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Monday, October 1, 2018

Consumer Case - MEDICAL NEGLIGENCE - no medical evidence of any expert was adduced = In our opinion, there has to be a direct nexus with these two factors to sue a doctor for his negligence. Suffering of ailment by the patient after surgery is one thing. It may be due to myriad reasons known in medical jurisprudence. Whereas suffering of any such ailment as a result of improper performance of the surgery and that too with the degree of negligence on the part of Doctor is another thing. To prove the case of negligence of a doctor, the medical evidence of experts in field to prove the latter is required. Simply proving the former is not sufficient. = not able to prove that the ailments which she suffered after she returned home from the Hospital on 08.08.1996 were as a result of faulty surgery performed by the appellant. = It is apt to remember the words of the then Chief Justice of India when he said in Jacob Mathew’s case (supra) which reads as under: “The subject of negligence in the context of medical profession necessarily calls for treatment with a difference. There is a marked tendency to look for a human actor to blame for an untoward event, a tendency that is closely linked with a desire to punish. Things have gone wrong and therefore somebody must be found to answer for it. An empirical study reveals that background to a mishap is frequently far more complex than may generally be assumed. It can be demonstrated that actual blame for the outcome has to be attributed with great caution. For a medical accident or failure, the responsibility may lie with the medical practitioner, and equally it may not. The inadequacies of the system, the specific circumstances of the case, the nature of human psychology itself and sheer chance may have combined to produce a result in which the doctor’s contribution is either relatively or completely blameless. The human body and its working is nothing less than a highly complex machine. Coupled with the complexities of medical science, the scope for misimpressions, misgivings and misplaced allegations against eh operator i.e. the doctor, cannot be ruled out. One may have notions of best or ideal practice which are different from the reality of how medical practice is carried on or how the doctor functions in real life. The factors of pressing need and limited resources cannot be ruled out from consideration. Dealing with a case of medical negligence needs a deeper understanding of the practical side of medicine. The purpose of holding a professional liable for his act or omission, if negligent, is to make life safer and to eliminate the possibility of recurrence of negligence in future. The human body and medical science, both are too complex to be easily understood. To hold in favour of existence of negligence, associated with the action or inaction of a medical professional, requires an in­depth understanding of the working of a professional as also the nature of the job and of errors committed by chance, which do not necessarily involve the element of culpability.”= the appeal succeeds and is accordingly allowed. The impugned order is set aside and that of the order passed by the State Commission is restored.

          REPORTABLE
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CIVIL APPEAL No.3971 OF 2011
Dr. S.K. Jhunjhunwala          ….Appellant(s)
VERSUS
Mrs. Dhanwanti Kumar & Anr.        …Respondent(s)
J U D G M E N T
Abhay Manohar Sapre, J.
1. This   appeal   is   directed   against   the   final
judgment and order dated 01.09.2009 passed by
the   National   Consumer   Disputes   Redressal
Commission (hereinafter referred to as “the National
Commission”), at New Delhi in First Appeal No. 93
of 2004 whereby the National Commission allowed
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the appeal filed by respondent No.1 and set aside
the   order   dated   19.01.2004   of   the   State
Commission,   West   Bengal,   Kolkata   in   Complaint
Case No.698/O/1997.
2. In order to appreciate the issue involved in the
appeal, it is necessary to set out the relevant facts
hereinbelow.
3. The   appellant   was   the   opposite   party   No.1
whereas   the   respondent   No.1   herein   was   the
complainant and respondent No.2 herein was the
opposite party No.2 in the complaint out of which
this appeal arises.
4. The appellant is a doctor by profession and is
practicing in Calcutta since 1969.  He is a qualified
Surgeon having expertise, especially in gall bladder
surgery.   He   obtained   his   MBBS   degree   from
Banaras Hindu University in 1968 and thereafter
went to England and obtained FRCS degree in 1976.
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He then worked for seven years in various hospitals
in England as a Surgeon and returned to India in
1978 and settled in Calcutta.   He was a visiting
consultant  to several Hospitals out of which one
was­Life Line Diagnostic Center and Nursing Home
(respondent No.2 herein) at Calcutta where he used
to perform operations on his patients.
5. Respondent No.1(complainant)­a lady, who,  at
the relevant time, was residing in Calcutta felt pain
in   her   abdomen   in   June   1996.     She,   therefore,
consulted a local doctor but she did not get any
relief.   Therefore, she consulted Dr. Lakshmi Basu
who,   on   examination,   advised   her   to   get   some
medical   tests   done   such   as   X­ray,   PA   Chest,
Ultrasound   of   upper   abdomen   Endoscopy,   Blood
Tests etc. Respondent No.1, as advised, carried out
these medical tests. On examination of the reports
of respondent No.1, Dr. Basu opined that her Gall
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Bladder had two calculi in its lumen and the same
could   be   cured   only   by   operation.   Dr.   Basu
accordingly   advised   respondent   No.1   to   undergo
laparoscopic surgery from any good Surgeon and
suggested the name of the appellant.
6. Respondent   No.1,   as   advised,   consulted   Dr.
S.K. Jhunjunwala­the appellant herein who, after
her examination  and also her medical test reports,
agreed with the advise of Dr. Basu and accordingly
advised respondent No.1 for undergoing Surgery of
her   Gall   Bladder.   The   appellant   also   advised
respondent   No.1   to   get   herself   admitted   in
respondent No.2’s Hospital for undergoing Surgery.
7. On   07.08.1996,   respondent   No.1   got   herself
admitted in respondent No.2’s Hospital as an indoor
patient. On 08.08.1996 the appellant performed the
laparoscopy   and   after   that   open   surgery   and
removed   the   Gall   Bladder   of   respondent   No.1.
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Respondent No.1 was in the hospital for about a
week   or   ten   days   for   post­operative   care   and
thereafter she was discharged.
8. In   December   1997,   respondent   No.1   filed   a
complaint   under   Section   10   of   the   Consumer
Protection Act, 1986 (for short, “the Act”) against
the appellant (opposite party No.1) and respondent
No.2 (opposite party No.2) claiming compensation
for the loss, mental suffering and pain suffered by
her   throughout   after   the   surgery   on   account   of
negligence   of   the   appellant   in   performing   the
surgery   of   her   Gall   Bladder   on   08.08.1996.
Respondent   No.1,   in   substance,   complained   that
firstly,   she   had   never   given   her   consent   for
performing   general   Surgery   of   her   Gall   Bladder
rather   she   had   given   consent   for   performing
laparoscopy   Surgery   only   but   the   appellant
performed general surgery of her Gall Bladder which
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resulted in putting several stitches and scars on her
body,   Secondly, even the surgery performed was
not   successful   inasmuch   as   respondent   No.1
thereafter   suffered   for   several   days   with   various
ailments,   such   as   dysentery,   loss   of   appetite,
reduction of weight, jaundice etc., Thirdly, in June
1997,   she   was,   therefore,     required   to   undergo
another Surgery in Ganga Ram Hospital, Delhi for
removal of stones which had slipped in CBD.  It was
alleged that all these ailments were incurred due to
the negligence of the appellant, who did not perform
the   surgery   properly   and   rather   performed   the
surgery   carelessly   leaving   behind   for   respondent
No.1   only   mental   agony,   pain,   harassment   and
money loss and hence she filed a complaint to claim
the   reasonable   amount   of   compensation   under
various heads as mentioned above.
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9.   The appellant filed his reply and denied the
allegations   made   by   respondent   No.1   in   her
complaint. In substance, the appellant stated in his
reply   that   he,   after   examining   respondent   No.1,
advised her to go for surgery of Gall Bladder, which
may even include removal of Gall Bladder. It was
stated   that   consent   of   respondent   No.1   for
performing   the   laparoscopic   cholecystectomy   was
duly obtained before performing the surgery. The
appellant   stated   that   after   starting   laparoscopic
surgery,   he   noticed   swelling,   inflammation   and
adhesion   on   her   Gall   Bladder   and,   therefore,   he
came out of the Operation Theater and disclosed
these facts to respondent No.1's husband and told
him that in such a situation it would not be possible
to   perform   laparoscopic   surgery   and   only
conventional procedure of surgery is the option to
remove   the   malady.   The   husband   of   respondent
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No.1   agreed   for   the   option   suggested   by   the
appellant and the appellant accordingly performed
conventional   surgery.     Respondent   No.1   was
discharged after spending few days in the Hospital
for   post­operative   care.   The   appellant,   therefore,
denied any kind of negligence or carelessness or
inefficiency on his part in performing the surgery on
respondent   No.1   and   stated   that   all   kinds   of
precautions to the best of his ability and capacity,
which were necessary to perform the surgery were
taken   by   him   and   by   the   team   of   doctors   that
worked with him in all such operational cases. 
10. Parties adduced affidavit evidence in support
of their respective cases set up in their pleadings.
The State Commission, by order dated 19.01.2004,
dismissed the complaint filed by respondent No.1
finding   no   merit   therein.   Respondent   No.1   felt
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aggrieved   and   filed   appeal   before   the   National
Commission.
11. By impugned order, the National Commission
allowed the appeal filed by respondent No.1 in part
and awarded a total compensation of Rs.2 lakhs to
be   paid   by   the   appellant   to   respondent   No.1   on
account of negligence on his part in performing the
surgery   which   gives   rise   to   filing   of   the   present
appeal by way of special leave in this Court by the
appellant­Dr.   S.K.   Jhunjhnwala(opposite   party
No.1).
12. The   short   question,   which   arises   for
consideration in this case, is whether the National
Commission   was   justified   in   allowing   respondent
No.1’s appeal and was, therefore, justified in holding
the   appellant   (opposite   party   No.1)   negligent   in
performing   the   Surgery   of   Gall   Bladder   of
respondent No.1 and, in consequence thereof, was
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justified   in   awarding   Rs.2   lakhs   by   way   of
compensation to respondent No.1.
13. Heard   Mr.   Ateev   Kumar   Mathur,   learned
counsel for the appellant and Mrs. Rupali Samanta
Ghosh, learned counsel for respondent No.1.
14. Having   heard   the   learned   counsel   for   the
parties and on perusal of the record of the case, we
are inclined to allow the appeal and while setting
aside the impugned order restore the order of the
State Commission for the following reasons.
15.   Before we proceed to examine the facts of this
case, it is apposite to take note of legal principle
that governs the controversy involved in the appeal.
16. The question as to how and by which principle,
the Court should decide the issue of negligence of a
professional   doctor   and   hold   him   liable   for   his
medical acts/advise given by him/her to his patient
which caused him/her some monetary loss, mental
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and physical harassment, injury and suffering on
account of doctor’s medical advise/treatment (oral
or operation) is no longer  res integra  and settled
long back by the series of English decisions as well
as the decisions of this Court.
17. The classic exposition of law on this subject is
first laid down in a decision of Queens Bench in a
leading   case   of  Bolam vs. Friern   Hospital
Management Committee [1957]1WLR 582 = (1957)
2 All ER 118 (QBD).
18. McNair J., in his opinion, explained the law in
the following words:
“Where you get a situation which involves the
use of some special skill or competence, then
the   test   as   to   whether   there   has   been
negligence or not is not the test of the man
on the top of a Clapham omnibus, because he
has not got this special skill.  The test is the
standard   of   the   ordinary   skilled   man
exercising and professing to have that special
skill.     A  man  need  not  possess   the  highest
expert skill ….. It is well­established law that
it   is   sufficient   if   he   exercises   the   ordinary
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skill   of   an   ordinary   competent   man
exercising that particular art”
19. The aforesaid principle of law was reiterated
and explained by Bingham L.J. in his speech in
Eckersley  vs.  Binnie  (1988) 18 Con LR 1 in the
following words: 
“From   these   general   statements   it   follows
that a professional man should command the
corpus of knowledge which forms part of the
professional   equipment   of   the   ordinary
member of his profession. He should not lag
behind   other   ordinary   assiduous   and
intelligent  members  of  his  profession   in  the
knowledge  of  new  advances,  discoveries  and
developments   in   his   field.   He   should   have
such   an   awareness   as   an   ordinarily
competent   practitioner   would   have   of   the
deficiencies   in   his   knowledge   and   the
limitations on his skill. He should be alert to
the hazards and risks in any professional task
he   undertakes   to   the   extent   that   other
ordinarily   competent   members   of   the
profession  would  be  alert.  He  must  bring  to
any  professional  task  he  undertakes  no   less
expertise, skill and care than other ordinarily
competent  members  of  his  profession  would
bring, but need bring no more. The standard
is   that   of   the   reasonable   average.   The   law
does  not  require  of  a  professional  man  that
he   be   a  paragon   combining   the   qualities   of
polymath and prophet.”
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20. All along and till date, the law laid down in
Bolam’s case  (supra) is consistently followed by all
the   Courts   all   over   the   World   including   Indian
Courts as laying down the correct principle of law
on the subject.  It is known as Bolam Test.
21. So   far   as   this   Court   is   concerned,   a   Three
Judge Bench in the case of Jacob Mathew vs. State
of  Punjab  [(2005) 6 SCC 1] examined this issue.
Chief Justice R.C. Lahoti, (as he then was) speaking
for the Bench extensively referred to the law laid
down in  Bolam’s  case  (supra) and in  Eckersley’s
case  (supra)   and   placing   reliance   on   these   two
decisions observed in his distinctive style of writing
that the classical statement of law in Bolam’s case
(supra) has been widely accepted as decisive of the
standard of care required by both of professional
men generally and medical practitioner in particular
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and it is invariably cited with approval before the
Courts in India and applied as a touchstone to test
the pleas of medical negligence. 
22. It was held that a Physician would not assure
the patient of full recovery in every case. A surgeon
cannot and does not guarantee that the result of
surgery would invariably be beneficial, much less to
the extent of 100 % for the person operated on.  The
only assurance which such a professional can give
or can be understood to have given by implication is
that he is possessed of the requisite skill in that
branch   of   profession   which   he   is   practicing   and
while   undertaking   the   performance   of   the   task
entrusted to him he would be exercising his skill
with reasonable competence. This is what the entire
person   approaching   the   professional   can   expect.
Judged by this standard, a professional may be held
liable for negligence on one of two findings: either he
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was not possessed of the requisite skill which he
professed to have possessed, or, he did not exercise,
with reasonable competence in the given case, the
skill which he did not possess.
23. It was further observed that the fact that a
defendant charged with negligence acted in accord
with the general and approved practice is enough to
clear   him   of   the   charge.   It   was   held   that   the
standard of care, when assessing the practice as
adopted,   is   judged   in   the   light   of   knowledge
available at the time of the incident and not at the
date of trial. It was held that the standard to be
applied for judging whether the person charged has
been negligent or not would be that of an ordinary
competent person exercising ordinary skill in that
profession.  It is not possible for every professional
to possess the highest level of expertise or skills in
that   branch   which   he   practices.   His   Lordship
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quoted   with   approval   the   subtle   observations   of
Lord Denning made in  Hucks  vs.  Cole  (1968) 118
New LJ 469, namely,   “a medical practitioner was
not be held liable simply because things went wrong
from mischance or misadventure or through an error
of judgment  in choosing one reasonable  course of
treatment   in   preference   of   another.   A   medical
practitioner   would   be   held   liable   only   where   his
conduct   fell   below   that   of   the   standards   of   a
reasonably competent practitioner in his field.”
24. In our view, the facts of the case at hand has
to be examined in the light of the aforesaid principle
of law with a view to find out as to whether the
appellant­a doctor by profession and who treated
respondent   No.1   and   performed   surgery   on   her
could be held negligent in performing the general
surgery of her Gall Bladder on 08.08.1996.
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25. It   is   not   in   dispute   that   the   appellant   is   a
professionally trained doctor and has acquired the
post­graduate   degree   in   the   subject   (FRCS)   from
London way back in 1976 and worked there (UK) for
seven years and earned enough experience in the
field of surgery. It is also not in dispute that since
1976/1977, he has been in the field of surgery in
India   till   the   date   he   performed   operation   of
respondent No.1 on 08.08.1996.
26. These undisputed facts, in our opinion, clearly
prove that the appellant is a qualified senior doctor
with   an   experience   in   the   field   and   had   also
possessed the requisite knowledge and skill in the
subject to perform the surgery of Gall Bladder.
27. It   is   also   not   in   dispute   that   initially   he
proceeded to perform the laparoscopy surgery of the
Gall   Bladder   of   respondent   No.1   as   advised   but
while so performing he noticed some inflammation,
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adhesion   and   swelling   on   the   Gall   Bladder   and,
therefore,   decided   to   perform   the   conventional
surgery, which he actually did on respondent No.1,
to remove the Gall Bladder.
28.    According to respondent No.1, the appellant
could not have done so because she had not given
her consent to him to perform this surgery on her.
In other words, according to respondent No.1, she
had given her express consent in writing to perform
only “laparoscopy surgery” but the appellant instead
of   performing   “laparoscopy   surgery”   proceeded   to
perform conventional surgery and in that process
removed her Gall Bladder.  It is due to this reason,
according   to   respondent   No.1,   a   clear   case   of
negligence on the part of the appellant is made out
which   entitles   respondent   No.1   to   claim
compensation in terms of money.
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29.   The   State   Commission   did   not   accept   the
aforementioned submission of respondent No.1 but
this   submission   found   favour   to   the   National
Commission   for   holding   the   appellant   guilty   of
negligence in performance of his duty in performing
the surgery.  We do not agree with the reasoning of
the   National   Commission   on   this   issue   for   more
than one reason mentioned below.
30. First,   clause   4   of   the   Consent   Form   dated
07.08.1996   at   page   282   of   the   SLP   paper   book,
which is duly signed by respondent No.1, in clear
terms, empowers the performing doctor to perform
such   additional   operation   or   procedure   including
the administration of a blood transfusion or blood
plasma   as   they   or   he   may   consider   substitute
necessary or proper in the event of any emergency
or if any anticipated condition is discovered during
the course of the operation.
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31. Second, in terms of clause 4 of the Consent
Form,   the   appellant   was   entitled   to   perform   the
conventional surgery as a substitute to the former
one having noticed some abnormalities at the time
of   performing   Laparoscopy   that   it   would   not   be
possible   for   the   team   of   doctors   attending
respondent   No.1   to   continue   further   with
laparoscopy of the Gall Bladder.
32. In other words, we are of the view that there
was no need to have another Consent Form to do
the   conventional   surgery   in   the   light   of
authorization contained in clause 4 itself because
the substitute operation was of a same organ for
which the former one was advised except with a
difference of another well known method known in
medical subject to get rid of the malady.
33. Third, there is an evidence on record and we
are   inclined   to   accept   the   evidence   that   the
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appellant   having   noticed   while   performing
laparoscopy   that   there   was   some   inflammation,
adhesion and swelling on Gall Bladder, he came out
of operation theater and informed respondent No.1's
husband   who   was   sitting   outside   the   operation
theater   about   what   the   condition   of   respondent
No.1's   gall   bladder   and   sought   his   consent   to
perform the substitute operation. It is only after the
consent given by the husband of respondent No.1,
the appellant proceeded to do conventional surgery.
34. In our opinion, there is no reason to disbelieve
this fact stated by the appellant in his evidence. It
is,   in   our   opinion,   a   natural   conduct   and   the
behavior of any prudent doctor, who is performing
the operation to apprise the attending persons of
what he noticed in the patient and then go ahead
accordingly to complete the operation.
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35.  It is not the case of respondent No.1 that her
husband was neither present in the hospital on that
day nor he was not sitting outside the Operation
Theater and nor he ever met the appellant on that
day.
36. In our opinion,  a clear case of grant of consent
to   the   appellant   to   perform   the   substituted
operation of Gall Bladder of respondent No.1 was,
therefore,   made   out   to   enable   the   appellant   to
perform the conventional surgery, which he actually
performed.
37. The National Commission while recording the
finding on the issue of consent against the appellant
relied upon the decision of this Court in the case of
Samira Kohli vs. Dr. Prabha Manchanda & Anr.
(2008) 2 SCC 1.  In our view, the said decision itself
has made an exception to the cases observing in
para 49 of the judgment which reads as under:
22

“The only exception to this rule is where the
additional procedure though unauthorised, is
necessary in order to save the life or preserve
the   health   of   the   patient   and   it   would   be
unreasonable   to   delay   such   unauthorised
procedure   until   patient   regains
consciousness and takes a decision.”
38. In our opinion, the case of the appellant also
falls   in   the   excepted   category   mentioned   by   this
Court   because   the   appellant   having   noticed   the
abnormalities in the Gall Bladder while performing
laparoscopy   surgery   proceeded   to   perform   the
conventional surgery and that too after obtaining
fresh   consent   of   respondent   No.1’s   husband.   In
other words, it was not an unauthorized act of the
appellant and he could legally perform on the basis
of original consent (clause 4) of respondent No.1 as
also on the basis of the further consent given by the
respondent No.1’s husband.
23
39. That apart, we also find that respondent No.1
never raised the objection of “consent issue” to the
appellant or/and opposite party respondent No.2 ­
Hospital   and   it   was   for   the   first   time   in   the
complaint,   she   raised   this   issue   and   made   a
foundation   to   claim   compensation   from   the
appellant. Nothing prevented her or her husband to
raise   the   issue   of   consent   immediately   after
performance the surgery while she was in hospital
as an indoor patient and even after discharge that
being the natural conduct of any patient.   It was,
however, not done.
40. It is not in dispute that respondent No.1 failed
to   prove   any   specific   kind   of   negligence   of   the
appellant   while   performing   the   operation   or/and
thereafter.   Indeed, even the National Commission
in Para 18 held this issue in favour of the appellant
in following words:
24
“18.   Yet   another   grievance   of   the
complainant is that she was not treated with
care during her hospitalization from 07.08.96
to 18.08.96.  No specific instances which can
amount to carelessness or negligence on the
part of the surgeon or the nursing home have
been brought on record and, therefore, we are
unable to hold that there was any lack of care
amounting   to  negligence  during  her   stay   in
the   nursing   home   for   which   either   the
surgeon or nursing home can be made liable.”
41. Likewise the National Commission further held
in favour of the appellant in para 19 that the stones,
which   were   removed   in   the   second   operation   at
Ganga Ram Hospital after 11 months (04.06.1997)
were the same which were noticed by the appellant
while  performing the first surgery on 08.08.1996
and remained inside. In other words, respondent
No.1 failed to prove with the aid of any medical
evidence that the stones, which were noticed in the
second surgery performed after 11 months, were the
same stones which the appellant failed to remove
from the Gall Bladder.   It is apposite to note the
25
finding   of   the   National   Commission   in   para   19
hereinbelow. 
“………We  have  already   found  that   from   the
material   placed   on   record   that   it   is   not
possible   to   hold   with   certainty   that   any   of
the calculi which were removed from the bile
duct   of   the   complainant   at   Sir   Ganga   Ram
Hospital   was   the   same   for   which   she   had
undergone  Cholecystectomy  at  the  hands  of
the   surgeon   and,   therefore,   the   only   lapse
which we can find on the part of the surgeon
is that he did not care to bestow the kind of
attention  which  the  problem of  complainant
required   when   she   consulted   him   after   the
procedure   of   Cholecystectomy,   more
particularly during April­May 1997……….”
42. Had it been so, the appellant could be held
liable for failure on his part to remove the stones
and allowed them to remain in the Gall Bladder for
such a long time.   There was no medical evidence
adduced by respondent No.1 to prove this fact.
43. In   our   opinion,   no   medical   evidence   of   any
expert was adduced by respondent No.1 to prove
any specific kind of negligence on the part of the
appellant in performing the surgery (conventional
26
surgery) of Gall Bladder except raising the issue of
“non­giving of express consent”.  This issue we have
already   dealt   with   above   and   found   no   merit
therein. In our view, respondent No.1 was under
legal obligation to prove a specific kind of negligence
on   the   part   of   the   appellant   in   performing   the
surgery and also was required to prove that any
subsequent   ailment   which   she   suffered   on   her
return to home such as,   jaundice, dysentery, fever,
loss of weight etc. were suffered by her only due to
improper  performance   of  conventional  surgery  by
the   appellant   and   if   the   surgery   had   been
successful, she would not have suffered any kind of
these ailments. 
44. In our opinion, there has to be a direct nexus
with   these   two   factors   to   sue   a   doctor   for   his
negligence.  Suffering of ailment by the patient after
surgery   is   one   thing.     It   may   be   due   to   myriad
27
reasons known in medical jurisprudence.  Whereas
suffering   of   any   such   ailment   as   a   result   of
improper performance of the surgery and that too
with the degree of negligence on the part of Doctor
is another thing.  To prove the case of negligence of
a doctor, the medical evidence of experts in field to
prove the  latter is required.    Simply  proving  the
former is not sufficient.  
45. In our considered opinion, respondent No. 1
was not able to prove that the ailments which she
suffered after she returned home from the Hospital
on 08.08.1996 were as a result of faulty surgery
performed by the appellant.   
46. Learned   counsel   for   respondent   No.1
(complainant)   vehemently  argued  that   respondent
No.1   suffered   immensely   due   to   the   surgery
performed   by   the   appellant   and   that   she   was
28
rightly, therefore, awarded the compensation by the
National Commission.
47.     Learned   counsel   for   respondent   No.1   also
placed reliance on the Discharge Certificate which,
according   to   her,   mentions   that   Laparoscopy
surgery was performed on respondent No.1.  On this
basis, learned counsel contended that respondent
No.1   had   not   given   her   consent   for   performing
general surgery.
48. In the light of the detailed discussion made
above on the issues arising in the case including the
issue of grant of consent, we are unable to accept
the   aforesaid   submissions   of   learned   counsel   for
respondent No.1.
49. It is apt to remember the words of the then
Chief   Justice   of   India   when   he   said   in  Jacob
Mathew’s case (supra) which reads as under:
“The subject of negligence in the context of
medical   profession   necessarily   calls   for
29
treatment   with   a   difference.   There   is   a
marked tendency  to  look  for a  human  actor
to  blame  for an untoward event, a tendency
that is closely linked with a desire to punish.
Things   have   gone   wrong   and   therefore
somebody must be found to answer for it. An
empirical study reveals that background to a
mishap   is  frequently  far  more  complex  than
may   generally   be   assumed.   It   can   be
demonstrated   that   actual   blame   for   the
outcome   has   to   be   attributed   with   great
caution.    For   a  medical   accident  or   failure,
the   responsibility  may   lie  with   the  medical
practitioner,   and   equally   it   may   not.     The
inadequacies   of   the   system,   the   specific
circumstances   of   the   case,   the   nature   of
human   psychology   itself   and   sheer   chance
may   have   combined   to   produce   a   result   in
which   the   doctor’s   contribution   is   either
relatively   or   completely   blameless.     The
human  body  and  its  working  is  nothing   less
than   a   highly   complex   machine.     Coupled
with the complexities of medical science, the
scope   for   misimpressions,   misgivings   and
misplaced allegations against eh operator i.e.
the  doctor,   cannot   be   ruled   out.     One  may
have  notions  of  best or  ideal practice  which
are different from the reality of how medical
practice   is   carried   on   or   how   the   doctor
functions in real life.  The factors of pressing
need   and   limited   resources   cannot   be   ruled
out from consideration.   Dealing with a case
of   medical   negligence   needs   a   deeper
understanding   of   the   practical   side   of
medicine.     The   purpose   of   holding   a
professional liable for his act or omission, if
negligent,   is   to   make   life   safer   and   to
eliminate   the   possibility   of   recurrence   of
negligence   in   future.     The  human  body  and
30
medical science, both are too complex to be
easily   understood.     To   hold   in   favour   of
existence  of  negligence,  associated  with  the
action  or inaction  of  a  medical professional,
requires   an   in­depth   understanding   of   the
working  of  a  professional  as  also  the  nature
of the job and of errors committed by chance,
which do not necessarily involve the element
of culpability.”
50. In the light of what we have held above, we
cannot   concur   with   the   reasoning   and   the
conclusion arrived at by the National Commission.
As   a   consequence,   the   appeal   succeeds   and   is
accordingly   allowed.   The   impugned   order   is   set
aside and that of the order passed by the State
Commission is restored.    
                       
…...……..................................J.
         [ABHAY MANOHAR SAPRE]
………...................................J.
    [VINEET SARAN]
New Delhi;
October 01, 2018
31

Friday, September 14, 2018

Sri M.D.Y. Rama Murthy Garu

                                         Sri M.D.Y. Rama Murthy Garu

  • Whether your client is rich or poor, once you accept the brief , do justice to him by rendering your sincere services.
  • Not only towards your profession but also towards society, you have got a great concern as a lawyer and as a citizen of this country.
 My Godfather, My Guru , My Mentor, My Senior...........a grate legend of legal fraternity and a Great Versatile Personality,  silently walked away on 13/09/2018 at Kurnool ,  leaving behind him his noble thoughts, his abundant blessings on us.  
May his soul rest in great peace and tranquility .            
My deepest condolences to my little brothers Dr. Rama Sarma, Jogaiah Sarma , Madhava Sarma and to my little sister.


                                                                 No words to express my deep sorrows.                                                                                  Advocatemmmohan
                                                                                   
        

Wednesday, September 12, 2018

whether the Division Bench was right in dismissing the appeals “as not pressed”. = In our opinion, neither there was any express prayer made by the MUDA and nor it could be inferred from the document relied on by the Division Bench at the instance of respondents (writ petitioners) for forming an opinion “not to press the appeal”. In other words, the opinion formed by the High Court for dismissing the appeals “as not pressed” had no basis. Such dismissal, in our view, certainly deprived the MUDA of their right to prosecute the appeals on merits.

REPORTABLE
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CIVIL APPEAL NO. 9182­9188 OF 2018
(Arising out of S.L.P.(C) No.24560­24566 of 2018)
(D.No.31403 of 2017)
Mysore Urban Development Authority          ….Appellant(s)
VERSUS
K.M. Chikkathayamma & Ors. ….Respondent(s)
WITH
CIVIL APPEAL NO.9190­9191  OF 2018
(Arising out of S.L.P.(C) No.24569­24570 of 2018)
(D.No.30522 of 2017)
               
J U D G M E N T
Abhay Manohar Sapre, J.
1) S.L.P(C)No.……….(D.No.31403   of   2017) are
directed against the final judgment and order dated
09.11.2016 passed by the High Court of Karnataka at
Bengaluru in W.A. Nos. 899/2016 and 982­987 of
1
2016 whereby the High Court dismissed the appeals
filed by the appellant herein and, in consequence,
upheld the judgment dated 10.03.2016 of the Single
Judge   in   W.P.Nos.38868­38874/2015     which   had
allowed the writ petitions filed by the respondents
herein.
2) So far as S.L.P.(C)No…….. (D.No.30522/2017)
are concerned, these are] directed against the final
judgment and order dated 20.10.2016 passed by the
Division Bench of the High Court of Karnataka in
W.A. Nos. 6829­6830 of 2013 which arise out of the
order dated 10.10.2013 of the Single Judge passed in
writ petition Nos.27994/2001 and 18756/2001.
3) Leave granted.
4) In   order   to   appreciate   the   issues   involved   in
these appeals, few relevant facts need mention infra.
5) The   appellant­Mysore   Urban   Development
Authority (hereinafter referred to as "MUDA") was the
2
respondent whereas the respondents herein were the
writ petitioners before the High Court.
6) In   exercise   of   the   powers   conferred   under
Section 17 (1) of the Karnataka Urban Development
Authorities Act, 1987 (hereinafter referred to as "The
Karnataka Act"), the MUDA issued a notification No.
LAQ 66/91­91 dated 19.12.1991 on completion of
one   development   scheme   prepared   under   Section
15/16 of the Karnataka Act.
7) By   this   notification,   the   MUDA   proposed   to
acquire the large area of the land along with other
adjoining   lands   situated   in   Dattagalli   village
(Karnataka).   The notification was published in the
official   State   gazette   on   26.12.1991.   The   State
Government   vide   its   order   dated   27.01.1992
approved the scheme framed by the MUDA under
Section 18(3) of the Karnataka Act and issued final
notification   No.VaNaE   833   MIB   92   on   10.12.1992
3
mentioning therein that the lands in question are
needed   for   public   purpose,   viz.,     “formation   of
Dattagalli extension”. This was followed by an award
passed by the Special Land Acquisition Officer (SLAO)
on   27.01.1994   wherein   he   determined   the
compensation payable to the landowners. This was
followed by issuance of notices to the land owners
under Section 12 (2) of the  Land  Acquisition  Act,
1894 (hereinafter referred to as “the LA Act”) calling
upon the land owners to deliver possession of their
respective   lands.   The   MUDA   then   issued   a
notification on 18.09.2000 as required under Section
16 (2) of the LA Act.   In between, there was one
litigation but it is not necessary to mention the same
in detail.
8) In 2001, the respondents (writ petitioners) felt
aggrieved   by   the   acquisition   proceedings   and   filed
writ petitions questioning the legality and correctness
4
of   the   notification   dated   19.12.1991   and
consequential notifications issued thereafter in the
High Court of Karnataka at Bangalore. The MUDA
and   State   contested   the   writ   petitions   on   several
factual and legal grounds.
9) By order dated 15.12.2003, the Single Judge
allowed   the   writ   petitions   and   quashed   the   entire
acquisition proceedings inter alia on the ground that
there was a delay on the part of the MUDA in taking
possession   of   the   acquired   land   and   hence   the
acquisition proceedings are rendered illegal.
10) The MUDA felt aggrieved and filed intra Court
appeals before the Division Bench out of which these
SLPs arise. In the appeals, the writ petitioners as
respondents, filed an application (I.A. No.11 of 2016)
and   prayed   therein   for   dismissal   of   the   MUDA’s
appeals   as   having   rendered   infructuous.   It   was
contended   that   the   MUDA   has   resolved   on
5
02.07.2016 to drop the lands in question from the
acquisition proceedings and, therefore, in the light of
such decision having been taken, there is no need to
examine the legality and correctness of the order of
the Single Judge impugned in the appeals on merits.
11) By   impugned   order   in   both   the   matters,   the
Division Bench dismissed the appeals as not pressed
and   withdrawn.   The   order   impugned   dated
09.11.2016 reads as under:
“An application is moved by the respondents
seeking   for  dismissal   of   the  writ   appeals   on
the   ground   that   the   Mysore   Urban
Development   Authority   (for   short   “MUDA”)
decided,   in   their   Board  meeting   on   July   2,
2016,   to   drop   the   lands   covered   by   this
litigation   from   the   acquisition   process.     A
copy   of   the   resolution   is   annexed   to   the
application.
2. After hearing Mr. Uday Holla, learned senior
advocate   appearing   for   the   respondents   and
Mr.   P.S.   Manjunath,   learned   advocate
appearing   for   the   appellants,   we   have   got   a
clear   indication   that   the   authorities   have
decided not to proceed with the writ appeals.
6
3. Therefore, the writ appeals are dismissed as
withdrawn.
4.     It   shall   be   open   to   the   authorities   to
proceed further in the matter.   We, however,
express no opinion.”
12) It   is   against   this   order,   the   MUDA   has   felt
aggrieved and filed the present appeals by way of
special leave before this Court.
13) Heard learned counsel for the parties.
14) Mr.   Dushyant   Dave,   learned   senior   counsel
appearing for the appellant (MUDA) essentially made
two submissions.
15) In   the   first   place,   learned   counsel   contended
that   the   Division   Bench   erred   in   dismissing   the
MUDA’s appeals as withdrawn.
16) According to him, there was neither any basis
nor  ground  much   less   justification   to   dismiss  the
MUDA’s appeals “as not pressed”.  It was urged that
in fact the Division Bench was under legal obligation
to decide the appeals on merits. 
7
17) In the Second place, learned counsel contended
that the resolution dated 02.07.2016 relied on for
dismissal of MUDA’s appeals, "as not pressed" was
wrongly interpreted by the Division Bench. Learned
counsel   pointed   out   that   the   resolution   dated
02.07.2016, if read properly, does not show that any
express decision was taken to withdraw the appeals
or that any decision was taken to drop the lands in
question from the acquisition proceedings. 
18) Learned   counsel   further   submitted   that   even
otherwise the MUDA was not competent to take such
decision without obtaining the sanction of the State
Government as provided under Section 19 (7) of the
Karnataka Act.
19) Learned counsel pointed out that neither the
MUDA and nor the State Government ever intended
to withdraw from the acquisition proceedings as is
clear from the letter dated 26.06.2018 of the State
8
Government and the letter dated 14.11.2017 of the
Commissioner.   It   was   urged   that   these   letters
indicate   that   both   i.e.   the   State   and   the   MUDA
wanted   to   pursue   the   appeals   on   merits   since
inception before the High Court as also in this Court.
20) Learned counsel urged that in the light of these
submissions, impugned order in both the matters are
not legally sustainable and the matter be remitted to
the Division Bench for deciding the appeals on merits
in accordance with law.
21) In   reply,   Mr.   Mukul   Rohtagi   and   Mr.   Gopal
Subramanian,   learned   senior   counsel   for   the
respondents  (writ  petitioners) while  supporting the
reasoning   and   the   conclusion   arrived   at   by   the
Division   Bench   contended   that   no   fault   could   be
noticed in the impugned order.
22) It   was   their   submission   that   firstly,   the
Government did not choose to file any appeal against
9
the   order   of   the   Single   Judge   and,   therefore,   the
MUDA   had   no   independent   locus   to   pursue   the
matter   in   appeals;   Secondly,   the   MUDA   having
resolved to wriggle out of the acquisition proceedings,
the Division Bench was justified in dismissing the
appeals as not pressed; Thirdly, there was, therefore,
no need to decide the appeals on merits; and lastly,
after the dismissal of the appeals, the respondents
(writ petitioners) altered their position in relation to
the lands in question by spending substantial money
and, therefore, this is not a fit case to entertain the
special leave to appeals   under Article 136 of the
Constitution.
23) The   short   question,   which   arises   for
consideration   in   these   appeals,   is   whether   the
Division Bench was right in dismissing the appeals
“as not pressed”. 
10
24) Having heard the learned counsel for the parties
and on perusal of the record of the case, we find force
in the submissions urged by the learned counsel for
the appellant.
25) In our opinion, the Division Bench should have
decided the appeals on merits in accordance with
law.
26) On perusal of the resolution dated 02.07.2016,
Government letter dated 26.06.2018 and the letter
dated 14.11.2017 of the Commissioner and further
keeping   in   view   the   relevant   provisions   of   the
Karnataka Act, we are of the view that the appeals
filed by the MUDA could not have been dismissed “as
not pressed”.  In other words, the High Court should
have   dismissed   the   respondents’   application
(I.A.No.11/2016) as being misconceived and decided
the appeals on merits in accordance with law.
11
27) In our opinion, neither there was any express
prayer   made   by   the   MUDA   and   nor   it   could   be
inferred from the document relied on by the Division
Bench   at   the   instance   of   respondents   (writ
petitioners) for forming an opinion “not to press the
appeal”. In other words, the opinion formed by the
High   Court   for   dismissing   the   appeals   “as   not
pressed” had no basis. Such dismissal, in our view,
certainly   deprived   the   MUDA   of   their   right   to
prosecute the appeals on merits.
28) A right of appeal is a valuable right of a litigant.
He is entitled to prosecute this right as it enables him
to seek adjudication of the issues on merits, which
are  subject  matter  of  the  appeal  by  the  Appellate
Court. He can, however, forgo such right but it has to
be done with express authority and free will.   The
respondents, however, cannot compel the appellant
to give up the right of prosecuting the appeal unless
12
the   respondents   are   able   to   show   any   express
provision   in   law   in   that   behalf   or   valid   reasons
acceptable in law which deprive the appellant from
prosecuting his grievance in appeal.
29) If the appellant is a juristic entity created under
the Act, they have to ensure strict compliance of the
relevant provisions of the Act under which they are
created coupled with ensuring compliance of relevant
provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure for forgoing
their right to prosecute the appeal on merits.
30) If, for some reasons, there are two rival groups
in a juristic entity, one prays for withdrawal and the
other insisting for hearing the appeal then it is the
duty of the Court to first resolve this issue in the
light   of   the   relevant   provisions   of   law   and   then
proceed to decide the appeal accordingly.  Similarly,
when such prayer is made at the instance of the
respondent   and   is   opposed   by   the   appellant,   the
13
same has to be dealt with strictly in accordance with
law by the Appellate Court.
31) The submissions urged by the learned senior
counsel for the respondents (writ petitioners), which
are detailed supra, have no merit.
32) In our opinion, any act done by the parties in
relation to the subject matter of the appeals after the
impugned order, cannot be pressed into service to
support the impugned order.   In other words, the
legality and correctness of the impugned order has to
be examined in the light of reasoning contained in
the impugned order and not on the basis of the acts
done  by the  parties subsequent  to  the  passing  of
impugned order.  It is for this reason the acts done
by the party subsequent to passing of the impugned
order are of no relevance for deciding the present
appeals. 
14
33) In   view   of   the   foregoing   discussion,   we   are
unable   to   concur   with   the   reasoning   and   the
conclusion arrived at by the Division Bench in the
impugned order.
34) The appeals thus succeed and are accordingly
allowed. Impugned order in both the matters are set
aside. The writ appeals out of which these appeals
arise   are   accordingly   restored   to   their   original
numbers.  The High Court is requested to decide the
appeals on merits in accordance with law.
35) We make it clear that we have not applied our
mind to the merits of controversy having formed an
opinion to remand the case to the High Court.  The
High   Court   would,   therefore,   decide   the   appeals
without being influenced by any of our observations.
36) We also make it clear that any step(s), if claimed
to   have   been   taken   by   the   respondents   (writ
petitioners) subsequent to the impugned order, the
15
same   would   not,   in   any   way,   influence   the   High
Court while deciding the appeals on merits.
37) The parties are at liberty to claim refund of their
money, if they claimed to have paid/deposited with
the appellant in relation to the subject matter of the
appeals.
………...................................J.
[ABHAY MANOHAR SAPRE]
         
                       
…...……..................................J.
         [S. ABDUL NAZEER]
New Delhi;
September 07, 2018
16

whether the petitioners are entitled to complete the term of five years taking advantage of the amended provision which gives such Presiding Officers to continue until attaining the age of 65 years or to continue till they reach the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. This view of ours would negate the contention of the learned ASG that Section 6 as amended does not create any right. If such an interpretation is accepted, then even those persons appointed as Presiding Officers after September 01, 2016, can be denied the right to continue in service till 65 years. Judgment in GlaxoSmithkline Pharmaceuticals Ltd., which was relied upon by the learned ASG would have no application. That was a case where there was an amendment to Section 2(s) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 which was brought into force on August 21, 1994 and the Court held the same to be prospective in nature. It was further held that the provision which was applicable as on the date of termination of the appellant in that case would apply. Obviously, such a case has no application to the instant case.

REPORTABLE
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CIVIL ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 732 OF 2018
GOTTUMUKKALA VENKATA KRISHAMRAJU .....PETITIONER(S)
VERSUS
UNION OF INDIA & ORS. .....RESPONDENT(S)
WITH
TRANSFERRED CASE (CIVIL) NO. 301 OF 2017
TRANSFERRED CASE (CIVIL) NO. 304 OF 2017
TRANSFERRED CASE (CIVIL) NO. 303 OF 2017
TRANSFERRED CASE (CIVIL) NO. 305 OF 2017
AND
TRANSFERRED CASE (CIVIL) NO. 306 OF 2017
J U D G M E N T
A.K. SIKRI, J.
Petitioners in these petitions were appointed as Presiding
Officers of Debt Recovery Tribunal created under the Recovery of
Debts due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 which is
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 1 of 21
rechristened as Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act, 1993
(hereinafter referred to as the ‘Act’). The appointment was made
under the provisions of the said Act. Chapter II of the Act deals
with the establishment of Tribunal and Appellate Tribunal. The
provisions relevant for our purposes are Sections 3 to 6. Section
3 deals with establishment of the Tribunal by the Central
Government to be known as the Debts Recovery Tribunal.
Section 4 talks of composition of the Tribunal. Section 5 deals
with the qualifications for appointment as Presiding Officers.
Once appointed, the term of office of a Presiding Officer is
stipulated in Section 6. There have been amendments to the
various provisions of this Act in the year 2016. Also, the Act which
was earlier known as the Recovery of Debts due to Banks and
Financial Institutions Act, 1993 is given a new nomenclature and
is now known as the Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act, 1993
by the Finance Act, 2017. Unamended Sections 3 to 6 were as
under:
“3. Establishment of Tribunal.—(1) The Central
Government shall, by notification, establish one or more
Tribunals, to be known as the Debts Recovery Tribunal, to
exercise the jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on
such Tribunal by or under this Act.
(2) The Central Government shall also specify, in the
notification referred to in sub-section (1), the areas within
which the Tribunal may exercise jurisdiction for entertaining
and deciding the applications filed before it.
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 2 of 21
4. Composition of Tribunal.—(1) A Tribunal shall consist
of one person only (hereinafter referred to as the Presiding
Officer) to be appointed by notification, by the Central
Government.
(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1),
the Central Government may authorise the Presiding
Officer of one Tribunal to discharge also the functions of
the Presiding Officer of another Tribunal.
5. Qualifications for appointment as Presiding Officer.
—A person shall not be qualified for appointment as the
Presiding Officer of a Tribunal unless he is, or has been, or
is qualified to be, a District Judge.
6. Term of Office. – The Presiding Officer of a Tribunal
shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on
which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age
of sixty-two years, whichever is earlier.”
2) As is clear from Section 6, after the appointment of a person as
Presiding Officer to a Tribunal, he could hold office for a term of
five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or
until the attainment of 62 years of age, whichever is earlier. This
Section is substituted by Act 44 of 2016 w.e.f. September 1, 2016
and the amended provision read as under:
“6. Term of office of Presiding Officer – The Presiding
Officer of a Tribunal shall hold office for a term of five years
from the date on which he enters upon his office and shall
be eligible for reappointment.
Provided that no person shall hold office as the
Presiding Officer of a Tribunal after he has attained the age
of sixty-five years.”
3) Along with that, another provision in the form of Section 6A is also
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 3 of 21
inserted which is to the following effect:
“6A. Qualifications, terms and conditions of service of
Presiding Officer – Notwithstanding anything contained in
this Act, the qualifications, appointment, term of office,
salaries and allowances, resignation, removal and the
other terms and conditions of service of the Presiding
Officer of the Tribunal appointed after the commencement
of Part XIV of Chapter VI of the Finance Act, 2017, shall be
governed by the provisions of section 184 of that Act:
Provided that the Presiding Officer appointed before
the commencement of Part XIV of Chapter VI of the
Finance Act, 2017, shall continue to be governed by the
provisions of this Act, and the rules made thereunder as if
the provisions of section 184 of the Finance Act, 2017 had
not come into force.”
Some other provisions are also amended, but those are not
relevant for the purposes of these cases.
4) All the petitioners were appointed before the amendment to
Section 6. Thus, at the time of their appointment, the term of
their office was “five years or till attaining the age of 62 years,
whichever is earlier”. These officers have not completed five
years of service. However, they are completing/or have attained
62 years of age after coming into force amended Section 6. In
the aforesaid backdrop, the question that arises for consideration
in these petitions is as to whether the petitioners are entitled to
complete the term of five years taking advantage of the amended
provision which gives such Presiding Officers to continue until
attaining the age of 65 years or to continue till they reach the age
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 4 of 21
of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
5) For the sake of convenience, we may give particulars in respect
of Transfer Case (Civil) No. 301 of 2017 and, at the same time,
take note of the progress in other cases as well.
Date Event
27.12.1954 Date of birth of the petitioner. The petitioner turned 62
years on 26.12.2016 and will turn 65 years, on
26.12.2019.
27.08.1993 Enactment of the Recovery of Debts due to Banks and
Financial Institutions Act, 1993. Section 6 of the Act
prescribed that a Presiding Officer of the Debt Recovery
Tribunal shall hold office for five years form the date he
enters office or 62 years, whichever is earlier.
15.12.2014 Appointment notification of petitioner as Presiding
Officer, Debt Recovery Tribunal, Lucknow.
06.01.2015 Petitioner took office as the Presiding Officer, Debt
Recovery Tribunal, Lucknow.
12.08.2016 Amendment to the Recovery of Debts due to Banks and
Financial Institutions Act, 1993. Section 6 of the 1993
Act was substituted. The amended Section 6
contemplates that the Presiding Officer shall hold office
for five years from the date he enters office. The
proviso clarifies that the Presiding Officer shall not
continue beyond the age of 65 years.
01.09.2016 The 2016 amendment takes effect upon being so
notified, by the Central Government.
29.09.2016 The Union of India advertises anticipated vacancies for
Presiding Officer for Debt Recovery Tribunal, Lucknow
and other Debt Recovery Tribunals.
06.10.2016 By way of an interim order, the Central Administrative
Tribunal, New Delhi, stays the release of Presiding
Officer, Debt Recovery Tribunal, Guwahati (V.K. Garg),
having regard to the enhanced age of retirement, in the
O.A. filed by him.
07.12.2016 By way of an interim order, the Allahabad High Court,
Lucknow Bench stays the release of petitioner, having
regard to the enhanced age of retirement in the writ
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 5 of 21
petition filed by him.
09.12.2016 The Bombay High Court dismissed WP(L) No.
3299/2016 filed by Vasant Narayan Lothey Patel,
Presiding Officer, DRT III, Mumbai, whereby the said
officer sought application of the amended Section 6, to
extend his tenure to 65 years or completion of five
years.
26.12.2016 The petitioner attained the age of 62 years.
02.02.2017 By way of an interim order, the Madras High Court stays
the release of J.V. Raj, Debt Recovery Tribunal,
Coimbatore having regard to the enhanced age of
retirement in the writ petition filed by him.
09.02.2017 By way of an interim order, the Jharkhand High Court
says the release of B.N. Dash, Debt Recovery Tribunal
having regrd to the enhanced age of retirement, in his
writ petition.
28.02.2017 By way of an interim order, the Madras High Court stays
the release of R. Ravindra Bose, Presiding Officer, Debt
Recovery Tribunal-II, Chennai having regrd to the
enhanced age of retirement.
04.10.2017 The Union of India filed five transfer petitions qua the
aforementioned petitions pending before the Central
Administrative Tribunal, Delhi and High Courts of
Allahabad, Madras, Jharkhand. A sixth transfer petition
was filed in respect of WP(L) No. 2358/2016 filed by
Mohd. Zafar Imam before the Bombay High Court. This
officer had already demitted office on 17.09.2016. On
04.10.2017, this Court issued notice in the
aforementioned transfer petitions being TP(C) Nos.
1315-1320/2017 and stayed further proceedings before
the courts concerned.
14.11.2017 This Court allowed all six transfer petitions (TP(C) Nos.
1315-1320/2017) and also passed an interim order
reinstating Mohd. Zafar Imam as Presiding Officer, DRT
II, Mumbai.
26.12.2019 The petitioner will be completing the age of 65 years.
06.01.2020 The petitioner will be completing the term of five years
on this date.
6) As per the provisions of unamended Section 6, the petitioner
could continue only upto December 26, 2016 as he had
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 6 of 21
completed 62 years of age on that date though he had not
completed five years of term as the Presiding Officer. If amended
Section 6 is applicable, then he would be entitled to continue upto
December 26, 2019 on which date he shall attain the age of 65
years. Same is the fact situation in all these cases, though the
dates on which they would be completing five years term or
attaining 65 years of age, are different.
7) In this backdrop, the issue that has arisen in these petitions is as
to whether the petitioners would be governed by Section 6 as
amended or this provision is to be applied prospectively i.e., w.e.f.
September 1, 2016 i.e. in respect of appointments which are
made on or after September 1, 2016.
8) The endeavour of the petitioners is to demonstrate that they
would be governed by Section 6 as amended and, therefore, they
have right to continue upto the age of 65 years or till the time they
complete five years tenure before they have attained the age of
65 years. The submission which are paraphrased by the
petitioners in support of their aforesaid plea are the following:
(a) By the Amendment Act, new Section 6 stands ‘substituted’
with the old Section 6. The legislature has used the expression
‘substituted’ with a definite purpose, namely, making this provision
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 7 of 21
applicable also to those Presiding Officers who were holding the
post as on September 1, 2016 when the amendment was brought
into force. It was argued that the very expression ‘substituted’
would mean that the old Section 6 stands obliterated.
(b) Purpose behind the amendment was to reduce the burden
of pendency by enhancing the age of the Presiding Officers. This
is categorically mentioned in the report of the Lok Sabha, Joint
Committee and also in the Statement of Objects and Reasons to
the amendment.
(c) The provision needs to be given purposive interpretation
and keeping in view the purpose and object behind the
amendment, the said purpose would be sub-served only if it is
applied to the incumbents in the service as well as on the date of
the application. Reference is made to the judgment of this Court
in Reserve Bank of India v. Peerless General Finance and
Investment Co. Ltd. & Ors.1
9) In that very hue, it is argued that to interpret the provision as
inapplicable to the incumbent would lead to assigning a perverse
object to the amendment which would be totally illogical. For this
proposition, judgment in State of Madhya Pradesh v. Narmada
Bachao Andolan & Anr.2
 is relied upon. Reliance is also placed
1 (1987) 1 SCC 424
2 (2011) 7 SCC 639
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 8 of 21
on Boucher Pierre Andre v. Superintendent, Central Jail,
Tihar, New Delhi & Anr.3
10) Contrasting the provisions of Section 6 with Section 6A of the Act,
it is argued that proviso to Section 6A categorically makes a
provision to the effect that the Presiding Officer appointed before
the commencement of Finance Act, 2017 shall continue to be
governed by the provisions of Section 184 of the Finance Act,
2017 as if the said provisions had not coming to force. It was
submitted that there is no such proviso added to Section 6 which
makes the intention of the legislature very clear, namely, the
Presiding Officers who were in office as on the date of
amendment would be governed by the newly inserted Section 6.
11) Mr. Banerjee, learned ASG appearing for the respondent Union of
India contradicted the aforesaid arguments raised by the
petitioners with the following submissions:
No right has accrued by virtue of amendment in Section 6
to hold the office upto the age of 65 years. It was argued that
unamended Section 6 provided that the Presiding Officer shall
hold office for a term of five years or ‘until he attains the age of 62
years, whichever is earlier’. Amended provision, on the other
3 (1975) 1 SCC 192
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 9 of 21
hand, does not state that the term of office would be five years or
until the Presiding Officer attains the age of 65 years. On the
other hand, this provision of 65 years was made in the proviso to
Section 6 which was couched in negative terms as it is stipulated
that no person shall hold the office after he has attained the age
of 65 years. Thus, no right accrues in favour of any person with
such a proviso. It was also submitted that unless a provision is
specifically given retrospective effect by the legislature, it only has
prospective operation. Therefore, intentment behind Section 6
was to make it applicable in respect of appointments which would
be made on or after September 1, 2016 when this provision was
inserted and the date from which it was specifically made
effective. It was also argued that the purpose was to infuse
young blood by deputing fresh Presiding Officers and not to give
benefit to the existing Presiding Officers. The learned ASG relied
upon judgment of this Court in C. Gupta v. Glaxo-Smithkline
Pharmaceuticals Ltd.4 and, in particular, following portion in that
judgment:
“21. In the present case, we find that for determining the
nature of amendment, the question is whether it affects the
legal rights of individual workers in the context that if they
fall within the definition then they would be entitled to claim
several benefits conferred by the Act. The amendment
should be also one which would touch upon their
substantive rights. Unless there is a clear provision to the
4 (2007) 7 SCC 171
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 10 of 21
effect that it is retrospective or such retrospectivity can be
implied by necessary implication or intendment, it must be
held to be prospective. We find no such clear provision or
anything to suggest by necessary implication or intendment
either in the amending Act or in the amendment itself. The
amendment cannot be said to be one which affects
procedure. Insofar as the amendment substantially
changes the scope of the definition of the term “workman” it
cannot be said to be merely declaratory or clarificatory. In
this regard we find that entirely new category of persons
who are doing “operational” work was introduced first time
in the definition and the words “skilled” and “unskilled” were
made independent categories unlinked to the word
“manual”. It can be seen that the Industrial Disputes
(Amendment) Act, 1984 was enacted by Parliament on 31-
8-1982. However, the amendment itself was not brought
into force immediately and in sub-section (1) of Section 1 of
the amending Act, it was provided that it would come into
force on such day as the Central Government may by
notification in the Official Gazette, appoint. Ultimately, by a
notification the said amendment was brought into force on
21-8-1984. Although this Court has held that the
amendment would be prospective if it is deemed to have
come with effect on a particular day, a provision in the
Amendment Act to the effect that amendment would
become operative in the future, would have similar effect.
22. Therefore, by the application of the tests mentioned
above, it is clear that the definition of workman as
amended must, therefore, be presumed to be prospective.
12) We have given our due consideration to the arguments advanced
by the counsel for the parties on both sides and have also
perused the relevant material. We find force in the arguments of
the petitioners that the amended provisions of Section 6 shall
apply in their cases as well and, therefore, if they have not
completed five years of tenure as Presiding Officers of the Debt
Recovery Tribunal they are entitled to continue to work as
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 11 of 21
Presiding Officers till they attain the age of 65 years or complete
five years’ term before attaining the age of 65 years. In the first
instance, we have to bear in mind the language/terminology
which the Legislature used while inserting new Section 6 with
effect from September 01, 2016. This section stands ‘substituted’
with the old section. The word ‘substituted’ has its own
significance. In Government of India & Ors. v. Indian Tobacco
Association5
, this Court noted dictionary meaning of the word
‘substitute’ as can be seen from para 15 of the said judgment:
“15. The word “substitute” ordinarily would mean “to put
(one) in place of another”; or “to replace”. In Black's Law
Dictionary, 5th Edn., at p. 1281, the word “substitute” has
been defined to mean “to put in the place of another
person or thing”, or “to exchange”. In Collins English
Dictionary, the word “substitute” has been defined to mean
“to serve or cause to serve in place of another person or
thing”; “to replace (an atom or group in a molecule) with
(another atom or group)”; or “a person or thing that serves
in place of another, such as a player in a game who takes
the place of an injured colleague”.
13) This expression has also come up for interpretation by the Courts
in Zile Singh v. State of Haryana and Others6
, the import and
impact of substituted provision were discussed in the following
manner:
“23. The text of Section 2 of the Second Amendment Act
provides for the word “upto” being substituted for the word
5 (2005) 7 SCC 396
6 (2004) 8 SCC 1
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 12 of 21
“after”. What is the meaning and effect of the expression
employed therein — “shall be substituted”?
24. The substitution of one text for the other pre-existing
text is one of the known and well-recognised practices
employed in legislative drafting. “Substitution” has to be
distinguished from “supersession” or a mere repeal of an
existing provision.”
14) Ordinarily wherever the word ‘substitute’ or ‘substitution’ is used
by the legislature, it has the effect of deleting the old provision
and make the new provision operative. The process of
substitution consists of two steps: first, the old rule is made to
cease to exist and, next, the new rule is brought into existence in
its place. The rule is that when a subsequent Act amends an
earlier one in such a way as to incorporate itself, or a part of
itself, into the earlier, then the earlier Act must thereafter be read
and construed as if the altered words had been written into the
earlier Act with pen and ink and the old words scored out so that
thereafter there is no need to refer to the amending Act at all. No
doubt, in certain situations, the Court having regard to the purport
and object sought to be achieved by the Legislature may
construe the word "substitution" as an "amendment" having a
prospective effect. Therefore, we do not think that it is a
universal rule that the word ‘substitution’ necessarily or always
connotes two severable steps, that is to say, one of repeal and
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 13 of 21
another of a fresh enactment even if it implies two steps.
However, the aforesaid general meaning is to be given effect to,
unless it is found that legislature intended otherwise. Insofar as
present case is concerned, as discussed hereinafter, the
legislative intent was also to give effect to the amended provision
even in respect of those incumbents who were in service as on
September 01, 2016.
15) The effect, thus, would be to replace Section 6 as amended with
the intention as if this is the only provision which exist from the
date of introduction and the earlier provision was not there at all.
The effect of this would be that all those incumbents who are
holding the post of Presiding Officer on September 01, 2016
would be governed by this provision.
16) When we examine the matter in the aforesaid perspective, the
question as to whether Section 6, as amended, is to be given
retrospective effect or not, does not arise for consideration. The
petitioners are right in submitting that persons who demitted the
office prior to the amendment are not sought to be covered by the
amendment. Had the provision been retrospective then it would
have benefited those persons as well. No such case is set up by
any of the petitioners or any other person, it is only the
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 14 of 21
incumbents who are serving as on the date of the amendment
are sought to be covered.
17) Though in a different context, the judgment in Boucher Pierre
Andre throws some light on the issue at hand, as can be
discerned from the following discussion in that case:
“1. …..The petitioner was arrested on November 10, 1971
in connection with an offence of theft which took place in
the night between October 31, 1971 and November 1,
1971 in Rajasthan Emporium at Ashoka Hotel, New Delhi.
He was tried by the Additional Sessions Judge, Delhi and
by an order dated July 16, 1973 he was convicted of the
offence under Section 380 of the Indian Penal Code and
sentenced to rigorous imprisonment for four years and a
fine of Rs 10,000 and in default of payment of fine, further
rigorous imprisonment of one year. An appeal preferred by
him to the High Court of Delhi failed and his conviction was
confirmed but the substantive sentence of imprisonment
was reduced to two years though the fine was enhanced to
Rs 15,000 with one year's rigorous imprisonment in default.
The order of the High Court in appeal was passed on April
4, 1974. The petitioner did not pay the amount of fine and
he was, therefore, liable under the order of the High Court
to serve a maximum sentence of imprisonment for three
years. Since the petitioner was continuing under detention
from November 10, 1971 during the investigation, enquiry
and trial of the case against him, the petitioner contended
that by reason of Section 428 of the new Code of Criminal
Procedure, which came into force from April 1, 1974, the
period of detention from November 10, 1971 upto July 16,
1973 was liable to be set off against the term of
imprisonment imposed upon him and he could be required
to undergo imprisonment only for the remainder of the term
which, after taking into account the remission granted on
account of good behaviour, expired on August 12, 1974.
The petitioner claimed that he was, therefore, entitled to be
freed on August 12, 1974 and his detention in jail since that
date was illegal. The petitioner filed an application for a writ
of habeas corpus in the High Court of Delhi challenging the
validity of his detention since August 12, 1974 but the High
Court took the view that since the conviction of the
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 15 of 21
petitioner by the Sessions Court had taken place prior to
the coming into force of the new Code of Criminal
Procedure, Section 428 had no application and the
petitioner was bound to suffer imprisonment for the full
term of three years calculated from the date of conviction,
namely, July 16, 1973. The habeas corpus application in
the High Court having failed, the petitioner preferred the
present writ petition directly in this Court under Article 32 of
the Constitution. This writ petition also claimed the same
relief and the ground was also the same, namely, that by
reason of Section 428, the term of imprisonment imposed
on the petitioner came to an end on August 12, 1974 and
his detention since that date was contrary to law.
2. The question which arises for determination in this
petition is a narrow one and it rests on the true
interpretation of Section 428. Is this section confined in its
application only to cases where a person is convicted after
the coming into force of the new Code of Criminal
Procedure, or does it also embrace cases where a person
has been convicted before but his sentence is still running
at the date when the new Code of Criminal Procedure
came into force? It is only if the latter interpretation is
accepted that the petitioner would be entitled to claim the
benefit of the section and hence it becomes necessary to
arrive at its proper construction. Section 428 reads as
follows:
“Where an accused person has, on conviction, been
sentenced to imprisonment for a term, the period of
detention, if any, undergone by him during the
investigation, inquiry or trial of the same case and
before the date of such conviction, shall be set off
against the term of imprisonment imposed on him on
such conviction, and the liability of such person to
undergo imprisonment on such conviction shall be
restricted to the remainder, if any, of the term of
imprisonment imposed on him.”
This section, on a plain natural construction of its language,
posits for its applicability a fact situation which is described
by the clause “where an accused person has, on
conviction, been sentenced to imprisonment for a term”.
There is nothing in this clause which suggests, either
expressly or by necessary implication, that the conviction
and sentence must be after the coming into force of the
new Code of Criminal Procedure. The language of the
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 16 of 21
clause is neutral. It does not refer to any particular point of
time when the accused person should have been convicted
and sentenced. It merely indicates a fact situation which
must exist in order to attract the applicability of the section
and this fact situation would be satisfied equally whether an
accused person has been convicted and sentenced before
or after the coming into force of the new Code of Criminal
Procedure. Even where an accused person has been
convicted prior to the coming into force of the new Code of
Criminal Procedure but his sentence is still running, it
would not be inappropriate to say that the “accused person
has, on conviction, been sentenced to imprisonment for a
term”. Therefore, where an accused person has been
convicted and he is still serving his sentence at the date
when the new Code of Criminal Procedure came into force.
Section 428 would apply and he would be entitled to claim
that the period of detention undergone by him during the
investigation, inquiry or trial of the case should be set off
against the term of imprisonment imposed on him and he
should be required to undergo only the remainder of the
term. Of course, if the term of the sentence has already run
out, no question of set off can arise. It is only where the
sentence is still running that the section can operate to
restrict the term. This construction of the section does not
offend against the principle which requires that unless the
legislative intent is clear and compulsive, no retrospective
operation should be given to a statute. On this
interpretation, the section is not given any retrospective
effect. It does not seek to set at naught the conviction
already recorded against the accused person. The
conviction remains intact and unaffected and so does the
sentence already undergone. It is only the sentence,
insofar as it yet remains to be undergone, that is, reduced.
The section operates prospectively on the sentence which
yet remains to be served and curtails it be setting off the
period of detention undergone by the accused person
during the investigation, inquiry or trial of the case. Any
argument based on the objection against giving
retrospective operation is, therefore, irrelevant.”
(emphasis supplied)
18) Our view is also in accord with the purport and objective behind
the amendment which were reflected while carrying out the
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 17 of 21
amendment itself. The purpose of amending Section 6 was to
reduce the burden of pendency by enhancement of age of the
Judges concerned. The Report of the Lok Sabha Joint
Committee qua the Amendment sets out the background to the
amendment as follows:
“On the issue of pendency of cases in various DRTs, the
Committee has been apprised by the Department of
Financial Services that approximately 70,000 court cases
pending in DRTs involving more than Rs. 5 Lakh Crore.
One of the reasons mentioned in the memoranda
submitted by various stakeholders for the pendency of
cases is vacancies in various stakeholders for the
pendency of cases is vacancies in various DRTs/DRATs. A
number of suggestions in this regard have been made by
the stakeholders. After detailed deliberations on the issue,
the Committee decide(d) to insert the following new
provision/substitute some of the provisions under the
RDDB & FI Act….”
(emphasis supplied)
19) Similarly, the Statement of Objects and Reasons to the
amendment inter alia notes:
“The Recovery of Debts due to Banks and Financial
Institutions Act, 1993 and the Securitisation and
Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of
Security Interest Act, 2002, were enacted for expeditious
recovery of loans of banks and financial institutions.
Presently, there are approximately seventy thousand cases
pending in Debts Recovery Tribunals. Though the
Recovery of Debts due to Banks and Financial Institutions
Act provides for a period of 180 days for disposal of
recovery applications, the cases are pending for many
years due to various adjournments and prolonged
hearings. In order to facilitate expeditious disposal of
recovery applications, it has been decided to amend the
said Acts and also to make consequential amendments in
the Indian Stamp Act, 1899 and the Depositories Act,
1996.”
(emphasis supplied)
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 18 of 21
20) In order to fulfill the aforesaid objective of reducing the arrears
and tackle the issue of pendency of cases in various Debt
Recovery Tribunals, ‘purposive interpretation’ is to be given. In
Reserve Bank of India, the Court explained this principle in the
following manner:
“33. Interpretation must depend on the text and the
context. They are the bases of interpretation. One may well
say if the text is the texture, context is what gives the
colour. Neither can be ignored. Both are important. That
interpretation is best which makes the textual interpretation
match the contextual. A statute is best interpreted when we
know why it was enacted. With this knowledge, the statute
must be read, first as a whole and then section by section,
clause by clause, phrase by phrase and word by word. If a
statute is looked at, in the context of its enactment, with the
glasses of the statute-maker, provided by such context, its
scheme, the sections, clauses, phrases and words may
take colour and appear different than when the statute is
looked at without the glasses provided by the context. With
these glasses we must look at the Act as a whole and
discover what each section, each clause, each phrase and
each word is meant and designed to say as to fit into the
scheme of the entire Act. No part of a statute and no word
of a statute can be construed in isolation. Statutes have to
be construed so that every word has a place and
everything is in its place……..”
(emphasis supplied)
21) We are, thus, of the opinion that while carrying out the aforesaid
amendment with the intention to substitute the amended
provision with that of unamended, the Parliament desired that the
benefit of this provision extended even to those who are serving
as Presiding Officers on the date when the amendment became
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 19 of 21
enforceable. This seems to be just, reasonable and sensible
outcome.
22) This interpretation is contextual as well which can be discerned
by contrasting amended Section 6 with newly inserted Section 6A
of the Act.
“…..There is a clear distinction between incumbent officers
and the officers appointed in future. In contrast, there is no
distinction, legislatively drawn, between incumbent or
officers appointed in future for application of amended
Section 6.”
23) This view of ours would negate the contention of the learned ASG
that Section 6 as amended does not create any right. If such an
interpretation is accepted, then even those persons appointed as
Presiding Officers after September 01, 2016, can be denied the
right to continue in service till 65 years. Judgment in GlaxoSmithkline
Pharmaceuticals Ltd., which was relied upon by the
learned ASG would have no application. That was a case where
there was an amendment to Section 2(s) of the Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947 which was brought into force on August 21,
1994 and the Court held the same to be prospective in nature. It
was further held that the provision which was applicable as on the
date of termination of the appellant in that case would apply.
Obviously, such a case has no application to the instant case.
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 20 of 21
24) The writ petition and the transferred cases filed by these
petitioners, accordingly, stand allowed with no order as to costs.
As a result, those petitioners in whose favour there is an interim
stay would be allowed to continue. The petitioner in Writ Petition
(Civil) No. 732 of 2018 shall be taken back in service forthwith,
with continuity of service and salary of intervening period.
.............................................J.
(A.K. SIKRI)
.............................................J.
(ASHOK BHUSHAN)
NEW DELHI;
SEPTEMBER 07, 2018.
Writ Petition (Civil) No. 732 of 2018 etc. Page 21 of 21

framing of substantial questions on both the issues as provided under Section 100(4) and (5) of the Code.= whether two Courts below were right in their respective jurisdiction in holding that the plaintiffs were able to prove their title over the suit land on the basis of evidence (oral/documentary) adduced by them and, if so, whether such finding should be upheld or not.

          REPORTABLE
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CIVIL APPEAL No.5057  OF 2009
Narayana Gramani & Ors. ….Appellant(s)
VERSUS
Mariammal & Ors.                …Respondent(s)
J U D G M E N T
Abhay Manohar Sapre, J.
1. This appeal is filed by the plaintiffs against the
final judgment and order dated 09.07.2007 passed by
the High Court of Judicature at Madras in Second
Appeal No.652 of 1995 whereby the Single Judge of
the   High   Court   allowed   the   second   appeal   filed   by
defendant Nos.2 to 5 and set aside the judgment and
decree   dated   05.08.1994   passed   by   the   Additional
1
Subordinate   Judge,   Chingalpattu   in   A.S.   No.72   of
1993 and dismissed the suit filed by the appellants
herein.
2. In order to appreciate the issues involved in the
appeal, which lie in a narrow compass, few facts need
mention hereinbelow.
3. Appellant Nos. 1 and 2 are the plaintiffs whereas
appellant   No.   3   is   the   legal   representative   of   third
plaintiff­Thirunavukkarasu,   who   died   pending
litigation. The respondents are defendants in the civil
suit.
4. The three plaintiffs claiming to be the members of
one family filed a civil suit against the defendants for a
declaration and permanent injunction in relation to
the   land   situated   at   No.   294/1   Vembanur   Village,
Kadapakkam Firka, (patta No. 491), Old Paimash No.
201/8   renumbered   as   S.   No   399/4,   Acs.   1.08
(hereinafter referred to as "suit land").
2
5. The   plaintiffs   traced   the   title   to   the   suit   land
through their predecessor­in­title coupled with Patta
issued by the Estate Manager in relation to the suit
land.   According   to   the   plaintiffs,   there   had   been   a
family partition inter se the plaintiffs wherein the suit
land fell to their share. The plaintiffs alleged that they
have   been   in   possession   of   the   suit   land,   invested
money and paying revenue taxes. The plaintiffs alleged
that   the   defendants   are   trying   to   disturb   their
possession   over   the   suit   land   without   any   legal
authority and are also asserting their title over the suit
land, which they do not have in their favour and hence
there   arise   a   need   to   file   the   civil   suit   and   claim
declaration and permanent injunction in relation to
the suit land.
6. The defendants filed their written statement and
denied   the   plaintiffs’   claim   over   the   suit   land.
According to them,   they are the owners of the suit
land having purchased the same vide sale deed dated
3
15.02.1967   for   Rs.200/­   from   one   Muthu   Mudaliar
and his son Rajaram  Mudaliar who, according to the
defendants,   were   the   owners   of   the   suit   land.
Defendant No. 1 also claimed to be in possession of
the suit land and cultivating the same.
7. The   Trial   Court   framed   two   issues,   viz.,   (1)
Whether   the   plaintiffs   are   entitled   for   seeking
declaration and permanent injunction; and (2) If so, for
what reliefs.  Parties adduced their evidence (oral and
documentary).   By   Judgment   and   decree   dated
23.11.1993, the Trial Court decreed the plaintiffs’ suit.
It was held that the plaintiffs are able to prove their
ownership   over   the   suit   land   on   the   basis   of   the
documents   filed   by   them;   that   the   plaintiffs   are   in
possession of the suit land; that they are, therefore,
entitled to claim a declaration of their title over the
suit land as its owners so also are entitled to claim
permanent   injunction   against   the   defendants
4
restraining them from interfering in their (plaintiffs’)
peaceful possession over the suit land.
8. The   defendants   felt   aggrieved   and   filed   first
appeal before the Additional Sub­Judge (Appeal Suit
No.   72/1993).   By   Judgment   dated   05.08.1994,   the
Appellate Court dismissed the defendants’ appeal and
affirmed the judgment and decree passed by the Trial
Court.
9. The defendants pursued the matter further and
filed second appeal in the High Court at Madras. The
High   Court   admitted   the   second   appeal   on   the
following substantial question of law:
“Whether   the   same   judge   can   dismiss
an appeal on the ground that he has already
rejected   the   appellants’   case   in   an   earlier
appeal   against   different   parties   in   the
absence of pleadings of rejudicata or estoppel
by   judgment   by   neither   of   the   parties,
especially   when   the   issue   is   pending   for
decision   before   the   High   Court   by   way   of
second appeal.”
5
10. By impugned judgment, the High Court allowed
the appeal and set aside the judgment and decree of
the two courts below and, in consequence, dismissed
the suit giving rise to filing of the present appeal by
way of special leave in this Court by the plaintiffs.
11. The   short   question,   which   arises   for
consideration in this appeal, is whether the High Court
was justified in allowing the defendants’ appeal and, in
consequence, dismissing the plaintiffs’ suit which was
decreed by the two Courts below.
12. Mr. MSM Asaithambi, learned counsel appeared
for the appellants. Despite notice, none appeared for
the respondents.
13. Having   heard   the   learned   counsel   for   the
appellants and on perusal of the record of the case, we
are inclined to allow the appeal and while setting aside
the impugned judgment remand the case to the High
Court   for   deciding   the   appeal   afresh   on   merits   in
6
accordance   with   law   after   framing   appropriate
substantial question of law as indicated below.
14. Before we examine the facts of the case, it is
necessary to see the scope of Section 100 of the Code
of Civil Procedure, 1908 (hereinafter referred to as “the
Code”), which empowers the High Court to decide the
second   appeals.     Indeed,   it   is   explained   in   several
decisions of this Court and thus remains no more res
integra.
15. Section 100 of the Code reads as under:
7
“100.   Second   appeal.­ (1)   Save   as   otherwise
expressly provided in the body of this Code or
by any other law for the time being in force, an
appeal shall  lie  to  the  High  Court  from  every
decree   passed   in   appeal   by   any   Court
subordinate   to   the   High   Court,   if   the   High
Court   is   satisfied   that   the   case   involves   a
substantial question of law.
(2) An appeal may lie under this section from
an appellate decree passed ex parte.
(3)   In   an   appeal   under   this   section,   the
memorandum   of   appeal   shall   precisely   state
the substantial question of law involved in the
appeal.
(4)  Where   the   High   Court   is   satisfied   that   a
substantial question  of  law is  involved in  any
case, it shall formulate that question.
(5) The appeal shall be heard on  the question
so formulated and the respondent shall, at the
hearing of the appeal, be allowed to argue that
the case does not involve such question:
Provided that nothing in this sub­section shall
be deemed to take away or abridge the power
of   the   court   to   hear,   for   reasons   to   be
recorded, the appeal on any other substantial
question   of   law   formulated   by   it,   if   it   is
satisfied   that   the   case   involves   such
question.”
16. Sub­section   (1)   of   Section   100   says   that   the
second appeal would be entertained by the High Court
only   if   the   High   Court   is   "satisfied"   that   the   case
8
involves a "substantial question of law". Sub­ section
(3) makes it obligatory upon the appellant to precisely
state in memo of appeal the "substantial question of
law" involved in the appeal. Sub­section (4) provides
that   where   the   High   Court   is   satisfied   that   any
substantial question of law is involved in the case, it
shall formulate that question. In other words, once the
High Court is satisfied after hearing the appellant or
his   counsel,   as   the   case   may   be,   that   the   appeal
involves   a   substantial   question   of   law,   it   has   to
formulate that question and then direct issuance of
notice to the respondent of the memo of appeal along
with the question of law framed by the High Court.
Sub­section (5) provides that the appeal shall be heard
only on the question formulated by the High Court
under sub­section (4). In other words, the jurisdiction
of   the   High   Court   to   decide   the   second   appeal   is
confined   only   to   the   question   framed   by   the   High
Court under sub­section(4).  The respondent, however,
9
at the time of hearing of the appeal is given a right
under sub­section (5) to raise an objection that the
question framed by the High Court under sub­section
(4) does not involve in the appeal. The reason for giving
this right to the respondent for raising such objection
at   the   time   of   hearing   is   because   the   High   Court
frames the question at the admission stage which is
prior   to   issuance   of   the   notice   of   appeal   to   the
respondent.   In other words, the question is framed
behind the back of respondent and, therefore, subsection(5)
enables him  to raise such objection at the
time of hearing that the question framed does not arise
in the appeal.  The proviso to sub­section (5), however,
also recognizes the power of the High Court to hear the
appeal on any other substantial question of law which
was not initially framed by the High Court under subsection
(4).  However, this power can be exercised by
the High Court only after assigning the reasons for
framing such additional question of law at the time of
10
hearing   of   the   appeal.   (See  Sanatosh   Hazari  vs.
Purushottam   Tiwari  [(2001) 3 SCC 179] and  Surat
Singh vs. Siri Bhagwan & Ors. [(2018) 4 SCC 562]
17. Keeping   in   view   the   scope   and   ambit   of   the
powers of the High Court while deciding the second
appeal when we advert to the facts of the case, we find
that the High Court committed an error in allowing the
defendants’   second   appeal   and   further   erred   in
dismissing   the   plaintiffs’   suit   by   answering   the
substantial question of law. This we say for more than
one reason.
18. First, mere perusal of the impugned order would
go   to   show   that   the   High   Court   had   admitted   the
second   appeal   by   framing   only   one   substantial
question of law, namely, whether the first Appellate
Court was justified in dismissing the defendants’ first
appeal   by   taking   into   consideration   one   earlier
11
litigation in relation to the suit land, which was not
between the same parties.
19. The High Court held that the first Appellate Court
was not justified because the earlier litigation was not
between the present plaintiffs and the defendants but
it was between the different parties and, therefore, any
decision rendered in such litigation would not operate
as  res judicata  in the present litigation between the
parties.   This resulted in allowing of the appeal and
dismissing the suit.
20. The High Court (Single Judge), in our opinion,
failed   to   see   that   even   if   the   said   question   was
answered in defendants’ favour, yet the plaintiffs’ suit
could   not   have   been   dismissed   much   less   in   its
entirety unless the High Court had further examined
the main issue of ownership of the plaintiffs over the
suit land, which was decided by the two Courts below
in plaintiffs’ favour on merits.
12
21. In other words, we are of the view that it was
necessary  for  the High  Court to  have  proceeded  to
examine the issue relating to the plaintiffs’ title over
the suit land, which was decided by the two Courts in
plaintiffs’ favour holding that the plaintiffs were able to
prove their title over the suit land on the basis of
documentary evidence whereas the defendants failed
to prove their title though asserted.
22. Second, the High Court committed another error
when it failed to frame any substantial question of law
on the issue of the plaintiffs’ ownership over the suit
land.
23. So long as no substantial question of law was
framed, the High Court had no jurisdiction to examine
the said issue in its second appellate jurisdiction. In
other words, the High Court having framed only one
question, which did not pertain to issue of ownership
of the suit land, had no jurisdiction to examine the
issue of ownership. It was not permissible in the light
13
of Section 100 (5) of the Code, which empowers the
High Court to decide the appeal only on the question
framed and not beyond it.
24. Third, the High Court could invoke its powers
under proviso to sub­section (5) of Section 100 and
frame one or two additional questions, as the case may
be, even at the time of hearing of the second appeal.  It
would have enabled the High Court to examine the
issue   of   ownership   of   the   suit   land   in   its   correct
perspective. It was, however, not done by the High
Court.
25. Fourth,   the   High   Court,   while   examining   the
question framed, also cursorily touched the ownership
issue which, in our opinion, the High Court could not
have   done   for   want   of   framing   of   any   substantial
question of law on the ownership issue. That apart,
the High Court also failed to see that the issue of res
judicata and the issue of ownership were independent
issues   and   the   decision   on   one   would   not   have
14
answered   the   other   one.   In   other   words,   both   the
issues had to be examined independent of each other
on their respective merits. It was, however, possible
only after framing of substantial questions on both the
issues as provided under Section 100(4) and (5) of the
Code. This was, however, not done in this case.
26. In the light of aforementioned four reasons, we
are   of   the   considered   opinion   that   the   impugned
judgment is not legally sustainable and, therefore, it
has to be set aside.
27. Since the High Court failed to examine the issue
of ownership of the plaintiffs on its merits for want of
framing   of   the   substantial   question(s)   of   law,   the
matter   has   to   be   remanded   to   the   High   Court   for
deciding the question as to whether two Courts below
were right in their respective jurisdiction in holding
that the plaintiffs were able to prove their title over the
suit land on the basis of evidence (oral/documentary)
15
adduced   by   them   and,   if   so,   whether   such   finding
should be upheld or not.
28. In view of the foregoing discussion, the appeal
succeeds and is allowed. Impugned order is set aside.
The case is remanded to the High Court for deciding
the second appeal afresh on merits in accordance with
law by properly framing the substantial question(s) of
law on the question of ownership of the plaintiffs over
the suit land and then to examine as to whether the
findings on the said question recorded by two Courts
suffer from any error(s) or not.
29. We,   however,   make   it   clear   that   we   have   not
applied   our   mind   on   the   merits   of   the   controversy
having formed an opinion to remand the case to the
High Court for deciding the appeal afresh as observed
above and, therefore, the High Court will decide the
appeal strictly in accordance with law uninfluenced by
any of our observations.
16
30. Since the matter is quite old, we request the High
Court to decide the appeal as expeditiously as possible
preferably   within   6   months   from   the   date   of   this
judgment.   
                 
     ………...................................J.
[ABHAY MANOHAR SAPRE]
         
                       
       ...……..................................J.
                 [VINEET SARAN]
New Delhi;
September 11, 2018
17