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Monday, November 15, 2021

If a complaint was made in the name of the Company, it is necessary that a natural person represents such juristic person in the court and the court looks upon the natural person for all practical purposes. It is in this context that observations were made that the body corporate is a de jure complainant while the human being is a de facto complainant to represent the former in the court proceedings. Thus, no Magistrate could insist that the particular person whose statement was taken on oath alone can continue to represent the Company till the end of the proceedings. Not only that, even if there was initially no authority the Company can at any stage rectify that defect by sending a competent person.

REPORTABLE

 IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

 CRIMINAL APPEAL NO.1105 OF 2021

BHUPESH RATHOD … Appellant

Versus

DAYASHANKAR PRASAD CHAURASIA & ANR. …Respondents

J U D G M E N T

SANJAY KISHAN KAUL, J.

1. Dayashankar Chaurasia, the respondent issued eight (8) cheques of

Rs.20,000/- each totalling to Rs.1,60,000/- in favour of M/s. Bell

Marshall Telesystems Limited (for short ‘the Company’). The cheques

were drawn on HDFC Bank, Vasai (E) Branch, Mumbai. These cheques

were drawn on different dates but were presented together for payment

on 10.05.2006. All the cheques got dishonoured on account of “funds

insufficient” as per Bank Memos issued on 12.05.2006. On the cheques

being dishonoured, legal notices were issued by the beneficiary under

1

Section 138(b) of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (hereinafter

referred to as the ‘NI Act’) on 26.05.2006. The demand was, however

not met within fifteen (15) days of the receipt of the notice nor was any

reply sent which resulted in the complaint bearing No.160/SS/07 being

filed on 07.07.2006 by Mr. Bhupesh Rathod before the Special

Metropolitan Magistrate, Mumbai. The complaint was accompanied by a

Board Resolution of the Company dated 17.05.2006 authorising Mr.

Bhupesh Rathod to initiate legal action against the respondent on behalf

of the Company. On 24.12.2007, the Company filed an affidavit through

its Managing Director, i.e., Mr. Bhupesh Rathod, stating that it had

authorised him through the abovementioned Board Resolution to file a

complaint case against the respondent.

2. In view of the fact that much turns on the manner of description of

the complainant, we reproduce the description of the complainant as

under:

“Mr. Bhupesh M. Rathod

Managing Director of M/s. Bell

Marshall Telesystems Ltd.

Aged: 41 years, Occupation: Business

Having address at 1107, V Maker

Chamber, Nariman Point

Mumbai- 400021.”

2

3. The Board Resolution passed on 17.05.2006 is in the following

terms:

“RESOLVED THAT legal action be initiated against

Dayashankar Prasad Choursiya for the dishonour of chqs issued

by him and in discharge of this liabilities to the company and

Mr. Bhupesh Rathod/Sashikant Ganekar is hereby authorized to

appoint advocates, issues of notices through advocate, file

complaint, Verifications on Oath, appoint Constituent attorney

to file complaint in the court and attend all such affairs which

may be needed in the process of legal actions.”

For Bell Marshal Tele Systems LTD.

Sd/-

Dated: 17/05/2006

Director”

4. We reproduce the aforesaid as the competency and the manner of

filing of the complaint are the primary considerations debated before us.

5. The case made out in the complaint is that a sum of Rs.1,60,000/-

was advanced to the respondent by the Company and the cheques were

issued to repay the loan. The respondent took an objection that the

complaint was filed in the personal capacity of Mr. Bhupesh Rathod and

not on behalf of the Company. While on the other hand it was contended

by the appellant that the complaint was in the name of the Company and

in the cause title of the complaint he had described himself as the

Managing Director. The Company was a registered company under the

3

Companies Act, 1956. The registration certificate, however, was not

placed on record. On this aspect, it was the further submission of the

respondent that it is only in the aforesaid title description that the

complainant is described as the Managing Director of the Company but

in the body of the complaint it is not so mentioned.

6. The trial court acquitted the respondent on 12.03.2009 based on a

dual reasoning –

(a) there was no document except the promissory note signed by

the respondent to show that the loan was being granted; and

(b) the Board Resolution itself was not signed by the Board of

Directors (it may be stated that this was really a true copy of the

Board Resolution).

7. The appellant preferred an appeal before the High Court. The

High Court by the impugned order dated 03.08.2015 dismissed the

appeal.

8. It may be relevant to note that the High Court traversed many

paths while coming to this conclusion. In a nutshell the reasoning was:

(a) it could not be said that the complaint had been filed by a payee

or holder in due course as mandated under Section 142(a) of the NI

4

Act;

(b) the payee was the Company and a perusal of the complaint did

not show that the complaint was filed by the Company. It had been

filed by the appellant who had described himself as the Managing

Director of the Company only in the cause title of the complaint;

(c) probably a conscious choice was made to not file the complaint

in the name of the Company as it was unclear whether the

Company was authorised to advance loans.

9. We may note that the High Court did not give its imprimatur to the

entire reasoning of the trial court as it noticed that the demand notice was

sent on behalf of the Company. Thus, the Company was aware that the

complaint had to be filed by the Company itself. It was observed that the

aforesaid aspect was probably left vague on purpose by the Company and

therefore, it was opined that the complaint had not been filed by the

payee in terms of Section 142 of the NI Act.

Complainant’s/Appellant’s submissions:

10. The appellant contended before us that it was quite apparent from

the cause title of the complaint which is an integral part of the complaint,

5

that the same had been filed on behalf of the Company. It was further

contended that this was the reason that the Board Resolution authorising

the Managing Director to file a complaint for dishonour of the cheques

was annexed. The address given was of the Company, which was the

registered office address. The affidavit filed in the cross-examination in

pursuance thereto left no manner of doubt that the complaint was filed as

the Managing Director of the Company.

11. It is the say of the appellant that there is a presumption under

Section 139 and 118 of the NI Act which was not rebutted by the

respondent. It was further contended that a duly signed cheque was

sufficient to raise a presumption under Section 139 of the NI Act against

the respondent as held in Triyambak S. Hegde v. Sripad1

. It was not the

say of the respondent in defence that the cheque was not signed by him

or was signed under any fraud or misrepresentation.

12. It was submitted that a very hyper technical view of the matter had

been taken and it only related to the format of the filing of the complaint

and not the substance. The trial court itself had accepted that the

complaint was filed on behalf of the Company as otherwise it would have

refused to take cognizance under Section 142(a) of the NI Act. The

1 Crl. Appeal Nos. 849­850/2011 decided on 23.09.2021.

6

respondent had not even challenged the summoning order on the ground

that the complaint is not filed on behalf of the Company.

Respondent’s submissions:

13. Learned counsel for the respondent, however, contended that the

appellant had failed to prove his case beyond reasonable doubt and the

complaint itself was not in a proper form. The complaint and the Board

Resolution did not lead to a conclusion that it was filed on behalf of the

Company. The Board Resolution was also not signed by the Directors of

the Company nor does it find that it authorises the complainant to file the

complaint.

14. The respondent also contended that no loan was advanced by the

Company nor has it been proved as to whose account the alleged loan

was advanced to. No loan agreement in favour of the Company was

placed on record.

Our View:

15. We have examined the submissions of the learned counsel for the

parties.

16. To decide the controversy the relevant Sections of the NI Act are

7

extracted as under:

“138. Dishonour of cheque for insufficiency, etc., of funds in

the account. — Where any cheque drawn by a person on an

account maintained by him with a banker for payment of any

amount of money to another person from out of that account for

the discharge, in whole or in part, of any debt or other liability,

is returned by the bank unpaid, either because of the amount of

money standing to the credit of that account is insufficient to

honour the cheque or that it exceeds the amount arranged to be

paid from that account by an agreement made with that bank,

such person shall be deemed to have committed an offence and

shall, without prejudice to any other provision of this Act, be

punished with imprisonment for [a term which may be

extended to two years], or with fine which may extend to twice

the amount of the cheque, or with both:

Provided that nothing contained in this section shall apply

unless--

(a) the cheque has been presented to the bank within a period of

six months from the date on which it is drawn or within the

period of its validity, whichever is earlier;

(b) the payee or the holder in due course of the cheque, as the

case may be, makes a demand for the payment of the said

amount of money by giving a notice; in writing, to the drawer

of the cheque, [within thirty days] of the receipt of information

by him from the bank regarding the return of the cheque as

unpaid; and

(c) the drawer of such cheque fails to make the payment of the

said amount of money to the payee or, as the case may be, to

the holder in due course of the cheque, within fifteen days of

the receipt of the said notice.”

.... .... .... .... ....

“139. Presumption in favour of holder.— It shall be

presumed, unless the contrary is proved, that the holder of a

8

cheque received the cheque of the nature referred to in section

138 for the discharge, in whole or in part, of any debt or other

liability.”

.... .... .... .... ....

“118. Presumptions as to negotiable instruments.— Until the

contrary is proved, the following presumptions shall be made:

(g) that holder is a holder in due course:— that the holder of a

negotiable instrument is a holder in due course : provided that,

where the instrument has been obtained from its lawful owner,

or from any person in lawful custody thereof, by means of an

offence or fraud, or has been obtained from the maker or

acceptor thereof by means of an offence or fraud, or for

unlawful consideration, the burden of proving that the holder is

a holder in due course lies upon him.”

.... .... .... .... ....

“142. Cognizance of offences.— Notwithstanding anything

contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974),

(a) no court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable

under section 138 except upon a complaint, in writing, made by

the payee or, as the case may be, the holder in due course of the

cheque;

(b) such complaint is made within one month of the date on

which the cause of action arises under clause (c) of the proviso

to section 138:

[Provided that the cognizance of a complaint may be taken by

the Court after the prescribed period, if the complainant

satisfies the Court that he had sufficient cause for not making a

complaint within such period;]

(c) no court inferior to that of a Metropolitan Magistrate or a

9

Judicial Magistrate of the first class shall try any offence

punishable under section 138.”

17. We must say at the inception that the respondent not having

disputed his signatures on the cheques, it was for the respondent to show

in what circumstances the cheques had been issued, i.e., why was it not a

cheque issued in due course. The words of Section 139 of the NI Act are

quite clear that unless the contrary is proved, it shall be presumed that the

holder of the cheque received the cheque of the nature referred to in

Section 138 for the discharge, in whole or in part, of any debt or other

liability. The respondent has not set up a case that the nature of

transaction was of the nature which fell beyond the scope of Section 138.

Other than taking a technical objection, really nothing has been said on

the substantive aspect.

18. The only eligibility criteria prescribed under Section 142(1)(a) is

that the complaint must be by the payee or the holder in due course.

19. In the conspectus of the aforesaid principles we have to deal with

the plea of the respondent that the complaint was not filed by the

competent complainant as it is the case that the loan was advanced by the

Company. As to what would be the governing principles in respect of a

10

corporate entity which seeks to file the complaint, an elucidation can be

found in the judgment of this Court in Associated Cement Co. Ltd. v.

Keshavanand2

. If a complaint was made in the name of the Company, it

is necessary that a natural person represents such juristic person in the

court and the court looks upon the natural person for all practical

purposes. It is in this context that observations were made that the body

corporate is a de jure complainant while the human being is a de facto

complainant to represent the former in the court proceedings. Thus, no

Magistrate could insist that the particular person whose statement was

taken on oath alone can continue to represent the Company till the end of

the proceedings. Not only that, even if there was initially no authority

the Company can at any stage rectify that defect by sending a competent

person.

20. The aforesaid judgment was also taken note of in a subsequent

judgment of this Court in M.M.TC Ltd. & Anr. v. Medchl Chemicals

and Pharma (P) Ltd. & Anr.3

.

21. We find that the judicial precedents cited aforesaid have been

breached by the Courts below. The High Court also embarked on a

2

(1998) 1 SCC 687.

3

(2002) 1 SCC 234.

11

discussion as to the vagueness of the identity of the complainant

and its relation with the legality of a loan which may be granted by

the Company, something that was not required to be gone into.

22. If we look at the format of the complaint which we have extracted

aforesaid, it is quite apparent that the Managing Director has filed the

complaint on behalf of the Company. There could be a format where the

Company’s name is described first, suing through the Managing Director

but there cannot be a fundamental defect merely because the name of the

Managing Director is stated first followed by the post held in the

Company.

23. It is also relevant to note that a copy of the Board Resolution was

filed along with the complaint. An affidavit had been brought on record

in the trial court by the Company, affirming to the factum of

authorisation in favour of the Managing Director. A Manager or a

Managing Director ordinarily by the very nomenclature can be taken to

be the person in-charge of the affairs Company for its day-to-day

management and within the activity would certainly be calling the act of

approaching the court either under civil law or criminal law for setting

12

the trial in motion.4

 It would be too technical a view to take to defeat the

complaint merely because the body of the complaint does not elaborate

upon the authorisation. The artificial person being the Company had to

act through a person/official, which logically would include the

Chairman or Managing Director. Only the existence of authorisation

could be verified.

24. While we turn to the authorisation in the present case, it was a

copy and, thus, does not have to be signed by the Board Members, as that

would form a part of the minutes of the Board meeting and not a true

copy of the authorisation. We also feel that it has been wrongly

concluded that the Managing Director was not authorised. If we peruse

the authorisation in the form of a certified copy of the Resolution, it

states that legal action has to be taken against the respondent for

dishonour of cheques issued by him to discharge his liabilities to the

Company. To this effect, Mr. Bhupesh Rathod/Sashikant Ganekar were

authorised to appoint advocates, issues notices through advocate, file

complaint, verifications on oath, appoint Constituent attorney to file

complaint in the court and attend all such affairs which may be needed in

the process of legal actions. What more could be said?

4 Credential Finance Ltd. v. State of Maharashtra 1998(3) Mh.L.J. 805.

13

25. The finding by the Courts below as to the lack of authorisation to

depose also, thus, stands nullified.

26. The description of the complainant with its full registered office

address is given at the inception itself except that the Managing

Director’s name appears first as acting on behalf of the Company. The

affidavit and the cross-examination in respect of the same during trial

supports the finding that the complaint had been filed by the Managing

Director on behalf of the Company. Thus, the format itself cannot be

said to be defective though it may not be perfect. The body of the

complaint need not be required to contain anything more in view of what

has been set out at the inception coupled with the copy of the Board

Resolution. There is no reason to otherwise annex a copy of the Board

Resolution if the complaint was not being filed by the appellant on behalf

of the Company.

27. In our view, one of the most material aspects is, as stated aforesaid,

that the signatures on the cheques were not denied. Neither was it

explained by way of an alternative story as to why the duly signed

cheques were handed over to the Company. There was no plea of any

fraud or misrepresentation. It does, thus, appear that faced with the

14

aforesaid position, the respondent only sought to take a technical plea

arising from the format of the complaint to evade his liability. There was

no requirement of a loan agreement to be executed separately as any

alternative nature of transaction was never stated.

Conclusion:

28. We are, thus, of the view that both the impugned orders of the trial

court and the High Court cannot be sustained and are required to be set

aside. The finding is, thus, reached that the complaint was properly

instituted and the respondent failed to disclose why he did not meet the

financial liability arising to a payee, who is a holder of a cheque in due

course.

29. We now turn to what would be the result of the aforesaid finding.

The complaint was instituted in July, 2006. Fifteen (15) years have

elapsed since then. The punishment prescribed for such an offence under

Section 138 of the NI Act is imprisonment for a term which may extend

to two years, or with fine which may extend to twice the amount of the

cheque, or with both. We are of the view that in the given scenario the

respondent should be sentenced with imprisonment for a term of one year

and with fine twice the amount of the cheque, i.e., Rs.3,20,000/-.

15

However, in view of passage of time, we provide that if the respondent

pays a further sum of Rs.1,60,000/- to the appellant, then the sentence

would stand suspended. The needful be done by the respondent within

two (2) months from today. The appellant would also be entitled to costs.

30. The appeal accordingly stands allowed in the aforesaid terms.

...……………………………J.

[Sanjay Kishan Kaul]

...……………………………J.

[M.M. Sundresh]

New Delhi.

November 10, 2021.

16

Arbitrator had committed an error in deciding the issue relating to 99 diamonds and one emerald ring for the 16 | P a g e following reasons. As has been rightly held by the High Court, the mandate for the Arbitrator is to decide whether said jewellery is stridhana property of the Respondent No. 1. A plain reading of the terms of reference No.(iii) would indicate the fact that the said jewellery being given to the Appellants in 1971 has been taken note of. Mere handing over of the jewellery to the Appellants in 1971, therefore, cannot be the reason for holding that the Appellants are entitled to retain the jewellery. The Arbitrator has concluded that 99 diamonds and one emerald ring, are in fact, stridhana property of Respondent No.1. That concludes point No.(iii) of the terms of reference. Point No.(iv) of the terms of reference relates to division of 99 diamonds and one emerald ring among 7 sharers only in case the Arbitrator comes to a conclusion that they are stridhana property. In the interim award, the Arbitrator heavily relied upon the award of 1971 and the fact of the 99 diamonds and one emerald ring being handed over to the Claimants, for the purpose of deciding that Respondent No. 1 is not entitled to claim the return of the said jewellery. The Arbitrator has committed a jurisdictional error by travelling beyond the terms of reference. Further, the Arbitrator has committed an error in permitting the Appellants to retain the jewellery. According to item No.(iv) of the terms of reference, the Arbitrator had to 17 | P a g e decide the entitlement of all the seven parties to equal shares in the event of finding that the jewellery is not stridhana property. Therefore, we approve the conclusion of the High Court by upholding the impugned judgment. The appeals are accordingly, dismissed.

 Non-Reportable

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

Civil Appeal Nos. 6657-6658 of 2021

(Arising out of SLP (C) Nos. 30737-30738 of 2018

Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju

& Anr. .... Appellant (s)

Versus

Pusapati Madhuri Gajapathi Raju

& Ors. ….Respondent(s)

W I T H

Civil Appeal Nos.6659-6660 of 2021

(Arising out of SLP (Civil) Nos. 12061-12062 of

2019)

 J U D G M E N T

L. NAGESWARA RAO, J.

Leave granted.

1. The Petition filed under Section 34 of the Arbitration and

Conciliation Act, 1996 (hereinafter referred to as “the Act”) by

Respondent No.1 was dismissed by the District Judge,

Vizianagaram and the interim award of the Arbitrator dated

26.05.2007 was upheld. The High Court partly allowed the

1 | P a g e

Appeals filed by the Respondents under Section 37 of the Act,

aggrieved by which the Appellants are before this Court.

2. Pusapati Vijayaram Gajapathi Raju succeeded to

Vizianagaram estate on 25.10.1937. He was married to Kusum

Madgoankar. They had three children namely, P. Ashok

Gajapathi Raju, P. Anand Gajapathi Raju and Smt. Vasireddi

Sunita Prasad. A public trust known as “MANSAS” was created

by P.V.G. Raju for education and charitable purposes. As the

karta of the family, P.V.G. Raju partitioned the properties of the

joint family in terms of the registered document dated

18.06.1960.

3. P.V.G. Raju divorced Kusum Madgoankar and married

Madhuri Gajapathi Raju, Respondent No.1 herein, in 1963. P.

Alaakanarayana Gajapathi Raju, P. Monish Gajapathi Raju and

Sudhani Devi were born to them. The dispute that arose

amongst the family members of P.V.G. Raju was referred to

Arbitration to Kumaraja of Bobbili who passed an award on

28.06.1971 allotting the properties to eight members of the

family. The said award was duly registered and made a decree

of court on 21.04.1972 in O.S. No.70 of 1971.

4. Thereafter, the Appellants filed a suit bearing OS No.

29/74 in the sub-court at Vizianagaram seeking division of

certain properties by metes and bounds. The suit was partly

2 | P a g e

decreed by the District Court on 31.10.1979. Against the

decree dated 31.10.1979, the Appellants filed an Appeal and

the Defendants in this suit filed certain cross-objections. On

24.07.1992, the High Court dismissed the Appeal filed by the

Appellants while partly allowing the cross-objections filed by

the Defendants in the suit. Not satisfied with the judgment of

the Hight Court, the Appellants filed SLP which was converted

as Civil Appeal No. 5251 of 1993.

5. During the pendency of the Civil Appeal No. 5251 of 1993

before this Court, Sri. PVG Raju passed away on 14.11.1995.

Post his demise, on 08.03.2000, all the parties filed a joint

application before this Court to refer the matter for arbitration.

The terms of reference in the application are as follows:

“(i) The entire subject matter of the appeal in dispute including

the properties that were partitioned in 1960 between late

P.V.G. Raju and his two sons Sri P. Anand Gajapathi Raju and Sri

P. Ashok Gajapathi Raju, and the lands given to Smt. Sunita

Prasad (daughter) and the properties that were divided in the

award proceedings in pursuance of the award of Kumararaja of

Bobbili of 1971.

(ii) All the shares with companies, certificates, bonds,

Government Securities, and all moveable and immoveable

properties including impartible properties (except those which

3 | P a g e

have been alienated by late P.V.G. Raju during his life time

before his death on 14.11.1995 subject to proof) will be

divided into seven equal shares and allot one such share to

each of the parties to the appeal;

(iii) The Arbitrator will also take into account 99 diamonds and

one emerald ring given to the applicants in 1971 and claimed

to be streedhana property of Smt. Madhuri V. Raju. The

Arbitrator will decide whether the aforesaid items are the

streedhana properties or not of Smt. Madhuri V. Raju;

(iv) In case the Arbitrator comes to the conclusion that the said

diamonds and emerald ring are not streedhana properties of

Smt. Madhuri V. Raju, all the parties to the appeal are entitled

to 1/7

th

 share equally in the said diamonds and emerald ring;

and

(v) The Arbitrator will not take into account the findings

recorded by the courts below.”

6. Mr. Justice S. Ranganathan, retired Supreme Court Judge

was appointed as the Sole Arbitrator by this Court on

28.03.2000 and the dispute with respect to the

aforementioned terms of reference were referred for arbitration

to him.

7. On 26.05.2007, the Arbitrator passed an interim award in

the following terms :

4 | P a g e

“ IX. CONCLUSIONS AND INTERIM AWARD

156. Having dealt with the various contentions raised

by the parties, the Tribunal proceeds to set out its

findings and conclusions:

(I) As the agreement of 08.03.2000 among all the

parties (embodied in the Supreme Court's order)

envisages the division of all the divisible properties

(movable and Impartible) of the family into seven equal

shares and allotment of one share to each of the

parties here, it is directed that the properties should be

so divided and allotted among the parties. However, it

will not follow that each sharer will be entitled to a one

seventh share in each asset as some items have been

divided differently in 1960 and 1971 and these

divisions have been accepted by us with slight

modification.

(2) The Tribunal has considered the partitions of 1960

and 1971 on their merits and is of opinion that the

allotments made at these partitions do not require to

be disturbed, except to a small extent specified against

the relevant Items and, necessarily, to the extent they

5 | P a g e

are affected by the death of PVG requiring a division of

the items allotted to his share at these partitions.

3) The lands described in Schedule I-A and II-B to II-H

have already been partitioned in 1960 and 1971.

Though the division is not in equal shares, there is no

need to disturb the earlier allotments and inequalities,

if any, will be made up in the final adjustments that will

require to be made. The division and allotments will be

made as per the terms of the 1960 partition deed and

the 1971 partition award as modified hereunder. As

these items already stand divided much earlier, they

do not really form part of this Award. However, the

properties listed in Schedule II-A, which had been

allotted to PVG in-1971, need to be divided equally

under the present sharers.

(4) The Tribunal is of opinion that one-fifth of the

extents of land in Schedule I-A and I-B claimed as set

apart for maintenance holders cannot on principle, be

excluded from partition although the sharers will be

responsible to meet the claims, if any, of maintenance

holders in equal shares and their liability in this regard

will be joint and several. It is, however, seen that even

6 | P a g e

in the plans and sketches drawn up by R-1 and

appended to the award, portions have been shown as

earmarked for the maintenance holders. With a view to

avoid unnecessary confusion, it is made clear that the

parties will be at liberty, in those cases where the

sketches have been approved, to adhere to these

plans, If they so desire, retain the earmarked portions

in favour of the maintenance holders and divide only

the balance among themselves in accordance with the

plans.

(5) The properties set out in Schedules 1 to IX will be

divided in the manner set out in the discussions under

the relevant schedules and keeping in mind the

findings contained therein. In doing so, help may be

taken from the plans appended to the award in respect

of some of the items, without, however, treating them

as conclusive. They may need modifications, if only for

including the areas earmarked for maintenance holders

in the land available for division if so opted for by the

parties.

(6) A very vital reservation is hereby made in regard to

the assets described in Schedules IA and IB. In paras

7 | P a g e

148 to 154, it has been pointed out that the provisions

of Urban Celling Act will override any partition

arrangement in respect of lands covered thereby. Thus,

while all the sharers may determine their right in

respect of these lands among item inter se, the

partitions directed hereby can only affect these pieces

of lands that. remain with the various members of the

family on the final outcome of the proceedings under

the land ceiling Act.

(7) The discussions in the award will show that out of

the items listed in the various schedules, several are

not available for various reasons such as item 3 of

Schedule I-A, Items 2 to 6 of Schedule 1-B and items 3

and 4 of Schedule 11-A. The half share of property In

Item 7 of Schedule II-A Is stated to have been disposed

of by him and it is agreed that this can be left out of

this award. This apart, the partition of the Item

Schedules IA and II-B to II-H have already been effected

by stamped and registered documents and are not

really under this document. Hence these items are not

effectively the subject matter of partition under this

document. So also, Items 2, 6 and 7 of Schedule V

which have been found to belong exclusively to RI and

8 | P a g e

the items set out in Schedule X (also in items 20 and

22 of Schedule V and item 16 of Schedule VI) have

been found to be not partible among all the sharers

and though the issue of their partibility has been

decided here, no partition of these items is being

directed under this document.

(8) The more difficult and cumbersome process is that

of carrying out the physical division envisaged herein.

This Is usually done by Commissioners appointed for

the purpose. However the Tribunal wishes to strongly

impress on the parties that all the further steps in this

regard will consume time, expense and energy which

can be avoided if parties sit across the table and select

specific items of the properties in each schedule. They

should be having a fair idea of the value of the

properties and, with mutual goodwill and give and take,

this should not be impossible. If this is done the whole

matter can be given a quietus and the entire

controversy settled finally and once for all. It is hoped

that the parties will see the wisdom of this course in

preference to the tortuous and prolonged course that

may be otherwise have to be pursued. It is a happy

circumstance that, in its efforts to evaluate the

9 | P a g e

properties covered by the award, the Tribunal had

occasion to appoint three valuers agreed to by the

parties who have given detailed reports setting out

their opinions on the values of the several assets.

While these opinions may not be binding on the

sharers, they will certainly facilitate discussions among

the parties and enable them to agree upon the mutual

division in specie of the assets inter se, so as to avoid

the last resort of selling all or any of them and dividing

the proceeds.

(9) The Tribunal has come to the conclusion (vide para

112 et seq) that this Award requires to be stamped in

according with Article 12 of Schedule I-A to the Stamp

Act (as applicable to Delhi). The detailed evaluation of

the properties for purposes of Stamp Duty Is made In

Annexure R to the Award to which are appended as

Annexure S, T, U, V and W, the reports of the three

valuers appointed for the purpose. The parties were

apprised of the stamp duty payable and have

submitted by pro- rata contribution, nonjudicial stamp

papers of appropriate denomination on which this

Award is inscribed.

10 | P a g e

(10) Since this is a partition proceeding with all seven

parties entitled to equal shares, the costs of these

proceedings (including fee of arbitrators, fee of valuers,

stamp duty payable) and any expenses that, may have

to be incurred for registration of the award, the

consequent mutation in public records and the like,

shall be borne equally by all the seven parties.

157. Though the points of controversy between the

parties have been decided by this award, it will be only

in the nature of an interim award as several further

determinations and the task of physical division of the

properties are yet to be considered. Appropriate orders

recording the final partition will still have to be made

thereafter and, in so doing, it will also be necessary to

consider the value of the properties allotted to each of

the sharers and direct such adjustments as may be

necessary monetarily or in specie. One more important

aspect to be considered at the time of the final

discussion will be that of the mesne profits, if any,

payable by the shares in respect of properties allotted

to other remaining in their possession. This will need a

detailed consideration from several angles, extents,

date, quantum etc. and will have to be considered

11 | P a g e

later. For these purposes, the tribunal will resume its

sittings and pass appropriate orders after the parties

have had time to study the contents of this award.”

8. Aggrieved by interim award dated 26.05.2007,

Respondent No.1 filed a Petition under Section 34 of the Act

which was dismissed by the District Judge, Vizianagaram on

24.06.2013. The District Judge, Vizianagaram refused to

interfere with the award by rejecting the contention of

Respondent No.1 that the award suffers from patent illegality

and jurisdictional errors. Against the order of the District

Judge, Vizianagaram dated 24.06.2013, appeals were filed by

Respondent Nos. 1 to 3 under Section 37 of the Act before the

High Court.

9. The Appeals filed by the Respondents under Section 37 of

the Act were partly allowed by the High Court. The

Respondents contended before the High Court that the

Arbitrator committed an error in being guided by the 1960

partition and the 1971 award. It was argued by the

Respondents that the partition of the properties had to be

decided afresh without reference to the earlier 1960 partition

and the 1971 award in view of the terms of reference. The

High Court rejected the said submission of the Respondents by

holding that the Arbitrator was not solely guided by the earlier

12 | P a g e

partition and the award. The High Court approved the finding

of the Arbitrator who referred to the earlier partition and the

award wherever he found that such arrangements were just

and equitable.

10. One of the terms of reference of the Arbitration relates to

99 diamonds and one emerald ring claimed by Respondent

No.1 to be stridhana property. The High Court set aside the

interim award of the Arbitrator to the extent that it held that

the Respondent No.1 had relinquished her rights over the 99

diamonds and one emerald ring and that the Appellants were

entitled to deal with the same in the manner in which they

wish. It is relevant to note that the Respondents have not

preferred any Appeal against this judgment of the High Court.

The Appellants have challenged the findings of the High Court

in respect of the 99 diamonds and one emerald ring.

Therefore, in these Appeals, this Court is concerned only with

the correctness of the interim award relating to terms of the

reference (iii) and (iv) which pertains to 99 diamonds and one

emerald ring.

11. The terms of reference relating to the 99 diamonds and

one emerald ring are as under:

“(iii) The Arbitrator will also take into account 99

diamonds and one emerald ring given to the applicants

13 | P a g e

in 1971 and claimed to be streedhana property of Smt.

Madhuri V. Raju. The Arbitrator will decide whether the

aforesaid items are the streedhana properties or not of

Smt. Madhuri V. Raju;

(iv) In case the Arbitrator comes to the conclusion that

the said diamonds and emerald ring are not

streedhana properties of Smt. Madhuri V. Raju, all the

parties to the appeal are entitled to 1/7

th

 share equally

in the said diamonds and emerald ring;”

12. In the interim award, the Arbitrator held that the 99

diamonds and one emerald ring were initially given to

Respondent No.1 by P.V.G. Raju as stridhana at the time of

engagement and marriage. The Arbitrator relied upon the

written statement filed by P.V.G. Raju in O.S. No.29 of 1974, the

evidence of Respondent No.1 in the said suit as well as the

affidavit filed by Respondent No.1 before him to come to a

conclusion that 99 diamonds and one emerald ring were

initially given to her as stridhana property. However, the

Arbitrator observed that these 99 diamonds and one emerald

ring were given by the Respondent No. 1 to the Claimants

(Appellant herein) in the year 1971 pursuant to the 1971

award for partition. The Arbitrator took note of the fact that

prior to the year 1971, the stridhana property was shown in

14 | P a g e

the wealth tax returns by P.V.G. Raju. There is no reference to

the 99 diamonds and one emerald ring in the wealth tax

returns of P.V.G. Raju after 1971. The Appellants claimed

before the Arbitrator that 99 diamonds and one emerald ring

were voluntarily given by Respondent No. 1 to them. Whereas,

Respondent No.1 pleaded that she was coerced to part with 99

diamonds and one emerald ring. The request of Respondent

No.1 that the said stridhana property should be returned to her

was not accepted by the Arbitrator on the ground that the

arrangement made in 1971 cannot be disturbed. The

Arbitrator further recorded the statement of Claimant No.1 that

his wife Uma had broken the miniature studded with gems and

made jewellery out of it and that he had delivered the

diamonds to his estranged wife. The Arbitrator also took note

of the submission on behalf of the Claimant No.2 that he has

made a chain out of the 99 diamonds and presented it to his

wife and Claimant No.3 that he had sold the diamonds which

fell to his share. Finally, the Arbitrator held that Respondent

No.1 had validly relinquished the stridhana property which was

divided amongst all the shareholders and she cannot be

permitted to seek return of the jewellery.

13. While setting aside the finding of the Arbitrator regarding

the stridhana property, the High Court was of the opinion that

15 | P a g e

the Arbitrator committed a jurisdictional error in his conclusion

about the right of Respondent No.1 over the 99 diamonds and

one emerald ring. According to the High Court, the Arbitrator

could not have rejected the plea of Respondent No.1,

especially after finding that the 99 diamonds and one emerald

ring was stridhana property of the Respondent No. 1. The

mandate of the Arbitrator was to decide whether the said

jewellery is stridhana property and only in case the Arbitrator

found that the said jewellery is not stridhana property, the

Arbitrator shall decide the entitlement of the parties for the

equal share. The High Court found fault with the interim award

on the ground that the Arbitrator traversed beyond the terms

of reference. If the said jewellery is held to be the stridhana

property of Respondent No. 1, the question of deciding on the

division of the property due to the change in the nature of the

properties subsequently does not arise. The High Court further

observed that the award passed in 1971 is not final and

binding. If it was binding, the dispute relating to said jewellery

being stridhana property would not have been referred to the

Arbitrator.

14. We are in agreement with the judgment of the High Court

that the Arbitrator had committed an error in deciding the

issue relating to 99 diamonds and one emerald ring for the

16 | P a g e

following reasons. As has been rightly held by the High Court,

the mandate for the Arbitrator is to decide whether said

jewellery is stridhana property of the Respondent No. 1. A

plain reading of the terms of reference No.(iii) would indicate

the fact that the said jewellery being given to the Appellants in

1971 has been taken note of. Mere handing over of the

jewellery to the Appellants in 1971, therefore, cannot be the

reason for holding that the Appellants are entitled to retain the

jewellery. The Arbitrator has concluded that 99 diamonds and

one emerald ring, are in fact, stridhana property of Respondent

No.1. That concludes point No.(iii) of the terms of reference.

Point No.(iv) of the terms of reference relates to division of 99

diamonds and one emerald ring among 7 sharers only in case

the Arbitrator comes to a conclusion that they are stridhana

property. In the interim award, the Arbitrator heavily relied

upon the award of 1971 and the fact of the 99 diamonds and

one emerald ring being handed over to the Claimants, for the

purpose of deciding that Respondent No. 1 is not entitled to

claim the return of the said jewellery. The Arbitrator has

committed a jurisdictional error by travelling beyond the terms

of reference. Further, the Arbitrator has committed an error in

permitting the Appellants to retain the jewellery. According to

item No.(iv) of the terms of reference, the Arbitrator had to

17 | P a g e

decide the entitlement of all the seven parties to equal shares

in the event of finding that the jewellery is not stridhana

property. Therefore, we approve the conclusion of the High

Court by upholding the impugned judgment. The appeals are

accordingly, dismissed.

15. We are informed by the learned counsel appearing for the

parties that an Arbitrator has to be appointed to pass the final

award. It is stated that after the resignation of Justice S.

Ranganathan (Retd.), Justice P. Lakshman Reddy (Retd.) was

appointed as an Arbitrator by the High Court. However, in

September 2019, Justice P. Lakshman Reddy (Retd.) has been

appointed as Lokayukta. In light of the above, we appoint Mr.

Justice Kurian Joseph to act as a sole Arbitrator and to continue

the arbitration proceedings and pass a final award in S.R.A.T.

No. 2/2000 pending between the parties. As the dispute has

been pending for a number of years, we request the Arbitrator

to expedite and complete the proceedings at the earliest.

 …….................................J.

 [ L. NAGESWARA RAO ]


........................J.

 [ B.R. GAVAI ]

New Delhi,

November 09, 2021.

18 | P a g e

Thursday, October 21, 2021

Question of Jurisdiction in special courts = We hold that, in accordance with Section 6(7), the ATS Nanded was not barred from continuing with its investigation till the NIA Mumbai actually took up the investigation. Further, we hold that the CJM, Nanded could have committed the case to trial before the ASJ, Nanded upon the filing of charge-sheet by the ATS Nanded since they were the designated Courts for the ATS Nanded and no Special Court had been designated by the Government of Maharashtra under Section 22 of the NIA Act.

1

Reportable

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

Criminal Appeal No 1165 of 2021

Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai … Appellant

Versus

The State of Maharashtra & Anr. … Respondents

With

Criminal Appeal No 1166 of 2021

J U D G M E N T

Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, J

This judgment has been divided into sections to facilitate analysis. They are:

A Facts

B Submissions

C Provisions of the NIA Act

D Continuation of investigation by the ATS Nanded

E CJM, Nanded’s jurisdiction for remand and committal to trial

F Conclusion

PART A

2

A Facts

1 This batch of two appeals arises from a judgment dated 5 July 2018 of a

Division Bench of the High Court of Judicature at Bombay.

2 On 14 July 2016, an FIR1 was registered under Sections 120-B and 471 of

the Indian Penal Code 18602 read with Sections 13, 16, 18, 18-B, 20, 38 and 39 of

the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act 19673 and Sections 4, 5 and 6 of the

Explosive Substances Act 19084

. It was registered with the Anti-Terrorism Squad5 at

the Kala Chowki Police Station Mumbai on the basis of written information provided

by Manik Vitthal Rao Bedre6

, against two persons: (i) Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai (the

appellant in the first of the two appeals7

); and (ii) Farooq (who was residing in Syria).

The complaint alleged that the ATS had received source information that Naser Bin

Abu Bakr Yafai was in contact through the internet with members of the Islamic

State8

/Islamic State of Iraq and Syria9

/Islamic State of Iraq and Levant10/Daesh,

terrorist organizations banned by the United Nations and the Indian Government. He

was alleged to have been planning to assist Farooq (a member of

IS/ISIS/ISIL/Daesh) in making bombs/IEDs to cause a blast during the month of

Ramzan, for which he had procured the required material in July 2016. The ATS

 1 CR No 8 of 2016 2 “IPC” 3 “UAPA” 4 “ES Act” 5 “ATS” 6 A Police Inspector in ATS, Nanded Unit, Nanded, Maharashtra 7 Criminal Appeal No 1165 of 2021 8 “IS” 9 “ISIS” 10 “ISIL”

PART A

3

arrested four persons from Parbhani, namely: (i) Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai; (ii)

Mohammad Shahed Khan (the appellant in the companion appeal11); (iii) Iqbal

Ahmed; and (iv) Mohammad Raisuddin.

3 On 26 August 2016, the Government of Maharashtra, in exercise of powers

conferred by Section 11 read with Section 185 of the Code of Criminal Procedure

197312 issued a notification designating the Chief Judicial Magistrate13, Nanded, as

a Court of remand and the Court of Additional Sessions Judge14, Nanded, as a

Special Court to try cases filed by the ATS Nanded.

4 On 8 September 2016, the Ministry of Home Affairs of the Union

government15 directed the National Investigation Agency16 to take over further

investigation in the present case by exercising powers under Section 6(4) of the

National Investigation Agency Act 200817. On 14 September 2016, the NIA Mumbai

renumbered the case18 for taking up further investigation.

5 The ATS continued with the investigation and filed a charge-sheet on 7

October 2016 against the aforesaid accused persons under Sections 120-B and 471

of the IPC read with Sections 13, 16, 18, 18-B, 20, 38 and 39 of the UAPA and

Sections 4, 5 and 6 of the ES Act before the CJM, Nanded. The CJM, Nanded took

 11 Criminal Appeal No 1166 of 2021 12 “CrPC” 13 “CJM” 14 “ASJ” 15 F.No. 11011/24/2016-IS.IV 16 “NIA” 17 “NIA Act” 18 RC-03/2016/NIA/MUM

PART A

4

cognizance of the offence and on 18 October 2016 committed the case19 to the

Court of ASJ, Nanded.

6 On 23 November 2016, the NIA Mumbai informed the ATS Nanded of having

taken over the investigation and sought the papers/records of the case. On 8

December 2016, the ATS Nanded handed over the case papers to the NIA Mumbai.

At present, the NIA Mumbai is seized of the matter and is conducting further

investigation.

7 During the course of the above events, Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai had filed an

application on 21 October 2016 before the ASJ, Nanded, under Section 167(2) of

the CrPC. In his application, he contended that the offences under the UAPA are

scheduled offences under the NIA Act, and hence, the CJM, Nanded had no

jurisdiction to pass an order on remand, to take cognizance and pass an order of

committal of the proceedings to the ASJ, Nanded since it was not a “Court”

established under Sections 11 or 22 of the NIA Act. On 14 November 2016, the ASJ,

Nanded rejected Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai’s application since, at that time, the NIA

Mumbai had not taken over the investigation from the ATS Nanded and hence, the

ATS Nanded had to continue with the investigation under Section 6(7) of the NIA

Act. Therefore, the ATS Nanded, in light of the notifications issued by the

Government of Maharashtra, was held to have correctly filed the charge-sheet

before the CJM, Nanded who committed the case to trial before the ASJ, Nanded.

 19 Sessions Case No 106 of 2016

PART A

5

8 The appellant filed a criminal writ petition20 before the High Court of

Judicature at Bombay to challenge the order of the ASJ, Nanded. During the

pendency of the petition, the NIA Mumbai filed an application21 under Section 407(2)

of the CrPC before the High Court seeking transfer of the records and proceedings

in the trial from the ASJ, Nanded to the NIA Special Court, Mumbai on the ground

that the NIA Mumbai was taking up further investigation of the case.

9 By judgment and order dated 5 July 2018, a Division Bench of the High Court

dismissed the writ petition filed by Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai and allowed the

application filed by NIA Mumbai and transferred the case from the Court of the ASJ,

Nanded to the NIA Special Court, Mumbai. The High Court observed that the power

of investigation by the police officer of the State government would cease only after

the NIA takes over the investigation of a scheduled offence. Further, in the view of

the High Court, the NIA Mumbai had taken over the investigation in the present case

only on 8 December 2016, when it had received the papers from ATS Nanded. The

High Court also held that the ASJ, Nanded had jurisdiction under the CrPC to try the

offences under the UAPA, even though they were scheduled offences under the NIA

Act, until the investigation was entrusted to and taken over by the NIA, after which

the Special Court constituted under Section 11 of the NIA Act would exclusively try

such scheduled offences. Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai then filed a special leave

petition22 before this Court challenging the order of the Bombay High Court.

 20 Criminal Writ Petition No 5022 of 2017 21 Criminal Application No 27 of 2017 22 “SLP”

PART A

6

10 On the other hand, on 4 September 2017, Mohammad Shahed Khan (the

appellant in the companion appeal) had written a letter to the Chief Justice of the

Bombay High Court for his release and arguing that his detention was illegal since

the ATS Nanded could not have filed the charge-sheet once the NIA Mumbai had

taken over the investigation. The letter was converted into a writ petition, and is

pending before the Bombay High Court.

11 Mohammad Shahed Khan also filed an application for bail before the NIA

Special Court, Mumbai on 27 April 2021, which was rejected by an order dated 22

June 2021. While dismissing Mohammad Shahed Khan’s application, the NIA

Special Court, Mumbai observed that:

“15. Considering the fact that the issue in respect of

jurisdiction for remand, cognizance and committal of the case

has already been decided by the Learned Sessions Judge,

Nanded and that the same has been confirmed by the

Hon'ble Bombay High Court, wherein the applicant was also

one of the parties, he cannot be allowed to reopen said issue

before this court. Therefore, I am of the view that the

application being devoid of substance, deserves to be

rejected.”

12 Mohammad Shahed Khan then filed an SLP to challenge the judgment and

order dated 5 July 2018, though he was not a party to the proceedings before the

Bombay High Court.

PART B

7

B Submissions

13 The SLPs which invoke the jurisdiction of this Court under Article 136 have

been instituted essentially on two grounds. The first ground is that once the Central

government entrusted the investigation to the NIA under Section 6(4) of the NIA Act,

ATS Nanded had no jurisdiction to continue with the investigation into a scheduled

offence under the NIA Act. The second ground is that since the offences under the

UAPA are scheduled offences under the NIA Act, even if investigated by the State

Investigating Agency, they would be exclusively triable by a Special Court

constituted under the NIA Act and the CJM, Nanded had no jurisdiction to remand

the accused persons and commit the case for trial before the ASJ, Nanded.

14 The above submissions have been advanced during the course of arguments

by Mr Farrukh Rasheed, Counsel appearing on behalf of Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai.

Buttressing the submissions, Mr Rasheed urged that:

(i) The expression “Special Court” as defined in Section 2(h) of the NIA Act is to

mean a Special Court constituted under Section 11 or, as the case may be,

under Section 22;

(ii) Where the Central government issues a direction, upon the formation of an

opinion that the offence is a scheduled offence and is fit to be investigated by

the NIA, the consequence is provided by sub-Section (6) of Section 6;

(iii) Upon the issuance of a direction under sub-Section (4) or sub-Section (5) of

Section 6, neither the State government nor a police officer of the State 

PART B

8

Agency investigating the offence can proceed with the investigation and must

forthwith transmit the relevant documents and records to the NIA;

(iv) Section 11 empowers the Central government to constitute Special Courts for

the trial of scheduled offences, while Section 22 empowers the State

governments to constitute Special Courts for the trial of offences specified in

the Schedule to the NIA Act;

(v) In the present case, in spite of a direction under Section 6(4), the ATS

Nanded continued with its investigation and filed a charge-sheet in breach of

the provisions of sub-Section (6) of Section 6; and

(vi) Since all offences punishable under the UAPA are scheduled offences under

the NIA Act, the CJM, Nanded is divested of their jurisdiction. Further, since a

Special Court was designated by the Government of Maharashtra under

Section 22, only that Court had jurisdiction in the present case.

15 Advancing his submissions in the companion appeal, Mr Colin Gonsalves,

Senior Counsel appearing on behalf of Mohammad Shahed Khan submitted that:

(i) The registration of an FIR on 14 September 2016 by NIA Mumbai was the

beginning of the investigation by them;

(ii) After the FIR was renumbered by the NIA on 14 September 2016, the ATS

Nanded continued to investigate and filed a charge-sheet before the CJM,

Nanded on 7 October 2016;

(iii) Sub-Sections (4) and (6) of Section 6 of the NIA Act contain three stipulations: 

PART B

9

(a) The Central government, where it is of the opinion that the offence is a

scheduled offence and is fit to be investigated by the NIA, shall direct

the NIA to investigate the offence;

(b) Upon the issuance of such a direction under sub-Section (4), the State

government and its Police Officers shall not proceed with the

investigation any further; and

(c) The relevant documents and records must be transmitted to the NIA

forthwith;

(iv) The NIA Act and the UAPA are criminal statutes of the utmost severity, and

there is a statutory obligation upon the NIA and the State Police Agency to

collect papers immediately and transmit them to the NIA, respectively;

(v) In the alternative, and even assuming that the State Police could have

investigated, the charge-sheet filed before the CJM, Nanded is a nullity

because it could have been filed only in the Special Court constituted under

Section 22 of the NIA Act; and

(vi) The committal proceedings are also a nullity because Section 16(1)

empowers the Special Court to take cognizance of any offence without the

committal of the accused to it for trial, and hence the charge-sheet ought to

have been filed by the ATS Nanded in a Special Court in view of the

provisions of Section 22.

On the basis of the above submissions, Mr Gonsalves, urged that since the chargesheet was not filed within the stipulated period in a proper court entrusted with 

PART B

10

jurisdiction, the accused have an indefeasible right to bail under the provisions of

Section 43D of the UAPA.

16 The above submissions have been contested by Mr K M Nataraj, Additional

Solicitor General23 appearing on behalf of the NIA. The ASG urged that:

(i) Sub-Section (7) of Section 6 of the NIA Act declares, for the removal of

doubts, that till the NIA takes up the investigation of the case, it shall be the

duty of the officer-in-charge of the police station to continue the investigation;

(ii) The expression “it shall be the duty” connotes that it is obligatory for the

officer-in-charge of the police station to continue with the investigation till the

investigation is taken up by the NIA;

(iii) In other words, until the State Police is informed or intimated by the NIA of the

case having been taken up for investigation, the officer-in-charge of the police

station is under a mandate to investigate;

(iv) If the submission which is urged by the appellants is accepted, that would

result in a vacuum in the investigation between the date of the issuance of a

direction under Section 6(4) and the actual taking over of the investigation by

the NIA;

(v) Section 10 of the NIA Act recognises the powers of the State government to

investigate scheduled offences;

(vi) Section 13 prescribes that every scheduled offence investigated by the

“Agency” shall be tried only by the Special Court within whose local

 23 “ASG”

PART B

11

jurisdiction it was committed. The expression “Agency” is defined in Section

2(a) as the “National Investigation Agency” and as a consequence of Section

13, no embargo is placed on any other Court until such time as the scheduled

offence is investigated by the NIA;

(vii) The provisions of the NIA Act have to be construed harmoniously so as to

achieve its purposes;

(viii) Sections 13 and Section 22 only govern the trial of offences and not pre-trial

procedures;

(ix) The enabling provisions under Section 16(1) for a Special Court to take

cognizance of any offence without the accused being committed to it for trial

would not render the order of the CJM, Nanded a nullity in the present case;

and

(x) In this context, the principles which are enunciated in Section 465 of the CrPC

would stand attracted.

17 Adopting the submissions of Mr K M Nataraj, Mr Rahul Chitnis, Standing

Counsel for the State of Maharashtra urged that:

(i) The mandate of Section 6 is that unless relevant documents and records are

transmitted, the NIA would not be construed to have taken up the

investigation;

(ii) On 23 November 2016, NIA Mumbai intimated the ATS Nanded to transfer

the case records, following which on 8 December 2016, the papers and

records were transmitted; and

PART C

12

(iii) While construing the provisions of the NIA Act, which deals with serious

offences bearing on national security, no vacuum can be allowed to exist in

the investigation. Hence, both the investigation by the ATS Nanded and the

filing of the charge-sheet before the CJM, Nanded on 7 October 2016, were

before the investigation was handed over to the NIA Mumbai. Therefore, there

was no illegality and the appeals should be dismissed.

18 The rival submissions now fall for consideration.

C Provisions of the NIA Act

19 The long title to the NIA Act elaborates upon its object, and the intent of

Parliament in enacting the law. According to the long title, the NIA Act is:

“An Act to constitute an investigation agency at the national

level to investigate and prosecute offences affecting the

sovereignty, security and integrity of India, security of State,

friendly relations with foreign States and offences under Acts

enacted to implement international treaties, agreements,

conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its

agencies and other international organisations and for

matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.”

20 Section 2(a) of the NIA Act defines the expression “Agency” to mean the

“National Investigation Agency” constituted under Section 3. The expression

“Scheduled Offence” is defined in Section 2(g) to mean offences specified in the

Schedule to the NIA Act. Section 2(h) defines the expression “Special Court” to

mean a Special Court constituted under Section 11, or as the case may be, under 

PART C

13

Section 22. Further, words and expressions used but not defined in the NIA Act, but

defined in the CrPC, have the meaning assigned to them in the CrPC. The NIA has

been constituted as “a special agency” under Section 3(1) for the investigation and

prosecution of offences under the enactments specified in the Schedule to the NIA

Act. The Schedule to the Act is extracted below:

“1. The Atomic Energy Act, 1962 (33 of 1962);

2. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (37 of 1967);

3. The Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 (65 of 1982);

4. The Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil

Aviation Act, 1982 (66 of 1982);

5. The SAARC Convention (Suppression of Terrorism) Act,

1993 (36 of 1993);

6. The Suppression of Unlawful Acts Against Safety of

Maritime Navigation and Fixed Platforms on Continental Shelf

Act, 2002 (69 of 2002);

7. The Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery

Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act, 2005 (21 of

2005);

8. Offences under—

(a) Chapter VI of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860)

[sections 121 to 130 (both inclusive)];

(b) Sections 489-A to 489-E (both inclusive) of the Indian

Penal Code (45 of 1860).”

21 The controversy in the batch of appeals before this Court revolves

substantially on the interpretation of Section 6 of the NIA Act. Section 6 is extracted

below, as it stood before its amendment with effect from 2 August 2019:

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14

“6. Investigation of Scheduled Offences.—(1) On receipt of

information and recording thereof under Section 154 of the

Code relating to any Scheduled Offence the officer-in-charge

of the police station shall forward the report to the State

Government forthwith.

(2) On receipt of the report under sub-section (1), the State

Government shall forward the report to the Central

Government as expeditiously as possible.

(3) On receipt of report from the State Government, the

Central Government shall determine on the basis of

information made available by the State Government or

received from other sources, within fifteen days from the date

of receipt of the report, whether the offence is a Scheduled

Offence or not and also whether, having regard to the gravity

of the offence and other relevant factors, it is a fit case to be

investigated by the Agency.

(4) Where the Central Government is of the opinion that the

offence is a Scheduled Offence and it is a fit case to be

investigated by the Agency, it shall direct the Agency to

investigate the said offence.

(5) Notwithstanding anything contained in this section, if the

Central Government is of the opinion that a Scheduled

Offence has been committed which is required to be

investigated under this Act, it may, suo motu, direct the

Agency to investigate the said offence.

(6) Where any direction has been given under sub-section (4)

or sub-section (5), the State Government and any police

officer of the State Government investigating the offence shall

not proceed with the investigation and shall forthwith transmit

the relevant documents and records to the Agency.

(7) For the removal of doubts it is hereby declared that till the

Agency takes up the investigation of the case it shall be the

duty of the officer-in-charge of the police station to continue

the investigation.”

22 The salient aspects which emerge from the provisions of Section 6 need to be

formulated at this stage. They are:

PART C

15

(i) On the receipt and recording of information under Section 154 of the CrPC

relating to a scheduled offence under the NIA Act, a report must be forwarded

to the State government by the officer in-charge of the police station (subSection (1) of Section 6);

(ii) The State government on receipt of the report under sub-Section (1) must, as

expeditiously as possible, forward it to the Central government (sub-Section

(2) of Section 6);

(iii) The purpose of the first and second steps embodied in sub-Sections (1) and

(2) of Section 6 is to enable the Central government to make a decision in

terms of sub-Section (3);

(iv) Upon receiving a report from the State government, the Central government

must determine within fifteen days, on the basis of the information made

available by the State government or received from other sources, whether:

(a) the offence is a scheduled offence; and (b) if it is fit case to be investigated

by the NIA, having regard to the gravity of the offence and other relevant

factors (sub-Section (3) of Section 6);

(v) If the Central government is of the opinion that the offence is a scheduled

offence and it is a fit case to be investigated by the NIA, it shall direct the NIA

to investigate the offence (sub-Section (4) of Section 6);

(vi) An overriding power is entrusted to the Central government (evident from the

incorporation of a non-obstante provision in sub-Section (5)) to suo motu

direct the NIA to investigate the offence if it is of the opinion that: (a) a 

PART C

16

scheduled offence has been committed under the NIA Act; and (b) that it is

required to be investigated by the NIA (sub-Section (5) of Section 6);

(vii) Upon the issuance of a direction by the Central government under subSections (4) or (5) of Section 6, two consequences emanate under subSection (6) of Section 6: (a) the State government and any police officer of the

State government investigating the offence shall not proceed with the

investigation; and (b) the relevant documents and records must be

transmitted to the NIA forthwith (sub-Section (6) of Section 6);

(viii) By way of abundant caution (“for the removal of doubts”), sub-Section (7) of

Section 6 contains a declaration that till the NIA “takes up the investigation of

the case”, it shall be the duty of the office in-charge of the police station to

continue the investigation (sub-Section (7) of Section 6);

(ix) The provisions of sub-Sections (6) and (7) of Section 6 must be read together

and in harmony in order to fulfill the purpose and intent of the Parliament in a

holistic manner;

(x) The object and underlying purpose of sub-Section (7) is to ensure that there is

no hiatus in the course of the investigation. Hence, while sub-Section (6)

stipulates a two-fold requirement, that upon the issuance of a direction under

sub-Sections (4) or (5) of Section 6 neither the State government nor the

police shall proceed with the investigation and must transmit the documents

and records to the NIA forthwith, sub-Section (7) imposes a statutory

obligation on the officer in-charge of the police station to continue the

investigation till the NIA actually takes over; and

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17

(xi) While enacting the provisions of sub-Section (7) of Section 6, the Parliament

was conscious of the fact that an interlude may occur between the date of the

issuance of a direction and the actual taking up of the investigation by the

NIA. However, between the issuance of a direction under sub-Sections (4) or

(5) of Section 6 and the actual taking up of the investigation by the NIA, there

should be no hiatus in the investigation to the detriment of the interests of

national security involved in the enactment of the legislation.

23 As a consequence, sub-Section (7) of Section 6 imposes a duty on the officer

in-charge of the police station to continue the investigation till the NIA actually takes

up the investigation of the case. The taking up of the investigation by the NIA is

evidently in pursuance of the directions issued under sub-Sections (4) or (5) of

Section 6. Having regard to the seriousness and gravity of the scheduled offences

under the NIA Act, the continuation of the investigation by the officer in-charge of the

police station is not a matter of discretion but a mandate imposed by the peremptory

words employed in sub-Section (7) of Section 6.

24 Now it is in this backdrop that it would be material to advert to the relationship

between the State Investigation Agencies and the NIA, contemplated by the

provisions of the enactment. Section 724 indicates that while investigating an offence

under the NIA Act, the NIA may, having regard to the gravity of the offence and

other relevant factors, either:

 24 “7. Power to transfer investigation to State Government.— While investigating any offence under this Act, the

Agency, having regard to the gravity of the offence and other relevant factors, may—

(a) if it is expedient to do so, request the State Government to associate itself with the investigation; or

(b) with the previous approval of the Central Government, transfer the case to the State Government for investigation

and trial of the offence.”

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18

(i) Request the State government to associate itself with the investigation, if it is

expedient to do so; or

(ii) Transfer the case to the State government for investigation and trial of the

offence with the previous approval of the Central government.

25 Section 925 mandates that the State government shall extend all assistance

and cooperation to the NIA for the investigation of scheduled offences.

26 Further, Section 10 is in the following terms:

“10. Power of State Government to investigate Scheduled

Offences.—Save as otherwise provided in this Act, nothing

contained in this Act shall affect the powers of the State

Government to investigate and prosecute any Scheduled

Offence or other offences under any law for the time being in

force.“

The plain language of Section 10 indicates that unless there is a contrary provision

in the NIA Act, nothing contained in it would affect the powers of the State

government to investigate and prosecute any scheduled offence or other offences

under any law for the time being in force. Hence, unless the power which is

entrusted to the State government by Section 10 to investigate (and prosecute) a

scheduled offence under the NIA Act is taken away by a provision of the same

statute, that power is preserved by Section 10.

27 Therefore, what emerges is that upon the issuance of a direction under subSections (4) and (5) of Section 6, the State government and a police officer of the

 25 “9. State Government to extend assistance to National Investigation Agency.—The State Government shall extend

all assistance and co-operation to the Agency for investigation of the Scheduled Offences.”

PART C

19

State government investigating the offence are not to proceed with the investigation

and have to forthwith transmit the documents and records to the NIA (Section 6(6))

but equally, it is the duty of the officer in-charge of the police station to continue the

investigation till the NIA actually takes up the investigation of the case (Section 6(7)).

In other words, the power of the officer in-charge of the police station to continue

with the investigation is denuded upon the issuance of a direction under subSections (4) or (5) of Section 6 and the NIA actually taking up the investigation of the

case. Thus, both the issuance of directions under sub-Sections (4) and (5) of

Section 6 and the NIA actually taking up the investigation of the case would result in

the power of the officer in-charge of the police station being denuded. Until then, the

power of the State government to investigate and prosecute any scheduled offence,

by virtue of the provisions of Section 10, is preserved.

28 Sections 11 to 22 of the NIA Act are comprised in Chapter IV which is titled

“Special Courts”. Sub-Section (1) of Section 11 provided as follows, before its

amendment with effect from 2 August 2019:

“11. Power of Central Government to constitute Special

Courts.—

(1) The Central Government shall, by notification in the

Official Gazette, for the trial of Scheduled Offences, constitute

one or more Special Courts.”


29 Section 13 provides for the jurisdiction of the Special Courts. Sub-Section (1)

of Section 13 is in the following terms:

“13. Jurisdiction of Special Courts.—

PART C

20

(1) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code, every

Scheduled Offence investigated by the Agency shall be tried

only by the Special Court within whose local jurisdiction it was

committed.”

30 Section 16 provides for the procedure and powers of the Special Courts. SubSection (1) of Section 16 is in the following terms:

“16. Procedure and powers of Special Courts.—

(1) A Special Court may take cognizance of any offence,

without the accused being committed to it for trial, upon

receiving a complaint of facts that constitute such offence or

upon a police report of such facts.”

31 Under Section 22, the State government is empowered to constitute one or

more Special Courts for the trial of offences under the enactments specified in the

Schedule to the NIA Act. Section 22 is in the following terms:

“22. Power of State Government to constitute Special

Courts.—

(1) The State Government may constitute one or more

Special Courts for the trial of offences under any or all the

enactments specified in the Schedule.

(2) The provisions of this Chapter shall apply to the Special

Courts constituted by the State Government under subsection (1) and shall have effect subject to the following

modifications, namely—

(i) references to “Central Government” in Sections 11 and 15

shall be construed as references to State Government;

(ii) reference to “Agency” in sub-section (1) of Section 13 shall

be construed as a reference to the “investigation agency of

the State Government”;

PART C

21

(iii) reference to “Attorney-General for India” in sub-section (3)

of Section 13 shall be construed as reference to “AdvocateGeneral of the State”.

(3) The jurisdiction conferred by this Act on a Special Court

shall, until a Special Court is constituted by the State

Government under sub-section (1) in the case of any offence

punishable under this Act, notwithstanding anything contained

in the Code, be exercised by the Court of Session of the

division in which such offence has been committed and it

shall have all the powers and follow the procedure provided

under this Chapter.

(4) On and from the date when the Special Court is

constituted by the State Government the trial of any offence

investigated by the State Government under the provisions of

this Act, which would have been required to be held before

the Special Court, shall stand transferred to that Court on the

date on which it is constituted.”

32 Section 11(1) of the NIA Act empowers the Central government to constitute

Special Courts “for the trial of scheduled offences”. Under sub-Section (1) of Section

13, every scheduled offence which has been investigated by the NIA shall be tried

only by the Special Court within whose local jurisdiction the offence was committed.

The exclusive jurisdiction which is conferred on the Special Court to try a scheduled

offence investigated by the NIA is amplified by the non-obstante provision which

overrides the provisions contained in the CrPC. Section 22(1) empowers the State

government to constitute Special Courts for the trial of offences under the

enactments which have been specified in the Schedule to the NIA Act, and which

have been investigated by the State Investigative Agency. 

PART D

22

D Continuation of investigation by the ATS Nanded

33 Having analysed the interplay of the provisions of the NIA Act, we come to the

first ground raised in the present appeals. The submission of the appellants is that

once the Central government directed the NIA Mumbai to take over the investigation

under Section 6(4), the consequence under Section 6(6) was that ATS Nanded

could not continue with the investigation (and file a charge-sheet) thereafter. The

plain text of Section 6 indicates that the above proposition is incorrect. Sub-Section

(4) of Section 6 contemplates a direction by the Central government to the NIA to

investigate an offence, where it is of the opinion that the offence is a scheduled

offence and that it is fit to be investigated by the NIA. Sub-Section (5) also confers a

suo motu power on the Central government to direct the NIA to investigate a

scheduled offence. Under sub-Section (6), upon the issuance of a direction under

sub-Sections (4) or (5) of Section 6, the State government and the officer in-charge

of the police station investigating the offence “shall not proceed with the

investigation and shall forthwith transmit the relevant documents and records to the

[NIA]”. However, this stipulation has to be read in the context of sub-Section (7),

under which the investigation by the officer in-charge of the police station has to

continue till the NIA takes up the investigation of the case. Sub-Section (7) is a

provision for the “removal of doubts”. Such a provision clarifies the intent of the lawmaker so as to place it beyond the realm of ambiguity. Hence, on a conjoint reading

of sub-Sections (4), (5), (6) and (7) of Section 6, what emerges is that the ATS

Nanded had a duty to continue with the investigation till the NIA Mumbai actually 

PART D

23

took over the investigation from it. Therefore, we must now determine when did the

NIA Mumbai actually commence the investigation in the present case.

34 In order to appreciate when the NIA Mumbai began its investigation, we must

first understand the meaning of the term. A three Judge Bench of this Court in H N

Rishbud and Inder Singh v. State of Delhi26 (“H N Rishbud”) outlined the various

steps of an investigation under the CrPC, while noting that investigation begins once

the police receives information that discloses the commission of a cognizable

offence. The Court held that investigation encompasses the steps taken by the

police to ascertain facts of the case and ends either with the filing of a charge-sheet

or a closure report based on such facts. Justice Jagannadhadas held thus:

“5…Investigation usually starts on information relating to

the commission of an offence given to an officer in

charge of a police station and recorded under Section

154 of the Code. If from information so received or

otherwise, the officer in charge of the police station has

reason to suspect the commission of an offence, he or

some other subordinate officer deputed by him, has to

proceed to the spot to investigate the facts and

circumstances of the case and if necessary to take

measures for the discovery and arrest of the offender.

Thus investigation primarily consists in the

ascertainment of the facts and circumstances of the

case. By definition, it includes “all the proceedings under the

Code for the collection of evidence conducted by a police

officer”. For the above purposes, the investigating officer is

given the power to require before himself the attendance of

any person appearing to be acquainted with the

circumstances of the case. He has also the authority to

examine such person orally either by himself or by a duly

authorised deputy. The officer examining any person in the

course of investigation may reduce his statement into writing

and such writing is available, in the trial that may follow, for

 26 (1955) 1 SCR 1150

PART D

24

use in the manner provided in this behalf in Section 162.

Under Section 155 the officer in charge of a police station has

the power of making a search in any place for the seizure of

anything believed to be necessary for the purpose of the

investigation. The search has to be conducted by such officer

in person. A subordinate officer may be deputed by him for

the purpose only for reasons to be recorded in writing if he is

unable to conduct the search in person and there is no other

competent officer available. The investigating officer has also

the power to arrest the person or persons suspected of the

commission of the offence under Section 54 of the Code. A

police officer making an investigation is enjoined to enter his

proceedings in a diary from day-to-day. Where such

investigation cannot be completed within the period of 24

hours and the accused is in custody he is enjoined also to

send a copy of the entries in the diary to the Magistrate

concerned. It is important to notice that where the

investigation is conducted not by the officer in charge of the

police station but by a subordinate officer (by virtue of one or

other of the provisions enabling him to depute such

subordinate officer for any of the steps in the investigation)

such subordinate officer is to report the result of the

investigation to the officer in charge of the police station. If,

upon the completion of the investigation it appears to the

officer in charge of the police station that there is no sufficient

evidence or reasonable ground, he may decide to release the

suspected accused, if in custody, on his executing a bond. If,

however, it appears to him that there is sufficient evidence or

reasonable ground, to place the accused on trial, he is to take

the necessary steps therefore under Section 170 of the Code.

In either case, on the completion of the investigation he has

to submit a report to the Magistrate under Section 173 of the

Code in the prescribed form furnishing various details. Thus,

under the Code investigation consists generally of the

following steps: (1) Proceeding to the spot, (2)

Ascertainment of the facts and circumstances of the

case, (3) Discovery and arrest of the suspected offender,

(4) Collection of evidence relating to the commission of

the offence which may consist of (a) the examination of

various persons (including the accused) and the

reduction of their statements into writing, if the officer

thinks fit, (b) the search of places or seizure of things

considered necessary for the investigation and to be

produced at the trial, and (5) Formation of the opinion as

to whether on the material collected there is a case to

place the accused before a Magistrate for trial and if so 

PART D

25

taking the necessary steps for the same by the filing of a

charge-sheet under Section 173…”

(emphasis supplied)

35 In Ramsinh Bavaji Jadeja v. State of Gujarat27, a two Judge Bench of this

Court held that the question as to when an investigation commences has to be

answered based upon the facts and circumstances of each case, with one of the

factors to be considered being whether the actions of the police were guided by

information which disclosed the commission of a cognizable offence. Justice N P

Singh held:

“7. From time to time, controversy has been raised, as to

at what stage the investigation commences. That has to

be considered and examined on the facts of each case,

especially, when the information of a cognizable offence has

been given on telephone. If the telephonic message is cryptic

in nature and the officer in charge, proceeds to the place of

occurrence on basis of that information to find out the details

of the nature of the offence itself, then it cannot be said that

the information, which had been received by him on

telephone, shall be deemed to be first information report. The

object and purpose of giving such telephonic message is not

to lodge the first information report, but to request the officer

in charge of the police station to reach the place of

occurrence. On the other hand, if the information given on

telephone is not cryptic and on the basis of that information,

the officer in charge, is prima facie satisfied about the

commission of a cognizable offence and he proceeds from

the police station after recording such information, to

investigate such offence then any statement made by any

person in respect of the said offence including details about

the participants, shall be deemed to be a statement made by

a person to the police officer “in the course of an

investigation”, covered by Section 162 of the Code. That

statement cannot be treated as first information report…”

 27 (1994) 2 SCC 685

PART D

26

36 In Union of India v. Prakash P. Hinduja28, another two Judge Bench held

that investigation includes all proceedings under the CrPC for the collection of

evidence by the police, which ends when there is enough evidence to determine

whether to place the accused person before a Magistrate. Justice G P Mathur

observed:

“11…Section 2(h) CrPC defines “investigation” and it includes

all the proceedings under the Code for the collection of

evidence conducted by a police officer or by any person

(other than a Magistrate) who is authorised by a Magistrate in

this behalf. It ends with the formation of the opinion as to

whether on the material collected, there is a case to place the

accused before a Magistrate for trial and if so, taking the

necessary steps for the same by filing of a charge-sheet

under Section 173 [see State of U.P. v. Bhagwant Kishore

Joshi [AIR 1964 SC 221 : (1964) 1 Cri LJ 140] , AIR (para 8)

and H.N. Rishbud v. State of Delhi [AIR 1955 SC 196 : (1955)

1 SCR 1150 : 1955 Cri LJ 526] , SCR at p. 1157].”

37 From the above line of cases, what emerges is that an investigation

commences upon the receipt of information by the police which discloses the

commission of a cognizable offence. However, the mere receipt and recording of

such information (through an FIR) by itself does not mean that the investigation has

also commenced. Rather, the investigation commences when the police takes the

first step (of proceeding to the spot or collecting evidence or speaking to a witness

or arresting the accused person) on the basis of such information.

38 In the present case, the investigation was initiated by the ATS Nanded

following the registration of the FIR on 14 July 2016, on receipt of source information

 28 (2003) 6 SCC 195

PART D

27

that Naser Bin Abu Bakr Yafai was in contact over the internet with members of

IS/ISIS/ISIL/Daesh. This led to the arrest of four accused persons, including Naser

Bin Abu Bakr Yafai and Mohammad Shahed Khan. Thereafter, considering the

gravity of the offence involved, the Central government directed the NIA Mumbai to

take up further investigation of the case on 8 September 2016, exercising its powers

under Section 6(4) of the NIA Act. The NIA Mumbai re-numbered the case on 14

September 2016. However, the NIA Mumbai intimated the ATS Nanded to transfer

the case records to them on 23 November 2016, and it was only on 8 December

2016 that the records were handed over to the NIA Mumbai by the ATS Nanded.

ATS Nanded filed the charge-sheet before the CJM, Nanded on 7 October 2016

(which was prior to even the letter of the NIA Mumbai dated 23 November 2016 for

the handing over of the case records). Likewise, the CJM, Nanded took cognizance

of the offence and committed the case to trial before the ASJ, Nanded on 18

October 2016.

39 The contention of the ATS Nanded is that the investigation by them until the

NIA Mumbai took up the investigation of the case was in terms of the mandate of

sub-Section (7) of Section 6 since the provision states that “till the [NIA] takes up the

investigation of the case, it shall be the duty of the officer in-charge of the Police

Station to continue the investigation”. In the present case, the NIA Mumbai intimated

the ATS Nanded to transfer the case papers on 23 November 2016, following which

the ATS Nanded sent the papers on 8 December 2016. While the NIA Mumbai may

have re-numbered the case file on 14 September 2016, it could not have taken the

PART E

28

initial step of its investigation into the case till it had access to the case papers,

which it only received from the ATS Nanded on 8 December 2016. Thus, the mere

renumbering of the case filed by the NIA Mumbai did not take away the power of the

ATS Nanded to continue the investigation. The said authority could do so till the

records of the case were received by the NIA Mumbai. Hence, the investigation

conducted by the ATS Nanded prior to this was within the mandate of sub-Section

(7) of Section 6 of the NIA Act. The said provision is clarificatory in nature so as to

remove any doubt about the duty of the officer in-charge of the police station to

continue the investigation till the ‘Agency’, i.e., the NIA Mumbai in the instant case,

took up the investigation on receipt of the case papers. Therefore, the continuation

of the investigation, and the filing of the charge-sheet upon its conclusion, by the

ATS Nanded was in terms of the statutory mandate under Section 6(7) of the NIA

Act.

E CJM, Nanded’s jurisdiction for remand and committal to trial

40 The second ground which has been urged on behalf of the appellants is that

the submission of the charge-sheet before the CJM, Nanded and the order of

committal are a nullity since the jurisdiction to investigate the offence was entrusted

to the NIA Mumbai and the jurisdiction was vested with the Special Court. The

continuation of the investigation by the ATS Nanded has been analysed above and it

has been held to be in accordance with the mandate of Section 6(7) of the NIA Act.

Now, sub-Section (1) of Section 11 empowers the Central government to constitute 

PART E

29

Special Courts “for the trial of scheduled offence”. Sub-Section (1) of Section 13

provides that, notwithstanding anything contained in the CrPC, every scheduled

offence investigated by the NIA shall be tried only by the Special Court. Hence, the

exclusive jurisdiction of the Special Court to try a scheduled offence under subSection (1) of Section 13 attaches where the scheduled offence has been

“investigated by the [NIA]”. Further, sub-Section (1) of Section 16 is an enabling

provision which empowers a Special Court to take cognizance of any offence

without the accused being committed to it for trial upon receiving a complaint of facts

which constitute such offence or upon a police report of such offence. However, this

clearly would not affect either the antecedent investigation by the ATS Nanded prior

to the NIA Mumbai having taken up the investigation or the submission of the

charge-sheet as a logical consequence of the investigation which was conducted by

the ATS Nanded. The enabling provisions of sub-Section (1) of Section 16 would not

invalidate the submission of the charge-sheet to the CJM, Nanded or the order of

committal made to the ASJ, Nanded.

41 In this context, it would be worthwhile to revisit the fundamental principle

which was enunciated by the Bench of three learned Judges in H N Rishbud

(supra). It was held that the cognizance or trial based on it would not necessarily be

nullified even in a case where the investigation was found to be invalid. The Court,

speaking through Justice Jagannadhadas, held:

“9...Now, trial follows cognizance and cognizance is preceded

by investigation. This is undoubtedly the basic scheme of the

Code in respect of cognizable cases. But it does not 

PART E

30

necessarily follow that an invalid investigation nullifies the

cognizance or trial based thereon. Here we are not concerned

with the effect of the breach of a mandatory provision

regulating the competence or procedure of the Court as

regards cognizance or trial…”

The Court held that if therefore cognizance is in fact taken, on a police report vitiated

by the breach of a mandatory provision relating to an investigation, “there can be no

doubt that the result of the trial which follows cannot be set aside unless illegality in

the investigation can be shown to have brought about a miscarriage of justice”:

“9… If, therefore, cognizance is in fact taken, on a police

report vitiated by the breach of a mandatory provision relating

to investigation, there can be no doubt that the result of the

trial which follows it cannot be set aside unless the illegality in

the investigation can be shown to have brought about a

miscarriage of justice. That an illegality committed in the

course of investigation does not affect the competence and

the jurisdiction of the Court for trial is well settled as appears

from the cases in Prabhu v. Emperor [AIR 1944 Privy Council

73] and Lumbhardar Zutshi v. King [AIR 1950 Privy Council

26] . These no doubt relate to the illegality of arrest in the

course of investigation while we are concerned in the present

cases with the illegality with reference to the machinery for

the collection of the evidence. This distinction may have a

bearing on the question of prejudice or miscarriage of justice,

but both the cases clearly show that invalidity of the

investigation has no relation to the competence of the Court.

We are, therefore, clearly, also, of the opinion that where the

cognizance of the case has in fact been taken and the case

has proceeded to termination, the invalidity of the precedent

investigation does not vitiate the result, unless miscarriage of

justice has been caused thereby.”

42 We must of course clarify that in the present case, the Court is dealing with a

situation where the investigation by the ATS Nanded was valid in terms of the

provisions of Section 6(7) of the NIA Act.

PART E

31

43 However, a second argument which has been urged by the appellants is that

even if the ATS Nanded had the power to continue with its investigation and file a

charge-sheet, it could only be before a Special Court under the NIA Act since the

appellants have been charged under the UAPA, which is a scheduled offence under

the NIA Act.

44 In support of this proposition, reliance has been placed upon a judgment of a

three Judge Bench of this Court in Bikramjit Singh v. State of Punjab29 (“Bikramjit

Singh”). In Bikramjit Singh (supra), an FIR was registered on 18 November 2018

implicating offences under Sections 302, 307, 452, 427, 341 and 34 of the IPC

together with Section 25 of the Arms Act 1959, Sections 3 to 6 of the ES Act and

Section 13 of the UAPA. The appellant was arrested on 22 November 2018. After

the 90 days period expired on 31 December 2019, the appellant submitted an

application for default bail to the Sub-Divisional Judicial Magistrate30, which was

dismissed by an order dated 25 February 2019, on the ground that by an order

dated 13 February 2019, the SDJM had already extended time from 90 to 180 days

under Section 167 of the CrPC, as amended by Section 43D(2) of the UAPA. The

revision petition filed by the petitioner, against the SDJM’s order dated 12 February

2019, before the ASJ, which was the Special Court designated under Section 22 of

the NIA Act, succeeded on 25 March 2019 with the finding that only the Special

Court was competent to pass an order on an application moved under Section

43D(2) of the UAPA. A day subsequent to it, on 26 March 2019, a charge-sheet was

 29 (2020) 10 SCC 616 30 “SDJM”

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filed before the Special Court. Thereafter, despite the order dated 25 March 2019, a

revision petition filed by the appellant against the order dated 25 February 2019 was

dismissed by the Special Court on 11 April 2019, thereby refusing to grant default

bail. The High Court then observed that since the investigation was being carried out

by the State Police, the Magistrate had the power under Section 167(2) of the CrPC

read with Section 43A of the UAPA to extend the period of investigation up to 180

days and then commit the case to the Court of Sessions. In this backdrop, Justice

Rohinton F Nariman, speaking for the three Judge Bench, held that a notification by

the Government of Punjab had been issued under Section 22 for setting up Special

Courts within the State of Punjab on 10 June 2014. After adverting to Sections 13(1)

and Section 22(2) of the NIA Act, the Court observed:

“25. When these provisions are read along with Section

2(1)(d) and the provisos in Section 43-D(2) of the UAPA, the

scheme of the two Acts, which are to be read together,

becomes crystal clear. Under the first proviso in Section 43-

D(2)(b), the 90-day period indicated by the first proviso to

Section 167(2) of the Code can be extended up to a

maximum period of 180 days if “the Court” is satisfied with the

report of the Public Prosecutor indicating progress of

investigation and specific reasons for detention of the

accused beyond the period of 90 days. “The Court”, when

read with the extended definition contained in Section

2(1)(d) of the UAPA, now speaks of the Special Court

constituted under Section 22 of the NIA Act. What

becomes clear, therefore, from a reading of these

provisions is that for all offences under the UAPA, the

Special Court alone has exclusive jurisdiction to try such

offences. This becomes even clearer on a reading of

Section 16 of the NIA Act which makes it clear that the

Special Court may take cognizance of an offence without

the accused being committed to it for trial upon receipt of

a complaint of facts or upon a police report of such facts.

What is equally clear from a reading of Section 16(2) of the

NIA Act is that even though offences may be punishable with 

PART E

33

imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years, the Special

Court alone is to try such offence — albeit in a summary way

if it thinks it fit to do so. On a conspectus of the

abovementioned provisions, Section 13 read with Section

22(2)(ii) of the NIA Act, in particular, the argument of the

learned counsel appearing on behalf of the State of Punjab

based on Section 10 of the said Act has no legs to stand on

since the Special Court has exclusive jurisdiction over every

Scheduled Offence investigated by the investigating agency

of the State.

26. Before the NIA Act was enacted, offences under the

UAPA were of two kinds — those with a maximum

imprisonment of over 7 years, and those with a maximum

imprisonment of 7 years and under. Under the Code as

applicable to offences against other laws, offences having a

maximum sentence of 7 years and under are triable by the

Magistrate's courts, whereas offences having a maximum

sentence of above 7 years are triable by Courts of Session.

This scheme has been completely done away with by the

NIA Act, 2008 as all Scheduled Offences i.e. all offences

under the UAPA, whether investigated by the National

Investigation Agency or by the investigating agencies of

the State Government, are to be tried exclusively by

Special Courts set up under that Act. In the absence of

any designated court by notification issued by either the

Central Government or the State Government, the

fallback is upon the Court of Session alone. Thus, under

the aforesaid scheme what becomes clear is that so far

as all offences under the UAPA are concerned, the

Magistrate's jurisdiction to extend time under the first

proviso in Section 43-D(2)(b) is non-existent, “the Court”

being either a Sessions Court, in the absence of a

notification specifying a Special Court, or the Special

Court itself. The impugned judgment in arriving at the

contrary conclusion is incorrect as it has missed Section 22(2)

read with Section 13 of the NIA Act. Also, the impugned

judgment has missed Section 16(1) of the NIA Act which

states that a Special Court may take cognizance of any

offence without the accused being committed to it for trial,

inter alia, upon a police report of such facts.”

(emphasis supplied)

PART E

34

The above narration would indicate that the power to extend the 90 days period,

indicated by the first proviso to Section 167(2) of the CrPC, up to a maximum of 180

days was vested with “the Court”. “The Court”, read with the definition contained in

Section 2(1)(d) of the UAPA, was held to refer to the Special Court constituted under

Section 22 of the NIA Act. Hence, this Court held that the Special Court constituted

under Section 22 of the NIA Act had exclusive jurisdiction over every scheduled

offence under the NIA Act investigated by the investigating agency of the State.

45 The judgment in Bikramjit Singh (supra) has been cited in another three

Judge Bench in M Ravindran v. Intelligence Officer, Directorate of Revenue

Intelligence31. In that case, the appellant was arrested and remanded to judicial

custody on 4 August 2018, for alleged offences punishable under the Narcotic Drugs

and Psychotropic Substances Act 198532. After the completion of 180 days from the

remand day (31 January 2019), an application for bail was filed on 1 February 2019

under Section 167(2) of the CrPC before the Special Court for exclusive trial of

cases under the NDPS Act. After the completion of the arguments of the appellant

on the application for bail, the respondent-complainant filed an additional complaint

on 1 February 2019, and sought the dismissal of the bail petition on the basis that

the investigation was not complete and the charge-sheet had not been filed. The trial

Court allowed the application for bail but this was set aside by the High Court, since

the additional complaint was filed on 1 February 2019 and the application for bail

under Section 167(2) was not disposed of by the time the additional complaint was

 31 (2021) 2 SCC 485 32 “NDPS Act”

PART E

35

filed. Justice M M Shantanagoudar, speaking for the three Judge Bench, referred to

the judgment in Bikramjit Singh (supra) and observed that so long as the

application for the grant of default bail was made on the expiry of the period of 90

days before a charge-sheet has filed, the right to default bail becomes complete.

Hence, the Court held that so long as an application has been made for default bail

on the expiry of the stated period (before time is further extended to a maximum of

180 days) default bail being an indefeasible right of the accused under the first

proviso to Section 167(2) of the CrPC kicks in and must be granted. Applying the

law to the facts, the Court held:

“25. Therefore, in conclusion:

25.1. Once the accused files an application for bail under the

proviso to Section 167(2) he is deemed to have “availed of” or

enforced his right to be released on default bail, accruing after

expiry of the stipulated time-limit for investigation. Thus, if the

accused applies for bail under Section 167(2) CrPC read with

Section 36-A(4), NDPS Act upon expiry of 180 days or the

extended period, as the case may be, the court must release

him on bail forthwith without any unnecessary delay after

getting necessary information from the Public Prosecutor, as

mentioned supra. Such prompt action will restrict the

prosecution from frustrating the legislative mandate to release

the accused on bail in case of default by the investigating

agency.

25.2. The right to be released on default bail continues to

remain enforceable if the accused has applied for such bail,

notwithstanding pendency of the bail application; or

subsequent filing of the charge-sheet or a report seeking

extension of time by the prosecution before the court; or filing

of the charge-sheet during the interregnum when challenge to

the rejection of the bail application is pending before a higher

court.

25.3. However, where the accused fails to apply for default

bail when the right accrues to him, and subsequently a

charge-sheet, additional complaint or a report seeking 

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36

extension of time is preferred before the Magistrate, the right

to default bail would be extinguished. The Magistrate would

be at liberty to take cognizance of the case or grant further

time for completion of the investigation, as the case may be,

though the accused may still be released on bail under other

provisions of the CrPC.

25.4. Notwithstanding the order of default bail passed by the

court, by virtue of Explanation I to Section 167(2), the actual

release of the accused from custody is contingent on the

directions passed by the competent court granting bail. If the

accused fails to furnish bail and/or comply with the terms and

conditions of the bail order within the time stipulated by the

court, his continued detention in custody is valid.”


46 The judgment in Bikramjit Singh (supra) has been followed in another recent

decision by a three Judge Bench in Sadique v. State of Madhya Pradesh33, where

it was held that the appellants were entitled to default bail since the CJM, Bhopal

had no jurisdiction to extend time for investigation under Section 43D(2)(b) of the

UAPA, as such jurisdiction vested only with Special Courts. In Fakhrey Alam v.

State of Uttar Pradesh34, a two Judge Bench of this Court distinguished Bikramjit

Singh (supra) in a case where the CJM had granted 180 days for the filing of

charge-sheet by accepting the submission that “in State of Uttar Pradesh the

competent Court was of the special Chief Judicial Magistrate and it is only recently

now about a month back that special Courts had been notified” and by holding that

“the situation in the State of Uttar Pradesh is different and it is not as if there were

any notified special courts in existence”.

 33 Criminal Appeal No 963 of 2021, order dated 7 September 2021 34 2021 SCC OnLine SC 532

PART E

37

47 In the present case, the appellants were arrested on 14 July 2016. The

charge-sheet was submitted on 7 October 2016. The 90 days period of remand

would have been completed on 14 October 2016. Applying the principles enunciated

in Bikramjit Singh (supra) (in relation to the power of the CJM to extend

investigation up to 180 days) to the present case (in relation to the jurisdiction of the

CJM in relation to remand and committal of case to trial), the first consideration

would be whether there existed a Special Court under Section 22 of the NIA Act to

divest the CJM, Nanded of its jurisdiction. The appellants have produced before us

various notifications issued by the Government of Maharashtra designating Special

Courts under Section 22 for trial of schedules offences under the NIA Act. The

earliest of those notifications is dated 13 April 2017. In its counter-affidavit before

this Court, the State of Maharashtra has stated that:

“8…the present Crime No. i.e. 08/2016 has been registered

against accused/Petitioner on 14/07/2016. As per record of

the office of deponent it appears that till the date of

registration of Crime No. 08/2016, the State Government has

not established Special Court under Section 22 National

Investigation Act, 2008 at Nanded.”

Hence, the principle enunciated by this Court in Bikramjit Singh (supra) would not

apply to the present case since there existed no Special Courts in the State of

Maharashtra designated under Section 22 of the NIA Act (since the investigation

was being conducted by the ATS Nanded, which had the jurisdiction over the case).

PART E

38

48 We have already held that the continuance of the investigation by the ATS

Nanded in terms of Section 6(7) of the NIA Act, till the investigation had been taken

up by the NIA Mumbai, was legitimate. A reading of Section 10 of the NIA Act

indicates that there is no embargo on the State Investigating Agency to investigate a

scheduled offence, which would include offences under the UAPA. Consequently, till

the investigation was taken up by the NIA Mumbai, the ATS Nanded was acting

within jurisdiction in investigating the offence and filing the charge-sheet in the

present case. Both of these took place prior to 8 December 2016, which is when the

investigation was handed over to the NIA Mumbai. Admittedly, once the NIA Mumbai

took up the investigation, the Special Court designated under Section 11 of the NIA

Act would have sole jurisdiction to try the case. In the present case, the NIA Mumbai

took up the investigation only on 8 December 2016 after receiving the records from

the ATS Nanded, and thereupon it filed an application for transfer of the case from

the ASJ, Nanded to the NIA Special Court, Mumbai constituted under Section 11 of

the NIA Act.

49 However, till the NIA Mumbai took over the investigation, jurisdiction would

reside with a Court which ordinarily had it. The Government of Maharashtra in

exercise of powers conferred by Section 11 read with Section 185 of the CrPC

issued a notification dated 26 August 2016 designating the CJM, Nanded as the

remand court and the ASJ, Nanded as a Special Court for the trial of cases filed by

the ATS Nanded. There is no challenge to the notification dated 26 August 2016. In

PART F

39

this backdrop, the CJM, Nanded has been designated as a Court of remand and the

ASJ, Nanded as a Special Court under the CrPC for the trial of cases filed by the

ATS Nanded. Hence, they both had the jurisdiction to entertain the present case

under the UAPA till the NIA Mumbai took over the investigation on 8 December

2016, and sought a transfer of the case to the NIA Special Court at Mumbai

constituted under Section 11 of the NIA Act.

F Conclusion

50 For the above reasons, we affirm the judgment and order of the High Court

dated 5 July 2018. We hold that, in accordance with Section 6(7), the ATS Nanded

was not barred from continuing with its investigation till the NIA Mumbai actually took

up the investigation. Further, we hold that the CJM, Nanded could have committed

the case to trial before the ASJ, Nanded upon the filing of charge-sheet by the ATS

Nanded since they were the designated Courts for the ATS Nanded and no Special

Court had been designated by the Government of Maharashtra under Section 22 of

the NIA Act.

PART F

40

51 The appeals shall, accordingly, stand dismissed.

52 Pending application(s), if any, stand disposed of.

…..…….………….…………………...........................J.

[Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud]

…..…….………….…………………...........................J.

 [Vikram Nath]

…..…….………….…………………...........................J.

 [BV Nagarathna]

New Delhi;

October 20, 2021.