarified by AFT (PB) in its judgment dated 22.01.2014 that ‘an officer is not entitled to be absorbed permanent, if he/she has crossed the upper age limits’. The benefit of age relaxation was granted to the petitioners of Original Applications who were eligible in the year 2012 but became ineligible in the year 2013 for grant of permanent absorption on account of amendment of policy after clubbing the selection of 2012 with 2013 considering the terms of the previous policy and were granted one time age relaxation.”


13.We have heard Ms. Vibha Datta Makhija, learned senior counsel for the appellant and Mr. R Balasubramanian, learned senior counsel for the respondents. Having considered the submissions of the learned counsels and perused the records, we are of the opinion that the appellant is entitled to parity with those applicants who succeeded before the AFT, Principal Bench in O.A. No. 111 of 2013. We say so for the following reasons.


14.It is a well settled principle of law that where a citizen aggrieved by an action of the government department has approached the court and obtained a declaration of law in his/her favour, others similarly situated ought to be extended the benefit without the need for them to go to court. [See Amrit Lal Berry vs. Collector of Central Excise, New Delhi and Others (1975) 4 SCC 714]


15.In K.I. Shephard and Others vs. Union of India and Others (1987) 4 SCC 431, this Court while reinforcing the above principle held as under:-


“19. The writ petitions and the appeals must succeed. We set aside the impugned judgments of the Single Judge and Division Bench of the Kerala High Court and direct that each of the three transferee banks should take over the excluded employees on the same terms and conditions of employment under the respective banking companies prior to amalgamation. The employees would be entitled to the benefit of continuity of service for all purposes including salary and perks throughout the period. We leave it open to the transferee banks to take such action as they consider proper against these employees in accordance with law. Some of the excluded employees have not come to court. There is no justification to penalise them for not having litigated. They too shall be entitled to the same benefits as the petitioners. ….”


(Emphasis Supplied)


16.No doubt, in exceptional cases where the court has expressly prohibited the extension of the benefit to those who have not approached the court till then or in cases where a grievance in personam is redressed, the matter may acquire a different dimension, and the department may be justified in denying the relief to an individual who claims the extension of the benefit of the said judgment.


17.That is not the situation here. In the submissions too, the respondents have not been able to point out any valid justification as to how the applicants who obtained the benefit from the AFT, Principal Bench in OA No. 111 of 2013 and batch are not identically situated with the appellant. Like the applicants who succeeded, the appellant was also ripe for the third chance before the amended para 4(a) of AI No. 37 of 1978 was introduced on 20.03.2013. The Principal Bench of the AFT in OA No. 111 of 2013 after clearly holding that the applicants therein were denied the third chance directed consideration of their cases for permanent absorption by granting one-time age relaxation by considering them under the unamended policy.


18.The respondent authorities on their own should have extended the benefit of the judgment of AFT, Principal Bench in OA No.111 of 2013 and batch to the appellant. To illustrate, take the case of the valiant Indian soldiers bravely guarding the frontiers at Siachen or in other difficult terrain. Thoughts on conditions of service and job perquisites will be last in their mind. Will it be fair to tell them that they will not be given relief even if they are similarly situated, since the judgment they seek to rely on, was passed in the case of certain applicants alone who moved the court? We think that would be a very unfair scenario. Accepting the stand of the respondents in this case would result in this Court putting its imprimatur on an unreasonable stand adopted by the authorities.


19.The stand of the Department relying on the judgment of this Court in State of Maharashtra and Another vs. Chandrakant Anant Kulkarni and Others (1981) 4 SCC 130 to contend that mere reduction in chance of consideration did not result in deprivation of any right does not appeal to us. The appellant’s case is founded on the principle of discrimination. What is sauce for the goose ought to be sauce for the gander. If the applicants in O.A. No. 111 of 2013 whom we find are identically situated to the appellant were found to be eligible to be given a third chance for promotion, because they acquired eligibility before the amendment to AI No. 37 of 1978 on 20.03.2013, we find no reason why the appellant should not be treated alike.


20.The order dated 13.03.2014 in the application for clarification of the AFT, Principal Bench, order of 22.01.2014 and the order dated 19.05.2014 in the review relied upon in the counter affidavit do not in any manner dilute the case of the appellant herein. In fact, the order dated 13.03.2014 fully supports the appellant since it extended the benefit to those persons who acquired the eligibility in 2013. As far as the order in review dated 19.05.2014 directing that there would be no dilution in the laid down criterion and the further direction that the order in review shall not form a precedent does not imply that the main order of 22.01.2014 of the Principal Bench, AFT, should not be extended to similarly situated individuals like the appellant, who has been knocking the doors for relief since September, 2014.


21.We see no delay in the appellant approaching the Tribunal. The appellant has been seeking justice from 2014 and the only delay between 2017 to 2021 after the withdrawal of the earlier applications with liberty, was due to the fact that between August, 2017 and 2019 she was posted in Arunachal Pradesh and it was during this time that the appellant made a second representation. Thereafter, the period between March, 2020 and January, 2021 was on account of Covid-19 pandemic. In any event, since a clear case of discrimination has been made out, we do not want to non-suit the appellant on the ground of delay. We say so on the special facts of this case.


22.We also find that the appellant - a woman officer has continuously worked since 2007 and even as late as on 31.10.2017, she was granted extension of another four years of service, and she continues to be in service thereafter also on account of the status quo granted by this Court on 08.03.2022. Not only this, the appellant was awarded Commendation Card by the Chief of Army Staff on 14.01.2019. It is also undisputed that the appellant has had a distinguished service and is now posted as Lieutenant Colonel in the Army Dental Corps at Agra.


23.We hold that the appellant was wrongly excluded from consideration when other similarly situated officers were considered and granted permanent commission. Today, eleven years have elapsed. It will not be fair to subject her to the rigors of the 2013 parameters as she is now nearly 45 years of age. There has been no fault on the part of the appellant.


24.On the peculiar facts of this case and since nothing adverse has been placed on record with regard to performance of the appellant, in exercise of powers under Article 142 of the Constitution, we direct that the appellant ought to be given Permanent Commission. We direct that the appellant’s case be taken up for grant of Permanent Commission and she be extended the benefit of Permanent Commission with effect from the same date the similarly situated persons who obtained benefits pursuant to the judgment dated 22.01.2014 in O.A. No. 111 of 2013 of the Principal Bench of the AFT. All consequential benefits like seniority, promotion and monetary benefits, including arrears shall be extended to the appellant. The above directions shall be implemented within a period of four weeks from today.


25.The appeal is allowed and the order of the AFT, Regional Bench, Lucknow, dated 05.01.2022 in O. A. No. 241 of 2021 is quashed and set aside. No costs.


Result of the case: Appeal allowed.


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Service law – Retirement age – Age of superannuation, enhancement to 65 years – Appellant appointed as Director in CSIIT, affiliated with University governed by the laws applicable in the State of Telangana – At the time of issuance of the appointment letter, the age of superannuation according to the All India Council For Technical Education-AICTE and University Grants Commission-UGC Regulations was sixty years – Subsequently, the regulations were revised and the age of superannuation for teachers in Technical Institution enhanced to sixty-five years – Writ petition by the appellant seeking retirement age as sixty five years – Dismissed by the Single Judge as also the Division Bench of the High Court – Interference with: Held: Not called for – If the State Government itself has not adopted the amended regulations, the same cannot be applicable to the CSIIT – Even CSIIT has not determined the age of retirement of teachers to be 65 years – Merely because the UGC and AICTE regulations were subsequently amended in 2010 and the age of superannuation for teachers in Technical Institutions was increased to sixty-five years, the same benefit would not automatically extend to the appellant – Government of Andhra Pradesh (now Telangana) decided to not adopt the amendment increasing the age of superannuation to sixty-five in their universities or colleges – Respondent No.2 Institute is a self-financing, Minority Educational Institution administered by the respondent No.1, and is neither run nor funded by Central Government – Regulations governing the age of superannuation throughout the State, the JNT University and its affiliated colleges including CSIIT is sixty years of age and thus, when the teachers of the University are only to continue up to the age of sixty years, the appellant cannot be given special consideration – Teachers of CSIIT cannot have their age of retirement more than that of the teachers of the affiliating University – It would create a serious anomaly, discrimination and inequality – After the appellant was given his notice for superannuation, he continued to make representations for retiral benefits, which shows that the appellant accepted his retirement at the age of sixty – Also, the appellant not a teacher and was only involved in administrative work with CSIIT – Appellant not led any evidence to prove that he qualifies as a teacher after becoming Director – AICTE and UGC regulations are applicable only to those who qualify as teachers and are discharging classroom teaching duties – Furthermore, the appellant has already retired, and respondent No.4 appointed in place of the appellant, is discharging his duties as Director. [Paras 9, 10]


[2024] 12 S.C.R. 374 : 2024 INSC 938


P.J. Dharmaraj v. Church of South India & Ors.

(Civil Appeal No. 14029 of 2024)


06 December 2024


[Vikram Nath* and Prasanna B.Varale, JJ.]

Issue for Consideration


Matter pertains to the claim of the appellant seeking retirement age as sixty five years.


Headnotes


Service law – Retirement age – Age of superannuation, enhancement to 65 years – Appellant appointed as Director in CSIIT, affiliated with University governed by the laws applicable in the State of Telangana – At the time of issuance of the appointment letter, the age of superannuation according to the All India Council For Technical Education-AICTE and University Grants Commission-UGC Regulations was sixty years – Subsequently, the regulations were revised and the age of superannuation for teachers in Technical Institution enhanced to sixty-five years – Writ petition by the appellant seeking retirement age as sixty five years – Dismissed by the Single Judge as also the Division Bench of the High Court – Interference with:


Held: Not called for – If the State Government itself has not adopted the amended regulations, the same cannot be applicable to the CSIIT – Even CSIIT has not determined the age of retirement of teachers to be 65 years – Merely because the UGC and AICTE regulations were subsequently amended in 2010 and the age of superannuation for teachers in Technical Institutions was increased to sixty-five years, the same benefit would not automatically extend to the appellant – Government of Andhra Pradesh (now Telangana) decided to not adopt the amendment increasing the age of superannuation to sixty-five in their universities or colleges – Respondent No.2 Institute is a self-financing, Minority Educational Institution administered by the respondent No.1, and is neither run nor funded by Central Government – Regulations governing the age of superannuation throughout the State, the JNT University and its affiliated colleges including CSIIT is sixty years of age and thus, when the teachers of the University are only to continue up to the age of sixty years, the appellant cannot be given special consideration – Teachers of CSIIT cannot have their age of retirement more than that of the teachers of the affiliating University – It would create a serious anomaly, discrimination and inequality – After the appellant was given his notice for superannuation, he continued to make representations for retiral benefits, which shows that the appellant accepted his retirement at the age of sixty – Also, the appellant not a teacher and was only involved in administrative work with CSIIT – Appellant not led any evidence to prove that he qualifies as a teacher after becoming Director – AICTE and UGC regulations are applicable only to those who qualify as teachers and are discharging classroom teaching duties – Furthermore, the appellant has already retired, and respondent No.4 appointed in place of the appellant, is discharging his duties as Director. [Paras 9, 10]


Case Law Cited


Islamic Academy of Education and Ors. v. State of Karnataka and Ors. [2003] Supp. 2 SCR 474 : (2003) 6 SCC 697; Sreejith P.S. v. Rajasree M.S. and Ors. [2022] 18 SCR 252 : 2022 SCC OnLine SC 1473; Kalyani Mathivanan v. K.V. Jeyaraj and Ors. [2015] 3 SCR 467 : (2015) 6 SCC 363; Janet Jeyapaul v. SRM University and Ors. [2015] 10 SCR 1049 : (2015) 16 SCC 530; T.M.A Pai Foundation and Ors. v. State of Karnataka and Ors. [2002] Supp. 3 SCR 587 : (2002) 8 SCC 481 – distinguished.


List of Keywords


Retirement age as sixty five years; Retirement age; Age of superannuation for teachers; Anomaly; Discrimination; Inequality; Leave encashment and gratuity.


Case Arising From


CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Civil Appeal No. 14029 of 2024


From the Judgment and Order dated 22.11.2021 of the High Court for the State of Telangana at Hyderabad in WA No. 753 of 2019


Appearances for Parties


Gopal Sankaranarayanan, Sr. Adv., Ms. Aditi Gupta, Mandeep Kalra, Ms. Anushna Satapathy, Ms. Chitrangada Singh, Ms. Radhika Jalan, Yashas J, Ms. Arushi Kulshrestha, Ms. Widaphi Lyngdoh, Advs. for the Appellant.


Vinay Navare, J. Prabhakar, Sr. Advs., A. Sreenivas, Abhijeet Sinha, Sarthak Gaurav, Ms. Rimmi Bharadwaj, Ravinder Agarwal, Lekh Raj Singh, Amit Gaurav Singh, Harish Pandey, Anil Soni, Advs. for the Respondents.


Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court


Judgment


Vikram Nath, J.


1.Leave granted.


2.The present appeal before us is arising out of a judgement passed by the High Court of Telangana on 22.11.2021 in Writ Appeal 753 of 2019 whereby the Division Bench of the High Court has upheld the decision of the Single Judge of the High Court dated 04.09.2019 in W.P.No.45297 of 2018 whereby the Appellant’s Writ Petition was dismissed wherein he was contesting his retirement from the Respondent No.2 Institute which took effect from 14.08.2018 and the appointment of Respondent No.4 in his place. Aggrieved by this, the Appellant is before us.


3.The facts of the case are such that the Appellant before us was initially appointed as Lecturer in Jawaharlal Nehru Technological (JNT) University in 1985. He was eventually promoted as Reader in 1995. CSI Institute of Technology (CSIIT), Respondent No.2 issued an advertisement dated 25.09.1998 for the post of Director. The Appellant applied against the said advertisement and was selected and appointed as Director vide appointment letter dated 26.11.1998. At the time that the appointment letter was issued to the Appellant, the age of superannuation according to the All India Council For Technical Education (AICTE) and University Grants Commission (UGC) Regulations wassixty years. These regulations were revised vide AICTE notification dated 22.01.2010 and UGC regulations dated 18.09.2010 wherein the age of superannuation for teachers in Technical Institution was enhanced to sixty-five years.


4.During his stint of Director at CSIIT the appellant claims to have been promoted to the post of Professor. On 14.08.2018, the Appellant was relieved from the post of Director and Respondent No.4 was appointed in his place. Two days later, on 16.08.2018, the Appellant made a representation praying that he be continued in service until the age of sixty-five. Appellant filed Writ Petition No.39511 of 2018 before the High Court against the entrustment of work to Respondent No.4. The High Court vide order dated 02.11.2018 disposed of this Writ Petition directing CSIIT to consider and pass orders on Appellant’s representation dated 16.08.2018. CSIIT in compliance of the order ultimately rejected the Appellant’s representation on 03.12.2018. Aggrieved, the Appellant filed Writ Petition No.45297 of 2018 which was dismissed by the Single Judge vide order dated 04.09.2019 primarily on the ground that CSIIT is affiliated with JNT University which is following sixty years to be the age of superannuation and therefore the Appellant cannot expect to be continued in service up to sixty-five years of age. This order was further challenged by the Appellant before the Division Bench of the High Court in Writ Appeal No.753 of 2019 which was dismissed vide impugned order dated 22.11.2021.


5.We have heard Shri Gopal Sankaranarayanan, learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant and learned senior counsels, Shri Vinay Navare and Shri J.Prabhakar appearing on behalf of Respondent Nos.1 and 2 and learned counsels Shri Ravinder Agarwal and Shri Harish Pandey appearing for Respondent No.3 and Respondent No.6 respectively.


6.The submissions advanced for the Appellant are that he has been retired from service on a premature and illegal basis as effected by Respondent Nos.1 and 2. It is contended that when the Appellant was appointed to the post of Director in the year 1998, his age of superannuation was determined as per the AICTE and UGC regulations prevailing at that time, which was sixty years of age. However, seeing that in 2010, AICTE and UGC issued amended regulations, wherein the age of superannuation was revised up to sixty-five years of age, the same benefit should be extended to the Appellant now as professional institutes cannot depart from such binding regulations. This stand has been corroborated by AICTE; Respondent No.6 vide their Counter Affidavit as well. To establish that UGC regulations are not merely recommendatory, reliance has been placed on the following judgements:


i.Islamic Academy of Education and Ors. vs. State of Karnataka and Ors1


ii.Sreejith P.S. vs. Rajasree M.S. and Ors2


iii.Kalyani Mathivanan vs. K.V. Jeyaraj and Ors3


iv.Janet Jeyapaul vs. SRM University and Ors4


v.T.M.A Pai Foundation and Ors. vs. State of Karnataka and Ors5


7.On the other hand, it is contended on behalf of Respondent Nos.1 and 2 that the Respondent No.2 Institute is a Private Unaided Minority Educational Institution, administered by Respondent No.1, Church of South India and affiliated to the State University in the State of Telangana. The subsequent amendment to the UGC regulations has not been adopted by the State of Telangana and the revised age of sixty-five years for superannuation does not prevail as the norm in the State and in the JNT University with which CSIIT is affiliated.


8.It is also submitted that the Appellant was never involved in teaching and was only working on the post of Director with administrative duties and if the AICTE regulations were applicable at all, the benefits would still not extend to the Appellant as the said regulation uses the term “Teacher” and “Principal” distinctly which does not apply to the present Appellant as he discharged no teaching duties. It is further contended that the Appellant was due for retirement at the end of February 2018 and until August 2018, the Appellant was making representations urging that he be given academic duties and was negotiating for his retiral benefits. This goes to show that the Appellant himself accepted his retirement at sixty years of age.


9.Having considered the submissions advanced, we do not find merit in the contention that merely because the UGC and AICTE regulations were subsequently amended in 2010 and the age of superannuation for teachers in Technical Institutions was increased to sixty-five years, the same benefit would automatically extend to the Appellant. The Appellant was working as Director in CSIIT which is affiliated with JNT University which is governed by the laws applicable in the State of Telangana. In this case, the Government of Andhra Pradesh (now Telangana) has decided to not adopt the amendment increasing the age of superannuation to sixty-five in their universities or colleges vide G.O.Ms.No.40, Higher Education & UE-II Department, dated 28.06.2012. The Respondent No.2 Institute is a self-financing, Minority Educational Institution administered by the Respondent No.1 Church of South India, and it is neither run nor funded by the Central Government. The regulations governing the age of superannuation throughout the State, the JNT University and its affiliated colleges including CSIIT is sixty years of age and therefore, when the teachers of JNT University are only to continue up to the age of sixty years, the Appellant cannot be given special consideration. CSIIT is an affiliated Institute of JNT University. Its teachers cannot have their age of retirement more than that of the teachers of the affiliating University. It would create a serious anomaly, discrimination and inequality. If the State Government itself has not adopted the amended regulations, the same cannot be applicable to the CSIIT. Even CSIIT has not determined the age of retirement of teachers to be 65 years.


10.We have also considered the submission that after the Appellant was given his notice for superannuation, he continued to make representations for retiral benefits such as leave encashment and gratuity etc. This clearly goes to show that the Appellant has accepted his retirement at the age of sixty. Any other way, the Appellant is not a teacher and was only involved in administrative work with CSIIT. The Appellant has not led any evidence until now to prove that he qualifies as a teacher after becoming Director. AICTE and UGC regulations are applicable only to those who qualify as teachers and are discharging classroom teaching duties.


11.Regarding the judgements relied upon by the Appellant to establish that the amended UGC regulations are not merely recommendatory, we have considered them and find those to be distinguishable on fact and as such we are not dealing with them.


12.In view of the above and the fact that the Appellant has already retired, and Respondent No.4 is discharging his duties as Director of Respondent No.2 Institute, we find no reason to interfere with the impugned judgement passed by the High Court.


13.Accordingly, the present appeal stands dismissed.


14.Pending applications, if any, shall stand disposed of.


Result of the case: Appeal dismissed.


1 [2003] Supp. 2 SCR 474 : (2003) 6 SCC 697


2 [2022] 18 SCR 252 : 2022 SCC OnLine SC 1473


3 [2015] 3 SCR 467 : (2015) 6 SCC 363


4 [2015] 10 SCR 1049 : (2015) 16 SCC 530


5 [2002] Supp. 3 SCR 587 : (2002) 8 SCC 481


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Liability of private college to pay retiral benefits to employee; Grant-in-aid scheme of the State Government; Retiral benefits; Misconduct; Reinstatement; Dismissal; Punishment; Back wages; Review petitions; Pensionary benefits; Discipline in the institution.


 


[2024] 12 S.C.R. 366 : 2024 INSC 935


Nutan Bharti Gram Vidyapith v. Government of Gujarat and Anr.

(Civil Appeal No(s). 13958-13959 of 2024)


02 December 2024


[J.K. Maheshwari and Rajesh Bindal,* JJ.]

Issue for Consideration


Issue arose as regards the liability of the appellant-private college covered under the grant-in-aid scheme of the State Government, to pay retiral benefits to the respondent-employee.


Headnotes


Service law – Retiral benefits – Liability of the appellant-private college covered under the grant-in-aid scheme of the State Government, to pay retiral benefits to the respondent-employee – Respondent dismissed from service on account of misconduct – Challenge to – Respondent directed to be reinstated as the dismissal was found to be an extreme punishment by the appellate authority – High Court upheld the order of reinstatement since the respondent had already superannuated, however directed the appellant to pay back wages to the extent of 75% – In appeal, back wages granted to the respondent set aside, however, the appellant and the State directed to pay retiral dues to the respondent – Thereagainst, the review petitions filed wherein the appellant directed to pay the retiral dues – Correctness:


Held: Appellant is an institution entitled to Grant-in-Aid and the employees thereof are entitled to pensionary benefits in terms of the said Scheme – State directing the reinstatement of the Respondent no. 2 cannot be fatal for the Appellant and burden it with the retiral benefits of Respondent no. 2 whereas the Scheme provides for otherwise – No exception provided in the Scheme to enable the State to deny payment of retiral benefits to an employee of the Grant-in-Aid Institution under certain circumstances and shift the burden on the institution – There were serious charges against the Respondent no. 2 which included inter alia instigation of students to go on strike, improper behaviour with the co-employees, attempt to pollute the atmosphere in the institution, violation of rules and regulations of the institution and involvement in the activities which may cause damage to the institution – After inquiry, with a view to maintain discipline in the institution, it was found appropriate that the Respondent no. 2 be dismissed from service – However, appellate authority found that the punishment of dismissal too harsh and the issues could have been resolved by way of discussion – Appellant, keeping in view the discipline in the institution, thought it appropriate to challenge the same – In such circumstances, it cannot be opined that it’s conduct was such that it should be burdened with the retiral benefits of delinquent employee – It cannot be said that the action taken by the appellant against the Respondent no. 2 was without jurisdiction – Impugned order passed by the High Court set aside – State to pay retiral dues to Respondent no. 2. [Paras 13-16]


Case Law Cited


Educational Society, Tumsar and Others v. State of Maharashtra and Others (2016) 3 SCC 512 : 2016 SCC Online SC 93 – distinguished.


List of Keywords


Liability of private college to pay retiral benefits to employee; Grant-in-aid scheme of the State Government; Retiral benefits; Misconduct; Reinstatement; Dismissal; Punishment; Back wages; Review petitions; Pensionary benefits; Discipline in the institution.


Case Arising From


CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Civil Appeal Nos. 13958-13959 of 2024


From the Judgment and Order dated 26.07.2022 and 21.04.2023 of the High Court of Gujarat at Ahmedabad in LPA No. 1456 of 2010 and MCA (for review) No. 1 of 2022 respectively


Appearances for Parties


Nikhil Goel, Sr. Adv., Mrs. Taruna Singh Gohil, Alapati Sahithya Krishna, Ms. Hetvi Patel, Ms. Navin Goel, Ms. Siddhi Gupta, Advs. for the Appellant.


Bhashkar Tanna, Sr. Adv., Ms. Swati Ghildiyal, Ms. Devyani Bhatt, Ms. Dharita Malkan, Alok Kumar, Dhruva Kumar, Ms. Khushboo Aakash Sheth, Advs. for the Respondents.


Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court


Judgment


Rajesh Bindal, J.


1.Leave granted.


2.The Private College1 covered under the Grant-in-Aid scheme of the State Government has filed the present appeal impugning the orders passed by the High Court2 dated 26.07.20223 and 21.04.2023.4


3.At the time of hearing, the learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant submitted that he only wishes to press the claim regarding liability of the appellant-college to pay retiral benefits to the respondent-employee.


4.Briefly noticed, the facts are that the respondent no.2 was appointed as lecturer by the appellant. On account of certain misconduct, he was issued a chargesheet on 07.08.1993. After inquiry, he was dismissed from service on 06.06.1994.


4.1.Aggrieved by the dismissal, the respondent no. 2 preferred an appeal to the Joint Director of Higher Education (appellate authority). The said appeal was dismissed as not maintainable vide order dated 15.11.1994.


4.2.By order dated 20.03.1996, in an application5 filed by the respondent no. 2 before the High Court, his appeal before the Joint Director of Higher Education was held to be maintainable and the same was directed to be heard by appellate authority-respondent no. 1. The appeal was allowed vide order dated 21.08.1996.


4.3.Aggrieved against the aforesaid order, the appellant preferred an application6 before the High Court where the above said order was set aside and the matter was directed to be heard afresh vide order dated 07.10.1996. Thereafter vide order dated 02.03.2000, the appeal filed by the private respondent was allowed by appellate authority. He was directed to be reinstated as the dismissal was found to be an extreme punishment.


5.The appellant challenged the aforesaid order before the High Court by filing an application.7 The Learned Single Judge vide order dated 30.06.2010, noticing the fact that the private respondent had already superannuated, upheld the order of reinstatement passed in the aforesaid appeal. However, the High Court directed the appellant to pay back wages to the extent of 75%. The aforesaid order was challenged by the appellant by filing Letters Patent Appeal.8 Vide order dated 26.07.2022, the appeal was disposed of while passing the following directions:


“Private respondent No. 2 would not be entitled for any backwages as ordered by learned Single Judge.


Services of the private respondent No.2 shall be treated as continuous service from the date of his appointment till date of his superannuation. Private respondent shall be entitled for all the retiral benefits of his employment.


All the benefits shall be granted to the private respondent No. 2 by the appellant as well as by the State authority within a period of eight weeks from the date of receipt of this order along with interest, as per the prevailing policy in such cases.


If the amount is not paid within a period of eight weeks, the appellant as well as respondent authority shall pay the entire amount along with interest at the rate of 9% per annum till it is actually paid.”


6.A perusal of the aforesaid direction shows that the back wages granted to the respondent no. 2 were set aside and the appellant as well as the State were directed to pay retiral dues to the respondent No. 2. Aggrieved against the aforesaid order, the State as well as the appellant filed Review Petitions.9 The review filed by the State was allowed vide order dated 21.04.2023 and it was directed that the appellant shall be liable to pay the retiral dues. The order as modified is extracted below:


“7. We do recollect that the parties – the appellant University and the employee (original respondent No. 2) have agreed for such order and, therefore, the order was passed directing to grant benefits to the employee. However, through oversight, we have observed appellant as well as respondent – State shall be liable to pay the amount. Hence, we hereby modify the order. Paragraphs 6 sub-para (3) and (4) shall read as under:


“All the benefits shall be granted to the private respondent No.2 by the appellant within a period of eight weeks from the date of receipt of today’s order along with interest, as per the prevailing policy in such cases.


If the amount is not paid within a period of eight weeks, the appellant shall pay the entire amount along with interest at the rate of 9% per annum till it is actually paid”.”


7.Aggrieved against the aforesaid modification, where the direction has been issued to the appellant to pay retiral dues to the private respondent, the college is before this Court.


8.Learned counsel appearing for the appellant submitted that the order passed by the High Court is not in consonance with the Scheme10 applicable for grant of retiral dues to an employee of an aided institution. The relevant paragraph of the Scheme applicable is extracted below:


“11. The pension papers of the members of the staff entitled to pension, gratuity, etc. under the scheme should be prepared in case of Gram Vidyapeeth staff by the Principal of the Gram Vidyapeeth on the basis of service record maintained by the Gram Vidyapeeth concerned. The entries in the service book of the staff will be made and attested by the Principal of Gram Vidyapeeths and in case of Principal, by the management of the Gram Vidyapeeth concerned and such entries should be verified by the Director of Higher Education of the officer authorized by him and a certificate of verification recorded in the service books. The Director of Higher Education should sanction the pension, gratuity, etc. and forward the pension completed to the Director of Pension and Provisions Fund. The pension, gratuity, etc. so sanctioned will be payable from the Government Treasurers. The Director of pension and Provident Fund will produced be clean and issue a pension payment order and/or gratuity payment order on the Treasury, from which the pensioner illegible pension gratuity, under intimation to Director of Higher Education.”


9.Learned counsel argued that the aforesaid Paragraph 11 of the Scheme provides that the liability to pay pension is on the State Government. The direction given by the High Court in the order passed in the Review Application is not in consonance with the aforesaid provisions. Hence, the same be set aside and the State should be held liable to pay retiral dues to the respondent no. 2.


10.On the other hand, learned counsel for the State submitted that the conduct of the appellant is to be seen before putting any liability with the State to pay retiral dues to an employee. It is a case in which the respondent no. 1/appellate authority vide order dated 02.03.2000 directed reinstatement of the respondent no. 2. However, thereafter the college continued litigating, raising frivolous grounds, as a result of which, the State is now sought to be burdened with liability to pay pension to the respondent no. 2, who had not actually worked for the requisite period. More than two decades have passed thereafter and during this period, respondent no. 2 attained the age of superannuation. In support, reliance has been placed upon judgment of this Court in Educational Society, Tumsar and Others vs. State of Maharashtra and Others.11


11.Learned counsel appearing for respondent no. 2 supported the argument raised by learned counsel for the appellant while stating that in terms of the laws applicable to the appellant, being Grant-in-Aid Institution, the duty to pay retiral dues lies with the State, which cannot escape it’s liability.


12.Heard learned counsel for the parties and perused the paper book.


13.It is not a matter of dispute that the appellant is an institution entitled to Grant-in-Aid and the employees thereof are entitled to pensionary benefits in terms of the aforesaid Scheme. The only argument raised by the learned counsel for the State is regarding conduct of the appellant in fighting litigation after the State had directed reinstatement of the respondent no. 2 and finally settling the matter before the High Court. In our opinion, the same cannot be fatal for the appellant and burden it with the retiral benefits of respondent no. 2 whereas the Scheme provides for otherwise. There is no exception provided in the Scheme to enable the State to deny payment of retiral benefits to an employee of the Grant-in-Aid Institution under certain circumstances and shift the burden on the institution.


14.The judgment relied upon by the State may not have application in the facts of the case, wherein it was found that the action of the Education Institution was without jurisdiction, transgressing its power to terminate its employee. If the facts of the present case are concerned, no such finding has been recorded by the appellate authority. There were serious charges against the respondent no. 2 which included inter alia instigation of students to go on strike, improper behaviour with the co-employees, attempt to pollute the atmosphere in the institution, violation of rules and regulations of the institution and involvement in the activities which may cause damage to the institution. Out of 30 charges, 10 were proved. After inquiry, with a view to maintain discipline in the institution, it was found appropriate that the respondent no. 2 be dismissed from service. However, the appellate authority found the charges established to be trivial in nature and opined that those should have been sorted out. The appellate authority found that the punishment of dismissal is too harsh and the issues could have been resolved by way of discussion.


15.The appellant, keeping in view the discipline in the institution, thought it appropriate to challenge the same. In such circumstances, it cannot be opined that it’s conduct was such that it should be burdened with the retiral benefits of delinquent employee. It is not the opinion of the appellate authority or any Court that the action taken by the appellant against the respondent no. 2 was without jurisdiction as was the case in Educational Society, Tumsar and Others (supra).


16.For the reasons mentioned above, the appeals are allowed. The impugned order dated 21.04.2023 passed by the High Court, allowing the Review Application filed by the State and dismissing the Review Application filed by the appellant, is set aside. The Review Application filed by the appellant is allowed. As a consequence, the order dated 26.07.2022 is modified. The consequence thereof is that the State, respondent no. 1 shall be liable to pay retiral dues to respondent no. 2.


Result of the case: Appeals allowed.


1 Nutan Bharti Gram Vidyapith


2 High Court of Gujarat at Ahmedabad


3 Letters Patent Appeal Number 1456 of 2010


4 Miscellaneous Civil Application (for Review) Number 01 of 2022


5 Special Civil Application Number 12822 of 1994


6 Special Civil Application No. 7111 of 1996


7 Special Civil Application Number 4357 of 2000


8 Appeal No. 1456 of 2010


9 Miscellaneous Civil Application Number 01 of 2022 and Miscellaneous Civil Application Number 01 of 2023


10 Pension Scheme for the teaching/ non-teaching staff in the Gram Vidyapeeth, Government of Gujarat, Education Department, Resolution Number GUS/1089-5369/B Sachivalaya, Gandhinagar dated 13.07.1990


11 (2016) 3 SCC 512 : 2016 SCC Online SC 93


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