LawforAll

advocatemmmohan

My photo
since 1985 practicing as advocate in both civil & criminal laws. This blog is only for information but not for legal opinions

Just for legal information but not form as legal opinion

WELCOME TO MY LEGAL WORLD - SHARE THE KNOWLEDGE

Saturday, March 9, 2024

Administration of Justice – Abuse of process of law– Parties made allegations against each other of taking money for providing a job and making false complaints – Police to exercise heightened caution:

* Author

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 364 : 2024 INSC 117

Deepak Kumar Shrivas & Anr.

v.

State of Chhattisgarh & Ors.

(Criminal Appeal No. 1007 of 2024)

19 February 2024

[Vikram Nath* and Satish Chandra Sharma, JJ.]

Issue for Consideration

Parties levelled counter-allegations against each other of having

extracted money for securing job for their relatives. High Court

whether justified in dismissing the writ petition of the appellant for

quashing the criminal proceedings against him.

Headnotes

Quashing – Parties made allegations against each other of

taking money for providing a job – Respondent no.6 filed FIR

against the appellant – High Court dismissed the writ petition

filed by the appellant for quashing the criminal proceedings

– Correctness:

Held: In the complaint made by the appellant in 2021 an enquiry

was made in which the fact that the respondent no.6 had stated

that she had paid Rs.4 lacs to the appellant for providing a job

to her daughter was recorded – Thus, respondent no.6 was well

aware of the complaint made by the appellant and thus cannot

raise a plea that she had no knowledge of the complaint made by

the appellant – Despite the same she did not lodge any complaint

against the appellant and his brother and waited for more than a

year to lodge the FIR in July, 2022 – According to the allegations

made in the FIR, the job was to be provided by the appellant

within three months of April, 2019 i.e. by July, 2019 – However,

the respondent no.6 did not take any action for a period of three

years till July, 2022 when the FIR in question was lodged – Thus,

the FIR suffers from a serious unexplained delay of three years –

Furthermore, there was totally an unlawful contract between the

parties where money was paid for securing job in the government

department/private sector – Apparently, a suit for recovery could

not have been filed for the said purpose and even if it could be 

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 365

Deepak Kumar Shrivas & Anr. v. State of Chhattisgarh & Ors.

filed, it could be difficult to establish the same where the payment

was entirely in cash – Therefore, the respondent no.6 found out

a better medium to recover the said amount by building pressure

on the appellant and his brother by lodging the FIR – FIR lodged

not for criminal prosecution and for punishing the offender for the

offence committed but for recovery of money under coercion and

pressure – Impugned order set aside, proceeding arising out of

FIR in question quashed. [Paras 11-14, 16, 17]

Administration of Justice – Abuse of process of law– Parties

made allegations against each other of taking money for

providing a job and making false complaints – Police to

exercise heightened caution:

Held: Police should exercise heightened caution when drawn

into dispute pertaining to such unethical transactions between

private parties which appear to be prima facie contentious in light

of previous inquiries or investigations – The need for vigilance on

the part of the police is paramount. [Para 15]

List of Acts

Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973; Constitution of India.

List of Keywords

Quashing; Counter-allegations; Money extracted for securing

job; Police to exercise heightened caution; Resources of the law

enforcement agency; Abuse of process of law.

Case Arising From

CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION : Criminal Appeal No.1007

of 2024

From the Judgment and Order dated 11.07.2023 of the High Court of

Chhattisgarh at Bilaspur in WPCR No. 703 of 2022

Appearances for Parties

Sameer Shrivastava, Dr. Sangeeta Verma, Shivendra Dixit, Advs.

for the Appellants.

Gautam Narayan, Ms. Asmita Singh, Harshit Goel, Sujay Jain,

Sachin Patil, Kailas Bajirao Autade, Sunil Kumar Sethi, Advs. for

the Respondents.

366 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court

Judgment

Vikram Nath, J.

1. Leave granted.

2. As a law enforcement agency, the police force shoulders the vital

responsibility of preserving public order, guarding social harmony,

and upholding the foundations of justice. However, the current

case, full of counter-accusations of financial impropriety and broken

promises, highlights the complex matters that occasionally make

their way into the hands of the police force. Beyond the immediate

contours of the case, a broader question emerges regarding the

balancing of interests that ought to be done between addressing

unscrupulous private grievances and safeguarding public interests.

From the counter-allegations levelled against each other between the

parties in the present case, it becomes evident that the police finds

itself entangled in the irrelevant and trivial details of such unethical

private issues, diverting the resources away from the pursuit of more

consequential matters. The valuable time of the police is consumed in

investigating disputes that seem more suited for civil resolution. This

underscores the need for a judicious allocation of law enforcement

resources, emphasizing the importance of channelling their efforts

towards matters of greater societal consequence.

3. By means of this appeal, challenge is to the correctness of the

judgment and order dated 11.07.2023 passed by the Division Bench

of the High Court of Chhattisgarh in WPCR No.703 of 2022 dismissing

the writ petition of the appellant for quashing the criminal proceedings

arising out of FIR bearing Crime No.248 of 2022.

4. Relevant facts for deciding the present appeal are as follows:

a) The appellant made a complaint dated 06.04.2021 to the

Collector, District Janjgir-Champa (Chhattisgarh) alleging that the

respondent no.6 (Rajkumari Maravi) had allured the appellant

that she would secure a job for his brother -Raj Kumar Shivas

as she had good contacts with higher officers and demanded

substantial amount for doing this favour. The appellant got

allured and paid Rs.80,000/- cash at the first instance. Later

on an additional demand was made and, according to the 

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 367

Deepak Kumar Shrivas & Anr. v. State of Chhattisgarh & Ors.

complaint made by the appellant, he has thereafter deposited

about Rs.20,000/- and odd in different bank accounts, details

of which were provided by respondent no.6. When nothing

happened and no job was provided to his brother, he approached

the respondent no.6 for returning the money paid by him upon

which she threatened him of false implication and later on she

stopped responding to his calls and started avoiding him.

b) The Collector apparently referred the said complaint dated

06.04.2021 to the Superintendent of Police of the District JanjgirChampa for enquiry. The enquiry is alleged to be entrusted

by the Superintendent of Police to the Station House Officer,

Police Station Shakti, District Janjgir-Champa. The Station

House Officer made detailed enquiries and also recorded

the statements of the appellant, respondent no.6 and other

persons who were sought to be referred to as witnesses and

ultimately submitted the report to the Superintendent of Police

on 25.07.2021.

c) The report mentioned interesting facts, according to which, both

the parties i.e. appellant and respondent no.6 were accusing

each other of having extracted money for securing job for their

relatives. As already stated, the appellant was trying to secure

a job for his brother whereas, according to respondent no.6, the

appellant had taken about Rs.4 lacs from her for securing a job

for her daughter. In the enquiry it was also found that when no

job was provided by the appellant to her daughter, the appellant

returned some amount by depositing it in her bank account.

Both the parties had alleged that false complaints were being

made against each other. Interestingly when in the enquiry the

Station House Officer required the appellant and respondent

no.6 to produce the relevant documents and also the details

of the call records and recorded conversations, they failed to

provide any such material. Accordingly, it was recommended

that the complaint deserves to be closed.

5. It appears that thereafter the respondent no.6 was successful in

lodging an FIR against the appellant on 27.07.2022, a copy of

which is filed as Annexure P-3. According to the contents of the

FIR, an amount of Rs.4 lacs has been taken by the appellant and

his brother, the other co-accused, for providing a job to the daughter 

368 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

of respondent no.6. The said amount was paid in April, 2019. The

transaction is said to be purely in cash and there are no bank

transactions. Before registering the FIR in this case also an enquiry

was made and a report was submitted to the Sub-Divisional Officer,

who directed for registration of an FIR. In this enquiry it was found

that both parties have made allegations against each other of taking

money for providing a job.

6. The appellant filed a petition under Article 226 of the Constitution

before the High Court of Chhattisgarh for quashing the FIR and the

proceedings arising therefrom. The said petition has since been

dismissed by the impugned order giving rise to filing of the present

appeal.

7. We have heard learned counsel for the parties.

8. Learned counsel for the appellant submitted that on the earlier

occasion upon a complaint submitted by the appellant to the Collector

of the district, an enquiry was conducted in which similar allegations

against each other were made by both the sides which were not

found to be substantiated and, therefore, lodging of the impugned FIR

after about one year of the said enquiry, is mala fide and an abuse

of the process of law. It was further submitted that the impugned FIR

is a counterblast and has been maliciously lodged only to resist the

appellant from recovering the amount paid by him to the respondent

no.6. It is also submitted that the alleged transaction according to

the FIR is of April, 2019 whereas the FIR has been lodged in July,

2022 after more than three years and, therefore, on the ground of

delay, the alleged FIR deserves to be quashed.

9. On the other hand, learned counsel for the State of Chhattisgarh

as also learned counsel for the respondents have submitted that a

cognizable offence was disclosed in the FIR and as such the High

Court has rightly dismissed the petition; the investigation must be

allowed to continue and if ultimately the police report is submitted

under section 173(2) Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 finding the

appellant prima facie guilty of the charge on the basis of the evidence

collected during the investigation, the appellant would have adequate

remedy of assailing the charge sheet and also claiming discharge at

the stage of framing of charges. There is no justification for scuttling

the investigation which may ultimately not only deprive the respondent

no.6 of her hard-earned money but also the offence committed by 

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 369

Deepak Kumar Shrivas & Anr. v. State of Chhattisgarh & Ors.

the appellant would go unpunished. It was also submitted that it was

a clear case of cheating as the appellant had deceitfully induced

the respondent no.6 to provide a job to her daughter by taking

huge amount of money and thereafter neither providing the job nor

returning the money.

10. Having heard learned counsel for the parties, we proceed to analyse

the material on record and submissions advanced by the parties.

11. In the complaint made by the appellant in 2021 to the Collector an

enquiry has been made by the Station House Officer of the Police

Station concerned in which the fact that the respondent no.6 had

stated that she had paid Rs.4 lacs to the appellant for providing a job

to her daughter was recorded. This clearly means that respondent

no.6 was well aware of the complaint made by the appellant and in

the enquiry her statement had been actually recorded. The respondent

no.6 therefore cannot raise a plea that she had no knowledge of

the complaint made by the appellant. Despite the same she did not

lodge any complaint against the appellant and his brother and waited

for more than a year to lodge the FIR in July, 2022.

12. According to the allegations made in the FIR, the job was to be

provided by the appellant within three months of April, 2019 i.e. by

July, 2019. However, the respondent no.6 did not take any action for

a period of three years till July, 2022 when the FIR in question was

lodged. Thus, the FIR suffers from a serious delay of three years

which is totally unexplained.

13. A reading of the entire material on record clearly reflects that it was

totally an unlawful contract between the parties where money was

being paid for securing a job in the government department(s) or

private sector. Apparently, a suit for recovery could not have been

filed for the said purpose and even if it could be filed, it could be

difficult to establish the same where the payment was entirely in

cash. Therefore, the respondent no.6 found out a better medium

to recover the said amount by building pressure on the appellant

and his brother by lodging the FIR. Under the threat of criminal

prosecution, maybe the appellant would have tried to sort out and

settle the dispute by shelving out some money.

14. In conclusion, certain key observations from the factual matrix warrant

a closer reflection. Prima facie, the conduct exhibited by the parties

involved appears tainted with suspicion, casting a shadow over the 

370 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

veracity of their claims. The report from the previous inquiry reflects

a convoluted landscape and unveils a trail of unethical, maybe even

criminal, behaviour from both parties. The unexplained inordinate

delay in bringing these allegations to the police’s attention despite

knowledge of previous inquiry, raises even more doubts and adds a

layer of scepticism to the authenticity of the claims. The facts stated,

as well as the prior inquiry, reveal a shared culpability between

the parties, indicative of a complex web of deceit, and unethical

transactions where even civil remedies may not be sustainable. Thus,

the object of this dispute, manifestly rife with mala fide intentions of

only recovering the tainted money by coercion and threat of criminal

proceedings, cannot be allowed to proceed further and exploit the

time and resources of the law enforcement agency.

15. As parting suggestions, it becomes imperative to state that the

police should exercise heightened caution when drawn into dispute

pertaining to such unethical transactions between private parties which

appear to be prima facie contentious in light of previous inquiries

or investigations. The need for vigilance on the part of the police is

paramount, and a discerning eye should be cast upon cases where

unscrupulous conduct appears to eclipse the pursuit of justice. This

case exemplifies the need for a circumspect approach in discerning

the genuine from the spurious and thus ensuring that the resources

of the state are utilised for matters of true societal import.

16. For all the reasons recorded above, we are of the view that such

criminal prosecution should not be allowed to continue where

the object to lodge the FIR is not for criminal prosecution and for

punishing the offender for the offence committed but for recovery

of money under coercion and pressure and also for all the other

reasons stipulated above.

17. We, accordingly allow this appeal, and after setting aside the impugned

order passed by the High Court, quash the entire proceedings arising

out of FIR 248 of 2022.

Headnotes prepared by: Divya Pandey Result of the case:

Appeal allowed.

Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 – s.37 – Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – s.438 – Quantity of narcotic substance seized multiple times the commercial quantity – Anticipatory bail granted by High Court, satisfaction in terms of the rider contained in s.37 not recorded – Challenge to:

* Author

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 357 : 2024 INSC 114

State by the Inspector of Police

v.

B. Ramu

(Criminal Appeal No. 801 of 2024)

12 February 2024

[B.R. Gavai and Sandeep Mehta,* JJ.]

Issue for Consideration

In a case involving recovery of huge quantity of narcotic substance

(232.5 kg of ganja), wherein the Respondent-accused was indicted

as being the conspirator for procurement/supply of the ganja so

recovered, High Court whether justified in granting anticipatory bail

in connection with the FIR registered for the offences punishable

u/ss.8(c), 20(b)(ii)(c) and 29(1), Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic

Substances Act, 1985.

Headnotes

Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 – s.37 –

Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – s.438 – Quantity of narcotic

substance seized multiple times the commercial quantity –

Anticipatory bail granted by High Court, satisfaction in terms

of the rider contained in s.37 not recorded – Challenge to:

Held: For entertaining a prayer for bail in a case involving recovery

of commercial quantity of narcotic drug or psychotropic substance,

the Court would have to mandatorily record the satisfaction in terms

of the rider contained in s.37, NDPS Act – In the event, the Public

Prosecutor opposes the prayer for bail either regular or anticipatory,

the Court would have to record a satisfaction that there are grounds

for believing that the accused is not guilty of the offence alleged

and that he is not likely to commit any offence while on bail – In

the present case, High Court not only omitted to record any such

satisfaction, but rather completely ignored the factum of recovery

of narcotic substance (ganja), multiple times the commercial

quantity – In case of recovery of such a huge quantity of narcotic

substance, the Courts should be slow in granting even regular

bail to the accused what to talk of anticipatory bail more so when

the accused is alleged to be having criminal antecedents – High 

358 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

Court failed to consider that the accused had criminal antecedents

and was already arraigned in two previous cases under the NDPS

Act – Impugned order being cryptic and perverse on the face of

the record is quashed and set aside. [Paras 9-12, 15]

List of Acts

Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985; Code of

Criminal Procedure, 1973.

List of Keywords

Huge quantity of narcotic substance; Ganja; Anticipatory bail; Bail;

Recovery of commercial quantity of narcotic drug or psychotropic

substance; Multiple times the commercial quantity; Criminal

antecedents.

Case Arising From

CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION : Criminal Appeal No.801

of 2024

From the Judgment and Order dated 25.01.2022 of the High Court

of Judicature at Madras in CRLOP No. 1067 of 2022

Appearances for Parties

V. Krishnamurthy, Sr. A.A.G., D.Kumanan, Mrs. Deepa. S, Sheikh

F. Kalia, Veshal Tyagi, Advs. for the Appellant.

G.Sivabalamurugan, Selvaraj Mahendran, C.Adhikesavan, S.B.

Kamalanathan, Sumit Singh Rawat, P.V. Harikrishnan, Karuppaiah

Meyyappan, Raghunatha Sethupathy B, Ms. Kanika Kalaiyarasan,

Abhishek Kalaiyarasan, Advs. for the Respondent.

Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court

Order

Mehta, J.

1. Heard.

2. This appeal is directed against the order dated 25.01.2022 passed

by the learned Single Judge of the Madras High Court whereby,

the application under Section 438 of Code of Criminal Procedure,

1973 preferred by the respondent-accused in connection with Crime 

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 359

State by the Inspector of Police v. B. Ramu

No. 235 of 2021 registered at P.S. Erode Taluk, District-Erode was

allowed and the respondent-accused was granted anticipatory bail

in connection with the aforesaid FIR registered for the offences

punishable under Sections 8(c), 20(b)(ii)(c) and 29(1) of the Narcotic

Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (hereinafter being

referred to as ‘NDPS Act’).

3. On perusal of the case records, it becomes apparent that on search

of the house of Brinda/A1 and Kesavan/A2, both were found to be

in possession of 232.5 kg of ganja. The respondent-accused herein

was indicted as being the conspirator for procurement/supply of the

ganja so recovered.

4. As per the schedule to the NDPS Act, the commercial quantity

of ganja is 20kg. It is thus not in dispute that the quantity of the

narcotic substance seized in this case is well above commercial

quantity.

5. The learned Public Prosecutor appearing for the State in the

High Court opposed the prayer for grant of anticipatory bail to

the respondent-accused herein. The High Court considered the

application for grant of anticipatory bail and allowed the same in

the following manner:-

“3. The learned counsel appearing for the petitioner

submitted that the petitioner has not committed any

offence as alleged by the prosecution and he has been

falsely implicated in this case. He further submitted that

all the cases were put up cases by the police in order

to implicated him. Further he also submits that all the

accused were arrested and all were released in the

Trial Court in statutory bail. Hence, he prays for grant

of anticipatory bail.

4. The learned Additional Public Prosecutor appearing for

the respondent submitted that 3 previous cases pending

against the petitioner, investigation almost completed.

However, he vehemently opposed to grant anticipatory

bail to the petitioner.

5. Considering the facts and circumstances of the case, this

Court is inclined to grant anticipatory bail to the petitioner

with certain conditions.

360 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

6. Accordingly, the petitioner is directed to be released on

bail in the event of arrest or on his appearance, within a

period of fifteen (15) days after lifting of lockdown or the

commencement of the Court’s normal functioning whichever

is earlier, before the learned Judicial Magistrate - I, Erode,

on condition that the petitioner shall execute a bond for

a sum of Rs.10,000/- (Rupees Ten Thousand only) with

two sureties, each for a like sum to the satisfaction of the

respondent police or the police officer who intends to arrest

or to the satisfaction of the learned Magistrate concerned,

3/6 https://www.mhc.tn.gov.in/judis Crl.O.P.No.1067 of

2022 failing which, the petition for anticipatory bail shall

stand dismissed and on further condition that:

[a] the petitioner is directed to deposit a sum of Rs.30,000/-

(Rupees Thirty Thousand only) to the credit of the

Registered Tamil Nadu Advocate Clerk Association,

Chennai within a period of two weeks from the date of

receipt of a copy of this order and shall produce the said

receipt before the Court below.

[b] the petitioner and the sureties shall affix their photographs

and Left Thumb Impression in the surety bond and the

Magistrate may obtain a copy of their Aadhar card or Bank

pass Book to ensure their identity.

[c] the petitioner is directed to report before the respondent

police on every Tuesday and Saturday at 10.30 a.m., until

further orders;

[d] the petitioner shall not tamper with evidence or witness

either during investigation or trial.

[e] the petitioner shall not abscond either during investigation

or trial.

[f] On breach of any of the aforesaid conditions, the learned

Magistrate/Trial Court is entitled to take appropriate action

against the petitioner in accordance with law as if the

conditions have been imposed and the petitioner released

on anticipatory bail by the learned Magistrate/Trial Court

himself as laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in

P.K.Shaji vs. State of Kerala [(2005)AIR SCW 5560].

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 361

State by the Inspector of Police v. B. Ramu

[g] If the accused thereafter absconds, a fresh FIR can be

registered under Section 229A IPC.”

6. From the order reproduced supra, it is apparent that the learned Single

Judge totally ignored the submission of the Public Prosecutor that

the respondent-accused was arraigned in three more previous cases

(two of which involve offence under the NDPS Act). Furthermore, the

learned Single Judge also totally ignored the fact that the recovered

ganja was well in excess of the commercial quantity as provided in

the schedule to the NDPS Act.

7. During the course of submissions, learned counsel for the respondent

vehemently and fervently contended that during the intervening

period, the matter has progressed much ahead inasmuch as the

investigation has been concluded and charge-sheet has been filed.

Now the matter is posted for framing of charges against the accused.

8. Section 37 of the NDPS Act deals with bail to the accused charged

in connection with offence involving commercial quantity of a

narcotic drug or psychotropic substance. The provision is reproduced

hereinbelow for the sake of ready reference:-

“[37. Offences to be cognizable and non-bailable.—(1)

Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal

Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974),—

(a) every offence punishable under this Act shall be

cognizable;

(b) no person accused of an offence punishable for

[offences under Section 19 or Section 24 or Section

27-A and also for offences involving commercial

quantity] shall be released on bail or on his own

bond unless—

(i) the Public Prosecutor has been given an

opportunity to oppose the application for such

release, and

(ii) where the Public Prosecutor opposes the

application, the court is satisfied that there are

reasonable grounds for believing that he is not

guilty of such offence and that he is not likely

to commit any offence while on bail.

362 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

(2) The limitations on granting of bail specified in clause (b)

of sub-section (1) are in addition to the limitations under

the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), or any

other law for the time being in force on granting of bail]”

9. A plain reading of statutory provision makes it abundantly clear that

in the event, the Public Prosecutor opposes the prayer for bail either

regular or anticipatory, as the case may be, the Court would have

to record a satisfaction that there are grounds for believing that the

accused is not guilty of the offence alleged and that he is not likely

to commit any offence while on bail.

10. It is apposite to note that the High Court not only omitted to record

any such satisfaction, but has rather completely ignored the factum of

recovery of narcotic substance (ganja), multiple times the commercial

quantity. The High Court also failed to consider the fact that the

accused has criminal antecedents and was already arraigned in two

previous cases under the NDPS Act.

11. In case of recovery of such a huge quantity of narcotic substance, the

Courts should be slow in granting even regular bail to the accused

what to talk of anticipatory bail more so when the accused is alleged

to be having criminal antecedents.

12. For entertaining a prayer for bail in a case involving recovery of

commercial quantity of narcotic drug or psychotropic substance, the

Court would have to mandatorily record the satisfaction in terms of

the rider contained in Section 37 of the NDPS Act.

13. Manifestly, a very strange approach has been adopted by the learned

Single Judge in the impugned order whereby the anticipatory bail

was granted to the respondent on the condition that the appellant

would deposit a sum of Rs. 30,000/- to the credit of the registered

Tamil Nadu Advocate Clerk Association, Chennai along with various

other conditions. The condition no. [a] (supra) so imposed by the High

Court is totally alien to the principles governing bail jurisprudence

and is nothing short of perversity.

14. The fact that after investigation, the charge-sheet has been filed

against the respondent-accused along with other accused persons,

fortifies the plea of the State counsel that the Court could not have

recorded a satisfaction that the accused was prima facie not guilty

of the offences alleged.

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 363

State by the Inspector of Police v. B. Ramu

15. As a consequence, the impugned order is cryptic and perverse on

the face of the record and cannot be sustained. Thus, the same is

quashed and set aside.

16. The appeal is allowed in these terms.

17. The respondent-accused shall surrender before the learned trial

court within a period of 10 days from today.

18. Pending application(s), if any, shall stand disposed of.

Headnotes prepared by: Divya Pandey Result of the case:

Appeal allowed.

Inquiry Officer found that the charges levelled against the appellant were duly established. Inquiry report was accepted and the appellant was dismissed from service. Whether the dismissal of the appellant was justified and was the High Court justified in upholding the same

* Author

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 348 : 2024 INSC 115

Chatrapal

v.

The State of Uttar Pradesh & Anr.

(Civil Appeal No. 2461 of 2024)

15 February 2024

[B.R. Gavai and Prashant Kumar Mishra,* JJ.]

Issue for Consideration

Inquiry Officer found that the charges levelled against the appellant

were duly established. Inquiry report was accepted and the

appellant was dismissed from service. Whether the dismissal of

the appellant was justified and was the High Court justified in

upholding the same.

Headnotes

Service Law – Findings recorded by Inquiry Officer – Interference

– Scope – Appellant appointed as Ardly (a class IV Post) in the

Bareilly Judgeship was later transferred and posted as Process

Server however, was being paid the salary of Ardly – Aggrieved,

appellant made representations – Appellant was subjected to

departmental inquiry on charges of misconduct, insubordination

alleging that he used inappropriate, derogatory and objectional

language and made false allegations against various higher

officials; and had sent the representations directly to the High

Court and Chief Minister/Minister without routing the same

through proper channel – Inquiry Officer found that the charges

levelled against the appellant were established – Appellant

dismissed – Dismissal upheld by High Court – Correctness:

Held: Finding of making false statement and allegation in his

representation not borne out from the record – Since, this finding

is the fulcrum of the reasoning to hold that charge no.1 is proved,

this finding in the inquiry report is perverse – Ordinarily the

findings recorded by the Inquiry Officer should not be interfered

by the appellate authority or by the writ court – However, when

the finding of guilt recorded by the Inquiry Officer is based on

perverse finding the same can always be interfered – Further, 

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 349

Chatrapal v. The State of Uttar Pradesh & Anr.

Class-IV employee, when in financial hardship, may represent

directly to the superior but that by itself cannot amount to major

misconduct for which punishment of termination from service should

be imposed – Impugned judgment of the High Court as well as the

order terminating the appellant from service, set aside – Appellant

reinstated with all consequential benefits. [Paras 9, 11-13]

Case Law Cited

Union of India v. P. Gunasekaran, [2014] 13 SCR 1312 :

(2015) 2 SCC 610; State of Haryana v. Rattan Singh,

(1977) 2 SCC 491; Chennai Metropolitan Water Supply

and Sewerage Board v. T.T. Murali Babu, [2014] 1 SCR

987 : (2014) 4 SCC 108 – relied on.

Sawai Singh v. State of Rajasthan, [1986] 2 SCR 957 :

AIR 1986 SC 995; Santosh Bakshi vs. State of Punjab,

[2014] 6 SCR 138 : AIR 2014 SC 2966 – referred to.

List of Acts

U.P. Government Servant Conduct Rules.

List of Keywords

Class-IV employee; Departmental inquiry; Inquiry Officer; Dismissal;

Misconduct; Insubordination; Finding of guilt; Perverse findings;

Financial hardship; Termination from service; Reinstatement;

Consequential benefits.

Case Arising From

CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION : Civil Appeal No.2461 of 2024

From the Judgment and Order dated 08.01.2019 of the High Court

of Judicature at Allahabad in WPC No. 297 of 2008

Appearances for Parties

P. K. Dey, Sr. Adv., Ms. Shilpi Dey Auditya, Ms. Shehla Chaudhary,

Md. Anas Chaudhary, Sumit Kumar Sharma, Subart, Ansar Ahmad

Chaudhary, Advs. for the Appellant.

Tanmaya Agarwal, Wrick Chatterjee, Ms. Aditi Agarwal, Vinayak

Mohan, Advs. for the Respondents..

350 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court

Judgment

Prashant Kumar Mishra, J.

Leave granted.

2. The present appeal, by special leave, is directed against the judgment

and order dated 08.01.2019 passed by the High Court of Judicature

at Allahabad in Writ Petition (C) No. 297 of 2008, whereby the High

Court has dismissed the petition of the appellant being devoid of merit.

3. The facts, briefly stated, are that the appellant was appointed on

permanent basis on the post of Ardly (a class IV Post) in the Bareilly

Judgeship. The appellant was transferred and posted as Process

Server in the Nazarat of outlying court of Baheri, District Bareilly on

24.08.2001. In compliance of the transfer order, the appellant joined

the Nazarat Branch in Baheri, District Bareilly as Process Server on

31.08.2001 but he was being paid the remuneration of Ardly.

3.1 Being aggrieved, the appellant made a representation on

20.01.2003 to the District Judge to pay the salary due to the post

of Process Server. The said representation was duly considered

by the competent authority and a report from the Munsarim in

the office of Civil Judge, Baheri, Bareilly was called for. As per

the report of Munsarim dated 27.02.2003, the appellant joined

the post of Process Server in the Court of Civil Judge, Baheri,

Bareilly on 31.08.2001 and since then is working on the said

post. Allegedly, after submission of the said report, the Central

Nazir started harassing the appellant and demanded illegal

amount of gratification for settling his dues.

3.2 Since the grievance of the appellant was not being redressed,

he made a representation dated 05.06.2003 to the Janapad

Nyaayaadeesh inter alia stating that he is deprived of the

allowance that is admissible to the incumbents who are posted at

an outlying court as Process Server. It is further stated that when

the appellant went to meet the Central Nazir on 04.06.2003,

he demanded bribe to get his work done. The District Judge,

Bareilly sought an explanation from the Central Nazir, Bareilly

Judgeship who in turn admitted that by mistake the salary of

the appellant has been shown as against the post of Ardly, 

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 351

Chatrapal v. The State of Uttar Pradesh & Anr.

however, he denied having demanded illegal gratification from

the appellant.

3.3 The District Judge placed the appellant under suspension vide

order dated 21.06.2003 and initiated a departmental inquiry.

The Inquiry Officer vide memorandum dated 22.08.2003

served the charge sheet on the appellant on the charges

firstly, the appellant vide communication dated 05.06.2003 had

used inappropriate, derogatory and objectionable language

and made false allegations against the officers including the

District Judge as well as against the Presiding Officer of Aonla

Court and secondly, the appellant communicated letters and

representations to the Registrar General of High Court and

other officials of the State Government including the then Chief

Minister without routing the same through proper channel. The

Inquiry Officer, upon completion of enquiry, recorded in his report

dated 21.04.2006 that the charges levelled against the appellant

are duly established. The District Judge, Bareilly accepted the

inquiry report dated 21.04.2006 and vide order dated 30.04.2007

dismissed the appellant which was challenged in appeal before

the High Court and the same was dismissed vide order dated

19.09.2007 being devoid of any substance while affirming the

order dated 30.04.2007 passed by the Disciplinary Authority

imposing punishment of dismissal.

3.4 Being aggrieved by the order dated 19.09.2007 passed by

the Administrative Judge of the High Court of Allahabad, the

appellant filed the Writ Petition (C) No. 297 of 2008 before the

High Court which attained the same fate as that of the appeal.

Hence, the present appeal.

4. Learned counsel for the appellant would submit that the first

charge, in particular, is vague as no finding has been recorded by

the Inquiry Officer with regard to the allegations made in the letter

dated 05.06.2003 against the officials. Learned counsel would further

submit that if it is presumed that the language used in the complaint

constitutes flagrant breach of Rule 3 of the U.P. Government Servant

Conduct Rules, the quantum of punishment imposed on the appellant

is not commensurate to the guilt. Learned counsel for the appellant

next submits that the appellant was not supplied copy of various

documents including proposed evidence and thus he was prejudiced. 

352 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

It is lastly argued that the findings of guilt recorded by the enquiry

officer is perverse.

In support of his submissions, learned counsel for the appellant has

placed reliance on the decisions of this Court rendered in ‘Sawai

Singh vs. State of Rajasthan’1

 and ‘Santosh Bakshi vs. State of

Punjab2

5. On the contrary, the learned counsel for the High Court would submit

that the appellant is habitual of making false allegations against the

senior officers including the District Judge and the charges framed

against him are specific and definite and not vague.

6. We have heard learned counsel for the parties at length and perused

the case papers.

7. The appellant was subjected to the departmental inquiry on two charges

of misconduct and insubordination. For the first charge, it was alleged

that he used inappropriate, derogatory and objectional language and

made false allegations against the Central Nazir and higher officials and

earlier also he had lodged a false report against the Presiding Officer of

Aonla Court. For the second charge, he allegedly sent a representation

dated 05.06.2003 to the Registrar General of the High Court and

Harijan Society Welfare Minister as also to the Chief Minister without

using the proper channel and without permission of the Head of the

Department.

8. The Inquiry Officer has found both the charges to be proved. In

the discussion with respect to the first charge, it is mentioned in

the inquiry report that the appellant’s statement in his letter dated

05.06.2003 that he met the Central Nazir, Bareilly number of times

between 24.08.2001 to 15.01.2003 is false because from the order

dated 21.06.2003 of the District Judge, Bareilly it is clear that the

Central Nazir took charge at Bareilly on 23.07.2002, therefore, he

could not have met the Central Nazir, Bareilly before 23.07.2002.

9. However, the finding of the Inquiry Officer that the appellant’s

statement in his application dated 05.06.2003 that he met the

Central Nazir number of times between 24.08.2001 to 15.01.2003

1 [1986] 2 SCR 957 : AIR 1986 SC 995

2 [2014] 6 SCR 138 : AIR 2014 SC 2966

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 353

Chatrapal v. The State of Uttar Pradesh & Anr.

is not reflected in appellant’s representation. In fact, the application

dated 05.06.2003 was addressed to the Janapad Nyaayaadeesh

and the relevant statement is that the applicant met the addressee

i.e. Janapad Nyaayaadeesh number of times between 24.08.2001 to

15.01.2003. There is no statement that he met the Central Nazir during

this period. In respect of meeting the Central Nazir, his statement

is that he met him on 04.06.2003. Thus, the finding of making false

statement and allegation in his representation dated 05.06.2003 is

not borne out from the record. Since, this finding is the fulcrum of

the reasoning to hold that charge no. 1 is proved, in our considered

view, this finding in the inquiry report is perverse.

10. Insofar as the allegation that the appellant made false allegations

of discrimination on caste basis, it is significant to notice that the

appellant himself has not made any such allegation in his letter

dated 05.06.2003. In the said letter, he has stated that it was the

Central Nazir who told him that the District Judge is saying that the

appellant is a Harijan employee, and he hates the people of such

community. Thus, it is clear that the appellant himself has not made

any such allegation against the District Judge but it was the Central

Nazir who made that statement. The Inquiry Officer had referred to

the report of the Central Nazir dated 20.06.2003 which is available

on record. Regarding the above statement, the Central Nazir has

not denied specifically. He has only stated that the charges levelled

by the appellant are false and baseless. The Central Nazir has

neither made any specific denial that he has not demanded illegal

gratification of Rs. 3,000/- from the appellant. Even though, in his

letter dated 05.06.2003, the appellant has made specific allegation

to this effect against the Central Nazir.

11. The charge no. 2 against the appellant concerns directly sending

the representations to the High Court and Hon’ble Chief Minister/

Minister without routing the same through proper channel. In this

regard, it is suffice to observe that Class-IV employee, when in

financial hardship, may represent directly to the superior but that

by itself cannot amount to major misconduct for which punishment

of termination from service should be imposed. Even otherwise, the

appellant has cited examples of other employees of the District Court,

Bareilly who have sent representations directly to the superiors, but

no action has been taken against them. 

354 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

12. It is trite law that ordinarily the findings recorded by the Inquiry Officer

should not be interfered by the appellate authority or by the writ court.

However, when the finding of guilt recorded by the Inquiry Officer

is based on perverse finding the same can always be interfered as

held in Union of India vs. P. Gunasekaran3

, State of Haryana

vs. Rattan Singh4

 and Chennai Metropolitan Water Supply and

Sewerage Board vs. T.T. Murali Babu5

. In P. Gunasekaran (supra),

the following has been held by this Court in para nos. 12, 13, 16 & 17:

“12. Despite the well-settled position, it is painfully disturbing

to note that the High Court has acted as an appellate

authority in the disciplinary proceedings, reappreciating

even the evidence before the enquiry officer. The finding

on Charge I was accepted by the disciplinary authority and

was also endorsed by the Central Administrative Tribunal. In

disciplinary proceedings, the High Court is not and cannot

act as a second court of first appeal. The High Court,

in exercise of its powers under Articles 226/227 of the

Constitution of India, shall not venture into reappreciation

of the evidence. The High Court can only see whether:

(a) the enquiry is held by a competent authority;

(b) the enquiry is held according to the procedure

prescribed in that behalf;

(c) there is violation of the principles of natural

justice in conducting the proceedings;

(d) the authorities have disabled themselves

from reaching a fair conclusion by some

considerations extraneous to the evidence and

merits of the case;

(e) the authorities have allowed themselves to

be influenced by irrelevant or extraneous

considerations;

(f) the conclusion, on the very face of it, is

3 [2014] 13 SCR 1312 : (2015) 2 SCC 610

4 (1977) 2 SCC 491

5 [2014] 1 SCR 987 : (2014) 4 SCC 108

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 355

Chatrapal v. The State of Uttar Pradesh & Anr.

so wholly arbitrary and capricious that no

reasonable person could ever have arrived at

such conclusion;

(g) the disciplinary authority had erroneously failed

to admit the admissible and material evidence;

(h) the disciplinary authority had erroneously

admitted inadmissible evidence which influenced

the finding;

(i) the finding of fact is based on no evidence.

13. Under Articles 226/227 of the Constitution of India,

the High Court shall not:

(i) reappreciate the evidence;

(ii) interfere with the conclusions in the enquiry,

in case the same has been conducted in

accordance with law;

(iii) go into the adequacy of the evidence;

(iv) go into the reliability of the evidence;

(v) interfere, if there be some legal evidence on

which findings can be based.

(vi) correct the error of fact however grave it may

appear to be;

(vii) go into the proportionality of punishment unless

it shocks its conscience.

16. These principles have been succinctly summed up

by the living legend and centenarian V.R. Krishna Iyer, J.

in State of Haryana v. Rattan Singh [(1977) 2 SCC 491 :

1977 SCC (L&S) 298] . To quote the unparalleled and

inimitable expressions: (SCC p. 493, para 4)

“4. … in a domestic enquiry the strict and sophisticated

rules of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act may

not apply. All materials which are logically probative for

a prudent mind are permissible. There is no allergy to

hearsay evidence provided it has reasonable nexus

and credibility. It is true that departmental authorities 

356 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

and administrative tribunals must be careful in

evaluating such material and should not glibly swallow

what is strictly speaking not relevant under the Indian

Evidence Act. For this proposition it is not necessary

to cite decisions nor textbooks, although we have

been taken through case law and other authorities

by counsel on both sides. The essence of a judicial

approach is objectivity, exclusion of extraneous

materials or considerations and observance of rules

of natural justice. Of course, fair play is the basis

and if perversity or arbitrariness, bias or surrender

of independence of judgment vitiate the conclusions

reached, such finding, even though of a domestic

tribunal, cannot be held good.”

(emphasis supplied)

17. In all the subsequent decisions of this Court up to the

latest in Chennai Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage

Board v. T.T. Murali Babu (2014) 4 SCC 108: (2014) 1 SCC

(L&S) 38, these principles have been consistently followed

adding practically nothing more or altering anything.”

13. Having considered the entire material available on record and keeping

in view that the appellant is a Class-IV employee against whom

charge no. 1 was found proved on the basis of perverse finding

and charge no. 2 is only about sending the representation to the

High Court directly without availing the proper channel, we deem it

appropriate to set-aside the impugned judgment of the High Court

as well as the order dated 30.04.2007 whereby the appellant was

terminated from service. Consequently, the appellant is reinstated

in service with all consequential benefits. The appeal is allowed.

Headnotes prepared by: Divya Pandey Result of the case:

Appeal allowed.

The action that set in motion the instant dispute was in the year 1947, when a mother ‘T’ transferred property by executing First Settlement Deed in one form to her two sons and in another, to her daughter. Some forty-odd years later, the daughter’s husband ‘G’ filed a suit in respect of such property, in 1993. The issues arise for consideration are (i) Whether G’s suit for declaration based on the First Settlement Deed, eventually filed in the year 1993 barred by limitation; (ii) Whether the suit for declaration simpliciter was maintainable in view of s.34 of the SRA, 1963.

* Author

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 326 : 2024 INSC 109

Vasantha (Dead) Thr. Lr.

v.

Rajalakshmi @ Rajam (Dead) Thr.Lrs.

(Civil Appeal No. 3854 of 2014)

13 February 2024

[Hrishikesh Roy and Sanjay Karol*, JJ.]

Issue for Consideration

The action that set in motion the instant dispute was in the year

1947, when a mother ‘T’ transferred property by executing First

Settlement Deed in one form to her two sons and in another, to her

daughter. Some forty-odd years later, the daughter’s husband ‘G’

filed a suit in respect of such property, in 1993. The issues arise

for consideration are (i) Whether G’s suit for declaration based on

the First Settlement Deed, eventually filed in the year 1993 barred

by limitation; (ii) Whether the suit for declaration simpliciter was

maintainable in view of s.34 of the SRA, 1963.

Headnotes

Limitation Act, 1963 – s.27, Arts.58 and 65 – Specific Relief

Act, 1963 – s.34 – After First Settlement Deed, two sons

of T executed a second settlement deed dated 31.07.1952

reverting the interest in properties back to their mother-T

– Thereafter, T executed a third Settlement Deed dated

18.08.1952 bequeathing absolute interest in such properties

only in favour of two sons – G filed a suit praying for a

declaration as owner of the property as sole heir of T’s

daughter in terms of First Settlement Deed – Trial Court

held that G admitted execution of Second Settlement Deed

and possession was handed over to T – The suit filed was

barred by limitation – First Appellate Court confirmed the

trial Court judgment – However, the High Court held that G

was entitled to half share a property according to the First

Settlement Deed – Propriety:

Held: If the period of limitation is to run from the date of the Second

Settlement Deed, then the rights should be extinguished in 1964

– If the same were to run from either 1974 (when M, younger son 

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 327

Vasantha (Dead) Thr. Lr. v. Rajalakshmi @ Rajam (Dead) Thr.Lrs.

of T executed settlement deed in favour of his adopted daughter

V) or 1976 (when another deed was executed by M in favour of

his wife P), then after 1986 or 1988 respectively, G had no right

in the property on the plea of adverse possession – It is settled

that a reversioner ordinarily must file a suit for possession within

12 years from the death of the limited heir or widow – That metric

being applied to the instant facts, it is after the death of P, that the

reversioner, or in this case the heir of the reversioner G ought to

have filed the suit – The suit, the subject matter of appeal before

this Court is a suit for declaration simpliciter and not possession

– So, the possession still rests with heir of P – The 12 year period

expired in 2016 with death of P in the year 2004 – Therefore,

the suit filed in 1993 is barred by limitation – Also, Part III of the

Schedule to the Limitation Act details the time period within which the

declarations may be sought for – Art.58 of the Limitation Act governs

the present dispute – In the instant case, the suit for declaration

was filed in 1993 – This implies that the cause of action to seek

any other declaration i.e. a declaration of G in the property, should

have arisen only in the year 1990 – There is nothing on record

to show any cause of action having arisen at this point in time,

much less within the stipulated period of three years – As far as

the maintainability of suit for declaration simpliciter in view of s.34

of SRA is concerned, in view of the proviso to s.34, the suit of the

plaintiff-G could not have been decreed since the plaintiff sought

for mere declaration without the consequential relief of recovery

of possession – On a perusal of the plaint, it is evident that the

plaintiff was aware that the appellant-V herein was in possession

of the suit property and therefore it was incumbent upon him to

seek the relief which follows – It is also noted that after the death

of the life-estate holder-P in 2004, there was no attempt made

by the original plaintiff to amend the plaint to seek the relief of

recovery of possession – Thus, the impugned judgment fails on

both limitation and maintainability of suit – Judgment of the trial

Court and First Appellate Court restored. [Paras 16, 17, 23, 26, 33]

Adverse Possession – Claim of:

Held: Person who claims adverse possession should show : (a)

on what date he came into possession; (b) what was the nature of

his possession; (c) whether the factum of possession was known

to the other party; (d) how long his possession has continued; 

328 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

and (e) his possession was open and undisturbed – A person

pleading adverse possession has no equities in his favour – Since

he is trying to defeat the rights of the true owner, it is for him to

clearly plead and establish all facts necessary to prove his adverse

possession. [Para 20]

Limitation – Adverse Possession – Dependence on limitation:

Held: Modern statutes of limitation operate, as a rule, not only to

cut off one’s right to bring an action for the recovery of property

that has been in the adverse possession of another for a specified

time but also to vest the possessor with title – The intention of such

statutes is not to punish one who neglects to assert rights but to

protect those who have maintained the possession of property for

the time specified by the statute under a claim of right or colour

of title. [Para 21]

Case Law Cited

Bharat Barrel and Drum Mfg. Co. Ltd. v. ESI Corpn.,

[1972] 1 SCR 867 : (1971) 2 SCC 860; Union of India

v. Ibrahim Uddin, [2012] 8 SCR 35 : (2012) 8 SCC

148 – relied on.

Sultan Khan v. State of MP, 1991 MP LJ 81 –

distinguished.

Yeswant Deorao Deshmukh v. Walchand Ramchand

Kothari, [1950] 1 SCR 852; National Textile Corporation

Ltd. v. Nareshkumar Badrikumar Jagad, [2011] 14 SCR

472 : (2011) 12 SCC 695; Fateh Bibi v. Charan Dass,

[1970] 3 SCR 953 : (1970) 1 SCC 658; M/s Ganesh

Trading Co. v. Moji Ram, [1978] 2 SCR 614 : (1978) 2

SCC 91; Ram Saran & Anr. v. Ganga Devi, (1973) 2 SCC

60; Vinay Krishna v. Keshav Chandra & Anr., (1993) Supp

3 SCC 129; UOI v. Ibrahim Uddin, [2012] 8 SCR 35 :

(2012) 8 SCC 148; Goplakrishna (Dead) Through LRs

v. Narayanagowda(Dead) Through Lrs., [2019] 6 SCR

382 : (2019) 4 SCC 592; Harmath Kaur v. Inder Bahadur

Singh, AIR 1922 PC 403; Mahadeo Prasad Singh, AIR

1931 PC 1989; Sreenivasa Pai v. Saraswathi Ammal,

[1985] Supp. 2 SCR 122 : (1985) 4 SCC 85; Tribhuvan

Shankar v. Amrutlal, [2013] 12 SCR 368 : (2014) 2 SCC 

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 329

Vasantha (Dead) Thr. Lr. v. Rajalakshmi @ Rajam (Dead) Thr.Lrs.

788; In Saroop Singh v. Banto, [2005] Suppl. 4 SCR

253 : (2005) 8 SCC 330; Karnataka Board of Wakf v.

Govt. of India, [2004] Suppl. 1 SCR 255 : (2004) 10

SCC 779; Hemaji Waghaji Jat v. Bhikhabhai Khengarbhai

Harijan, [2008] 13 SCR 818 : (2009) 16 SCC 517; P.T.

Munichikkanna Reddy v. Revamma, [2007] 5 SCR

491 : (2007) 6 SCC 59; Shakti Bhog Food Industries

Ltd. v. Central Bank of India, [2020] 6 SCR 538 : (2020)

17 SCC 260; Vinay Krishna v. Keshav Chandra, 1993

Supp (3) SCC 129; Venkataraja and Ors. v. Vidyane

Doureradjaperumal (Dead) thr. Lrs., [2013] 5 SCR 814 :

(2014) 14 SCC 502; Akkamma and Ors. v. Vemavathi

and Ors., 2021 SCC Online SC 1146; Executive Officer,

Arulmigu Chokkanatha Swamy Koil Trust, Virudhunagar

v. Chandran and Others, [2017] 5 SCR 473 : (2017) 3

SCC 702; Harcharan v. State of Haryana, (1982) 3 SCC

408; Rajender Prasad v. Kayastha Pathshala, (1981)

Supp 1 SCC 56 – referred to.

List of Acts

Limitation Act, 1963; Specific Relief Act, 1963.

List of Keywords

Limitation; Extinguishment of right to property; Adverse possession;

Title by adverse possession; Establishment of adverse possession;

Claim of adverse possession; Adverse possession dependency on

limitation; Modern statutes of limitation; Suit for declaration; Relief of

possession; Discretion of Court as to declaration of status or right;

Suit for mere declaration without consequential relief; Amendment

of plaint for recovery of possession.

Case Arising From

CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION : Civil Appeal No.3854 of 2014

From the Judgment and Order dated 27.09.2012 of the High Court

of Madras in SA No.1926 of 2004

Appearances for Parties

Dama Seshadri Naidu, Sr. Adv., G. Balaji, Advs. for the Appellant.

V. Ramasubramanian, Adv. for the Respondents.

330 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court

Judgment

Sanjay Karol, J.

1. The action that set in motion the instant dispute was in the year

1947, when a mother transferred property inherited at the death

of her husband, in one form to her two sons and in another, to her

daughter. Some forty-odd years later, the daughter’s husband filed

a suit in respect of such property, in 1993. The Additional District

Munsiff1

 decided the matter in 1999. The Additional District and

Session Judge2

 returned a decision on the First Appeal in 2002.

The Second Appeal was decided by the High Court3

 in 2012. It is

against this order and judgment in Second Appeal that the present

civil appeal has been preferred.

BACKGROUND FACTS

2. It would be necessary to advert to the facts underlying the present

dispute.

3. On 10th July 1947, one Thayammal executed a settlement deed4

granting rights in her property to her two sons namely Raghavulu

Naidu and Chinnakrishnan @ Munusamy Naidu5 for their lives

and thereafter to the former’s two daughters namely Saroja and

Rajalakshmi (present Respondent now represented through LRs).

Saroja pre-deceased Thayammal as also her father and uncle, in

1951.

3.1 Subsequently, Raghavulu and Munusamy executed a Settlement

Deed dated 31st July 19526

 reverting the said interests in the

properties back to their mother.

3.2 Thayamma, soon thereafter, executed a further Settlement

Deed7

 dated 18th August 1952, bequeathing absolute interest

1 “Trial Court”

2 “First Appellate Court”

3 “Impugned judgment”

4 “First Settlement Deed”

5 “Munusamy”

6 “Second Settlement Deed”

7 “Third Settlement Deed”

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 331

Vasantha (Dead) Thr. Lr. v. Rajalakshmi @ Rajam (Dead) Thr.Lrs.

in such properties only in favour of her two sons namely

Raghavulu Naidu and Munusamy Naidu, with the consequence

of extinguishing the rights, if any, of Saroja and Gopalakrishnan.

3.3 Munusamy had no children. His wife Pavunammal enjoyed

life interest in the property bequeathed to her husband. They

had an adopted daughter, Vasantha (present Appellant, now

represented through LRs).

3.4 In 1993, during the lifetime of Pavunammal, Gopalakrishnan

(Husband of Saroja) filed a suit, subject matter of the present

lis, praying for a declaration as the owner of the properties since

he was the sole heir of Saroja in terms of the First Settlement

Deed.

4. It is in this brief background of facts that the dispute entered the

courts.

It would be useful to have a summary of family relations forming

the backdrop of, and parties to, the dispute by way of a chart, as

immediately hereunder:-

● Pounamma is also referred to as Pavanuammal at some places,

as was so done by the Courts below.

332 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

PROCEEDING BEFORE THE TRIAL COURT

A. PLAINT

5. Plaintiff (Gopalakrishnan) filed a suit for declaration and to establish

his vested rights and interest in the property.

5.1 It was urged that only the First Settlement Deed had legal

sanctity. Accordingly, the wife of Munusamy is only entitled to

possession and enjoyment till her lifetime. There is no right of

transfer in her favour.

5.2 The Second Settlement Deed is only for the lifetime of

Thayammal, and the same would not impact the vested

right created in favour of deceased Saroja, inherited by

Gopalakrishnan, as her husband and sole heir.

5.3 The adoption of Vasantha is illegal. Also, the vested right in favour

of Saroja was created prior to such adoption and, therefore,

would not affect the rights of Gopalakrishnan.

B. WRITTEN STATEMENT

6. The written statement is of denial of all claims made by Gopalakrishnan.

6.1 It is incorrect to state that the two sons Raghavulu and

Munasamy, were in possession of suit properties according to

the First Settlement Deed. No claim of any vested rights can

be accepted.

6.2 The claim that Gopalakrishnan is the sole legal heir of Saroja,

cannot be accepted as after her death in the year 1951, he

has remarried and relocated to Pondicherry.

6.3 Even if the First Settlement Deed is accepted as genuine, then

Pavanuammal alone would be the heir to such properties.

6.4 Munasamy had, during his lifetime, on 7th October, 1976

executed a settlement deed in favour of Pavanuammal without

any coercion. The patta of the said property was also transferred

in her name.

6.5 Since Munasamy and Pavanuammal did not have any children,

they adopted a child namely Vasantha. Pavanuammal of her

own volition executed a settlement deed in favour of Vasantha

on 19th July, 1993. Any denial of the same cannot be accepted.

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 333

Vasantha (Dead) Thr. Lr. v. Rajalakshmi @ Rajam (Dead) Thr.Lrs.

6.6 On 18th August 1952, Thayammal had vide the Third Settlement

Deed given exclusively, the suit properties to her two sons

who have made separate and individual deeds in regards to

their shares and sold portions thereof to other parties. The suit

suffers from non-joinder of necessary parties.

C. FINDINGS

7. The Learned Additional District Munsif framed four following issues

to be considered:

a) Whether the settlement deed suggested by the

plaintiff is genuine?

b) Whether the plaintiff cannot claim any right in the

suit property?

c) Whether the plaintiff is entitled to get the relief prayed

in the plaint?

d) What are the relief for which plaintiff is entitled to?

7.1 Placing reliance upon the deposition of PW1 (Gopalakrishnan),

the first issue was decided in favour of the plaintiff and the First

Settlement Deed was upheld as genuine. Also, DW1 (Vasantha)

in her deposition had not completely denied the execution

and genuineness of First Settlement Deed. After considering

both, the First and the Second Settlement Deeds, it held that

Raghavulu Naidu and Munusamy Naidu must have executed

the Second Settlement Deed in favour of Thayammal as the

Second Settlement Deed could not be executed without the

first deed having been in existence.

7.2 In regard to the second issue, it was observed that plaintiff himself

has admitted the execution of Second Settlement Deed and that

possession was handed over to Thayammal. Plaintiff has not

taken any action in respect of the document executed in the year

1974 and filed the suit in the year 1993 and held that the suit is

barred by Limitation and the rights of the plaintiff were abated.

7.3 The third and fourth issues were decided against the plaintiff

since he cannot claim any rights in the suit property, therefore,

the declaration cannot be made in respect of one-half of the

defendant’s share in the suit property after her lifetime would

come to the plaintiff.

334 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

PROCEEDING BEFORE THE FIRST APPELLATE COURT

8. Two following questions were considered by the First Appellate Court:

a) Whether the plaintiff is the legal heir of Saroja Ammal?

b) Whether the plaintiff is entitled for the share in the

suit property?

8.1 It was held that the plaintiff has never taken any steps to revoke

various transactions that have taken place in regard to the suit

properties. He was also unaware about the real possession of

the properties in question. Further, it was observed that the

plaintiff failed to prove dispossession within a period of twelve

years, i.e. the time period within which the claim of adverse

possession has to be made.

8.2 In the above terms, the judgment and decree of the Trial Court

was confirmed and the appeal was dismissed.

PROCEEDING BEFORE THE HIGH COURT

9. The High Court under Second Appeal framed the following substantial

questions of law:

a) Whether in law the courts below are right in failing to

see that under Section 19 of the Transfer of Property

Act, a vested interest is not defeated by the death of

the transferee before the possession.

b) Whether in law the courts below are not wrong in

omitting to see that the matter in issue would be

squarely covered by the illustrations (i) and (iii) of

Section 119 of the Indian Succession Act?

c) Whether in law the courts below are right in failing to

see that a limited interest owner could not prescribe

title by adverse possession as held in AIR 1961

SCC 1442?

9.1 Having taken note of various decisions, the learned Single

Judge held that the interest vested in Saroja was full and not

life interest. Therefore, upon her death,, the interest does not

revert to the settlor. In other words, that Saroja died before her

interest stood fructified, is an incorrect statement. It is only the 

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 335

Vasantha (Dead) Thr. Lr. v. Rajalakshmi @ Rajam (Dead) Thr.Lrs.

right of enjoyment that stood postponed till the life interest of

Raghavulu Naidu and Munusamy Naidu.

9.2 On the question of limitation, it was observed that the documents

executed between Thayammal, her sons and subsequently,

Pavanummal and Vasantha, were only in respect of life interest

i.e. a limited right. The other two deeds of settlement executed

after the First Settlement Deed are against or beyond the

competency of the executants and therefore, not binding on the

plaintiff. That being the case the requirement of twelve years

within which to initiate a suit, does not arise. Further, it was held

that since, in the suit, the life estate holder has been impleaded

in the suit and Gopalakrishnan had the option of filing the suit

even after her lifetime, the same is not barred by limitation.

9.3 It was in such terms that it was held that according to the First

Settlement Deed the plaintiff will be entitled to half share of

the property after the lifetime of Vasantha, a life estate holder.

SUBMISSIONS

10. We have heard at length, Mr. Dama Seshadri Naidu, learned senior

counsel for the Appellants and Mr. V. Ramasubramanian, learned

counsel for the Respondents. The main contentions urged have

been recorded as under:-

A. APPELLANTS

(i) It is submitted that all questions raised in this Appeal are

pure questions of law and in accordance with Yeswant

Deorao Deshmukh v. Walchand Ramchand Kothari

(3-Judge Bench)8 and National Textile Corporation Ltd.

v. Nareshkumar Badrikumar Jagad (2-Judge Bench)9

, a

question of law can be raised at any stage.

(ii) It is urged that the original plaintiff (Gopalakrishnan) lacked

a cause of action. Since the suit was filed while Pounammal

was alive, even if his right is termed as ‘vested’, the same

does not become enforceable till her death. In other words, till

2004 no right stood accrued in favour of the plaintiff. Reference

8 [1950] 1 SCR 852

9 [2011] 14 SCR 472 : (2011) 12 SCC 695 

336 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

was made to Fateh Bibi v. Char̥an Dass (3-Judge Bench)10.

Further, upon such rights having accrued, no application

to amend the plaint was filed. Any which way, if he had by

amendment, sought the relief of possession, it would be as

if an entirely new cause of action is sought to be introduced

amounting to substitution, which ought not to be allowed.

Reference was made to M/s Ganesh Trading Co. v. Moji

Ram (2-Judge Bench)11.

(iii) As per Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 196312 the declaration

of a right or status is a matter of discretion. However, the proviso

restricts the application of such discretion in terms that it is not

to be exercised when the complainant seeks only a declaration

of title when he is able to seek further relief. Reference is made

to Ram Saran & Anr. v. Ganga Devi (3-Judge Bench)13, Vinay

Krishna v. Keshav Chandra & Anr. (3-Judge Bench)14 and

UOI v. Ibrahim Uddin (2-Judge Bench)15.

(iv) It is submitted that Article 65 Explanation (a) read with Section

27 of the Limitation Act, 1963 hits the right of Gopalkrishnan.

Succession to the estate only accrues on the death of the life

estate holder which was in 2004. Till date, no suit stands filed.

The learned senior counsel relied on Goplakrishna (Dead)

Through LRs v. Narayanagowda(Dead) Through LRs(2-

Judge Bench)16.

(v) It is argued that the right of Saroja created as per the First

Settlement Deed was in fact a contingent interest. It states that

if Munusamy has a male heir then one half will belong to him

and Saroja will get the other half after the life of Raghavulu

and Munusamy. Therefore, on her death in 1951, her interest

was spes successionis i.e. it did not achieve concrete form

and is only an expectation of succeeding. The contingency

10 [1970] 3 SCR 953 : (1970) 1 SCC 658

11 [1978] 2 SCR 614 : (1978) 2 SCC 91

12 “SRA, 1963”

13 (1973) 2 SCC 60

14 (1993) Supp 3 SCC 129

15 [2012] 8 SCR 35 : (2012) 8 SCC 148

16 [2019] 6 SCR 382 : (2019) 4 SCC 592

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 337

Vasantha (Dead) Thr. Lr. v. Rajalakshmi @ Rajam (Dead) Thr.Lrs.

upon which Saroja’s interest rests is two-fold; Munusamy

either having or not having children. If he does, they would

get half share; if he doesn’t then two eventualities exist: half

of Munusamy’s share goes to Saroja upon his death, and the

other half after the life interest of Pavunammal is exhausted,

goes to Saroja, the remainder woman. Reliance is placed on

Harmath Kaur v. Inder Bahadur Singh17. Further, reliance is

placed on Mahadeo Prasad Singh18 to state that when there

is an expectation simpliciter of succession, neither a transfer

nor a contract to transfer is permissible.

B. RESPONDENTS

(i) The fact that the First Settlement Deed was acted upon i.e.

the rights given to two sons of Thayammal were returned to

her by a subsequent deed in 1952, shows that the first one

gave rights in presenti. Therefore, in Saroja rests a ‘vested’

right as per Section 19 of the Transfer of Property Act, 188219,

a vested right once accrued cannot be defeated by the death

of the transferee prior to possession. Reference is made to

Sreenivasa Pai v. Saraswathi Ammal (2-Judge Bench)20.

(ii) The Second Settlement Deed reverting the life interest awarded

to the two sons only gives Thayammal a life interest and

therefore subsequent settlement deeds were non est in law

and thus need not be challenged.

(iii) So far as the non-seeking of relief within twelve years is

concerned, it is submitted that the possession of the property was

only available to Gopalkrishnan upon the death of Pavunammal

(in 2004). Since a suit is pending, the limitation for seeking

possession is arrested. The plea of adverse possession will be

applicable only if the possession with the opposing party had

become adverse on the date of the plaint. The learned counsel

relies on Tribhuvan Shankar v. Amrutlal (2-Judge Bench) 21.

17 AIR 1922 PC 403

18 AIR 1931 PC 1989

19 “TPA”

20 [1985] Supp. 2 SCR 122 : (1985) 4 SCC 85

21 [2013] 12 SCR 368 : (2014) 2 SCC 788

338 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

(iv) The enjoyment of the property bequeathed on Raghavulu

and Munusamy was in the nature of life interest. The Second

Settlement Deed, therefore, is hit by Section 6(d) of TPA. They

cannot convey a better title than they have received.

(v) None of the conditions mentioned in Section 126, TPA for

revocation/suspension of settlement are met in the present

case, meaning thereby that the settlement cannot be revoked.

(vi) Since the title to the properties stood vested in Saroja,

Gopalakrishnan had cause of action to file a suit for declaration.

The reason for filing of the suit in 1993 is a settlement deed

executed by Pavunammal in favour of Vasantha. Since the

former was alive the suit was filed without seeking the relief

of possession. It is submitted that the proviso uses the term

‘further relief’ which implies that such relief had to be available

on the date of filing the plaint which it was not as possession

rested with Pavunammal therefore, a suit only for declaration

was maintainable on the date of filing.

(vii) Reliance on Section 213 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 is

misconceived as the same is only applicable to wills covered

by Section 57 (a) and (b) of the said Act i.e wills executed

within the local limits of the civil jurisdiction of the High Courts

of Bombay and Madras.

QUESTIONS FOR OUR CONSIDERATION

11. Various contentions have been canvassed by either party to the

dispute. However, if this Court is to decide those issues, two questions

must be considered at the threshold. They are:-

(i) Whether Gopalakrishnan’s suit for declaration based on the

First Settlement Deed, eventually filed in the year 1993 barred

by limitation?

(ii) Whether the suit for declaration simpliciter was maintainable

in view of Section 34 of the SRA, 1963?

To emphasise, we restate that if the answer to the aforementioned

questions is in the affirmative, we need not refer to the other

contentions raised across the bar.

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 339

Vasantha (Dead) Thr. Lr. v. Rajalakshmi @ Rajam (Dead) Thr.Lrs.

ANALYSIS & CONSIDERATION

ISSUE 1

12. The provisions of the Limitation Act, 1963 relevant to the instant

dispute, i.e, Section 27 and Articles 58 and 65 of the First Schedule

to the Act, are reproduced hereinbelow for ready reference:-

“27. Extinguishment of right to property.—At the

determination of the period hereby limited to any person

for instituting a suit for possession of any property, his

right to such property shall be extinguished.

Art. Description

of suit

Period

of

limitation

Time from

which period

begins to run

58. To obtain any other

declaration.

Three

years

When the right

to sue first

accrues.

65. For possession of

immovable property

or any interest

therein based on

title.

Twelve

years

When the

possession of

the defendant

becomes

adverse to the

plaintiff.

Explanation.- For the purposes of this article--

(a) Where the suit is by a remainderman, a

reversioner (other than a landlord) or a

devisee, the possession of the defendant

shall be deemed to become adverse only

when the estate of the remainderman,

reversioner or devisee, as the case may be,

falls into possession;…”

13. We notice that before us, are different interpretations of when the

limitation period would expire thereby making the possession of the suit

property, hostile to the rights supposedly vesting in Gopalakrishnan,

as the heir of Saroja upon whom, the First Settlement Deed vested

a right in the property. The learned Trial Court observed that, given

the contention of the original plaintiff (Gopalakrishnan) that the 

340 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

Second Settlement Deed was invalid, he ought to have challenged

the transfer caused thereby within 12 years of such date. Further, it

was observed that another possibility of challenge arose in 1974 when

Munasamy executed a settlement deed in favour of Vasantha and

subsequently in 1976, when another deed was executed in favour of

his wife, Pavanuaamal, his daughter. On both these occasions, the

heir of the alleged vested interest of Saroja, was silent. Therefore, on

both counts the suit filed by Gopalakrishnan was barred by limitation.

The First Appellate Court agreed with this reasoning.

14. On the other hand, the learned senior counsel for the Appellants

has contended, if at all, Gopalakrishnan has a right in the disputed

property, then the period of limitation for establishing the adverse

possession of Vasantha began in the year 2004 upon the death of

the life estate holder i.e, Pavanuaamal, then by 2016 Vasantha had

perfected the title by adverse possession. Since no suit for recovery

of possession stands filed till date, Gopalakrishnan’s claim today is

barred by limitation.

15. The question before us is, from when will the period of limitation run,

for Gopalakrishnan to stake a claim on the properties?

16. If the period of limitation is to run from the date of the Second

Settlement Deed, then the rights should be extinguished in 1964. If

the same were to run from either 1974 or 1976, then after 1986 or

1988 respectively, Gopalakrishnan had no right in the property on

the plea of adverse possession.

17. We notice that this Court in Gopalakrishna (supra) had observed

that a reversioner ordinarily must file a suit for possession within 12

years from the death of the limited heir or widow. That metric being

applied to the instant facts, it is after the death of Pavunammal,

that the reversioner, or in this case the heir of the reversioner

(Gopalakrishnan) ought to have filed the suit. The suit, the subject

matter of appeal before us is a suit for declaration simpliciter and not

possession. So, the possession still rests with heir of Pavunammal.

The twelve-year period stood expired in 2016 (with the death of

Pavanummal in the year 2004) therefore, in our considered view,

the suit is barred by limitation, which was filed in 1993.

18. The learned counsel for the respondents contended that since the

suit stood filed in respect of the property, the clock for adverse 

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 341

Vasantha (Dead) Thr. Lr. v. Rajalakshmi @ Rajam (Dead) Thr.Lrs.

possession stopped ticking. He relied on Tribhuvanshankar (supra)

to buttress this claim.

19. A perusal of the said decision shows a reference has been made

to Sultan Khan v. State of MP22 to hold that if a suit for recovery of

possession has been filed then the time period for adverse possession

is arrested. The instant decision is distinguishable from the current

set of facts on two grounds: one, that the holding of the Madhya

Pradesh High Court was in respect of Section 248 of the MP Land

Revenue Code and had been referenced in an appeal arising from

the State of MP itself; two, in the present facts, Gopalakrishnan has

filed only a suit for declaration and not one for possession. The said

declaration suit was filed in the year 1993. It was after the death of

Pavunammal (in 2004) that the relief of possession became available

to him. However, no such relief has been claimed. This decision does

not in any way support the claim of the respondents.

20. In Saroop Singh v. Banto (2-Judge Bench)23, this Court observed

that Article 65 states that the starting point of limitation does not

commence from the date when the right of ownership arises to the

plaintiff but commences from the date the defendant’s possession

becomes adverse. Further relying on Karnataka Board of Wakf

v. Govt. of India (2-Judge Bench)24, it observed that the physical

fact of exclusive possession and the animus possidendi to hold

as owner in exclusion to the actual owner are the most important

factors that are to be accounted in cases related to adverse

possession. Plea of adverse possession is not a pure question of

law but a blend of fact and law. Therefore, a person who claims

adverse possession should show : (a) on what date he came into

possession; (b) what was the nature of his possession; (c) whether

the factum of possession was known to the other party; (d) how

long his possession has continued; and (e) his possession was

open and undisturbed. A person pleading adverse possession has

no equities in his favour. Since he is trying to defeat the rights of

the true owner, it is for him to clearly plead and establish all facts

necessary to prove his adverse possession.

22 1991 MP LJ 81

23 [2005] Supp. (4) SCR 253 : (2005) 8 SCC 330

24 [2004] Supp. (1) SCR 255 : (2004) 10 SCC 779

342 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

21. This Court in Hemaji Waghaji Jat v. Bhikhabhai Khengarbhai

Harijan (2-Judge Bench)25, reiterating the observations made in

P.T. Munichikkanna Reddy v. Revamma (2-Judge Bench)26 in

respect of the concept of adverse possession observed that efficacy

of adverse possession law in most jurisdictions depends on strong

limitation statutes by operation of which, right to access the court

expires through efflux of time. As against the rights of the paperowner, in the context of adverse possession, there evolves a set of

competing rights in favour of the adverse possessor who has, for

a long period of time, cared for the land, developed it, as against

the owner of the property who has ignored the property. Modern

statutes of limitation operate, as a rule, not only to cut off one’s

right to bring an action for the recovery of property that has been in

the adverse possession of another for a specified time but also to

vest the possessor with title. The intention of such statutes is not to

punish one who neglects to assert rights but to protect those who

have maintained the possession of property for the time specified

by the statute under a claim of right or colour of title.

22. In Bharat Barrel and Drum Mfg. Co. Ltd. v. ESI Corpn.27, (2-Judge

Bench) while discussing the object of Limitation Act, this Court

opined that:

“ ….The law of limitation appertains to remedies because

the rule is that claims in respect of rights cannot be

entertained if not commenced within the time prescribed

by the statute in respect of that right. Apart from Legislative

action prescribing the time, there is no period of limitation

recognised under the general law and therefore any time

fixed by the statute is necessarily to be arbitrary. A statute

prescribing limitation however does not confer a right of

action nor speaking generally does not confer on a person

a right to relief which has been barred by efflux of time

prescribed by the law. The necessity for enacting periods

of limitation is to ensure that actions are commenced

within a particular period, firstly to assure the availability

25 [2008] 13 SCR 818 : (2009) 16 SCC 517

26 [2007] 5 SCR 491 : (2007) 6 SCC 59

27 [1972] 1 SCR 867 : (1971) 2 SCC 860

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 343

Vasantha (Dead) Thr. Lr. v. Rajalakshmi @ Rajam (Dead) Thr.Lrs.

of evidence documentary as well as oral to enable the

defendant to contest the claim against him; secondly to

give effect to the principle that law does not assist a person

who is inactive and sleeps over his rights by allowing

them when challenged or disputed to remain dormant

without asseting them in a court of law. The principle which

forms the basis of this rule is expressed in the maximum

vigilantibus, non dermientibus, jura subveniunt (the laws

give help to those who are watchful and not to those who

sleep). Therefore the object of the statutes of limitations

is to compel a person to exercise his right of action within

a reasonable time as also to discourage and suppress

stale, fake or fraudulent claims While this is so there are

two aspects of the statutes of limitation the one concerns

the extinguishment of the right if a claim or action is not

commenced with a particular time and the other merely bare

the claim without affecting the right which either remains

merely as a moral obligation or can be availed of to furnish

the consideration for a fresh enforceable obligation. Where

a statute, prescribing the limitation extinguishes the right,

it affects substantive rights while that which purely pertains

to the commencement of action without touching the right

is said to be procedural.…”

(Emphasis Supplied)

23. Part III of the Schedule to the Limitation Act details the time period

within which the declarations may be sought for: (a) declaration of

forgery of an instrument either issued or registered; (b) declaring

an adoption to be invalid or never having taken place; and (c) to

obtain any other declaration. Point (c) or in other words Article 58

governs the present dispute. This Court has in Shakti Bhog Food

Industries Ltd. v. Central Bank of India28, (3-Judge Bench)

taken note of Article 58 of the Limitation Act 1963 vis-a-vis Article

113(Any suit for which no period of limitation stands provided in

the Schedule) and observed that the right to sue accrues ‘from

the date on which the cause of action arose first’. In the present

case, the suit for declaration was filed in 1993. This implies that the

28 [2020] 6 SCR 538 : (2020) 17 SCC 260

344 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

cause of action to seek any other declaration i.e. a declaration of

Gopalakrishnan in the property, should have arisen only in the year

1990. There is nothing on record to show any cause of action having

arisen at this point in time. The possible causes of action would be

at the time of the Second Settlement Deed (1952) or Munusamy’s

deed of settlement in favour of Pavunammal(1976) or at the time of

Pavunammal’s vesting of the property in favour of Vasantha (1993)

or at the death of Pavunammal (2004) where apart from declaration,

he ought to have sought the relief of possession as well. It is clear

from the record that on no such possible occasion, a declaration

was sought, much less within the stipulated period of three years.

ISSUE II

24. We now proceed to examine whether the suit for declaration simpliciter

was maintainable in view of Section 34 of the SRA, 1963.

25. Section 34 reads as:

34. Discretion of Court as to declaration of status or

right.-

Any person entitled to any legal character, or to any right

as to any property, may institute a suit against any person

denying, or interested to deny, his title to such character

or right, and the Court may in its discretion make therein

a declaration that he is so entitled, and the plaintiff need

not in such suit ask for any further relief:

Provided that no Court shall make any such declaration

where the plaintiff, being able to seek further relief than

a mere declaration of title, omits to do so.

(Emphasis Supplied)

26. The learned senior counsel for the appellant has contended that it

has been settled by the Courts below that the appellant has been

in possession of the subject property since 1976. In view of the

proviso to Section 34, the suit of the plaintiff could not have been

decreed since the plaintiff sought for mere declaration without the

consequential relief of recovery of possession.

27. The learned counsel for the Respondent, in rebuttal, contended that

since at the time of filing of the suit, the life interest holder was alive,

she was entitled to be in possession of the property and therefore, 

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 345

Vasantha (Dead) Thr. Lr. v. Rajalakshmi @ Rajam (Dead) Thr.Lrs.

the Plaintiff not being entitled to possession at the time of institution

of the suit, recovery of possession could not have been sought.

28. We now proceed to examine the law on this issue. As submitted by

the learned senior counsel for the Appellant, in Vinay Krishna v.

Keshav Chandra (2-Judge Bench)29, this Court while considering

Section 42 of the erstwhile Specific Relief Act, 1877 to be pari materia

with Section 34 of SRA, 1963 observed that the plaintiff’s not being

in possession of the property in that case ought to have amended

the plaint for the relief of recovery of possession in view of the bar

included by the proviso.

29. This position has been followed by this Court in Union of India v.

Ibrahim Uddin (2-Judge Bench)30, elaborated the position of a suit

filed without the consequential relief. It was observed:

“55. The section provides that courts have discretion as

to declaration of status or right, however, it carves out an

exception that a court shall not make any such declaration

of status or right where the complainant, being able to seek

further relief than a mere declaration of title, omits to do so.

56. In Ram Saran v. Ganga Devi [(1973) 2 SCC 60] this

Court had categorically held that the suit seeking for

declaration of title of ownership but where possession

is not sought, is hit by the proviso of Section 34 of the

Specific Relief Act, 1963 and, thus, not maintainable. In

Vinay Krishna v. Keshav Chandra [1993 Supp (3) SCC

129] this Court dealt with a similar issue where the plaintiff

was not in exclusive possession of property and had filed

a suit seeking declaration of title of ownership. Similar

view has been reiterated observing that the suit was not

maintainable, if barred by the proviso to Section 34 of the

Specific Relief Act. (See also Gian Kaur v. Raghubir Singh

[(2011) 4 SCC 567)

57. In view of the above, the law becomes crystal clear

that it is not permissible to claim the relief of declaration

without seeking consequential relief.

29 1993 Supp (3) SCC 129

30 [2012] 8 SCR 35 : (2012) 8 SCC 148

346 [2024] 2 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

58. In the instant case, the suit for declaration of title of

ownership had been filed, though Respondent 1-plaintiff

was admittedly not in possession of the suit property. Thus,

the suit was barred by the provisions of Section 34 of the

Specific Relief Act and, therefore, ought to have been

dismissed solely on this ground. The High Court though

framed a substantial question on this point but for unknown

reasons did not consider it proper to decide the same.”

30. In Venkataraja and Ors. v. Vidyane Doureradjaperumal (Dead)

thr. LRs (2-Judge Bench)31, the purpose behind Section 34 was

elucidated by this Court. It was observed that the purpose behind

the inclusion of the proviso is to prevent multiplicity of proceedings.

It was further expounded that a mere declaratory decree remains

non-executable in most cases. This Court noted that the suit was

never amended, even at a later stage to seek the consequential relief

and therefore, it was held to be not maintainable. This position of law

has been reiterated recently in Akkamma and Ors. v. Vemavathi

and Ors. (2-Judge Bench)32.

31. This Court in Executive Officer, Arulmigu Chokkanatha Swamy

Koil Trust, Virudhunagar v. Chandran and Others (2-Judge

Bench)33 while reversing the High Court decree, observed that

because of Section 34 of the SRA, 1963, the plaintiff not being in

possession and claiming only declaratory relief, ought to have claimed

the relief of recovery of possession. It was held that the Trial Court

rightly dismissed the suit on the basis that the plaintiff has filed a

suit for a mere declaration without relief for recovery, which is clearly

not maintainable.

32. That apart, it is now well settled that the lapse of limitation bars

only the remedy but does not extinguish the title. Reference may be

made to Section 27 of the Limitation Act. This aspect was overlooked

entirely by the High Court in reversing the findings of the Courts

below. It was not justified for it to have overlooked the aspect of

limitation, particularly when deciding a dispute purely civil in nature.

31 [2013] 5 SCR 814 : (2014) 14 SCC 502

32 [2021] 10 SCR 1187 : 2021 SCC Online SC 1146

33 [2017] 5 SCR 473 : (2017) 3 SCC 702

[2024] 2 S.C.R. 347

Vasantha (Dead) Thr. Lr. v. Rajalakshmi @ Rajam (Dead) Thr.Lrs.

33. Adverting to the facts of the present case, on a perusal of the plaint,

it is evident that the plaintiff was aware that the appellant herein was

in possession of the suit property and therefore it was incumbent

upon him to seek the relief which follows. Plaintiff himself has stated

that defendant no. 1 was in possession of the subject property and

had sought to transfer possession of the same to defendant no.2,

thereby establishing that he himself was not in possession of the

subject property. We are not inclined to accept the submission of

the learned counsel for the respondent on this issue. We note that

after the death of the life-estate holder in 2004, there was no attempt

made by the original plaintiff to amend the plaint to seek the relief of

recovery of possession. It is settled law that amendment of a plaint

can be made at any stage of a suit34, even at the second appellate

stage35.

34. In view of the above, the second issue is answered in the favour of

the Appellants herein and against the Respondent.

CONCLUSION

35. As evidenced from the discussion hereinabove, the judgment

impugned before us fails scrutiny at the threshold stage itself, i.e.

on limitation as also maintainability of the suit. This being the case,

the judgment of the Trial Court in O.S. No. 726 of 1993 as also the

First Appellate Court in S.C. Appeal Suit 47/99 FTC-II Appeal Suit

113/2002 which dismissed the suit of Gopalkrishnan on the grounds

of limitation cannot be faulted with.

36. The impugned judgment in Second Appeal No. 1926 of 2004 dated

27th September 2012 titled as Gopalakrishnan & Anr. v. Vasantha

& Ors. is set aside. The appeal is allowed in the above terms.

Pending application(s) if any, shall stand disposed of. The holding in

the judgments of the Learned Trial Court as also the First Appellate

Court are restored.

Headnotes prepared by: Ankit Gyan Result of the case:

Appeal allowed.

34 Harcharan v. State of Haryana, (1982) 3 SCC 408 (2-Judge Bench)

35 Rajender Prasad v. Kayastha Pathshala, (1981) Supp 1 SCC 56 (2-Judge Bench)