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since 1985 practicing as advocate in both civil & criminal laws. This blog is only for information but not for legal opinions

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Friday, February 9, 2024

The Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, is a legislation that governs the regulation of the chartered accountancy profession in India. The chapter on "Misconduct" in the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, plays a crucial role in maintaining the ethical standards of the profession in India. Its main objectives are to set ethical guidelines, prevent actions that may compromise 27 public interests, ensure accountability among chartered accountants, and preserve the profession's reputation. This Chapter defines and prohibits professional misconduct, while aiming to uphold honesty, integrity, and professionalism in the practice of chartered accountancy. By addressing instances of misconduct, it establishes a framework for accountability, reinforcing the credibility of individual professionals and the reputation of the entire profession. To achieve these goals, the Act includes a disciplinary mechanism, ensuring a fair and transparent process for investigating and adjudicating alleged cases of m

 The service provider was also required to report any suspicious activity or foul play pertaining to the transactions under review, to the Chief Executive Officer of the Complainant bank. On 27.09.2009, a series of circuitous transactions (hereinafter referred to as ‘subject transaction’) involving large sums of money are said to have taken place in certain accounts of the branch, which were neither regular nor normal in nature. However, in the audit report submitted to the Complainant bank, these transactions were not flagged.

On consideration of the complaint, the written statement and the other matters on record, the Director (Discipline) arrived at a prima facie conclusion that the Appellant was not guilty of any professional or other misconduct within the meaning of clause (7), (8) and (9) of Part 1 of the Second Schedule of the Chartered Accountants’ (Amendment) Act, 2006. 

The Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, is a legislation that governs the regulation of the chartered accountancy profession in India. The chapter on "Misconduct" in the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, plays a crucial role in maintaining the ethical standards of the profession in India. Its main objectives are to set ethical guidelines, prevent actions that may compromise 27 public interests, ensure accountability among chartered accountants, and preserve the profession's reputation. This Chapter defines and prohibits professional misconduct, while aiming to uphold honesty, integrity, and professionalism in the practice of chartered accountancy. By addressing instances of misconduct, it establishes a framework for accountability, reinforcing the credibility of individual professionals and the reputation of the entire profession. To achieve these goals, the Act includes a disciplinary mechanism, ensuring a fair and transparent process for investigating and adjudicating alleged cases of misconduct


2024 INSC 94 1 REPORTABLE IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION CIVIL APPEAL No.4672 OF 2012 NARESH CHANDRA AGRAWAL …APPELLANT(S) VERSUS THE INSTITUTE OF CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS OF INDIA AND OTHERS …RESPONDENT(S) J U D G E M E N T Aravind Kumar, J. 1. The facts in brief are set out herein below: The Bank of Rajasthan Limited, (hereinafter referred to as ‘Complainant-bank’) had engaged the services of M/s Ramesh C. 2 Agrawal & Co. (hereinafter referred to interchangeably as ‘the firm’/’service provider’) for the purpose of conducting audit work. The audit work was to be carried out in respect of Sahara India, Aliganj, Lucknow Branch for a period of 3 years commencing from 01.01.2007. According to this arrangement, the service provider was required to submit monthly audit reports in respect of daily transactions/banking affairs of the concerned branch. This report had to be submitted within a particular time frame, i.e., by the 7th of the succeeding month. The service provider was also required to report any suspicious activity or foul play pertaining to the transactions under review, to the Chief Executive Officer of the Complainant bank. On 27.09.2009, a series of circuitous transactions (hereinafter referred to as ‘subject transaction’) involving large sums of money are said to have taken place in certain accounts of the branch, which were neither regular nor normal in nature. However, in the audit report submitted to the Complainant bank, these transactions were not flagged. 2. According to the Complainant, the main purpose of engaging the firm for audit related work was to assist it in timely detection of irregularities/ lapses, besides observing as to whether the transactions were within the 3 policy parameters as laid down by the Reserve Bank of India. In having failed to point out the suspicious transactions that took place on 27.09.2009, the Complainant alleges that the firm had utterly failed to discharge its professional obligation under the terms, as agreed. 3. It is in this background that the Complainant wrote to the firm, vide letter dated 05.03.2009 and called for its explanation. No satisfactory response was received. On 05.09.2009, yet another letter was issued to the firm, but no reply was received in that regard. 4. Accordingly, the Complainant proceeded to register its complaint against the audit firm before the Director (Discipline) on 21.12.2009. The Director (Discipline) forwarded a copy of the complaint to the firm and called upon it to disclose the name(s) of the member/person(s) who was/were responsible for conducting the audit and preparing the report pertaining to the subject transaction. 5. On 15.02.2010, there was a letter communication received by the Director (Discipline) from the audit firm, in which it was stated that the Appellant was given the responsibility for reviewing the subject transactions. The Appellant filed his written statement on 02.04.2010. The Complainant bank submitted its rejoinder on 02.06.2010. Certain additional documents 4 were sought by the Director (Discipline) from the Complainant on 10.12.2010. 6. On consideration of the complaint, the written statement and the other matters on record, the Director (Discipline) arrived at a prima facie conclusion that the Appellant was not guilty of any professional or other misconduct within the meaning of clause (7), (8) and (9) of Part 1 of the Second Schedule of the Chartered Accountants’ (Amendment) Act, 2006. 7. On such opinion of the Director being placed before the Board of Discipline, Respondent No.1 informed the Appellant that the Board of Discipline had disagreed with the prima facie opinion of the Director (Discipline) and the Board had decided to refer the matter to the Disciplinary Committee for further action under Chapter V of the Chartered Accountants’ (Procedure of Investigation of Professional and Other Misconduct and Conduct of Cases) Rules, 2007 (for short ‘Rules, 2007’). 8. The action of the Board in disagreeing with the prima facie opinion of the Director (Discipline) and referring the matter for further action before the Disciplinary Committee was impugned before the High Court of Delhi in W.P.(C) No.6488 of 2011. The prayer in the said writ petition was to declare Rule 9(3)(b) of the Rules, 2007 as invalid on the ground that the said 5 rule was ultra vires section 21 A (4) of the Act. The Ld. Division Bench having repelled the said challenge, the Appellants are now before us. 9. According to the Ld. Counsel for the Appellant, when the Director (Discipline) was of the prima facie opinion that the Appellant was not guilty of the alleged misconduct, the Board had two options available to it according to Section 21 A (4) of the Act. It could either close the matter at that very stage or direct the Director (Discipline) to further investigate and it could not have assumed the role of the Director and acted as the investigating agency by referring the matter to the Disciplinary Committee. It is submitted that there is no substantive basis in the parent Act for the action impugned in this appeal. The Ld. Counsel argued that the impugned Rule, being a delegated legislation, cannot provide for any action which is not contemplated under the parent Act. 10. Per contra, Ld. Counsel for the Respondent has sought to justify the correctness of the view taken in the impugned order. According to him, if the argument of the Appellant is accepted, the result would be that the Director (Discipline), who is merely a Secretary to the Board of Discipline, would have greater powers than the Board itself. This is because the Board would not be able to overrule the prima facie view taken by the Director 6 (Discipline). The Board could, at best, direct the Director (Discipline) to conduct further investigation and nothing more. It is submitted that the legislature would not have intended such a consequence. There is nothing in the scheme of the Act to suggest that the Board cannot refer the matter to the Disciplinary Committee for further action. 11. Therefore, considering the arguments canvassed on behalf of both sides, the following question falls for our consideration: “Whether Rule 9(3)(b) of the Rules, 2007 is inconsistent with and beyond the rule-making power of the Central Government?” Relevant provisions in the Act and Rules: 12. It may be necessary to refer to certain provisions of the Act in order to better understand the scheme of the applicable law pertaining to investigation of complaints alleging misconduct. The relevant provisions are extracted hereinbelow: “21. Disciplinary Directorate. - (1) The Council shall, by notification, establish a Disciplinary Directorate headed by an officer of the Institute designated as Director (Discipline) and such other employees for making investigations in respect of any information or complaint received by it. (2) On receipt of any information or complaint along with the prescribed fee, the Director (Discipline) shall arrive at a prima facie opinion on the occurrence of the alleged misconduct. 7 (3) Where the Director (Discipline) is of the opinion that a member is guilty of any professional or other misconduct mentioned in the First Schedule, he shall place the matter before the Board of Discipline and where the Director (Discipline) is of the opinion that a member is guilty of any professional or other misconduct mentioned in the Second Schedule or in both the Schedules, he shall place the matter before the Disciplinary Committee. (4) In order to make investigations under the provisions of this Act, the Disciplinary Directorate shall follow such procedure as may be specified. (5) Where a complainant withdraws the complaint, the Director (Discipline) shall place such withdrawal before the Board of Discipline or, as the case may be, the Disciplinary Committee, and the said Board or Committee may, if it is of the view that the circumstances so warrant, permit the withdrawal at any stage. 21A. Board of Discipline. — (1) The Council shall constitute a Board of Discipline consisting of-- (a) a person with experience in law and having knowledge of disciplinary matters and the profession, to be its presiding officer. (b) two members one of whom shall be a member of the Council elected by the Council and the other member shall be nominated by the Central Government from amongst the persons of eminence having experience in the field of law, economics, business, finance or accountancy. (c) the Director (Discipline) shall function as the Secretary of the Board. (2) The Board of Discipline shall follow summary disposal procedure in dealing with all cases before it. (3) Where the Board of Discipline is of the opinion that a member is guilty of a professional or other misconduct mentioned in the First Schedule, it shall afford to the member a pportunity of being heard before making any order against him and may thereafter take any one or more of the following actions, namely: -- (a) reprimand the member. (b) remove the name of the member from the Register up to a period of three months. 8 (c) impose such fine as it may think fit, which may extend to rupees one lakh. (4) The Director (Discipline) shall submit before the Board of Discipline all information and complaints where he is of the opinion that there is no prima facie case and the Board of Discipline may, if it agrees with the opinion of the Director (Discipline), close the matter or in case of disagreement, may advise the Director (Discipline) to further investigate the matter.] 21B. Disciplinary Committee. — (1) The Council shall constitute a Disciplinary Committee consisting of the President or the Vice-President of the Council as the Presiding Officer and two members to be elected from amongst the members of the Council and two members to be nominated by the Central Government from amongst the persons of eminence having experience in the field of law, economics, business, finance or accountancy: Provided that the Council may constitute more Disciplinary Committees as and when it considers necessary. (2) The Disciplinary Committee, while considering the cases placed before it shall follow such procedure as may be specified. (3) Where the Disciplinary Committee is of the opinion that a member is guilty of a professional or other misconduct mentioned in the Second Schedule or both the First Schedule and the Second Schedule, it shall afford to the member an opportunity of being heard before making any order against him and may thereafter take any one or more of the following actions, namely: -- (a) reprimand the member. (b) remove the name of the member from the Register permanently or for such period, as it thinks fit. (c) impose such fine as it may think fit, which may extend to rupees five lakhs. (4) The allowances payable to the members nominated by the Central Government shall be such as may be specified.] “29A. Power of Central Government to make rules: (1) The Central Government may, by notification, make rules to carry out the provisions of this Act. 9 (2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing powers, such rules may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely :− (a) the manner of election and nomination in respect of members to the Council under sub-section (2) of Section 9; (b) the terms and conditions of service of the Presiding Officer and Members of the Tribunal, place of meetings and allowances to be paid to them under sub-section (3) of Section 10B4; (c) the procedure of investigation under sub-section (4) of Section 21 ; (d) the procedure while considering the cases by the Disciplinary Committee under sub-section (2), and the fixation of allowances of the nominated members under subsection (4) of Section 21B; (e) the allowances and terms and conditions of service of the Chairperson and members of the Authority and the manner of meeting expenditure by the Council under Section 22C; (f) the procedure to be followed by the Board in its meetings under Section 28C ; and (g) the terms and conditions of service of the Chairperson and members of the Board under sub-section (1) of Section 28D.] (emphasis supplied) Rule 9 of the Rules, 2007 is extracted hereinbelow: Rule 9. Examination of the Complaint (1) The Director shall examine the complaint, written statement, if any, rejoinder, if any, and other additional particulars or documents, if any, and form his prima facie opinion as to whether the member or the firm is guilty or not of any professional or other 10 misconduct or both under the First Schedule or the Second Schedule or both. (2) (a) Where the Director is of the prima facie opinion that, − (i) the member or the firm is guilty of any misconduct under the First Schedule, he shall place his opinion along with the complaint and all other relevant papers before the Board of Discipline. (ii) the member or the firm is guilty of misconduct under the Second Schedule or both the First and Second Schedules, he 10 shall place his opinion along with the complaint and all other relevant papers before the Committee. (b) If the Board of Discipline or the Committee, as the case may be, agrees with the prima facie opinion of the Director under clause (a) above, then the Board of Discipline or the Committee may proceed further under Chapter IV or V respectively. (c) If the Board of Discipline or the Committee, as the case may be, disagrees with the prima facie opinion of the Director under clause (a) above, it shall either close the matter or advise the Director to further investigate the matter (3) Where the Director is of the prima facie opinion that the member or the firm is not guilty of any misconduct either under the First Schedule or the Second Schedule, he shall place the matter before the Board of Discipline, and the Board of Discipline, − (a) if it agrees with such opinion of the Director, shall pass order, for closure. (b) if it disagrees with such opinion of the Director, then it may either proceed under chapter IV of these rules, if the matter pertains to the First Schedule, or refer the matter to the Committee to proceed under Chapter V of these rules, if the matter pertains to the Second Schedule or both the Schedules and may advise the Director to further investigate the matter. (4) The Director shall, after making further investigation as advised by the Board of Discipline under sub-rule (2) or (3) of this rule or by the Committee under sub-rule (2), shall further proceed under this rule.” (emphasis supplied) 13. Section 21(1) empowers the Council to establish a Disciplinary Directorate for making investigations into the complaints received by it. The head of this authority is designated as Director (Discipline). Section 21(2) provides that the Director (Discipline), on receipt of any information or complaint, shall arrive at a prima facie opinion on the occurrence of the 11 alleged misconduct. Section 21(3) states that should the Director (Discipline) arrive at a prima facie opinion that the member is guilty of professional misconduct, he shall refer the matter to the Board of Discipline or the Disciplinary Committee, depending on whether the alleged misconduct falls within the First Schedule or the Second Schedule or both. If the alleged misconduct falls within the First Schedule, the matter is placed before the Board of Discipline and if it falls within the Second Schedule or in both the Schedules, the matter is placed before the Disciplinary Committee. Section 21(4) provides that the procedure for investigation would be as prescribed under the relevant rules.1 In the event where the Complainant wishes to withdraw his/her complaint, Section 21(5) provides that the Director (Discipline) shall place the request for withdrawal before the Board of Discipline or the Disciplinary Committee, as the case may be, and the Board or Committee would take a final call in this regard. 14. The Board of Discipline is constituted under Section 21A of the Act. The Director (Discipline) is to function as the Secretary of the Board, as per Section 21A(1)(c) of the Act. Section 21A (2) provides that the Board shall follow a summary procedure in dealing with cases referred to it. Where the 1 Chartered Accountants’ (Procedure of Investigation of Professional and Other Misconduct and Conduct of Cases) Rules, 2007 12 Board finds that a member is guilty of professional or other misconduct mentioned in First Schedule, it may resort to imposing any of the three punishments enumerated in Section 21A (3). 15. Section 21A (4) requires the Director (Discipline) to submit all information and complaints to the Board, where he is of the opinion that there is no prima facie case in the complaint. It further provides that if the Board agrees with the opinion of the Director (Discipline), it may close the matter and if it disagrees with the opinion, it may advise the Director (Discipline) to further investigate into the complaint. 16. Similar scheme to deal with complaints relating to misconduct as prescribed in the Second Schedule is found in Section 21B (1) to (4). 17. Section 29A is titled ‘Power of Central Government to make rules’. Section 29A (1) enables the Central Government ‘to make rules to carry out the provisions of this Act’. Section 29A (2) sets out enumerated heads under which rules may be made. Rule 9(3), which is part of Rules, 2007 appears to have been made under Section 29A(2)(c). It is relevant to note that the power to make rules under sub-section (2) of Section 29A is ‘without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power’ provided for in Section 29A(1). 13 18. Having discussed the scheme of relevant provisions in the parent Act, we may now peruse the contents of Rule 9. 19. Rule 9 is titled ‘Examination of Complaint’. Sub-clause (1) provides for the procedure to be followed on receipt of complaint. The Director (Discipline) is required to form his prima facie opinion as to whether the member is guilty or not of the alleged misconduct. Sub-clause (2) sets out the procedure to be followed in the event where the Director (Discipline) reaches a prima facie opinion that the member is guilty of professional misconduct. What is of utmost significance for us is to see the procedure to be followed when the Director (Discipline) comes to a prima facie opinion that the member is not guilty of alleged misconduct, as has been examined in the instant case. This can be found in sub-clause (3) of Rule 9. It provides that the Board can accept the opinion of the Director (Discipline) and pass an order for closure (Rule 9(3)(a)). Where the Board disagrees with the opinion of the Director (Discipline), it may proceed under Chapter IV of the Rules, 2007 if the matter pertains to the First Schedule or it may advise the Director to further investigate the matter. Similarly, the Board could refer the matter to the Disciplinary Committee for action under Chapter V if the matter 14 pertains to the Second Schedule or it could advise the Director (Discipline) to conduct further investigation. Analysis and Findings: 20. Now, let us contrast Section 21A (4) with Rule 9(3) to examine if there is any substance in the argument that Rule 9(3) is ultra vires Section 21A (4). In the event the Board disagrees with the opinion of the Director (Discipline), Section 21A(4) provides that the Board may advise the Director to further investigate the matter. However, Rule 9(3) does not limit itself to just this option. It also enables the Board to straightaway proceed to act by itself or refer the matter to the Disciplinary Committee, depending on whether the alleged misconduct relates to the First Schedule or Second Schedule. It is in this background that the learned counsel for the Appellant has strenuously submitted that the Rule goes beyond the enabling power set out in the parent Act. 21. In State of Tamil Nadu and Anr. v. P. Krishnamurthy and Ors. (2006) 4 SCC 517, this Court recollected the following principles while adjudging the validity of subordinate legislation, including regulations: 15. There is a presumption in favour of constitutionality or validity of a subordinate legislation and the burden is 15 upon him who attacks it to show that it is invalid. It is also well recognized that a subordinate legislation can be challenged under any of the following grounds: (a) Lack of legislative competence to make the subordinate legislation. (b) Violation of fundamental rights guaranteed under the Constitution of India. (c) Violation of any provision of the Constitution of India. (d) Failure to conform to the statute under which it is made or exceeding the limits of authority conferred by the enabling Act. (e) Repugnancy to the laws of the land, that is, any enactment. (f) Manifest arbitrariness/unreasonableness (to an extent where the court might well say that the legislature never intended to give authority to make such rules) (emphasis supplied) 22. Of the six available grounds for challenging subordinate legislation, it is quite clear that the scope of the challenge raised in this petition is restricted to one ground in the instant case; that the Rule exceeds the limits of authority conferred by the enabling Act. Therefore, it becomes important to examine the scope of power available under the Act before we can adjudge whether the Rules exceed the limits of authority conferred by the enabling Act. 16 23. As we have noted earlier, the Rules, 2007, have been framed purportedly in exercise of the power conferred under Section 29A(2)(c) of the Act, which enables the Central Government to make rules regarding ‘the procedure of investigation under sub-section (4) of Section 21’. However, the enumerated heads set out in Section 29A(2) cannot be read as exhaustive since the legislature has deployed the expression ‘without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provisions’ before enumerating the specific heads for exercising the rule-making power. In that sense, the power to make rules generally for carrying out the provisions of the Act is found in Section 29A(1). Section 29A (2) is only an illustrative list of subjects with respect to which the Central Government may make rules. The illustrative list of subjects cannot limit the scope of general power available under the wider rule-making power found in Section 29A(1). 24. Experience of legislative drafting in India has shown that, generally, the delegation of power to formulate rules follows a standardized pattern within statutes. Typically, a section of the statute grants this authority in broad terms, using phrases like 'to carry out the provisions of this Act' or 'to carry out the purposes of this Act.' Subsequently, another sub-section details specific matters or areas for which the delegated power can be exercised, often employing language such as 'in particular and without prejudice to the 17 generality of the foregoing power.' Judicial interpretation of such provisions underscores that the specific enumeration is illustrative and should not be construed as limiting the scope of the general power. This approach allows for flexibility in rulemaking, enabling the authorities to address unforeseen circumstances. A key principle emerges from this interpretation: even if specific topics are not explicitly listed in the statute, the formulation of rules can be justified if it falls within the general power conferred, provided it stays within the overall scope of the Act. This mode of interpretation has been categorised as the ‘generality versus enumeration’ principle in some precedents of this Court2 . This delicate balance between specificity and generality in legal delegation is crucial for effective governance and adaptability to evolving legal landscapes. 25. For the sake of completeness, we may refer to some leading precedents of this Court which have discussed the ‘generality versus enumeration’ principle. 2 See, BSNL v. TRAI, (2014) 3 SCC 222; King Emperor v. Sibnath Banerji: AIR 1945 PC 156; Afzal Ullah v. State of U.P, AIR 1964 SC 264; Rohtak and Hissar Districts Electric Supply Co. Ltd. v. State of U.P.,AIR 1966 SC 1471; K. Ramanathan v. State of T.N. (1985) 2 SCC 116; D.K. Trivedi and Sons v. State of Gujarat, 1986 Supp SCC 20 18 26. In State of Jammu and Kashmir v Lakhwinder Kumar and Ors., (2013) 6 SCC 333, this Court held that when a general power to make regulations is followed by a specific power to make regulations, the latter does not limit the former. This is the principle of 'generality vs enumeration': a residuary provision can always be given voice. 27. In Academy of Nutrition Improvement v. Union of India (2011) 8 SCC 274, this Court had interpreted a pari materia expression "in particular and without the generality of the foregoing power, such Rules may provide for all or any of the following matters". This Court held as follows : “………where power is conferred to make subordinate legislation in general terms, the subsequent particularisation of the matters/topics has to be construed as merely illustrative and not limiting the scope of the general power. Consequently, even if the specific enumerated topics in section 23(1A) may not empower the Central Government to make the impugned rule (Rule 44-I), making of the Rule can be justified with reference to the general power conferred on the central government under section 23(1), provided the rule does not travel beyond the scope of the Act” 28. In the case of State of Kerala v. Shri M. Appukutty (1963) 14 STC 242, the provisions of Section 19 (1) and (2) (f) of the Madras General Sales Tax Act of 1939 came up for consideration of this Court. It was 19 unsuccessfully argued therein that Rule 17(1) was ultra vires the rule making power specifically enumerated in Section 19(2)(f). 29. The relevant provisions involved there were similar in form to the applicable provisions in the instant case. Section 19 (1),(2),2(f) read as follows: (1) The State Government may make rules to carry out the purposes of this Act. (2) In particular and without prejudice to the generality of foregoing power such rules may provide for-- ***** (f) the assessment to tax under this Act of any turnover which has escaped assessment and the period within which such assessment may be made, not exceeding three years; Dealing with the objection raised, this Court observed:-- “..... Rule 17 (1) and (3A) ex facie properly fall under Section 19(2)(f). In any event as was said by the Privy Council in King Emperor v. Sibnath Banerji MANU/PR/0024/1945, the rulemaking power is conferred by Sub-section (1) of that section and the function of Sub-section (2) is merely illustrative and the rules which are referred to in Sub-section (2) are authorised by and made under Sub-section (1). The provisions of Sub-section (2) are not restrictive of Sub-section (1) as expressly stated in the words 'without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power' with which Sub-section (2) begins and which words are similar to the words of Subsection (2) of Section 2 of the Defence of India Act which the Privy Council was considering.....” (emphasis supplied) 30. While examining the “generality versus enumeration” principle, this Court, in PTC India Ltd. v. Central Electricity Regulatory Commission, 20 (2010) 4 SCC 603, referred with approval to its earlier Judgement in Hindustan Zinc Ltd. vs Andhra Pradesh State Electricity Board (1991) 3 SCC 299, wherein the scope of Sections 49(1) & (2) of the Electricity Supply Act, 1948 fell for consideration. Under Section 49(1), a general power was given to the Board to supply electricity to any person not being a licensee, upon such terms and conditions as the Board thinks fit and the Board may, for the purposes of such supply, frame uniform tariff under Section 49(2). The Board was required to fix uniform tariff after taking into account certain enumerated factors. In this context, this Court, in Hindustan Zinc Ltd., held that the power of fixation of tariff in the Board ordinarily had to be done in the light of specified factors; however, such enumerated factors in Section 49(2) did not prevent the Board from fixing uniform tariff on factors other than those enumerated in Section 49(2), as long as they were relevant and in consonance with the Act. This Court then referred, with approval, to its judgment in Shri Sitaram Sugar Co. Ltd. vs Union of India (1990) 3 SCC 223, wherein it was held that the enumerated factors/topics in a provision did not mean that the authority cannot take any other matter into consideration which may be relevant; and the words in the enumerated provision are not a fetter; they are not words of limitation, but are words for general guidance. 21 31. In Afzal Ullah vs. The State of Uttar Pradesh reported in 1963 SCC Online SC 76, it was argued that the impugned bye-laws were invalid, because they were outside the authority conferred on the delegate to make bye-laws by Section 298(2) of the Act, and it was also contended that the bye-laws were invalid for the additional reason that they were inconsistent with Section 241 of the Act. Rejecting the said contentions, this Court observed as follows: “Even if the said clauses did not justify the impugned byelaw, there can be little doubt that the said bye-laws would be justified by the general power conferred on the Boards by s. 298(1). It is well-settled that the specific provisions such as are contained in the several clauses of s. 298(2) are merely illustrative and they cannot be read as restrictive of the generality of powers prescribed by s. 298(1) vide Emperor v. Sibnath Banerji & Ors MANU/PR/0024/1945. If the powers specified by s. 298(1) are very wide and they take in within their scope bye-laws like the ones with which we are concerned in the present appeal, it cannot be said that the powers enumerated under s. 298(2) control the general words used by s. 298(1). These latter clauses merely illustrate and do not exhaust all the powers conferred on the Board, so that any cases not falling within the powers specified by section 298(2) may well be protected by s. 298(1), provided, of course, the impugned bye-laws can be justified by reference to the requirements of s. 298(1). There can be no doubt that the impugned bye-laws in regard to the markets framed by respondent No. 2 are for the furtherance of municipal administration under the Act, and so, would attract the provisions of s. 298(1). Therefore we are satisfied that the High Court was right in coming to the conclusion that the impugned bye-laws are valid.” (emphasis supplied) 22 32. From reference to the precedents discussed above and taking an overall view of the instant matter, we proceed to distil and summarise the following legal principles that may be relevant in adjudicating cases where subordinate legislation are challenged on the ground of being ‘ultra vires’ the parent Act: (a) The doctrine of ultra vires envisages that a Rule making body must function within the purview of the Rule making authority, conferred on it by the parent Act. As the body making Rules or Regulations has no inherent power of its own to make rules, but derives such power only from the statute, it must necessarily function within the purview of the statute. Delegated legislation should not travel beyond the purview of the parent Act. (b) Ultra vires may arise in several ways; there may be simple excess of power over what is conferred by the parent Act; delegated legislation may be inconsistent with the provisions of the parent Act; there may be noncompliance with the procedural requirement as laid down in the parent Act. It is the function of the courts to keep all authorities within the confines of the law by supplying the doctrine of ultra vires. 23 (c) If a rule is challenged as being ultra vires, on the ground that it exceeds the power conferred by the parent Act, the Court must, firstly, determine and consider the source of power which is relatable to the rule. Secondly, it must determine the meaning of the subordinate legislation itself and finally, it must decide whether the subordinate legislation is consistent with and within the scope of the power delegated. (d) Delegated rule-making power in statutes generally follows a standardized pattern. A broad section grants authority with phrases like ‘to carry out the provisions’ or ‘to carry out the purposes.’ Another sub-section specifies areas for delegation, often using language like ‘without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power.’ In determining if the impugned rule is intra vires/ultra vires the scope of delegated power, Courts have applied the ‘generality vs enumeration’ principle. (e) The “generality vs enumeration” principle lays down that, where a statute confers particular powers without prejudice to the generality of a general power already conferred, the particular powers are only illustrative of the general power, and do not in any way restrict the general power. In that sense, even if the impugned rule does not fall within the enumerated heads, that by itself will not determine if the rule is ultra vires/intra vires. It 24 must be further examined if the impugned rule can be upheld by reference to the scope of the general power. (f) The delegated power to legislate by making rules ‘for carrying out the purposes of the Act’ is a general delegation, without laying down any guidelines as such. When such a power is given, it may be permissible to find out the object of the enactment and then see if the rules framed satisfy the Act of having been so framed as to fall within the scope of such general power confirmed. (g) However, it must be remembered that such power delegated by an enactment does not enable the authority, by rules/regulations, to extend the scope or general operation of the enactment but is strictly ancillary. It will authorize the provision of subsidiary means of carrying into effect what is enacted in the statute itself and will cover what is incidental to the execution of its specific provision. In that sense, the general power cannot be so exercised as to bring into existence substantive rights or obligations or disabilities not contemplated by the provisions of the Act itself. 25 (h) If the rule making power is not expressed in such a usual general form but are specifically enumerated, then it shall have to be seen if the rules made are protected by the limits prescribed by the parent Act. 33. With this background in view, we may now apply the principles to the factual context obtained in the instant case. 34. In the instant case, the ultra vires challenge has been mounted on the ground that the impugned Rule exceeds the power conferred by the parent Act. If we look at the parent Act, the rule-making power has been conferred under Section 29A, which is titled as ‘Power of the Central Government to make Rules’. While sub-clause (1) of Section 29A sets out the general power of delegation, sub-clause (2) provides for enumerated heads. As noted earlier, the power to make rules under the latter clause is without prejudice to the general power under the former clause. In exercise of the enabling power (Section 29A(2)(c)) to make rules relating to procedure of investigation under Section 21(4), the Rules 2007 have been made. Admittedly, Rule 9(3) goes beyond what is provided for under Section 21A(4) in terms of the options available to the Board of Discipline in case it disagrees with the opinion of the Director (Discipline). Other than the option of advising the director to further investigate, Rule 9(3) provides the additional option to the 26 Board for proceeding to deal with the complaint by itself or referring it to the Disciplinary Committee, depending on whether the alleged misconduct falls under the First Schedule or the Second Schedule. But as we have seen from principles discussed above, the scrutiny cannot stop at examining if the impugned rule is relatable to any specific enumerated head. We must go further and examine if it can be related to the general delegation of power under Section 29A(1), which authorises the Central Government to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the Act. 35. Since the general delegation of power is without any specific guideline, it may be necessary to understand the object of the Act vis-à-vis the chapter on Misconduct. It is only then can we examine whether the impugned rule falls within the scope of such general power conferred. Object of the CA Act vis a vis Chapter on Misconduct: 36. The Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, is a legislation that governs the regulation of the chartered accountancy profession in India. The chapter on "Misconduct" in the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, plays a crucial role in maintaining the ethical standards of the profession in India. Its main objectives are to set ethical guidelines, prevent actions that may compromise 27 public interests, ensure accountability among chartered accountants, and preserve the profession's reputation. This Chapter defines and prohibits professional misconduct, while aiming to uphold honesty, integrity, and professionalism in the practice of chartered accountancy. By addressing instances of misconduct, it establishes a framework for accountability, reinforcing the credibility of individual professionals and the reputation of the entire profession. To achieve these goals, the Act includes a disciplinary mechanism, ensuring a fair and transparent process for investigating and adjudicating alleged cases of misconduct. 37. Seen in this background, we have not the slightest hesitation to conclude that the impugned rule is completely in sync with the object and purpose of framing the Chapter on ‘Misconduct’ under the Act. As has been rightly argued by the learned counsel for the Respondent, accepting the contention of the Appellant will create an anomalous situation. The Director (Discipline) who functions as a secretary to the Board of Discipline as per Section 21A (2) will be having greater powers than the Board itself. The ‘prima facie’ opinion of the Director will become nothing but a final opinion if the Board will have no option except to direct the Director (Discipline) to further investigate the matter. The Section is silent as to what would happen 28 in a situation where the Director (Discipline) on further investigation concludes in accordance with his preliminary assessment. Therefore, even if we accept, for the sake of argument, that Rule 9(3) cannot be saved under Section 29A(2)(c), as it directly relates to furthering the purposes of the Act in ensuring that a genuine complaint of professional misconduct against the member is not wrongly thrown out at the very threshold, it can be easily concluded that the impugned Rule falls within the scope of the general delegation of power under Section 29A(1). 38. Accordingly, we dismiss this appeal. No costs. …………….………………….J. (Pamidighantam Sri Narasimha) …………….………………….J. (Aravind Kumar) New Delhi, February 08, 2024

Monday, January 8, 2024

Whether Courts in India have jurisdiction to issue any writ to protect the welfare of its citizens beyond the territorial jurisdiction of the country.


Whether Courts in India have jurisdiction to issue any writ to protect the welfare of its citizens beyond the territorial jurisdiction of the country.

we hold that the Courts in India have jurisdiction in the matter of protecting the best interest or welfare of a child or an incapable adult; if so warranted, in circumstances where the Court forms an opinion that the party who approached the Court has no legal remedy before that Court beyond Indian territory. 

2023:KER:80740

IN THE HIGH COURT OF KERALA AT ERNAKULAM

PRESENT

THE HONOURABLE MR. JUSTICE A.MUHAMED MUSTAQUE

&

THE HONOURABLE MRS. JUSTICE SOPHY THOMAS

THURSDAY, THE 14TH DAY OF DECEMBER 2023 / 23RD AGRAHAYANA, 1945

WP(CRL.) NO.1206 OF 2022

PETITIONER/S:

‘X’

BY ADVS.

JOHNSON GOMEZ

S.BIJU (KIZHAKKANELA)

SANJAY JOHNSON

JOHN GOMEZ

ARUN JOHNY

RESPONDENTS:

1 UNION OF INDIA, REPRESENTED BY SECRETARY TO

GOVERNMENT, MINISTRY OF EXTERNAL AFFAIRS,

SOUTH BLOCK, NEW DELHI, PIN – 110001.

2 THE AMBASSADOR, EMBASSY OF INDIA,

ABU DHABI UAE, PLOT NO.10, SECTOR W-59/02, DIPLOMATIC

AREA EMBASSIES DISTRICT -

UNITED ARAB EMIRATES.

3 STATE POLICE CHIEF,

KERALA POLICE HEADQUARTERS, VAZHUTHAKKAD,

THIRUVANANTHAPURAM, PIN – 695010.

4 THE DISTRICT POLICE CHIEF,

OFFICE OF THE DISTRICT POLICE HEADQUARTERS,

PATHANAMTHITTA, PIN – 689645.

5 STATION HOUSE OFFICER, KOIPURAM POLICE STATION,

PATHANAMTHITTA, PIN – 689548.

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:2:-

WP(CRL.) NO.1206 OF 2022

6 THE CHAIRPERSON, LOCAL LEVEL COMMITTEE,

CONSTITUTED UNDER THE NATIONAL TRUST FOR WELFARE OF

PERSONS WITH AUTISM, CEREBRAL PALSY, MENTAL

RETARDATION AND MULTIPLE DISABILITIES ACT, 1999,

PATHANAMTHITTA, COLLECTORATE OFFICE, PATHANAMTHITTA

DISTRICT, KERALA, PIN – 689645.

7 ‘Y’

8 XXXXX XXXXX XXXXX.

9 XXXXX XXXXX XXXXX

BY ADVS.MANU S., DSG OF INDIA

N.M.MADHU

C.S.RAJANI(K/2275/1999)

SHRI.K.S.PRENJITH KUMAR, CGC

BY GOVERNMENT PLEADER, SRI.P.M.SHAMEER

THIS WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) HAVING BEEN FINALLY HEARD ON 18.10.2023,

ALONG WITH WP(C).42320/2022, THE COURT ON 14.12.2023 DELIVERED THE

FOLLOWING:

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:3:-

IN THE HIGH COURT OF KERALA AT ERNAKULAM

PRESENT

THE HONOURABLE MR. JUSTICE A.MUHAMED MUSTAQUE

&

THE HONOURABLE MRS. JUSTICE SOPHY THOMAS

THURSDAY, THE 14TH DAY OF DECEMBER 2023 / 23RD AGRAHAYANA, 1945

WP(C) NO.42320 OF 2022

PETITIONER:

‘X’

BY ADVS.

JOHNSON GOMEZ

S.BIJU (KIZHAKKANELA)

SANJAY JOHNSON

JOHN GOMEZ

ARUN JOHNY

ANN MARIA SEBASTIAN

RESPONDENTS:

1 UNION OF INDIA, REPRESENTED BY SECRETARY TO

GOVERNMENT, MINISTRY OF EXTERNAL AFFAIRS,

SOUTH BLOCK, NEW DELHI, PIN – 110001.

2 THE AMBASSADOR, EMBASSY OF INDIA, ABU DHABI UAE, PLOT

NO.10, SECTOR W-59/02, DIPLOMATIC AREA EMBASSIES

DISTRICT - UNITED ARAB EMIRATES.

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:4:-

WP(C) NO.42320 OF 2022

3 THE CHAIRPERSON, LOCAL LEVEL COMMITTEE, CONSTITUTED

UNDER THE NATIONAL TRUST FOR WELFARE OF PERSONS WITH

AUTISM, CEREBRAL PALSY, MENTAL RETARDATION AND

MULTIPLE DISABILITIES ACT, 1999, PATHANAMTHITTA,

COLLECTORATE OFFICE, PATHANAMTHITTA DISTRICT, KERALA,

PIN – 689645.

4 ‘Y’

5 XXXXX XXXXX XXXXX

6 XXXXX XXXXX XXXXX

BY ADVS.

SRI.MANU S., DSG OF INDIA

SRI.N.M.MADHU

SRI. C.S.RAJANI(K/2275/1999)

SHI.K.S.PRENJITH KUMAR, CGC

THIS WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) HAVING BEEN FINALLY HEARD ON 18/10/2023,

ALONG WITH WP(Crl.)NO.1206/2022, THE COURT ON 14/12/2023 DELIVERED

THE FOLLOWING:

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:5:-

A.MUHAMED MUSTAQUE & SOPHY THOMAS, JJ.

-----------------------------------------

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022

& “C.R.”

W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-----------------------------------------

Dated this the 14th day of December, 2023

J U D G M E N T

A.Muhamed Mustaque, J.

These writ petitions are filed by the mother of XXXXX(

*)

(hereinafter referred to as the “incapable adult”) who is suffering from

autism spectrum disorder. W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 was filed for issuance

of a writ of habeas to produce the aforesaid incapable adult before this

Court. It proceeds on an allegation that the incapable adult has been

detained in illegal custody of his father against his wish and will in

Dubai. W.P.(C). No.42320/2022 was filed challenging an order of the

District Collector, Pathanamthitta, who is the Chairman of the Local

Level Committee constituted under the National Trust for the Welfare of

Persons with Autism, Cerebral Palsy, Mental Retardation and Multiple

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:6:-

Disabilities Act, 1999 (for short the “National Trust Act”), declining

the request made by the petitioner to appoint her as the legal guardian

of the incapable adult.

FACTS OF THE CASE:

2. The petitioner married ‘Y’(

*) on 2/2/1998 in

accordance with Christian personal law. In that wedlock, two male

children were born. The elder child has now crossed the age of 21 years.

The younger incapable adult was born on 31/1/2003. The parties were in

Dubai, UAE. It seems that the incapable adult was diagnosed with

pervasive developmental disorder when he was two and half years old. He

was treated at NIMHANS, Bangalore. Finally, he was diagnosed with autism

spectrum disorder. The incapable adult, XXXXX(

*) was in the company of

both his parents. Though it is stated that the married life of the

petitioner and husband was not happy from the initial phase of marital

life itself; as seen from various records, treatments were given to the

incapable adult and he was brought up in a family environment. The

matrimonial dispute never ended. The petitioner claims that she was

forced to travel back to India as she was subjected to domestic violence,

and she came back to India based on the orders passed by this Court to

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:7:-

obtain the passport from her estranged husband with the intervention of

the Indian Consulate. The petitioner approached the District Collector,

Pathanamthitta, to appoint her as a legal guardian under the National

Trust Act on 9/11/2021. Since it was not considered, the petitioner

approached this Court in W.P.(C).No.23474/2021. The said writ petition

was disposed of on 15/9/2022 directing the District Collector,

Pathanamthitta, to take a decision on the application filed by the

petitioner to appoint her as the legal guardian. This was considered

by the District Collector and on 29/9/2022 an order was passed rejecting

her request for the reason that the incapable adult is living in UAE and

holding that the National Trust Act cannot be applied beyond the

territorial jurisdiction of this country. While holding so, the District

Collector appreciated the requirement of the petitioner-mother to be the

legal guardian of the incapable adult. The petitioner, thereafter, filed

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 for issuance of a writ of habeas on 5/12/2022

alleging that the incapable adult is in the illegal custody of his

father. She filed the other writ petition challenging the order of the

District Collector, on 21/12/2022. Various orders were also passed by

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:8:-

this Court on 18/1/2023 and 23/12/2022 to allow interaction with the

incapable adult.

3. Taking note of the fact that this Court will have to decide

on a jurisdictional issue intertwined with the welfare of the autistic

person who is an international person and, currently a resident of

another foreign country, UAE, we appointed Adv.Anil Malhotra, a

Chandigarh-based lawyer to assist us. At the outset, we must state that

his assistance in this matter was immense. The notes of submission made

by him, based on research by Adv. Ankit Malhotra gave insight into the

law on the matter. We also heard Shri Johnson Gomez, learned counsel for

the petitioner and Shri N.M.Madhu, learned counsel for the respondent.

THE MAIN SUBMISSIONS OF THE COUNSEL FOR THE PARTIES:

4. The learned counsel Adv.Johnson Gomez for the petitioner

submitted that when the father of the incapable adult is acting against

that son, it has to be presumed that the incapable adult is in illegal

custody. According to him, medical intervention alone would not be

sufficient to protect the welfare of the incapable adult and the

incapable adult is having every right to be in the company of his mother.

Thus, the denial of the father of the incapable adult, not allowing the

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:9:-

mother to be in the company of the incapable adult warrants interference

through the constitutional courts.

5. Whereas, the learned counsel for the father of the incapable

adult, namely, Shri N.M.Madhu argued that the incapable adult is

comfortable with the father. It is submitted that the cruel and

irresponsible behaviour of the petitioner to the incapable adult, as

well as to his father resulted in matrimonial disputes. He pointed out

various instances of the cruel behaviour of the petitioner. It is

further argued that the petitioner abandoned the family and the incapable

adult. According to him, any presence of the petitioner in Dubai would

alter the comfortable environment enjoyed by the incapable adult. The

learned counsel also submitted that when the father is competent and

capable of taking care of the incapable adult, and as no adverse

circumstances exist to protect the welfare of the incapable adult, this

Court need not invoke extraordinary jurisdiction. The learned counsel

elaborating the arguments submitted that, this Court has no jurisdiction

to grant any relief invoking writ remedy.

6. The learned Amicus Curiae appeared online and elaborated

submissions based on the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:10:-

Child (UNCRC), Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act,

2015, United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with

Disabilities (UNCRPD), the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016

and also with reference to the relevant provisions of National Trust

Act. He also requested this Court to make an amicable settlement of

disputes between parties through mediation. The learned Amicus Curiae

specifically addressed the question on jurisdiction and submitted that

the constitutional courts have jurisdiction to protect the welfare of

its citizens even in a foreign country.

WE FIND THE FOLLOWING POINTS ARISE FOR CONSIDERATION IN THE MATTER:

7(i). Whether Courts in India have jurisdiction to issue any writ

to protect the welfare of its citizens beyond the territorial

jurisdiction of the country.

7(ii). In the circumstances of this case, whether the

petitioner is entitled to any relief in this matter.

JURISDICTION:

8. Jurisdiction in this matter has to be decided with reference

to the role of the State or the Court having responsibility for the

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:11:-

citizens of this country wherever they are, including extraterritorial

jurisdiction of the country. The children or incapable adults are deemed

to be vulnerable because of their incompetency to make decisions and to

protect their person or property. The origin of “parens patriae”

jurisdiction is traceable to the common law and the State has to act as

a substitute parent to protect the interest of the children or incapable

adults. On the advent of the Constitution, the State's power to further

the legitimate interest of its citizens, who are unable to care for

themselves is well recognized in its preamble and fundamental rights.

See the judgment of the Apex Court in Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of

India, [(1990) 1 SCC 613]; para.35 therein reads as follows:

35. There is the concept known both in this country and abroad,

called parens patriae. Dr B.K. Mukherjea in his “Hindu Law of Religious

and Charitable Trust”, Tagore Law Lectures, Fifth Edition, at page 404,

referring to the concept of parens patriae, has noted that in English

law, the Crown as parens patriae is the constitutional protector of all

property subject to charitable trusts, such trusts being essentially

matters of public concern. Thus the position is that according to Indian

concept parens patriae doctrine recognized King as the protector of all

citizens and as parent. In Budhkaran Chaukhani v. Thakur Prosad Shah [AIR

1942 Cal 331 : 46 CWN 425] the position was explained by the Calcutta

High Court at page 318 of the report. The same position was reiterated

by the said High Court in Banku Behary Mondal v. Banku Behary Hazra [AIR

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:12:-

1943 Cal 203 : 47 CWN 89] at page 205 of the report. The position was

further elaborated and explained by the Madras High Court in Medai Dalavoi

T. Kumaraswami Mudaliar v. Medai Dalavoi Rajammal [AIR 1957 Mad 563 :

(1957) 2 MLJ 211] at page 567 of the report. This Court also recognized

the concept of parens patriae relying on the observations of Dr Mukherjea

aforesaid in Ram Saroop v. S.P. Sahi [1959 Supp 2 SCR 583 : AIR 1959 SC

951] at pages 598 and 599. In the “Words and Phrases” Permanent Edition,

Vol. 33 at page 99, it is stated that parens patriae is the inherent

power and authority of a legislature to provide protection to the person

and property of persons non sui juris, such as minor, insane, and

incompetent persons, but the words parens patriae meaning thereby ‘the

father of the country’, were applied originally to the King and are used

to designate the State referring to its sovereign power of guardianship

over persons under disability. (emphasis supplied) Parens patriae

jurisdiction, it has been explained, is the right of the sovereign and

imposes a duty on sovereign, in public interest, to protect persons under

disability who have no rightful protector. The connotation of the term

parens patriae differs from country to country, for instance, in England

it is the King, in America it is the people, etc. The Government is

within its duty to protect and to control persons under disability.

Conceptually, the parens patriae theory is the obligation of the State

to protect and takes into custody the rights and the privileges of its

citizens for dischargings its obligations. Our Constitution makes it

imperative for the State to secure to all its citizens the rights

guaranteed by the Constitution and where the citizens are not in a

position to assert and secure their rights, the State must come into

picture and protect and fight for the rights of the citizens. The Preamble

to the Constitution, read with the Directive Principles, Articles 38, 39

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:13:-

and 39-A enjoin the State to take up these responsibilities. It is the

protective measure to which the social welfare state is committed. It is

necessary for the State to ensure the fundamental rights in conjunction

with the Directive Principles of State Policy to effectively discharge

its obligation and for this purpose, if necessary, to deprive some rights

and privileges of the individual victims or their heirs to protect their

rights better and secure these further.

9. In State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas [(1976) 2 SCC 310], the

Apex Court opined that the Court also comes within the meaning of State

under Article 12 of the Constitution. In that sense, the State as well

as the Court are bound to protect the best interest of its citizens, who

are incapable of making decisions themselves. The State or the Court

in that process, assumes the role of a parent, who otherwise would have

been competent to make a decision. In a matrimonial dispute affecting

a child or an incapable adult, the scope of enquiry is not on the rights

and duties of such disputants, but on the best interest or welfare of

the subject of such dispute. In that sense, this Court is called upon

in these matters to protect the interest of the incapable adult who is

living abroad (in UAE). There are different theories on jurisdiction.

Jurisdiction in itself encompasses the power to adjudicate and the power

to enforce. The Court while giving relief must be in a position to

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:14:-

adjudicate and also in a position to enforce. In International Law, the

concept of jurisdiction is approached through various theories, and the

nationality principle is one such perspective. According to the

nationality principle of jurisdiction, “States possess an undisputed

right to extend the application of their laws to citizens (that is those

who have the nationality of the state), wherever they may be. This type

of jurisdiction has a longer history than jurisdiction based upon the

territorial principle. Rulers asserted jurisdiction over those who owed

allegiance to them even before the ruler's control over their land

territory was consolidated to the point where they could be said to

assert territorial jurisdiction”1. This nationality principle is also

incorporated specifically into our domestic law. Under the Indian Penal

Code (IPC), a sovereign State is entitled to regulate the conduct of its

citizens beyond the territorial jurisdiction of India. Sections 3 and 4

of IPC address the extraterritorial jurisdiction of our country.

10. According to Section 3 of IPC, any person liable, by any

Indian law, to be tried for an offence committed beyond India shall be

dealt with according to the provisions of this Code for any act committed

1 Malcolm D.Evans, International Law, First Edition (2003), Oxford University Press, Page No.339

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:15:-

beyond India in the same manner as if such act had been committed within

India.

11. Likewise, Section 75 of the Information Technology Act (IT

ACT) also incorporates provisions for extraterritorial jurisdiction.

Section 75 of the IT Act stipulates that the provisions of the IT Act

apply to offences committed outside India by any person, irrespective of

their nationality. This provision is based on nationality principle as

well as protective principle of jurisdiction.

12. In the matter of protecting the best interest of the child,

or the welfare of the incapable adult, the parens patriae rule would

apply and, on the same premise, the nationality principle would also

apply. This is based on the principles emanating from the statutory

provisions casting an obligation on the State to protect the best

interest of a child or the welfare of an incapable adult, as arising

from the obligations under the various United Nations Conventions made

into law such as, the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, the

National Trust Act etc. The UN conventions and these statutory provisions

place an obligation on the State to ensure that the persons with

disability enjoy the right to equality and community life equally with

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:16:-

others. The preamble of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act and

the National Trust Act mentions that the enactment itself is to provide

protective and welfare measures to disabled persons and persons suffering

from mental disability. Since the parens patriae rule has to be read

into the statutory provision based on nationality principle, the State

is bound to take such measures as provided under the Rights of Persons

with Disabilities Act and the National Trust Act. If the provisions under

the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act and the National Trust Act

are not read to put onus on the State to protect ‘persons’ covered under

the respective enactments, the very object of the law will be defeated.

Law on State responsibility to protect its subjects obliges the State

to act not only within territorial limits but also beyond its territory.

It is to be emphasized that these laws are premised to honour human

rights, social security and welfare principles having universal value.

13. The learned Amicus Curiae, pointing out the role of the State

and the Court, argued that the Courts in India are bound to protect the

rights of citizens, if the State fails to perform its duty. He placed

reliance on the judgment of the Apex Court in Gaurav Kumar Bansal v.

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:17:-

Union of India, [(2015) 2 SCC 130] wherein at para.9 it is held as

follows:

9. This Court is assigned the role of sentinel on the qui vive for

protection of rights of citizens and steps in, in exercise of power of

judicial review for protection of fundamental rights of the citizens, if

the State fails to perform its duty. At the same time, this Court cannot

assume the role of the executive to oversee the sensitive issue of

coordination with international agencies and bodies for securing release

of Indian citizens who are held hostages abroad, when it is shown that

the departments of the Government have not only taken cognizance of the

problem but also taken, in right earnest, whatever steps could be

possible. The issue of coordination at international level with foreign

countries and international bodies has to be left to the wisdom of experts

in the Government. It is not a case where the State has not shown any

concern for its citizens, but where unfortunate situation has come about

in spite of serious efforts. Handling of the situation requires expertise

and continuous efforts. It has not been pointed out as to what particular

direction can be issued in the circumstances. While safety and protection

of the lives and liberty of Indian citizens is also the concern of this

Court, the issue has to be dealt with at the level of the executive. From

the affidavit filed on behalf of the Union of India, it is evident that

steps have been taken at various levels, though without complete success.

14. We already noted that this Court is now stepping into the

shoes of a parent, to protect the best interest and welfare of an

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:18:-

incapable adult who is an Indian citizen. It cannot be said that this

Court has no power to adjudicate.

15. India and UAE entered into a bilateral agreement on 25/10/1999

for judicial co-operation in civil and commercial matters for service of

summons, judicial documents, commission, execution of judgments,

arbitral awards, etc. It is pursuant to such agreement that the Central

Government issued a notification dated 17/01/2020. This agreement

recognizes the execution of the decree of both the countries as though

it is a domestic decree. The notification issued by the Central

Government dated 17/01/2020 is a declaratory notification.

16. This Court invoking writ jurisdiction is capable of passing

further orders to ensure compliance with the order as the State continues

to have control over its citizens who are living abroad, even if there

is no such bilateral agreement with the country where such citizens

reside. However, the Court should be circumspect to exercise jurisdiction

when the Court finds that the law of the foreign country can be invoked

to protect the welfare or best interest of the child or incapable adult.

There may be different circumstances related to the cases. If parties

are ordinarily residing in a foreign country and can avail legal remedy

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:19:-

in that foreign country, the courts in India shall not invoke such

jurisdiction to regulate the affairs of its citizens living beyond

territorial jurisdiction of the country. The Court steps into the shoes

of a parent invoking parens patriae jurisdiction, only in those

circumstances where the Court forms an opinion that jurisdiction of the

foreign country cannot be availed by the party concerned, due to lack

of laws or incapability of having legal remedy, or if one party is

deprived of availing legal remedy due to issues of domicile or

residentiary rights. When an efficacious alternate remedy is available,

the Court shall refrain from invoking its jurisdiction over the affairs

of its citizens who are living outside its territorial jurisdiction.

17. In conclusion, we hold that the Courts in India have

jurisdiction in the matter of protecting the best interest or welfare

of a child or an incapable adult; if so warranted, in circumstances where

the Court forms an opinion that the party who approached the Court has

no legal remedy before that Court beyond Indian territory.

IN RE INCAPABLE ADULT LIVING OUTSIDE INDIA - RELIEFS:

18. It has come out from the facts that the petitioner came down

to India consequent upon matrimonial dispute with her husband, the father

2023:KER:80740

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-:20:-

of the incapable adult. She was living in UAE and was with the incapable

adult for a long time. According to her, due to domestic violence, she

could not continue in UAE. She approached this Court in

W.P.(C).No.25380/2020 through her power of attorney holder for release

of her passport by her husband. Pending the writ petition, her passport

was released by her husband. Accordingly, she came down to India. Her

stand before this Court is that she would be able to travel back to Dubai

and have the company of the incapable adult. She submits that medical

intervention would not be sufficient for the well-being of the incapable

adult. It is submitted that she cannot move the courts of Dubai for any

relief as she is not domiciled there. We do not see any negative factors

that would deprive either parents of the incapable adult from having the

company of the incapable adult. For us, the question is, how can the

well-being of such incapable adult be protected? Nothing has been

brought before us to show that such relief regarding the best interest

or welfare of the incapable adult can be secured through laws applicable

in UAE. In the absence of any such contentions of the parties, we have

to examine the matter based on the measures that are required to protect

the interest of the incapable adult.

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W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:21:-

19. In UNCRPD, ratified by India on 1/10/2007, it is the

obligation of the State to ensure that the children with disabilities

have equal rights with respect to family life with others and the State

is also bound to take measures to prevent concealment, abandonment,

neglect and segregation of children with disabilities [Article 23(3)].

In the same Convention, under Article 23(4), it mandates the State to

ensure that the child shall not be separated from his or her parents

against their will, except when competent authorities subject to judicial

review determine, in accordance with the applicable law and procedures

that such separation is necessary for the best interest of the child.

20. In tune with UNCRPD, the Indian Parliament enacted the Rights

of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016. In this context Section 9 of the

above Act may be relevant, which reads as follows:

9. Home and family - (1) No child with disability shall be separated from

his or her parents on the ground of disability except on an order of

competent court, if required, in the best interest of the child.

21. Section 5 of the above Act also mandates that the persons

with disability shall have the right to live in the community. That

means, in the home, where he gets the care and protection of parents,

siblings etc. The Indian Courts by and large recognise joint parental

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:22:-

care to protect the welfare of the children. The learned Amicus Curiae

placed reliance on the following judgments of the Apex Court and the

other Courts in India related to joint parenting and shared custody:

 PARTICULARS CITATION

1

Yashita Sahu Vs. State of

Rajasthan & Ors.

AIR 2020 SC 577 – Child Welfare,

Visitation, Paras 17 to 22.

2

Savitha Seetharam Vs. Rajiv

Vijayasarathy Rathnam

AIR 2020 (4) Karnataka R 372 - Shared

Parenting, Paras 9, 10, 11, 15 & 32.

3

Tushar Vishnu Ubale Vs. Archana

Tushar Ubale

AIR 2016 BOM 88 – Joint Custody &

Shared Parenting, Paras 15, 17, 18,

19 & 20

4

Inderbir Singh Vs. Amandeep

Bains

2019(3) HLR 204 – Joint Parenting &

Shared Custody, Paras 20-21

5

Rajnish Sharma Vs. Kamal Kumar

& Anr.

Order dated 20.12.2021 (FAO 1378 of

2021) (High Court of Punjab and

Haryana) – Shared Parenting & Joint

Custody at interim stage

6

Aditi Bakht Vs. Abhishek Ahuja 2022(292) DLT 106 – Shared Parenting

& Joint Custody at interim stage.

22. In Re C (Adult Patient) [1994] 1 FCR 705 (Fam(Eng)) (Access:

Jurisdiction), the High Court Family Division in England opined that one

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:23:-

parent restricting the access of another to their mentally disabled adult

child is illegal. It is further opined that access to a child was the

companionship of a parent and the question of access was inextricably

tied up with the question of the child’s welfare. Interestingly, the

High Court went on to hold that under common law, a parent had the right

of access to an adult child who was a patient and interference by

custodial parent with the other parent's access to the child was capable

of being remedied by habeas corpus.

23. The incapable adult has every right to have the company of

both the parents. A competent Court alone can deprive such company as

seen from Section 9 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act.

Indian Courts do not generally recognize issuance of habeas when custody

is with one of the parents; it only encourages interference with such

custody through orders of the Family Courts. The effective remedy

available under Indian law is to appoint a guardian under the National

Trust Act. Section 14 of the National Trust Act provides provisions for

appointment of a guardian for persons with disabilities. Section 15

enumerates the duties of guardian which includes taking care of such

persons with disabilities.

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:24:-

24. The respondent father filed I.A.No.1/2023 in

W.P.(C).42320/2022 for interaction with the incapable adult.

According to the father, the incapable adult is enjoying the

unchanged environmental ecosystem for more than 10 years, and any

alteration in the ecosystem and environment would be detrimental

to the interest of the incapable adult. We do not find that such

interaction is necessary. We had in fact, on an earlier occasion

interacted with the father online. The incapable adult also

appeared online. We are sure that the incapable adult will not be

in a position to express any opinion in regard to his wellbeing. We note that the mother’s presence was there all along from

the childhood of the incapable adult. Though she had dispute with

her husband, she never extended it to deprive the incapable adult

of enjoying the company of his mother. We also note that the

petitioner mother is trained to take care of such differently abled

person. Therefore, we decline the request made by the father of

the incapable adult.

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W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:25:-

25. The petitioner, in fact, approached the District Collector,

Pathanamthitta, to appoint her as a guardian. The District Collector

was convinced that the petitioner should be appointed as a guardian, but

refrained from passing an order noting that the incapable adult resides

in UAE and is beyond the jurisdiction of this country. We are of the

view that both parents be appointed as a joint guardian to take care of

the incapable adult till any competent court decides otherwise the

incompetency of either of the parents to take care of the incapable

adult. The incapable adult is having every right to be under the care

of his family and both parents. It may not be conducive for the

petitioner to reside along with her estranged husband to take care of

the incapable adult but nothing prevents her to have rotational custody

so as to allow the incapable adult to enjoy the care, love and protection

of both the parents. The separation of the petitioner from the incapable

adult in the light of law as above is illegal. Denial of access to one

parent is also illegal in the light of the statutory provisions under

the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act. In such circumstances, we

are of the view that the following orders would subserve the interest

of the incapable adult:

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:26:-

i. The petitioner will be entitled to cyclical custody of the

incapable adult from 5 P.M. every Friday till the following Thursday

5 P.M. on a rotational weekly basis.

ii. The incapable adult shall be handed over from the residence of

her husband- ‘Y’(

*) in UAE. However, this right is available to the

petitioner whenever she is in UAE.

iii. In the event her husband and the incapable adult visit India

during vacation, the same pattern of custody shall be followed.

iv. In the event, ‘Y’(

*) travels abroad leaving the incapable

adult in UAE or in India, the mother will have custody during the period

of absence of ‘Y’(

*).

v. The parties are also free to make joint agreement varying the

above cyclical arrangements on mutually agreed terms. In that event,

such agreement shall be produced before the District Collector,

Pathanamthitta, for the purpose of record.

vi. The Indian Consulate in Dubai shall ensure that this order is

complied with by ‘Y’(

*).

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W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:27:-

vii. In the light of the reliefs granted as above, we find no scope

for issuing a writ of habeas and, accordingly, W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 is

dismissed. W.P.(C).No.42320/2022 is allowed.

We record our deepest appreciation to the learned Amicus Curiae

Shri Anil Malhotra ably assisted by Adv.Ankit Malhotra who have devoted

considerable time in assisting us and have made valuable suggestions

from time to time. Sd/-

 A.MUHAMED MUSTAQUE, JUDGE

Sd/-

 SOPHY THOMAS, JUDGE

ms

(

*) parties’ details are masked.

2023:KER:80740

W.P.(Crl).No.1206/2022 & W.P.(C).No.42320/2022

-:28:-

APPENDIX OF WP(CRL.) 1206/2022

PETITIONER'S EXHIBITS:

EXHIBIT P1 A TRUE COPY OF THE REFERENCE LETTER IN OP NO.

228134 DATED 10.06.2005 ISSUED BY DR SHEKHAR

SESHADRI CONSULTANT PSYCHIATRIST OF NIMHANS

BANGALORE, OUT PATIENT DEPARTMENT TO DR.

SRIDEVI HEGDE OF THE MANIPAL HOSPITAL.

EXHIBIT P2 THE TRUE COPY OF THE ASSESSMENT REPORT DATED

30.05.2005 ISSUED BY DR JAYANTHINI ADDL.

PROFESSOR OF PSYCHIATRY, MADRAS MEDICAL

COLLEGE AND SR. CIVIL SURGEON TO THE DETENU.

EXHIBIT P3 A TRUE COPY OF THE REPORT DATED 03.08.2006

ISSUED BY V-EXCEL REMEDIAL CENTRE TO THE

DETENU.

EXHIBIT P4 A TRUE COPY OF REPORT DATED 03.02.2007 ISSUED

BY NIPA BHUPTANI TO THE DETENU.

EXHIBIT P5 A TRUE COPY OF THE ASSESSMENT REPORT DATED

30.02.2008 ISSUED BY SITRALAI CHARITABLE

EDUCATIONAL SOCIETY TO THE DETENU.

EXHIBIT P6 A TRUE COPY OF THE OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY

ASSESSMENT DATED 23.10.2008 ISSUED BY MELWIN

ISAAC, OCCUPATIONAL THERAPIST TO THE DETENU.

EXHIBIT P7 A TRUE COPY OF THE REPORT DATED 25.10.2008

ISSUED BY WE CAN CHENNAI TO THE DETENU.

EXHIBIT P8 A TRUE COPY OF THE CERTIFICATE ISSUED IN THE

YEAR 2010 - 2012 BY SILVER N SPRINGS NURSERY

AND PRIMARY SCHOOL, CHENNAI TO THE DETENU.

EXHIBIT P9 A TRUE COPY OF THE DOCTORS NOTE SHEET DATED

03.02.2011 ISSUED BY DR PERUMAL RC OF SHRI

RAMACHANDRAN HOSPITAL, TO THE DETENU.

EXHIBIT P10 A TRUE COPY OF THE REPORT BY OCCUPATION

THERAPIST MELVIN ISAAC DATED 15.02.2012 TO THE

DETENU.

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APPENDIX OF WP(CRL.) 1206/2022

EXHIBIT P11 A TRUE COPY OF THE REFERENCE LETTER DATED

25.06.2013 ISSUED BY ABU DHABI INTERNATIONAL

(PVT.) SCHOOL TO THE DETENU.

EXHIBIT P12 A TRUE COPY OF THE PROGRESS REPORTS ISSUED BY

FUTURE CENTRE SCHOOL TO THE DETENU.

EXHIBIT P13 A TRUE COPY OF THE PSYCHOLOGICAL ASSESSMENT

REPORT DATED 24.11.2016 ISSUED FROM FUTURE

REHABILITATION CENTRE TO THE DETENU.

EXHIBIT P14 A TRUE COPY OF THE DISCHARGE SUMMARY DATED

08.08.2020 PREPARED BY DR. SREEKUMAR NAIR TO

THE DETENU.

EXHIBIT P15 A TRUE COPY OF THE PEOPLE OF DETERMINATION ID

CARD ISSUED BY THE MINISTRY OF COMMUNITY

DEVELOPMENT, UAE TO THE DETENU CERTIFYING

AUTISM.

EXHIBIT P16 A TRUE COPY OF THE EMPLOYMENT CONTRACT NO.

MB992430656AE DATED 12.10.2019 BETWEEN THE ABU

DHABI COOPERATIVE SOCIETY AND THE RESPONDENT

NO.7.

EXHIBIT P17 A TRUE COPY OF THE ORDER DATED 19/11/2020 IN

WP(C) NO. 25380 OF 2020 PASSED BY THIS HON'BLE

COURT.

EXHIBIT P18 A TRUE COPY OF THE PETITION FILED BY THE

PETITIONER BEFORE THE JUDICIAL FIRST CLASS

MAGISTRATE COURT II, PATHANAMTHITTA.

EXHIBIT P19 A TRUE COPY OF THE INTERIM ORDER DATED

10/12/2020 AS PER COMMON ORDER IN CRL.MP NO.

3417/2020, CRL.MP NO.3420/2020 IN CRL.MP NO.

3416/2020 PASSED BY THE BEFORE THE JUDICIAL

FIRST CLASS MAGISTRATE COURT II,

PATHANAMTHITTA.

EXHIBIT P20 A TRUE COPY OF THE SCREENSHOTS OF WHATSAPP

CHATS FROM MAY TO OCTOBER OF 2021 BETWEEN THE

PETITIONER AND RESPONDENT NO.7.

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APPENDIX OF WP(CRL.) 1206/2022

EXHIBIT P22 A TRUE COPY OF THE PETITION FILED BY THE

PETITIONER IN CRL MP NO. 2416/2020 BEFORE THE

JUDICIAL FIRST CLASS MAGISTRATE COURT,

PATHNMTHITTA.

EXHIBIT P23 A TRUE COPY OF THE PHOTOGRAPHS OF XXXXX TAKEN

ON 30/01/2021, 18/02/2021 AND ON 01.06.2021.

EXHIBIT P24 A TRUE COPY OF THE MEDICAL REPORT DATED

15/03/2021 ISSUED BY DR. SIVA PRAKSH OF THE

NEW MEDICAL CENTRE HEALTHCARE TO THE DETENU.

EXHIBIT24(A) A TRUE COPY OF THE PHYSIOLOGICAL ASSESSMENT

REPORT NO. MR NO. UD0400000157659 DATED

16/04/2021 ISSUED BY DR DANESH GOPALAN

CLINICAL PHYSIOLOGIST NMC ROYAL HOSPITAL UAE

TO THE DETENU.

EXHIBIT 24(B) A TRUE COPY OF THE MEDICAL REPORT DATED

22/12/2021 ISSUED BY DR. SHIVAPRASAD CHILD

PSYCHIATRIST, NEW MEDICAL CENTRE LLC.

EXHIBIT P25 A TRUE COPY OF FIR DATED 30/06/2021 IN CRIME

NO. 0732/2021 REGISTERED BY KOIPURAM POLICE

STATION, PATHANAMTHITTA.

EXHIBIT P26 A TRUE COPY OF THE OP TICKET DATED 04.02.2019

OF DEPARTMENT OF PSYCHIATRY, CHRISTIAN MEDICAL

COLLEGE, VELLORE.

EXHIBIT P27 A TRUE COPY OF THE EMAIL COMMUNICATIONS

BETWEEN THE PETITIONER AND THE OFFICE OF DR.

PAUL RUSSEL.

EXHIBIT P28 A TRUE COPY OF THE APPLICATION DATED

08/11/2021 FILED BY THE PETITIONER UNDER

NATIONAL TRUST ACT BEFORE THE RESPONDENT NO.6.

EXHIBIT P29 THE TRUE COPY OF THE LETTER NO. NORKAA3/365/2021-NORKA DATED 05.08.2021 ISSUED BY

THE PRINCIPAL SECRETARY TO THE GOVERNMENT,

GOVERNMENT OF KERALA TO THE AMBASSADOR,

EMBASSY OF INDIA, UAE.

2023:KER:80740

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APPENDIX OF WP(CRL.) 1206/2022

EXHIBIT P30 A TRUE COPY OF THE E-MAILS STARTING FROM

19.07.2021 TO THE HON'BLE CHIEF MINISTER OF

KERALA.

EXHIBIT P31 A TRUE COPY OF THE APPLICATION TO THE

GRIEVANCE CELL DATED 29.07.2021 ON THE

CONSULAR SERVICE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM OF THE

MINISTRY OF EXTERNAL AFFAIRS.

EXHIBIT P32 A TRUE COPY OF THE E-MAIL COMMUNICATION WITH

THE SUPERINTENDENT OF POLICE, NRI CELL

REGARDING REPRESENTATION SUBMITTED TO THEM

DATED 28.07.2021 AND 02.08.2021.

EXHIBIT P33 TRUE COPY OF THE E-MAIL THREAD DATED

19.07.2021 AND 23.07.2021 TO THE DGP OF KERALA

POLICE.

EXHIBIT P34 TRUE COPY OF THE E-MAIL DATED 20.07.2021 TO

THE HON'BLE MINISTER MR. MURALEEDHARAN, UNION

MINISTER OF STATE FOR EXTERNAL AFFAIRS &

PARLIAMENTARY AFFAIRS.

EXHIBIT P35 A TRUE COPY OF THE ORDER DATED 17TH NOVEMBER

2021 IN WP(C) NO. 23474 OF 2021 PASSED BY THIS

HON'BLE COURT.

EXHIBIT P36 A TRUE COPY OF THE MEMO FILED BY THE

GOVERNMENT PLEADER AS PER THE DIRECTION OF

THIS HON'BLE COURT DATED 17.11.2021.

EXHIBIT P37 A TRUE COPY OF THE INTERIM ORDER DATED

25.01.2022 IN WP(C) NO. 23474 OF 2021 PASSED

BY THIS HON'BLE COURT.

EXHIBIT P38 A TRUE COPY OF THE REPORT SUBMITTED BY THE

INDIAN EMBASSY FOLLOWING THE DIRECTIONS OF

THIS HON'BLE COURT IN WP(C) NO. 23474/2021.

EXHIBIT P39 A TRUE COPY OF THE MEDICAL REPORT DATED

28/02/2022 ISSUED BY UMESH CHANDRAN, MANAGER

MEDICAL ADMINISTRATION, AHALIA HOSPITAL TO MS.

RISHA OBERAI, SECOND SECRETARY, COMMUNITY

AFFAIRS & ECONOMIC, EMBASSY OF INDIA.

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APPENDIX OF WP(CRL.) 1206/2022

EXHIBIT P40 A TRUE COPY OF THE JUDGMENT DATED 15/09/2022

IN WP(C) NO. 23474/2021 PASSED BY THIS HON'BLE

COURT.

EXHIBIT P41 A TRUE COPY OF THE LETTER NO. DCPTA/4377/2021-

D2 DATED 29/11/2022 ISSUED BY THE RESPONDENT

NO. 6 TO THE PETITIONER.

EXHIBIT P42 A TRUE COPY OF THE INJUNCTION ORDER PASSED BY

THE FAMILY COURT PATHANMTHITTA PER ORDER DATED

16/07/2022 IN IA NO. 1/2022 IN OP NO. 802 OF

2022.

EXHIBIT P43 A TRUE COPY OF THE CERTIFICATE III ISSUED ON

22/06/2022 BY THE INSTITUTE OF HEALTH AND

NURSING AUSTRALIA.

RESPONDENTS' ANNEXURES:

ANNEXURE R7 (A) TRUE COPY OF THE SCREEN SHOTS OF THE WHATSAPP

MESSAGES SEND TO THE WARD'S PHONE BY THE WRIT

PETITIONER.

ANNEXURE R7 (B) TRUE COPY OF THE MEDICAL REPORT DATED

21.12.2020 ISSUED BY DR. SIVA PRAKASH,

CONSULTANT PSYCHIATRIST OF NEW MEDICAL CENTRE,

DUBAI.

EXT.R7(D) TRUE COPY OF THE RECENT MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

DATED 22.12.2021 ISSUED BY DR. SIVA PRAKASH,

NEW MEDICAL CENTRE, LLC -DUBAI.

EXT.R7(E) TRUE COPY OF THE MEDICAL REPORT DATED

21.01.2021 ISSUED BY THE DUBAI HEALTH CARE

AUTHORITY.

EXT.R7(F) TRUE COPY OF THE LETTER ISSUED BY THE

PETITIONER TO THE 7TH RESPONDENT.

EXT.R7(G) TRUE COPY OF THE LAWYER NOTICE DATED

12.10.2021.

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APPENDIX OF WP(CRL.) 1206/2022

EXT.R7(H) TRUE COPY OF THE PETITION WITH ENGLISH

TRANSLATION FILED BY THE PETITIONER IN THE ABU

DHABI JUDICIAL DEPARTMENT, FAMILY SECTION

113/2021.

EXT.R7(I) TRUE COPY OF THE DETAILED FINAL JUDGMENT WITH

ENGLISH TRANSLATION IN 658/2021 PASSED BY THE

ABU DHABI JUDICIAL DEPARTMENT.

EXT.R7(J) TRUE COPY OF THE MEDICAL CERTIFICATE DATED

21.12.2022 ISSUED BY DR. SIVA PRAKASH, NEW

MEDICAL CENTRE, LLC, DUBAI.

EXT.R7(K) TRUE COPY OF THE PROGRESS REPORT ISSUED BY

FUTURE REHABILITATION CENRE.

EXT.R7(C) TRUE COPY OF THE LETTER SENT BY THE PETITIONER

TO THE EMPLOYER OF THE SEVENTH RESPONDENT.

PETITIONER'S EXHIBITS:

EXHIBIT P 44 A TRUE COPY OF THE EMAILS DATED 18/12/2022,

ISSUED BY THE PETITIONER TO THE RESPONDENT

NO.7.

EXHIBIT P 45 A TRUE COPY OF THE REPLY EMAIL DATED

20/12/2022 ISSUED BY THE PETITIONER TO THE

RESPONDENT NO.7.

EXHIBIT P 46 A TRUE COPY OF THE EMAILS DATED 31/12/2022,

ISSUED BY THE PETITIONER TO THE RESPONDENT

NO.7

EXHIBIT P 47 .A TRUE COPY OF THE EMAILS DATED 07/01/2023,

ISSUED BY THE PETITIONER TO THE RESPONDENT

NO.7

EXHIBIT P 48 A TRUE COPY OF THE EMAILS DATED 08/01/2023,

ISSUED BY THE PETITIONER TO THE RESPONDENT

NO.7.

EXHIBIT P 49 A TRUE COPY OF THE EMAILS DATED 14/01/2023,

ISSUED BY THE PETITIONER TO THE RESPONDENT

NO.7.

2023:KER:80740

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APPENDIX OF WP(CRL.) 1206/2022

EXHIBIT P50 A TRUE COPY OF THE SCREEN SHOTS OF THE

NOTIFICATIONS RECEIVED BY THE PETITIONER IN

HER MOBILE THOUGHT 'ALHOSH APP' BETWEEN

22.01.2021 TO 08.06.2021 TO 14.10.2021.

RELATING TO COVID 19 TEST RESULT

EXHIBIT P51 A TRUE COPY OF THE SCREEN SHOTS OF THE

NOTIFICATIONS RECEIVED BY THE PETITIONER IN

HER MOBILE THOUGHT 'ALHOSH APP' BETWEEN

12.06.2021 TO 14.10.2021 RELATING TO COVID 19

TEST RESULT.

RESPONDENTS' ANNEXURES:

ANNEXURE R2(A) THE RECORDS OF THE MEETING DATE AND TIME.

PETITIONER'S EXHIBITS:

EXHIBIT P52 A TRUE COPY OF THE APPLICATION CRL M.P NO.

94025/2023 IN SLP (CRL) NO. 2205 OF 2023

BEFORE THE HON'BLE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA.

EXHIBIT P53 A TRUE COPY OF THE EMAIL DATED 08/05/2023 SENT

BY THE COUNSEL FOR THE APPLICANT TO THE

HON'BLE SUPREME COURT.

EXHIBIT P54 A TRUE COPY OF THE ORDER DATED 10/05/2023 IN

APPEAL (CRL.) NO.2205/2023 PASSED BY THE

HON'BLE SUPREME COURT.

RESPONDENTS' EXHIBITS:

EXHIBIT R7(L) TRUE COPY OF THE RECENT PROGRESS REPORT DATED

20.06.2023 ISSUED BY THE FUTURE REHABILITATION

CENTRE, ABU DHABI.

PETITIONER'S EXHIBITS:

EXHIBIT P55 A TRUE COPY OF THE PRIVATE COMPLAINT CMP NO.

2158 OF 2023 BEFORE THE JUDICIAL FIRST CLASS

MAGISTRATE COURT, ERNAKULAM.

EXHIBIT P56 A TRUE COPY OF THE FIR NO. 1261 OF 2023 OF

PALARIVATTOM POLICE STATION REGISTERED AGAINST

THE RESPONDENT NO.7.

2023:KER:80740

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APPENDIX OF WP(CRL.) 1206/2022

RESPONDENTS' EXHIBITS:

EXT.R7(M) PHOTOGRAPHS OF THE VIDEO CONFERENCE OF SEVERAL

DAYS.

EXT. R7(N) TRUE COPY OF THE RECENT PROGRESS REPORT DATED

20.06.2023 ISSUED BY THE FUTURE REHABILITATION

CENTRE.

EXT. R7 (O) TRUE COPY OF THE RELEVANT PAGES OF THE

AFFIDAVIT DATED 10.05.2023 FILED BY THE POWER

OF ATTORNEY HOLDER OF THE PETITIONER

PETITIONER'S EXHIBITS:

EXHIBIT P57 A TRUE COPY OF THE INTERIM ORDER DATED

17/02/2023 IN SLP (CRL) NO. 2205/2023 BEFORE

THE HON'BLE SUPREME COURT.

EXHIBIT P58 A TRUE COPY OF THE ASSESSMENT REPORT DATED

16/03/2023, SUBMITTED BY THE CLINICAL

PSYCHOLOGIST AT ST. JOSEPH'S HOSPITAL,

ERNAKULAM.

RESPONDENTS' ANNEXURES:

ANNEXURE R2(B) A TRUE COPY OF THE E-MAIL COMMUNICATION DATED

02.08.2023 RECEIVED FROM THE SECOND SECRETARY,

COMMUNITY AFFAIRS, PRESS, INFORMATION.

PETITIONER'S EXHIBITS:

EXHIBIT P59 A TRUE COPY OF THE ORDER DATED 05/07/1442H

CORRESPONDING TO 17/02/2021 ISSUED BY THE ABU

DHABI COURT FOR FAMILY, CIVIL AND

ADMINISTRATIVE LAW SUITS/ PERSONAL STATUS

DEPARTMENT-2 IN FILE NO. 383 OF 2021 ALONG

WITH ENGLISH TRANSLATION.

EXHIBIT P60 A TRUE COPY OF THE TAX INVOICE NO. INV-OUT/301

DATED 31/12/2020 ISSUED BY ABDUL RAHIM AL

ZAROONI REAL ESTATE LLC TO THE RESPONDENT

NO.7.

2023:KER:80740

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APPENDIX OF WP(CRL.) 1206/2022

EXHIBIT P61 A TRUE COPY OF THE CHEQUE DATED 14/01/2021 AND

3/03/2021 ISSUED BY RESPONDENT NO.7 DRAWN ON

EMIRATES ISLAMIC BANK IN FAVOUR OF ABDUL RAHIM

AL ZAROONI REAL ESTATE LLC.

EXHIBIT P62 A TRUE COPY OF RECEIPT NO. RV000104-AZ-2020

DATED 31/12/2020 ISSUED BY ABDUL RAHIM AL

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Application U/s 216 Cr.P.C. on behalf of the prosecution is maintainable in the eye of law.....


1
A.F.R.
Neutral Citation No. - 2023:AHC:242512
Reserved on 07.08.2023
Delivered on 22.12.2023
Court No. - 90
Case :- APPLICATION U/S 482 No. - 17003 of 2023
Applicant :- Om Prakash @ Jani
Opposite Party :- State of U.P.
Counsel for Applicant :- Chandrakesh Mishra,Abhishek
Kumar Mishra,Sr. Advocate
Counsel for Opposite Party :- G.A.,Raj Kumar Kesari
Hon'ble Dinesh Pathak,J.
1. Heard Sri Daya Shankar Mishra, learned Senior Counsel
assisted by Sri Abhishek Kumar Mishra, learned counsel for
applicant and Sri Raj Kumar Kesari learned counsel for
opposite party No.2 as well as learned AGA for the State.
2. Learned counsel for opposite party No.2 has refused to
file any counter affidavit in the instant matter, therefore, present
application is being decided on merits with the consent of
learned counsel for the parties.
3. The applicant has invoked the inherent jurisdiction of this
Court under Section 482 Cr.P.C. assailing the order dated
23.11.2022 passed by Additional District & Sessions Judge,
Court No.3, Varanasi in Sessions Trial No. 651 of 2020 arising
out of Case Crime No. 300 of 2005, under Sections 372, 373
I.P.C. and Sections 3, 4, 5, 6, 9 of Immoral Traffic (Prevention)
Act, 1956, Police Station Manduwadih, District Varanasi.
4. An FIR, being Case Crime No. 300 of 2005, under
Sections 373, 373 I.P.C. and under Sections 3, 4, 5, 6, and 9 of
2
Immoral Traffick (Prevention) Act, 1956 has been lodged by the
Police Inspector. Some young girls have been recovered from
two different places. Charge sheet has been submitted against
two accused persons, however, present applicant was neither
named in the FIR nor arraigned in the charge sheet as an
accused. Ultimately, Sessions Trial No. 161 of 2006 was
concluded convicting both accused and the same was affirmed
by this Court in Crl. Appeal No. 5583 of 2016 vide order dated
05.08.2019. During this period an application dated 22.06.2010
(Annexure-2) has been moved under Section 319 Cr.P.C. to call
upon the eight persons including present applicant as an
accused for trial together with other co-accused. The said
application was rejected by the trial court vide order dated
24.05.2021. High Court, on application being filed under
Section 482 Cr.P.C. No. 29267 of 2011, has relegated the parties
before the trial court with a direction to reconsider the
application under Section 319 Cr.P.C., vide order dated
14.09.2011. Learned trial court, after remand, has passed the
order dated 07.01.2012 with a direction that the matter may be
reinvestigated under Section 173(8) Cr.P.C. In pursuance
thereof, after due investigation, Investigating Officer has
submitted the supplementary charge sheet dated 17.07.2020
(Annexure No.22) arraigning the present applicant under
Sections 3, 4, 5, 6 and 9 of Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act,
1956 and under sections 372 and 373 I.P.C. Considering the
supplementary charge sheet dated 17.07.2020, learned trial
court has framed the charges against the present applicant vide
order dated 20.10.2020 (Annexure No.15). At later stage,
prosecution has moved an application dated 12.03.2021 (Paper
No.10 Kha) (Annexure-20) beseeching frame one additional
3
charge under Section 376 I.P.C. against the present applicant.
Learned trial court, vide order impugned dated 23.11.2022
(Anneuxre-21), has allowed the aforesaid application (Paper
No.10 Kha) and fix next date 18.12.2022 for framing of
additional charge against the present applicant. On the pointed
query raised to the learned counsel for the parties they have
stated that till date charge has not been framed under Section
376 I.P.C. Having been aggrieved, with order dated
23.11.2022, allowing the application (Paper No.10 Kha),
applicant (accused) has invoked the inherent jurisdiction of this
Court by moving the present application.
5. Learned counsel for the applicant has advanced three fold
submissions before this Court. First relating to the
maintainability of the application dated 12.03.2021 (Paper
No.10 Kha) on the ground that the prosecution or any other
interested persons have no locus standi to move any application
before the court concerned for alteration or addition of charges
under Section 216 Cr.P.C. In support of this submission, learned
counsel for the applicant placed reliance upon the judgment of
Hon'ble Supreme Court in the case of P. Kartiklakshmi Vs. Sri
Ganesh and Another reported in (2017) 3 SCC 347, Sushil
Dhameja and Another Vs. State of U.P. and Another decided
by co-ordinate Bench of this Court vide order dated
18.04.2023 passed in Application U/s 482 Cr.P.C. No. 12344 of
2023 and Kuldeep Vs. State of U.P. decided by co-ordinate
Bench of this Court reported in 2019 2 ACR 1947. He has
placed reliance as well upon the judgment of Madras High
Court in the case of Krishnammal Vs. The Revenue Divisional
Officer and others reported in (2008) 0 CrLJ2845. Second
submission raised by learned counsel for applicant is that no
4
additional material is available on record to frame additional
charge indicting the present applicant under Section 376 I.P.C.
Thirdly, learned counsel for the applicant has tried to challenge
the sanctity and genuineness of statement made by victim u/s
161 Cr.P.C. during re-investigation and submits that the
statement of victim under Section 161 Cr.P.C. as referred in the
order dated 23.11.2022 was not recorded, in accordance with
law, during re-investigation. It is further submitted that from
perusal of the record, prima facie, it appears that alleged
statement of victim was got recorded by some lady Constable
namely, Poonam Verma. It was not recorded by Investigating
Officer, therefore, same cannot be treated to be part of the reinvestigation. It is next submitted that under Section 13(2) of
Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956, the Special Police
Officer shall not be below the rank of an Inspector of Police,
whereas instant matter statement was get recorded by the police
constable which has got no sanctity in the eye of law. In support
of his submission learned counsel for applicant has cited the
case of Delhi Administration Vs. Ram Singh 1962 0 AIR (SC)
63. It is further submitted that learned trial court has illegally
made an observation in its order dated 23.11.2022 that the
victim in her statement recorded under Section 161 Cr.P.C. has
made allegations of rape against the present applicant.
However, in her initial statement recorded under Section 164
Cr.P.C. no such allegation was made by the victim against the
present applicant. Lastly, it is submitted that the order dated
23.11.2022 passed by learned trial court is liable to be quashed
being illegal, unwarranted under the law and tainted with
irregularities.
5
6. Per contra, learned counsel for the respondent no. 2 has
contended that in present application, applicant has not
challenged the entire criminal proceeding except an order
impugned dated 23.11.2022 by which application (Paper No.
10Kha) has been allowed for the purposes of indicting the
accused under Section 376 I.P.C. It is further contended that the
application (Paper No. 10Kha) cannot be treated to be an
independent application rather it is a piece of information given
to the court concerned for the irregularity in the proceedings
wherein statement under Section 161 Cr.P.C. has not properly
been appraised by the the Court concerned, consequently
offence under Section 376 I.P.C. has been left out to be
considered. It is further contended that the victim/ prosecutrix
being a lady has to be examined by the lady officer, therefore,
her statement has rightly been recorded by lady constable
namely, Poonam Verma on the instructions of the Investigating
Officer. Learned counsel for the respondent has drawn attention
of the Court towards the second proviso to sub-section 3 of
Section 161 Cr.P.C. wherein lady police officer has been
entrusted to record the statement of a woman against whom
offence under several sections of I.P.C. including Section 376
I.P.C. has been committed. He has also placed reliance on the
provisions as enunciated under Section 15, sub-Section 6-A, of
the Immoral Traffic Act wherein victim is required to be
interrogated by the woman police officer. Lastly it is contended
that learned trial court has rightly passed order impugned dated
23.11.2022, which does not warrant any indulgence of this
Court in exercise of inherent jurisdiction under Section 482
Cr.P.C., therefore, the instant application is liable to be rejected
being misconceived and devoid of merits. 
6
7. In reply, learned counsel for the applicant submits that the
copy of statement of victim under section 161 Cr.P.C., as
referred in the order impugned, has not been supplied/given to
the present applicant (accused), therefore, he was not in a
position to go through the aforesaid statement. He has further
submitted that it appears that alleged statement under Section
161 Cr.P.C. dated 05.02.2020, as referred by the respondents in
his impleadment application has been planted subsequently for
the purpose of framing additional charge u/s 376 I.P.C. It is
further submitted that for the purposes of investigation under
the Immoral Traffic Act a Special Police Officer not below the
rank of Inspector of Police is authorised to investigate or record
the statement of the victim, therefore, in the instant matter
statement recorded by the concerned lady constable vitiates the
process of the entire statement under Section 161 Cr.P.C.
8. Having considered the rival submissions advanced by
learned counsel for parties and perusal of record, it manifested
that the name of the present applicant was emerged during reinvestigation under Section 173(8) Cr.P.C. and he has been
arraigned in the supplementary charge sheet dated 17.07.2020.
During re-investigation victim has made her statement under
Section 161 Cr.P.C. which is evident from the copy of the
supplementary charge sheet (Annexure No.5) wherein name of
victim has find placed at serial No.2. Having considered the
material on record filed along with the subsequent charge sheet
dated 17.07.2020, learned trial court has framed as many as
seven charges, vide order dated 20.10.2020, against the present
applicant. At later stage, prosecution has moved a miscellaneous
application to frame additional charge under Section 376 I.P.C.
inasmuch as same has been left to be considered whereas
7
specific allegations has been made by the victim in her
statement under Section 161 Cr.P.C. in this regard.
9. Learned counsel for the applicant in his first submission
has raised question qua maintainability of the application (Paper
No.10 Kha) moved on behalf of the prosecution with a
submission that there is no provision under the law to move
such application before the trial court who himself competent to
subtract or addition of charges in exercise of power under
Section 216 Cr.P.C. On the contrary learned counsel for
opposite party No.2 has contended that application (Paper No.
10 Kha) under Section 216 Cr.P.C. moved by the prosecution
was nothing but a piece of information to bring the relevant fact
in the notice of learned trial court, which has been over cited by
the concerned court, to eliminate defect in framing of the
charge.
10. For analyzing the divergent submissions made by the
counsel for the rival parties it would be befitting to consider the
scope of Section 216 Cr.P.C., which is quoted herein below :-
"(1) Any Court may alter or add to any charge at any time
before judgment is pronounced.
(2) Every such alteration or addition shall be read and
explained to the accused.
(3) If the alteration or addition to a charge is such that
proceeding immediately with the trial is not likely, in the
opinion of the Court, to prejudice the accused in his defence or
the prosecutor in the conduct of the case, the Court may, in its
discretion, after such alteration or addition has been made,
proceed with the trial as if the altered or added charge had
been the original charge.
(4) If the alteration or addition is such that proceeding
immediately with the trial is likely, in the opinion of the Court,
to prejudice the accused or the prosecutor as aforesaid, the
Court may either direct a new trial or adjourn the trial for
such period as may be necessary. 
8
(5) If the offence stated in the altered or added charge is one
for the prosecution of which previous sanction is necessary,
the case shall not be proceeded with until such sanction is
obtained, unless sanction had been already obtained for a
prosecution on the same facts as those on which the altered or
added charge is founded."
11. Bare perusal of Section 216 Cr.P.C. clearly denotes that
the court is empowered to alter charges at any stage of trial
before the delivery of judgment. Question with respect to the
maintainability of miscellaneous application (Paper No. Kha)
moved by prosecution or any other party for framing of
additional charges under Section 216 Cr.P.C. is relevant for the
purposes of deciding the instant matter. In the case of P.
Kartikalakshmi (Supra) Hon'ble Supreme Court has
expounded that there is no right to any party to seek for a
subtraction or addition of charges by filing any miscellaneous
application as a matter of right. The relevant paragraph Nos. 6
and 7 of the judgment is quoted herein below :-
"6. Having heard the learned counsel for the respective
parties, we find force in the submission of the learned Senior
Counsel for Respondent No.1. Section 216 Cr.P.C. empowers
the Court to alter or add any charge at any time before the
judgment is pronounced. It is now well settled that the power
vested in the Court is exclusive to the Court and there is no
right in any party to seek for such addition or alteration by
filing any application as a matter of right. It may be that if
there was an omission in the framing of the charge and if it
comes to the knowledge of the Court trying the offence, the
power is always vested in the Court, as provided under Section
216 Cr.P.C. to either alter or add the charge and that such
power is available with the Court at any time before the
judgment is pronounced. It is an enabling provision for the
Court to exercise its power under certain contingencies which
comes to its notice or brought to its notice. In such a situation,
if it comes to the knowledge of the Court that a necessity has
arisen for the charge to be altered or added, it may do so on
its own and no order need to be passed for that purpose. After
such alteration or addition when the final decision is rendered,
it will be open for the parties to work out their remedies in
accordance with law.
9
7. We were taken through Sections 221 and 222 Cr.P.C. in this
context. In the light of the facts involved in this case, we are
only concerned with Section 216 Cr.P.C. We, therefore, do not
propose to examine the implications of the other provisions to
the case on hand. We wish to confine ourselves to the
invocation of Section 216 and rest with that. In the light of our
conclusion that the power of invocation of Section 216 Cr.P.C.
is exclusively confined with the Court as an enabling provision
for the purpose of alteration or addition of any charge at any
time before pronouncement of the judgment, we make it clear
that no party neither de facto complainant nor the accused or
for that matter the prosecution has any vested right to seek any
addition or alteration of charge, because it is not provided
under Section 216 Cr.P.C. If such a course to be adopted by
the parties is allowed, then it will be well-nigh impossible for
the criminal court to conclude its proceedings and the concept
of speedy trial will get jeopardised."
12. Hon'ble Supreme Court has further clarified in the case of
Anant Prakash Sinha @ Anant Sinha Vs. State of Haryana
and Another (2016) 6 SCC 105 that it is obligatory at the part
of the court to see that no prejudiced cause to the accused and
he is allowed to have a fair trial and court can change or alter
the charges if there is no defect or something is left out.
Relevant paragraph No.18 of the aforesaid judgment is quoted
herein below :-
"8. The controversy as raised rests on two aspects. The first
aspect that has emanated for consideration is whether without
evidence being adduced another charge could be added. In
this context, we may usefully refer to Section 216 CrPC which
reads as follows:-
"216. Court may alter charge.— (1) Any court may alter or
add to any charge at any time before judgment is pronounced.
(2) Every such alteration or addition shall be read and
explained to the accused.
(3) If the alteration or addition to a charge is such that
proceeding immediately with the trial is not likely, in the
opinion of the court, to prejudice the accused in his defence or
the prosecutor in the conduct of the case, the court may, in its
discretion, after such alteration or addition has been made,
proceed with the trial as if the altered or added charge had
been the original charge. 
10
(4) If the alteration or addition is such that proceeding
immediately with the trial is likely, in the opinion of the court,
to prejudice the accused or the prosecutor as aforesaid, the
court may either direct a new trial or adjourn the trial for such
period as may be necessary. (5) If the offence stated in the
altered or added charge is one for the prosecution of which
previous sanction is necessary, the case shall not be proceeded
with until such sanction is obtained, unless sanction has been
already obtained for a prosecution on the same facts as those
on which the altered or added charge is founded."
13. In the aforesaid judgment Hon'ble Supreme Court has
also examined the maintainability of the application moved by
the private party for alteration of charge. Parting with the matter
Hon'ble Supreme Court has expounded that by way of
application relevant fact has brought to the knowledge of
learned Magistrate about the defect in framing the charges,
therefore, Magistrate has not committed any error in
entertaining the said application. Relevant paragraph Nos. 21
and 22 of the aforesaid judgment is quoted herein below :-
"21. Presently to the second aspect. Submission of Mr. Sharan
is that the learned Magistrate could not have entertained the
application preferred by the informant, for such an application
is incompetent because it has to be filed by the public
prosecutor. In this regard, he has laid stress on the decision in
Shiv Kumar v. Jukam Chand and another23. In the said case,
the grievance of the appellant was that counsel engaged by
him was not allowed by the High Court to conduct the
prosecution in spite of obtaining a consent from the concerned
Public Prosecutor. The trial court had passed an order to the
extent that the advocate engaged by the informant shall
conduct the case under the supervision, guidance and control
of the Public Prosecutor. He had further directed that the
Public Prosecutor shall retain with himself the control over the
proceedings. The said order was challenged before the High
Court and the learned single Judge allowing the revision had
directed that the lawyer appointed by the complainant or
private person shall act under the directions from the Public
Prosecutor and may with the permission of the court submit
written arguments after evidence is closed and the Public
Prosecutor in-charge of the case shall conduct the
prosecution. This Court referred to Sections 301, 302(2), 225
CrPC and various other provisions and came to hold as
follows:- "
11
"13. From the scheme of the Code the legislative
intention is manifestly clear that prosecution in a
Sessions Court cannot be conducted by anyone
other than the Public Prosecutor. The legislature
reminds the State that the policy must strictly
conform to fairness in the trial of an accused in a
Sessions Court. A Public Prosecutor is not
expected to show a thirst to reach the case in the
conviction of the accused somehow or the other
irrespective of the true facts involved in the case.
The expected attitude of the Public Prosecutor
while conducting prosecution must be couched in
fairness not only to the court and to the
investigating agencies but to the accused as well.
If an accused is entitled to any legitimate benefit
during trial the Public Prosecutor should not
scuttle/conceal it. On the contrary, it is the duty of
the Public Prosecutor to winch it to the fore and
make it available to the accused. Even if the
defence counsel overlooked it, the Public
Prosecutor has the added responsibility to bring it
to the notice of the court if it comes to his
knowledge. A private counsel, if allowed a free
hand to conduct prosecution would focus on
bringing the case to conviction even if it is not a fit
case to be so convicted. That is the reason why
Parliament applied a bridle on him and subjected
his role strictly to the instructions given by the
Public Prosecutor.
14. It is not merely an overall supervision which
the Public Prosecutor is expected to perform in
such cases when a privately engaged counsel is
permitted to act on his behalf. The role which a
private counsel in such a situation can play is,
perhaps, comparable with that of a junior
advocate conducting the case of his senior in a
court. The private counsel is to act on behalf of the
Public Prosecutor albeit the fact that he is
engaged in the case by a private party. If the role
of the Public Prosecutor is allowed to shrink to a
mere supervisory role the trial would become a
combat between the private party and the accused
which would render the legislative mandate in
Section 225 of the Code a dead letter."
22. Being of this view, this Court upheld the order passed by
the High Court. The said decision in Shiv Kumar v. Jukam
Chand and another23 is, in our opinion, is distinguishable on
facts. The instant case does not pertain to trial or any area by
which a private lawyer takes control of the proceedings. As is
evident, an application was filed by the informant to add a
charge under Section 406 IPC as there were allegations
12
against the husband about the criminal breach of trust as far
as her stridhan is concerned. It was, in a way, bringing to the
notice of the learned Magistrate about the defect in framing of
the charge. The court could have done it suo motu. In such a
situation, we do not find any fault on the part of learned
Magistrate in entertaining the said application. It may be
stated that the learned Magistrate has referred to the materials
and recorded his prima facie satisfaction. There is no error in
the said prima facie view. We also do not perceive any error in
the revisional order by which it has set aside the charge
framed against the mother-in-law. Accordingly, we affirm the
order of the High Court in expressing its disinclination to
interfere with the order passed in revision. We may clarify that
the entire scrutiny is only for the purpose of framing of charge
and nothing else. The learned Magistrate will proceed with the
trial and decide the matter as per the evidence brought on
record and shall not be influenced by any observations made
as the same have to be restricted for the purpose of testing the
legal defensibility of the impugned order."
14. Discussing the wide power of the trial court under
Section 216 Cr.P.C. Hon'ble Supreme Court has held in the
matter of Dr. Nallapareddy Sridhar Reddy Vs. State of
Andhra Pradesh and Others (2020) 12 SCC 467, that the
court has immense power to change or altering the charges at
any stage. The relevant paragraph No.21 of the aforesaid
judgment is quoted herein below :-
"21. From the above line of precedents, it is clear that Section
216 provides the court an exclusive and wide-ranging power
to change or alter any charge. The use of the words "at any
time before judgment is pronounced" in Sub-Section (1)
empowers the court to exercise its powers of altering or
adding charges even after the completion of evidence,
arguments and reserving of the judgment. The alteration or
addition of a charge may be done if in the opinion of the court
there was an omission in the framing of charge or if upon
prima facie examination of the material brought on record, it
leads the court to form a presumptive opinion as to the
existence of the factual ingredients constituting the alleged
offence. The test to be adopted by the court while deciding
upon an addition or alteration of a charge is that the material
brought on record needs to have a direct link or nexus with the
ingredients of the alleged offence. Addition of a charge merely
commences the trial for the additional charges, whereupon,
based on the evidence, it is to be determined whether the
accused may be convicted for the additional charges. The
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court must exercise its powers under Section 216 judiciously
and ensure that no prejudice is caused to the accused and that
he is allowed to have a fair trial. The only constraint on the
court's power is the prejudice likely to be caused to the
accused by the addition or alteration of charges. Sub-Section
(4) accordingly prescribes the approach to be adopted by the
courts where prejudice may be caused."
15. Learned counsel for the applicant has emphasized the
judgment passed by coordinate Bench of this Court in the
matter of Sushil Dhameja and Another (Supra) wherein this
Court has quashed order passed by the trial court by which
miscellaneous application u/s 216 Cr.P.C. moved on behalf of
the prosecution has been entertained and allowed. While
passing the order, coordinate Bench of this Court has referred
the dictum of Hon'ble Supreme Court in the matter of P.
Kartikalakshmi (Supra) and in the light of the said judgment
quashed the order passed by the court below and granted liberty
to the trial court to pass fresh order in the light of the provisions
as enunciated under Section 216 Cr.P.C. Learned counsel for
applicant has also placed reliance upon the case of Kuldeep
(Supra) decided by coordinate Bench of this Court. The facts of
the cited case are distinguishable in the given circumstances of
the present case. In the cited case application to alter the
charges was moved on 30.01.2018 under Section 216 Cr.P.C.
and the same was kept pending which lead to file an application
under Section 482 Cr.P.C. for a direction to expeditious disposal
of the said application. Hon'ble Judge has dismissed the
application with an observation that separate application under
Section 216 Cr.P.C. for substraction or addition of charges is not
maintainable in the eye of law, accordingly, refused to issue
direction for expeditious disposal of said application. In the
recent judgment of Soundarajan Vs. State Rep. by Inspector
of Vigilance Anti Corruption Dindigul, 2023 SCC Online SC
14
242. Hon'ble Supreme Court has expounded that even a public
prosecutor has a duty to be vigilant and if a proper charge is not
framed it is his duty to apply to the court to frame an
appropriate charge. Relevant paragraph No.16 of the said
judgment is quoted herein below :-
"We find that, in this case, the charge has been framed very
casually. The Trial Courts ought to be very meticulous
Criminal Appeal No.1592 of 2022 when it comes to the
framing of charges. In a given case, any such error or
omission may lead to acquittal and/or a long delay in trial
due to an order of remand which can be passed under subsection (2) of Section 464 of CrPC. Apart from the duty of the
Trial Court, even the public prosecutor has a duty to be
vigilant, and if a proper charge is not framed, it is his duty to
apply to the Court to frame an appropriate charge."
16. Having considered the matter in hand, in light of the
guidelines of Hon'ble Supreme Court as discussed above, I am
of the considered opinion that learned trial court has rightly
entertained the Misc. Application (Paper No.10Kha) as a piece
of information moved on behalf of prosecution. While deciding
the said application, learned trial court has specifically
considered the allegation of forceful sexual assault made by
victim which was left to be noticed at the time of framing
charges. In her statement u/s 161 Cr.P.C. she has made specific
allegation, as highlighted by learned trial court, of rape.
Statement of victim under Section 161 Cr.P.C. was recorded by
the Investigating Officer during re-investigation under Section
173(8) Cr.P.C. The right of accused to have a fair trial and no
prejudiced beget to him while conducting the trial is an
obligatory at the part of the court, however, said right of the
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accused cannot be seen in isolation and same would be
considered in conjunction with the provisions as enunciated
under Section 216 Cr.P.C., Therefore, any defect in framing
charges which begot due to lack of proper consideration of the
material on record can be rectified at any stage of trial even
before the delivery of judgment in exercise of power under
Section 216 Cr.P.C. It might possible that court misled in
framing of charges, the Public Prosecutor has a duty to be
vigilant and apprise the court qua correct facts of the case in the
light of the material on record and, accordingly, take an
appropriate steps for substraction or addition of charges under
the provisions of law as enunciated under Section 216 Cr.P.C. In
this respect Hon'ble Supreme Court has clearly held in the
matter Soundarajan (Supra) that the Public Prosecutor is
entrusted with duty to apprise the court qua defect, if any, in
framing charges. In the matter in hand, ADGC (Public
Prosecutor) has moved application dated 15.03.2021 (Paper
No.10Kha) to frame additional charge under Section 376 I.P.C.
against the present applicant. Learned trial court, vide order
impugned dated 10.11.2022, has entertained the said application
as a piece of information and acknowledg the defect in framing
of charges, wherein allegation of rape made by the victim under
Section 161 Cr.P.C. has been left to be considered. Learned trial
court by order impugned has simply allowed the application and
deferred the hearing of the case for the next date to frame
additional charge and, accordingly, accused has been directed to
be present on the next date. It is admitted position to both the
parties that till date additional charge under Section 376 I.P.C.
has not been framed by the trial court in pursuance of the order
impugned dated 23.11.2022.
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17. As discussed above, there is no iota of doubt qua wide
power of the courts for substraction or addition of charges under
Section 216 Cr.P.C. Miscellaneous application dated 12.3.2021
(Paper no.10Kha) moved on behalf of the prosecution cannot be
treated to be an independent initiation rather than a piece of
information which is pious duty of the prosecution (Public
Prosecutor) to bring the correct fact to the notice of the court
concerned so that correct charges could be framed for the
purposes of fair trial sans begetting prejudiced to any party.
Even assuming for the sake of argument, as raised by learned
counsel for the applicant, that no party has vested right to seek
any addition or alteration of charge by moving an application,
the power vested in the court would not be affected owing to
entertaining such application as a piece of information to alter
the charges, in case, there is any omission or defect in framing
of charges due to ignorance of the relevant event which is
already on the record. Once the defect has been brought to the
knowledge of the court it would not be befitting for him
oblivious to the allegation as levelled by the victim against the
present applicant. Even otherwise, having considered the
material on record learned court is competent enough to pass an
order suo moto to substract or addition of the charges.
Therefore, in my considered opinion learned trial court has not
committed any error in entertaining the application (Paper
No.10Kha) and fixed dated for framing of charge in the light of
the fact which has been brought to his knowledge in the said
application.
18. Second submission raised by learned counsel for the
applicant questioning the availability of inadequate material for
framing of additional charge u/s 376 I.P.C. is unfounded at this
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stage. Statement of victim u/s 161 Cr.P.C., priam facie, is
suficient to alter the charges in exercise of jurisdiction u/s 216
Cr.P.C. Trial court by order impugned has simply allowed the
application acknowledging the relevant fact for the purposes of
framing of charge, however, he has deferred the matter for
framing of charge on the next date fixed. Therefore, in may
opinion opportunity is still open for the applicant to raise
question qua adequate material on record with respect to the
framing of additional charge, if any.
19. Third submission raised by learned counsel for the
applicant questioning the genuineness and sanctity of the
statement dated 05.02.2020 made by victim under Section 161
Cr.P.C. is unfounded as well. At this juncture, wherein trial
commenced after framing of charges vide order dated
20.10.2020 and, at later stage, next date fixed for addition of
charge under Section 376 I.P.C. it would not be befitting for this
Court to examine the sanctity, genuineness and correctness of
the statement made by the victim under Section 161 Cr.P.C.
during reinvestigation, whereas same can be examined by the
trial court at the appropriate stage of trial. So far as the
allegation made by the applicant in his rejoinder affidavit that
the statement made by victim under Section 161 Cr.P.C. during
reinvestigation has not been supplied to him, same can be raised
before the trial court as well at the relevant stage. At this stage
of trial, for the procedural glitch, if any, this Court cannot
assume inherent jurisdiction to quash the proceedings.
Genuineness and sanctity of the statement made by victim
under Section 161 Cr.P.C. in the light of the provision as
enunciated under Section 13(2) Immoral Traffic (Prevention)
Act, 1956 and not recording her statement by the authority
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competent, as pointed out by learned counsel for the applicant,
is a matter of scrutiny which can more appropriately be
adjudicated upon by the trial court while examining the
relevance and admissibility of the evidence during trial. At this
juncture, this Court, in exercise of it’s inherent jurisdiction,
cannot assume the power to examine the correctness and
validity of the statement of witness under Section 161 Cr.P.C. in
the light of procedural glitch, if any, more particularly for want
of recording the statement by authority competent as allegedly
required under the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956.
20. In this conspectus, as above, I do not find any justifiable
ground to entertain the instant application at this juncture. There
is no illegality, perversity, ambiguity or infirmity in the order
under challenge. I found neither any abuse of process of court in
the order impugned dated 23.11.2022 nor is there any valid
ground to interfere in said order to secure the ends of justice.
There is nothing on record to demonstrate as to how present
applicant is prejudiced, or if there is any likelihood of causing
miscarriage of justice to him, owing to the order under
challenge by which application u/s 216 Cr.P.C. for framing
additional charge has simply been allowed acknowledging the
relevant fact which has been left to be considered at the time of
framing of charges.
21. Resultantly, instant application being, misconceived and
devoid of merits is dismissed with no order as to costs.
Order Date :- 22.12.2023
Md Faisal