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Wednesday, August 12, 2015

116. Determination of rateable value of lands and buildings assessable to property taxes. (1) The rateable value of any land or building assessable to property taxes shall be the annual rent at which such land or building might reasonably be expected to let from year to year less— (a) a sum equal to ten per cent of the said annual rent which shall be in lieu of all allowances for costs of repairs and insurance, and other expenses, if any, necessary to maintain the land or building in a state to command that rent, and (b) the water tax or the scavenging tax or both, if the rent is inclusive of either or both of the said taxes: Provided that if the rent is inclusive of charges for water supplied by measurement, then, for the purpose of this section the rent shall be treated as inclusive of water tax on rateable value and the deduction of the water tax shall be made as provided therein: Provided further that in respect of any land or building the standard rent of which has been fixed under the Delhi and Ajmer Rent Control Act, 1952 (38 of 1952), the rateable value thereof shall not exceed the annual amount of the standard rent so fixed. Explanation.—The expression "water tax" and "scavenging tax" shall mean such taxes of that nature as may be levied by an appropriate authority.”

                                                                  REPORTABLE

                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

                        CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

                        CIVIL APPEAL NO.6718 OF 2004



M.C.D. & ANR.                                …APPELLANTS

                                   VERSUS


M/S. MEHRASONS JEWELLERS (P) LTD.    ...RESPONDENT

                                    WITH

                        CIVIL APPEAL NO.8341 OF 2011
                        CIVIL APPEAL NO.8342 OF 2011
                      CIVIL APPEAL NO.________ OF 2015
                (ARISING OUT OF SLP (CIVIL) NO.32342 OF 2011)

                         CIVIL APPEAL NO.632 OF 2013
                        CIVIL APPEAL NO.8340 OF 2011


                               J U D G M E N T

R.F. Nariman, J.

1.    Leave granted.

2.    In this batch of appeals  there  appear  to  be  two  distinct  groups
dealing with two separate questions that have been  raised  by  counsel  for
the Municipal Corporation of Delhi. Civil Appeal No. 6718 of 2004  raises  a
question as to the correctness of the judgment of the Division Bench of  the
Delhi High Court in Municipal Corporation  of  Delhi  v.  Dhunishaw  Framroz
Daruwala, 100 DLT 679  (2002),  decided  on  23.7.2002,  whereas  the  other
appeals raise a question as to  the  correctness  of  the  judgment  of  the
Division Bench  of  the  Delhi  High  Court  dated  21.4.2010  in  Municipal
Corporation of Delhi v. Major General Inderpal Singh Kahai & Anr.,  169  DLT
352 (2010) (DB).

3.    The first question raised by  counsel  for  the  MCD  in  the  present
appeals concerns itself with a post 1994 scenario – that is after the  Delhi
Municipal  Corporation  came  out  with  the  “Delhi  Municipal  Corporation
(Determination of Rateable Value) Bye- Laws, 1994” published in the  gazette
on 24.10.1994.  By these  bye-laws,  the  Delhi  Municipal  Corporation  has
taken  upon  itself  the  determination  of  rateable  value  of  lands  and
buildings according to principles laid down therein.

4.    Under Section 116(1) of the Delhi  Municipal  Corporation  Act,  1957,
the Corporation  is  to  determine  the  rateable  value  of  any  lands  or
buildings assessable to property taxes at the  annual  rent  at  which  such
land or building might reasonably be expected to let from year to year.  The
said provision reads as follows:

“116. Determination of rateable value of lands and buildings  assessable  to
property taxes.

(1) The rateable value of any land or building assessable to property  taxes
shall be the annual rent at which such land or building might reasonably  be
expected to let from year to year less—

(a) a sum equal to ten per cent of the said annual rent which  shall  be  in
lieu of all allowances  for  costs  of  repairs  and  insurance,  and  other
expenses, if any, necessary to maintain the land or building in a  state  to
command that rent, and

(b) the water tax or the scavenging tax or both, if the  rent  is  inclusive
of either or both of the said taxes:

Provided that if the rent is inclusive of  charges  for  water  supplied  by
measurement, then, for the  purpose  of  this  section  the  rent  shall  be
treated as inclusive of water tax on rateable value  and  the  deduction  of
the water tax shall be made as provided therein:

Provided further that in respect of any land or building the  standard  rent
of which has been fixed under the Delhi and Ajmer  Rent  Control  Act,  1952
(38 of 1952), the rateable value thereof shall not exceed the annual  amount
of the standard rent so fixed.

Explanation.—The expression "water tax"  and  "scavenging  tax"  shall  mean
such taxes of that nature as may be levied by an appropriate authority.”



5.    The fleshing out of  the  skeleton  contained  in  Section  116(1)  is
thereafter done by bye-law 3 of the 1994 bye-laws which provides as under:-

“3. Determination of rateable value of lands  and  buildings-  (1)  For  the
purposes of sub-section (1) of Section 116  of  the  Act,  the  annual  rent
shall be determined as under:

(a)  where  the  premises  are  on  rent,  the  rent  actually  realised  or
realisable, unless the same is  collusive  or  concessional,  shall  be  the
annual rent. Where the tenancy commences on or after the 1st day  of  April,
1995 and where the commissioner has reason  to  believe  that  the  declared
rent does not represent the prevalent rent of the year of  letting  and  the
difference between declared rent and the prevalent rent is more than  twenty
five percent of the declared rent, the annual rent shall  be  the  prevalent
rent;

Explanation-For the purposes of this clause the  prevalent  rents  shall  be
determined by a Panel of Assessors to  be  appointed  by  the  Commissioner.
Such  Panel  shall  include  a  representative  from   the   Government,   a
representative  of  the  Corporation,  a  representative  of  any   Taxation
Department (other than the Corporation) or a Valuer and a representative  of
the property owners of the zone of which  the  prevalent  rents  are  to  be
determined.

(b) in the case of the premises which are sub-let, the rent paid or  payable
by the occupier shall be the annual rent.

Explanation-For the purposes of clause (a) and clause (b), it is  immaterial
whether the building and the fixtures and fittings affixed to  the  building
and the land let for use and  enjoyment  therewith,  are  let  by  the  same
contract or by different contracts, and if by different  contracts,  whether
made simultaneously  or at different times;

(c)  in case premises are used and occupied or are lying vacant for use  and
occupation by the owner himself:

(i) where the building has been erected or land which  is  on  rent  and  no
premium has been paid, the annual rent  or  the  building  or  part  thereof
shall be the aggregate of the annual rent of the land  paid  or  payable  in
the year or assessment and an amount calculated at ten percent of  the  cost
of construction of the building, cost of fixtures and fittings and  cost  of
additions, alterations and improvements;

ii) where the building or part thereof, is used or to be used as  a  banquet
hall, cinema hall, club, guest house, hotel, nursing home or  as  house  for
marriages and such other functions, the annual  rent  shall  be  the  amount
calculated at ten percent of the  market  price  of  land  in  the  year  of
assessment and the cost of construction of the building,  cost  of  fixtures
and fittings and cost of additions, alterations  and  improvements,  or  the
prevalent rent, whichever is higher;

iii) where the premises are not covered by sub-clause (i)  and  (ii)  above,
the annual rent shall be the amount calculated at ten percent  of  the  cost
of the  premises  upto  the  year  of  assessment  or  the  prevalent  rent,
whichever is lower;

 Provided that where the premises are  used  for  residential  purposes  and
cost of the premises is determined under  Bye-law  2(l)(b)(iv),  the  annual
rent of the portion of the building completed upto the  year  1993-94  shall
not be more than the annual rent determined for the year 1993-94;

(d) where the building or part thereof, is lying  vacant  for  letting,  the
annual rent of such building or part thereof, shall be ten  percent  of  the
cost of the premises;

(e) in respect of the properties in the unauthorised  colonies,  regularised
unauthorised colonies, on plot allotted under  Economically  Weaker  Section
and Low Income Group schemes and in respect of flats  used  for  residential
purposes upto a covered area of 75 sq. mts., where  the  Commissioner  feels
that determination of value of land, cost of construction or  the  prevalent
rent is difficult, he may determine the annual rent by Unit Area Method.

Explanation I-Where the  premises  has  an  illuminated  or  non-illuminated
advertisement on the walls, hoardings, posts or structures  affixed  to  the
premises, the annual rent of the premises shall include the rent  from  such
advertisement.

Explanation Il-For the purposes of this bye-law,  the  annual  rent  of  the
premises includes the annual rent of the  land  and  building  thereon,  and
such other fixtures and fittings as are considered  necessary  for  the  use
and enjoyment of the land and building for the purpose for  which  they  are
intended to be used and  shall  include  lifts,  elevators,  storage  tanks,
pipelines, railways lines,  runways,  underground  cables,  air-conditioning
plant in centrally air-conditioned buildings,  swimming  pools,  chairs  and
screen in cinema halls, theatres and  auditoria,  cost  of  insulations  and
racks in cold storage buildings, but, save as aforesaid,  no  account  shall
be taken of the value of any fixtures and fittings contained or situated  in
or upon any land or building.

(2) Where the premises, as per prevalent practice, are  let  or  transferred
by charging pugree or through some other arrangement on nominal  rents,  the
Commissioner may estimate the annual rent of the premises after taking  into
consideration the rents paid  or  payable  by  public  undertakings  or  the
government organisations  or  the  premises  let  by  such  undertakings  or
organisations  either  in  the  same  locality  or  in  the  nearby  similar
locality.

(3) In the case  of  premises  to  which  rent  restriction  legislation  is
applicable, the annual rent determinable under sub-bye-law (1) above,  shall
not be more than the rent realised or realisable under the rent  restriction
legislation.

(4) Where the annual rent of the building is determinable  under  more  than
one clauses of sub-bye-law (1), the annual rent of  the  building  shall  be
the aggregate of the annual rent determined under various  clauses  of  that
sub-bye-Iaw.

?(5) Where the premises have been provided with any  fixtures  and  fittings,
the deduction for the maintenance of such  premises  shall  be  fifteen  per
cent of the annual rent and not ten per cent of the annual rent as  provided
under sub-section (1) of Section 16 of the Act.

(6) When any land is purchased or new building is erected  or  any  building
is rebuilt or enlarged or where there is change  in  the  ownership  of  the
land or building, change in tenancy or increase in rents, after the 31st  of
December of the year the increase in the rateable value shall  be  effective
from the commencement of the succeeding year.”



6.    In Daruwala’s case (supra), a Division Bench of the Delhi  High  Court
following Dr. Balbir Singh & Ors. Etc. Etc. v. Municipal Corporation,  Delhi
& Others, (1985)  1  SCC  167,  and  Lt.  Col.  P.R.  Chaudhary  (Retd.)  v.
Municipal  Corporation  of  Delhi,  (2000)  4  SCC   577   has   held   that
notwithstanding the advent of the 1994 bye-laws, “annual  value”  has  still
to be determined on the principles laid down in these  two  judgments.   The
bone of contention is that, according to learned counsel for  the  Municipal
Corporation of Delhi, once the MCD lays down its  own  bye-laws,  principles
laid down in the two Supreme Court judgments referred to  no  longer  apply,
as they were applied in situations where the MCD did  not  itself  lay  down
how annual value was to  be  determined.   Secondly,  these  judgments  were
confined to fact situations in  which  the  Delhi  Rent  Control  Act,  1958
applied.  Per contra, learned counsel for the assessees contended  that  the
impugned judgment of the Delhi High Court was  correct  and  that  equitable
principles had been laid down which are required to be followed  even  after
the Municipal Corporation’s own bye-laws have been framed by it.

7.    It  has  been  pointed  out  by  learned  counsel  for  the  Municipal
Corporation that in Municipal Corporation of  Delhi  v.  Delhi  Urban  House
Owners’ Welfare Association, (1997) 8 SCC 335, the bye-laws as a whole  have
been upheld and that, therefore, it is important that once these are  framed
they are followed in letter and spirit.

8.    We are of the view  that  the  counsel  for  the  MCD  appears  to  be
correct.  Both Balbir Singh’s case and P.R. Chaudhary’s case were  judgments
dealing with a situation  where  the  Delhi  Rent  Control  Act  applied  to
premises governed by the said Act, and the context  of  both  judgments  was
that the principle of parity evolved in  Balbir  Singh’s  case  would  apply
only because annual rent in those cases had to be fixed regard being had  to
the maximum that could possibly be fixed in a situation where standard  rent
under the Delhi Rent Control Act  would  be  the  ceiling  above  which  the
amount fixed as per parameters under the Delhi Rent Control  Act  could  not
be exceeded.  This becomes clear  from  the  following  paragraphs  in  P.R.
Chaudhary’s case:-


“4. We are concerned in these appeals with the law as it  existed  prior  to
the amendment of the Rent Act in 1988.  By  the  Act 57  of  1988  the  Rent
Act was not to apply to certain premises as provided  in  Section  3 of  the
Rent Act.


5.    In  Dr.  Balbir  Singh's  case  this  Court  was  concerned  with  the
determination of rateable value in respect of properties situated  in  Delhi
and governed by the provisions of the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act,  1957
and the Punjab Municipal Act, 1911.  The  Court  considered  four  different
categories  of  properties,  namely  (1)  where  the  properties  are  self-
occupied, that is, occupied by the owners;  (2)  where  the  properties  are
partly self-occupied and partly tenanted; (3) where the land  on  which  the
property is constructed is  leasehold  land  with  a  restriction  that  the
leasehold interest shall not be transferable without  the  approval  of  the
lessor; and (4) where the property has been  constructed  in  stages.  Under
the provisions of the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act as well as the  Punjab
Municipal Act, the criterion for determining rateable value of the  building
is the annual rent at which such building  be  reasonably  expected  to  let
from year  to  year.  The  word  “reasonably”  in  the  definition  is  very
important.  What  the  owner  might  reasonably  expect  to   get   from   a
hypothetical tenant, if the building were let from  year  to  year,  affords
the statutory yardstick for determining the  rateable  value.  Now  what  is
reasonable  is  a  question  of  fact  and  it  depends  on  the  facts  and
circumstances of a given situation. The Court considered various  provisions
of the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act and the Punjab Municipal Act as  well
as that of the Delhi Rent Control Act,  1958.  Delhi  Rent  Control  Act was
amended in 1988 when certain properties were taken out  of  the  purview  of
that Act. The four categories have been considered at pages  461,  466,  468
and 473 of the Report. We quote the  statement of  law  laid  down  by  this
Court after considering various statutory provisions made in respect of  the
first category: (SCC pp. 186-187 para 11).

“The  rateable  value  of  the  premises,  whether   residential   or   non-
residential, cannot exceed the standard rent, but, as  already  pointed  out
above, it may in a given case be less than the  standard  rent.  The  annual
rent which the owner of the premises may reasonably expect  to  get  if  the
premises are let out would depend  on  the  size,  situation,  locality  and
condition of the premises and the amenities provided therein and  all  these
and other relevant factors would have to be  evaluated  in  determining  the
rateable value, keeping in mind the upper limit fixed by the standard  rent.
If this basic principle is borne in mind,  it  would  avoid  wide  disparity
between  the  rateable  value  of  similar  premises  situate  in  the  same
locality, where some premises are old premises constructed  many  years  ago
when the land prices were not high and the  cost  of  construction  had  not
escalated and others are recently-constructed premises when  the  prices  of
land have gone up almost 40 to 50 times and the  cost  of  construction  has
gone up almost 3 to 5 times in the last 20 years. The standard rent  of  the
former category of  premises  on  the  principles  set  out  in  sub-section
(1)(A)(2)(b) or (1)(B)(2)(b) of Section 6 would be comparatively low,  while
in case of latter category of premises, the standard  rent  determinable  on
these principles would be unduly high. If the standard rent were to  be  the
measure of rateable  value,  there  would  be  huge  disparity  between  the
rateable value of old premises  and  recently-constructed  premises,  though
they may be similar and situate in the  same  or  adjoining  locality.  That
would be wholly illogical and irrational. Therefore, what is required to  be
considered for determining rateable value in  case  of  recently-constructed
premises is as to what is the rent which the owner might  reasonably  expect
to get if the premises are let out and that is bound  to  be  influenced  by
the rent which is obtainable for similar premises  constructed  earlier  and
situate in the same or adjoining locality and  which  would  necessarily  be
limited by the standard rent of such premises. The  position  in  regard  to
the determination of rateable value of self-occupied  residential  and  non-
residential premises may thus  be  stated  as  follows:  the  standard  rent
determinable on the principles set out in sub-section (2)(a)  or  (2)(b)  or
(1)(A)(2)(b) or (1)(B)(2)(b) of Section 6, as may be applicable,  would  fix
the upper limit of the rateable value of the premises and within such  upper
limit, the assessing authorities would have to determine as to what  is  the
rent which the owner may reasonably expect to get if the  premises  are  let
to a hypothetical tenant and for the  purpose  of  such  determination,  the
assessing  authorities  would  have  to  evaluate  factors  such  as   size,
situation, locality and condition of the premises and the amenities  therein
provided. The assessing authorities would also have  to  take  into  account
the rent, which the  owner  of  similar  premises  constructed  earlier  and
situate in the same  or  adjoining  locality,  might  reasonably  expect  to
receive from a hypothetical tenant and which  would  necessarily  be  within
the upper limit of the standard rent of such premises, so that there  is  no
wide disparity between the rate of rent  per  square  foot  or  square  yard
which the owner might reasonably expect to get in case of the two  premises.
Some disparity is bound to be there  on  account  of  the  size,  situation,
locality and condition of the premises and the amenities  provided  therein.
Bigger size beyond a certain optimum would depress the rate of rent  and  so
also would less  favourable  situation  or  locality  or  lower  quality  of
construction or unsatisfactory condition  of  the  premises  or  absence  of
necessary amenities  and  similar  other  factors.  But  after  taking  into
account   these   varying   factors,   the   disparity   should    not    be
disproportionately large.” (Paras 4 & 5).


9.    This Court has dealt with three different groups of  cases  that  have
come before it dealing with property tax legislation in the  various  States
of this country.  The first group is a group of cases  where  the  Municipal
Acts of the States define annual value to be the hypothetical  rent  that  a
landlord could reasonably be expected to receive if  his  property  was  let
out to a hypothetical tenant.  It is in this situation that this Court  held
that such  hypothetical rent could not exceed the  standard  rent  fixed  or
fixable under the rent control statute which obtained in that  State.   This
was laid down in The Corporation of Calcutta v. Padma Debi  &  Others,  1962
SCR (3) 49 and followed in a  number  of  judgments,  which  include  Balbir
Singh’s case and P.R. Chaudhary’s case.

10.   The second group of cases is where  the  language  of  the  particular
Municipal Corporation Act contains a non obstante clause owing to which  the
standard rent under the particular rent statute  of  that  particular  State
could not be taken to be the maximum rent which could  possibly  be  fetched
by a hypothetical landlord from a hypothetical tenant. This class  of  cases
is contained in Municipal Corporation, Indore & Others v. Smt. Ratna  Prabha
& Others (1996) 4 SCC 622 and the judgments that follow it.

11.   Another group of cases is contained in the judgment of this  Court  in
Assistant General Manager, Central Bank of India & Others  v.  Commissioner,
Municipal Corporation for the City of Ahmedabad & Others, (1995) 4 SCC  696.
 This was a case where the Ahmedabad Municipal Act itself provided the  mode
of determination of the annual value, so that it became  unnecessary  to  go
to the provisions of the Rent Act of that State.  The law thus laid down  by
this Court is summarized in East India Commercial  Company  Private  Limited
v. Corporation of Calcutta, (1998) 4 SCC 368 as follows:-

“17. From the aforesaid decisions, the principle which is deducible is  that
when the Municipal Act requires the determination of the annual value,  that
Act has to be read along with Rent Restriction Act which  provides  for  the
determination of fair rent or standard rent.  Reading the two Acts  together
the ratable value cannot be more than the fair or standard  rent  which  can
be fixed under the Rent Control Act.  The exception to  this  rule  is  that
whenever any Municipal Act itself provides the mode of determination of  the
annual letting value like  the  Central  Bank  of  India  case  relating  to
Ahmedabad or contains a non obstante clause as in Ratnaprabha case then  the
determination of the annual letting value has to be according to  the  terms
of the Municipal Act.” (at Para 17).



12.   In The Commissioner v. Griha Yajamanula Samkhya  &  Others,  (2001)  5
SCC 651, this  Court  disposed  of  a  batch  of  writ  petitions  involving
assessment of property  tax  of  buildings  located  within  the  limits  of
different Municipal Corporations in the  State  of  Andhra  Pradesh.   After
referring to various judgments of this Court including the judgment  in  the
Central Bank case and East  India  Commercial  Company’s  case,  this  Court
held:-

“From the statutory provisions  noted  above,  it  is  clear  that  the  Act
provides that the tax shall be levied at such percentages  of  the  rateable
value as may be fixed by the Corporation. It  further  provides  the  method
and manner of determination of the rateable value. The determination of  the
annual rental value which is the  basis  for  calculation  of  the  rateable
value is also provided in the Act and the Rules. The Act mandates  that  the
Commissioner shall determine the tax to be paid by the person  concerned  in
the manner prescribed under the statute and the rules. It is our  view  that
the Act and the  Rules  provide  a  complete  code  for  assessment  of  the
property tax to be levied for the buildings and lands within  the  municipal
corporation. There is no  provision  in  the  statute  that  the  fair  rent
determined under the Rent Control Act in respect of a  property  is  binding
on the Commissioner. The legislature has wisely not made  such  a  provision
because determination of annual  rental  value  under  the  Act  depends  on
several criteria. The criteria for such  determination  provided  under  the
Act may not be similar to those  prescribed  under  the  Rent  Control  Act.
Further the time when  such  determination  was  made  is  also  a  relevant
factor. If in a particular case the Commissioner finds that there  has  been
a recent determination of the fair rent of the  property  by  the  authority
under the Rent Control Act he may be persuaded to accept the amount  as  the
basis for determining the annual rental value of the property. But  that  is
not to say that the Commissioner is mandatorily required to follow the  fair
rent fixed by the authority under the  Rent  Control  Act.  The  High  Court
therefore did not commit any error in  holding  that  the  determination  of
fair rent under the  Rent  Control  statute  will  not  be  binding  on  the
Commissioner for the purpose of assessment of property tax under  the  Act.”
(at Para 35)



13.   The present appeals before us refer to assessment years post 1994  and
are said to be in a factual scenario where after the amendment  of  1988  to
the Delhi Rent Control Act, the  Delhi  Rent  Control  Act  does  not  apply
either for the reason that the rent fixed is more than Rs.3,500/- per  month
or that the property has been newly  constructed  and  is  exempt  from  its
provisions for a period of 10 years.  In situations such as  the  above,  an
instructive judgment of  this  Court  is  contained  in  Government  Servant
Cooperative House Building Society Limited & Others  v.  Union  of  India  &
Others, (1998) 6 SCC 381.  In this judgment, this  Court  noticed  the  1988
amendment to the Delhi Rent Control Act and various  judgments  referred  to
hereinabove and concluded as under:

“8. Therefore, the annual rent actually received by  the  landlord,  in  the
absence of any special circumstances, would be a good guide  to  decide  the
rent  which  the  landlord  might  reasonably  expect  to  receive  from   a
hypothetical tenant.  Since  the  premises  in  the  present  case  are  not
controlled by any rent control legislation, the annual rent received by  the
landlord is what a willing  lessee,  uninfluenced  by  other  circumstances,
would pay  to  a  willing  lessor.  Hence,  actual  annual  rent,  in  these
circumstances, can be taken as the annual rateable  value  of  the  property
for  the  assessment  of  property  tax.  The  municipal   corporation   is,
therefore, entitled to revise the rateable value  of  the  properties  which
have been freed from rent control on  the  basis  of  annual  rent  actually
received unless the owner satisfies the  municipal  corporation  that  there
are other considerations which have affected the quantum of rent.” (at  Para
8).



14.   Having regard to the  aforesaid  statement  of  law,  we  are  of  the
opinion that the Division Bench of the Delhi High Court in  Daruwala’s  case
(supra), is not correctly decided for the simple  reason  that  this  appeal
falls within the exception created by the  Central  Bank  judgment,  namely,
cases where the Municipal Corporation of  a  particular  State  itself  lays
down as to how annual value is to be determined. We,  therefore,  hold  that
for assessments made after the  1994  bye-laws  came  into  existence,  such
assessments shall be governed by these bye- laws alone  and  the  principles
laid down in Balbir Singh’s case and P.R. Chaudhary’s case,  would  have  no
relevance in such a situation.  We answer question number 1 accordingly.

15.   In order  to  determine  the  answer  to  question  number  2,  it  is
necessary to first extract two Sections of the Delhi  Municipal  Corporation
Act, both inserted with effect from 1.8.2003. Section 116G of the  said  Act
reads as follows:

?“116G. Transitory provisions.-Notwithstanding  anything  contained  in  this
Act, as amended by the Delhi Municipal Corporation (Amendment) Act, 2003,  a
tax on vacant land or covered space of building or both, levied  under  this
Act immediately before the date of coming into force of the Delhi  Municipal
Corporation (Amendment) Act, 2003, shall, on the coming into  force  of  the
Delhi Municipal Corporation (Amendment) Act, 2003, be deemed to be  the  tax
on such vacant land or covered space of building or both, levied under  this
Act as amended by the Delhi Municipal  Corporation  (Amendment)  Act,  2003,
and shall continue to be in force until such tax is  revised  in  accordance
with the  provisions  of  this  Act,  as  amended  by  the  Delhi  Municipal
Corporation (Amendment) Act, 2003.

(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1), where  assessment
has not been finalized in respect of a vacant land or  covered  space  of  a
building or both, on the date of the commencement  of  the  Delhi  Municipal
Corporation (Amendment) Act,  2003  the  assessee  may  have  such  land  or
building or both, as the case may be, assessed on the basis  of  the  annual
value.”



Section 169 after the amendment of 2003 reads as follows:

“169. Appeal against assessment, etc.-(I) An  appeal  against  the  levy  or
assessment or revision of assessment of any tax under this Act shall lie  to
the Municipal Taxation Tribunal constituted under this section:

Provided that the full amount of the  property  tax  shall  be  paid  before
filing any appeal:

Provided  further  that  the  Municipal  Taxation  Tribunal  may,  with  the
approval of the District Judge of Delhi, also take up  any  case  for  which
any appeal may be pending before the court of such District Judge:

Provided also that any appeal pending before  the  court  of  such  District
Judge shall be transferred to the Municipal Taxation Tribunal for  disposal,
if requested by the applicant for the settlement thereof  on  the  basis  of
annual value.

(2) (a) The  Government  shall  constitute  a  Municipal  Taxation  Tribunal
consisting of a Chairperson and such other members  as  the  Government  may
determine:

Provided that on the recommendation of the Government, the  Chairperson  may
constitute one or more separate Benches, each Bench comprising two  members,
one of whom shall be a member of the Higher Judicial Service of a  State  or
a Union territory and  the  other  member  from  the  higher  administrative
service, and may transfer to any such Bench any appeal for disposal  or  may
withdraw from any Bench any appeal before it is finally disposed of.

(b) The Chairperson, and not less than half of the  other  members,  of  the
Municipal Taxation Tribunal shall be  persons  who  are  or  have  been  the
member of the Higher Judicial Service of a State or a Union territory for  a
period of not less than five years,  and  the  remaining  members,  if  any,
shall have such qualifications and  experience  as  the  Government  may  by
rules determine.

(c) The  Chairperson  and  the  other  members  of  the  Municipal  Taxation
Tribunal shall be appointed by the Government for a period of five years  or
till they attain the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.

(d) The other terms and conditions of service of  the  Chairperson  and  the
other members of the Municipal Taxation  Tribunal,  including  salaries  and
allowances, shall be such as may be determined by rules by the Government.

(e) The salaries and allowances of the Chairperson and the other members  of
the Municipal Taxation Tribunal shall be paid from the Municipal Fund.



(3) In every appeal, the costs shall be in the discretion of  the  Municipal
Taxation Tribunal or the Bench thereof, if any.

(4)  Costs  awarded  under  this  section  to  the  Corporation   shall   be
recoverable by the Corporation as an arrear of tax due from the appellant.

(5) If the Corporation fails to  pay  any  costs  awarded  to  an  appellant
within ten days from  the  date  of  the  order  for  payment  thereof,  the
Municipal Taxation Tribunal may order the Commissioner to pay the  costs  to
the appellant.”



16.   Assailing the Division Bench judgment  of  the  Delhi  High  Court  in
Municipal Corporation of Delhi v.  Major  General  Inderpal  Singh  Kahai  &
Anr., learned counsel for the Municipal Corporation  referred  us  to  these
two Sections and argued that Section 116G is  only  a  transitory  provision
which is meant to tide over  difficulties  felt  in  enforcement  of  a  new
regime of property tax – what is  called  the  unit  area  method.   Learned
counsel argued that earlier,  under  Section  124  of  the  Delhi  Municipal
Corporation  Act,  the  Corporation  could  revise  rateable  value  of  any
property after giving a notice and hearing objections  to  the  same.   Post
August 2003, this tax regime has been replaced by Sections 123A and 123B  by
a self-assessment procedure based on what is called  the  unit  area  method
laid down under Section 116E of the said Act. According to learned  counsel,
Section 116G being a transitory provision therefore seeks to deal only  with
assessments that have not been finalized in respect  of  property  tax  just
before the 2003 amendment has come  into  force  and  would  refer  only  to
assessments  not  finalized  at  the  initial  stage  before  the  assessing
authority itself.  This would become clear from a  correct  reading  of  the
third proviso of Section 169 which states  that  applicants  in  appeal  can
only apply for “settlement” on the basis of annual value as defined  in  the
2003 amendment. Since such settlement does not refer to adjudication but  is
only consensual, it is obvious that all appeals pending at the date of  2003
amendments would have to be decided in accordance with the  old  substantive
law and no option could be given to assessees to opt for the  new  procedure
and levy of property tax post 2003 in respect of assessment years  prior  to
2003.  Counsel, therefore, argued that  the  basis  of  the  Division  Bench
judgment was wholly incorrect and therefore ought  to  be  set  aside.   Per
contra, learned counsel for the assessees has maintained that  the  impugned
judgment is absolutely correct and that even where an  assessment  has  been
finalized at the initial stage but an appeal  is  pending,  an  assessee  is
entitled to ask for an appellate decision on the basis of “annual value”  as
newly defined by the 2003 amendment.   Since  counsel  on  both  sides  have
referred us to provisions other than Sections 116G and 169 as well,  we  set
them out in order to better understand their arguments.

17.   By the 2003 Amendment Act to  the  Delhi  Municipal  Corporation  Act,
Section 2(1A) was added which reads as follows:

 “2 (1A)    “Annual value” means the annual value  of  any  vacant  land  or
covered space of any building determined under section 116E;”



18.   Section 116E says:

“116E. Determination of annual value of covered space  of  building  and  of
vacant land -(l) The annual value of any covered space of  building  in  any
ward shall be the amount arrived at by multiplying the total  area  of  such
covered space of building by the final base unit area value of such  covered
space and the relevant factors as referred to in clause (b)  of  sub-section
(2) of section 116A.

Explanation-"covered space", in relation  to  a  building,  shall  mean  the
total floor area in all  the  floor  thereof,  including  the  thickness  of
walls, and shall include the  spaces  of  covered  verandah  and  courtyard,
gangway, garrage, common service area, staircase, and balcony including  any
area projected beyond the plot boundary and  such  other  space  as  may  be
prescribed.

(2) The Corporation may require the total  area  of  the  covered  space  of
building as aforesaid to be certified by an architect registered  under  the
Architects Act, 1972 (20 of, 1972), or any licensed  architect,  subject  to
such conditions as may be prescribed.

(3) The annual value of any vacant land in any  ward  shall  be  the  amount
arrived at by multiplying the total area of such vacant land  by  the  final
base unit area value of such land and the relevant factors  as  referred  to
in clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 116A.

?(4) If, in the case of any vacant land or covered  space  of  building,  any
portion ,thereof is subject to different final base unit area values  or  is
not self-occupied, the annual value of each such portion shall  be  computed
separately, and the sum of such annual values shall be the annual value  for
such vacant land or covered space of building, as the case may be.”



19.   Section 126(4)(b) as it obtained prior to 2003 read as follows:

“126. Amendment of assessment list – (4)     No amendment under  sub-section
(1) shall be made in the assessment list in relation to –

(a)   xxx

(b)   the year commencing on the 1st day of April 1988, or  any  other  year
thereafter, after the expiry of three years from the  end  of  the  year  in
which the notice is given under sub-section (2) or sub-section (3),  as  the
case may be :

Provided that nothing contained in this sub-section shall apply  to  a  case
where the Commissioner has to amend the Assessment list  in  consequence  of
or to give effect to any direction or order of any court.”



20.   Section 123A and Section 123B, post the amendment  of  2003,  read  as
follows:

“123A. Submission of returns-(l) The Commissioner  shall,  with  a  view  to
determining the annual values of vacant land and covered space  of  building
in any ward and the person primarily liable  for  the  payment  of  property
tax, by public notice, or by notice, in writing, require the owner  and  the
occupier of such vacant land or covered space of  building  or  any  portion
thereof, including such owner or the person computing the tax due under  the
provisions of section 123B, to furnish a return  in  such  form  as  may  be
prescribed by bye-laws and within such time,  not  being  less  than  thirty
days from the date of publication  of  such  notice,  as  may  be  specified
therein, containing the following particulars, namely:-

(a) the name of the owner and the occupier;

(b) the number of the ward, the name of the colony, and the number  and  the
sub-number of  the  premises  of  such  vacant  land  or  covered  space  of
building, as the case may be;

(c) whether the building is pucca, semi-pucca or katcha;

(d) year of completion of construction of the building, or year or years  of
part construction thereof, as the case may be;

(e) the use with reference to the provisions of clause  (f)  of  sub-section
(1) of section 116A to which such vacant land or covered space  of  building
is put or intended to be put;

(f) the area of the vacant land and the covered space of the  building  with
break-up of the area under various uses;

(g) whether wholly owner-occupied  or  wholly  tenanted,  or  partly  owner-
occupied and partly tenanted, and the areas thereof; and

(h) such other particulars as may be prescribed by bye-laws.

(2) (a) Every owner and every  occupier  as  aforesaid  shall  be  bound  to
comply with such notice and to furnish a return with a declaration that  the
statement made therein is correct to the best of  knowledge  and  belief  of
such owner and  occupier.

(b) Whoever omits to comply with such requisition, shall in addition to  any
penalty to which he may be  liable,  be  precluded  from  objecting  to  any
assessment made by the Commissioner in respect of such land or building.

(3) The Commissioner or any person subordinate to him  and  duly  authorized
by him in this behalf, in writing, or any licensed architect, may,  with  or
without giving any previous notice to the owner or the occupier of any  land
or building, enter upon,  and  make  any  inspection  or  survey,  and  take
measurement of such land or building with a view to verifying the  statement
made in the  return  for  such  land  or  building  or  for  collecting  the
particulars, referred to in sub-section (1)  in  respect  of  such  land  or
building:

Provided that no such entry shall  be  made  except  between  the  hours  of
sunrise and sunset.

123B. Self-assessment and submission of return -(l) After  the  coming  into
force of the Delhi Municipal Corporation (Amendment) Act,  2003,  any  owner
of any vacant land or covered space of building or any other  person  liable
to pay the property tax or any occupier in the  absence  of  such  owner  or
person, shall file a return of self assessment  within  sixty  days  of  the
coming into force of the aforesaid Act.

(2) Such owner or other person or occupier,  as  the  case  may  be,  shall,
thereafter, file the annual return only in those  cases  where  there  is  a
change in the position as compared to  the  previous  return,  within  three
months after the end of the financial year in which the change  in  position
has occurred.

(3) Any owner of any covered space of building or vacant land or  any  other
person liable to pay the property tax, or any occupier  in  the  absence  of
such owner or person shall  compute  the  tax  due  under  section  114A  or
section 114C, as the case may be, and pay  the  same  in  equated  quarterly
instalment by the 30th day of June, 30th  day  of  September,  31st  day  of
December and 31st day of March of the financial year for which tax is to  be
paid. In the event of tax being paid in one lump sum for the financial  year
by the 30th day of June of the financial year,  rebate  of  such  percentage
not exceeding fifteen per cent as may be notified  by  the  Corporation,  of
the total tax amount due shall be allowed.

(4) Any owner of any vacant land or covered space of building or  any  other
person liable to pay the property tax or any  occupier  in  the  absence  of
such owner or person, who computes such property  tax  under  this  section,
shall, on such computation, pay the property tax  on  such  vacant  land  or
covered space of building, as the case may be, together  with  interest,  if
any, payable under the provisions of this Act on-

(a) any new building or existing building which has not been assessed; or

(b) any existing  building  which  has  been  redeveloped  or  substantially
altered or improved after the last assessment, but has  not  been  subjected
to revision of assessment consequent upon such redevelopment  or  alteration
or improvement, as the case may be.



(5) Such owner or  person,  as  the  case  may  be,  shall  furnish  to  the
Commissioner a return of self-assessment in such form, and in  such  manner,
as may  be  specified  in  the  by-laws  and  every  such  return  shall  be
accompanied by proof of payment of property tax and interest, if any.

(6) In the case of any new building for which an occupancy  certificate  has
been granted, or which has been occupied, after the  coming  into  force  of
the Delhi Municipal Corporation (Amendment) Act, 2003,  such  payment  shall
be made, and such return shall be  furnished,  within  thirty  days  of  the
expiry of the quarter in which such  occupancy  certificate  is  granted  or
such building is occupied, whichever is earlier.

Explanation.-For the removal of doubt, it is hereby declared that  occupancy
certificate may be provisional or final and may be  for  the  whole  or  any
part of the building and occupancy may be of the whole or any  part  of  the
building.

(7) After the determination of the annual value of vacant  land  or  covered
space of building under section 116E or section  116F  or  revision  thereof
under section 123C has been made, any amount paid on  self-assessment  under
this section  shall  be  deemed  to  have  been  paid  on  account  of  such
determination under this Act as amended by the Delhi  Municipal  Corporation
(Amendment) Act, 2003.

(8) If any owner or other person as aforesaid, liable to  pay  the  property
tax under this Act, fails to pay the same together  with  interest  thereon,
if any, in accordance  with  the  provisions  of  this  section,  he  shall,
without prejudice to any other action to which he may be subject, be  deemed
to be a defaulter in respect of such property tax,  or  interest,  or  both,
remaining unpaid, and all the provisions of  this  act  applicable  to  such
defaulter shall apply to him accordingly.

(9) If after the assessment of the annual  value  of  any  land  or  covered
space of building  finally  made  under  this  Act,  the  payment  on  self-
assessment under this section is found to be less that than  of  the  amount
payable by the assessee, the assessee shall pay the  difference  within  two
months from the date of final assessment, failing which  recovery  shall  be
made in accordance with the provisions of this Act,  but,  after  the  final
assessment, if it is found that the assessee has paid  excess  amount,  such
excess amount shall be refunded:

Provided that in any case where the amount of tax determined  in  the  final
assessment is more than the amount of tax paid  under  self-assessment,  and
the difference in the amount of tax is, in the opinion of the  Commissioner,
the result of wilful suppression of facts as defined in  the  bye-laws,  the
Commissioner may levy a penalty  not  exceeding  thirty  per  cent  of  such
difference in the tax besides the interest thereon:

Provided further that the levy of such penalty shall be in addition  to  any
other punishment provided for under this Act:

Provided  also  that  the  procedure  for  sending  of  notice,  hearing  of
objection and determination of tax and penalties shall be  such  as  may  be
specified in the bye-laws.

(10) Where no notice is sent by the Commissioner under section  123C  within
twelve months after the year to which  such  self-assessment  relates,  such
self assessment shall be regarded as assessment made under this Act:

Provided that in any case,  where  there  has  been  wilful  suppression  of
facts, penalty up to thirty per cent of the tax due may be imposed:

Provided further that the  procedure  for  sending  of  notice,  hearing  of
objection and determination of tax and penalties shall be  such  as  may  be
specified in the bye-laws.”



21.   Since what is being assailed is the correctness  of  the  judgment  in
Major General Inderpal Singh Kahai’s case (supra)  passed  by  the  Division
Bench of the Delhi High Court, it is important to  set  out  its  reasoning.
The Division Bench, after referring to Sections 116G and 169, then stated:

“9.   It is clear from the third proviso to Section 169(1) of  the  DMC  Act
that even where an assessment is finalized, but an  appeal  is  pending,  an
assessee is entitled to ask for a decision  in  the  appeal  on  the  annual
value basis.  In other words, even at an appellate  stage,  an  assessee  is
empowered to ask for a decision on the basis of  the  annual  value  of  the
property.

10.   Therefore, three situations are postulated:

      Firstly, where an assessment has  been  finalized  and  no  appeal  is
filed against it, then the assessment will continue to  be  operative  until
it is revised.

      Secondly, where an assessment has been finalized  but  an  appeal  has
been filed against it, then as per the third proviso to  Section  160(1)  of
the DMC Act, the assessee can ask for an assessment  on  the  basis  of  the
annual value of the property.

      Thirdly, where the assessment is not finalized, then  as  per  Section
116-G(2) of the DMC Act, the assessee can  ask  for  an  assessment  on  the
basis of the annual value of the property.

11.  It appears to us that the intention of the Legislature was to  commence
the levy of property tax with effect from 1st April, 2004 on a  clean  slate
– in respect of all pending  assessments  and  in  respect  of  all  appeals
pending against finalized assessment orders.  All assessments in such  cases
would be made after 1st April, 2004 on the option of the  assessee,  on  the
basis of the annual value of the property.  If the  statutory  amendment  is
read and understood in this light, it is clear that Section 116-G(2) of  the
DMC Act not only entitles an assessee to seek an assessment  on  the  annual
value basis, in an assessment not yet finalized, but it  also  empowers  the
assessee in making such a demand as a matter of right.

12.   Looked at from another point of view, if Section 116-G(2) of  the  DMC
Act does not so empower an assessee, then not  only  would  the  purpose  of
that Section be lost, but a rather strange and anomalous situation would  be
created – namely, that in a pending appeal against a  finalized  assessment,
an assessee can demand an assessment on the basis of  the  annual  value  of
the property (third proviso to Section 169(1) of  the  DMC  Act)  but  in  a
pending assessment, the assessee cannot demand an assessment  on  the  basis
of the annual value.  Surely, such an odd situation  is  not  postulated  by
the law or by the Legislature.

15.   In our opinion, there is an error in the submission  made  by  learned
counsel for the Municipal Corporation.  The error  is  in  appreciating  the
term `finalized’ assessment.  An assessment in the context of  Section  116-
G(2) of the DMC Act means an  assessment  that  has  been  accepted  by  the
assessee and is not the subject matter of a statutory appeal.  It  does  not
include an assessment set aside in appeal nor does it include an  assessment
challenged by way of a statutory appeal.   This  being  so,  the  assessment
made by the Joint Assessor and  Collector  and  set  aside  by  the  learned
Additional District Judge by his order  dated  1st  April,  2002  is  not  a
`finalized’  assessment within the meaning of Section 116-G(2)  of  the  DMC
Act.  The assessment in the case of the respondents having  been  set  aside
and remanded back for re-determination of the rateable value by the  learned
Additional District Judge clearly indicates that  the  assessment  was  wide
open.  In that sense, it was not ‘finalised’ in so far as the provisions  of
Section 116-G(2) of the DMC Act are concerned.

16.    According  to  learned  counsel  for   the   Municipal   Corporation,
notwithstanding this, once the assessment is made by the  Joint  Assessor  &
Collector, it must be taken to be finalized for the purpose of Section  116-
G(2) of the DMC Act.  This submission would be  correct  if  the  assessment
order is accepted by the assessee or is not challenged  in  appeal,  but  in
the present case where the assessment order itself has been set  aside  with
a direction by the learned Additional District  Judge  to  re-determine  the
rateable value (and no fresh order has been passed  by  the  Joint  Assessor
and Collector in terms of the directions given by  the  Additional  District
Judge) it cannot be said that the assessment has been finalized at least  at
the hands of Joint Assessor and Collector.”



22.   We are of the opinion that this is a correct view of  the  law.  Under
Section 169 3rd proviso, appeals that are pending before the  Court  of  the
District Judge are to be transferred to the Municipal Taxation  Tribunal  to
be set up under the  2003  Amendment  for  disposal,  if  requested  by  the
applicant, for the settlement thereof on the basis of  annual  value.   This
proviso means that an appeal pending  before  a  District  Judge  is  to  be
transferred compulsorily to the Taxation Tribunal (after it is  set  up)  if
an applicant requests for disposal of the appeal  on  the  basis  of  annual
value. Obviously, the word “settlement” would not in this  context  means  a
consensual  arrangement  between  both  parties  but  would  only   mean   a
determination to be made by the Tribunal  on  the  basis  of  annual  value.
Once this position becomes clear, the impugned judgment cannot  be  faulted.
It is clear then that even at the appellate stage an applicant  can  opt  to
apply for the new unit area method provided for in Section 116E so that  his
property tax assessment may be decided in accordance with  the  said  method
even though it pertains to an assessment year prior to 2003.

23.   The second proviso to Section 169 would apply in  cases  where,  after
the Taxation Tribunal is set up, there is no request  by  any  applicant  to
determine his case on the basis of annual value.  In such  cases  also,  the
Tribunal once set up may  take  up  the  appeal  of  such  person  with  the
approval of the earlier appellate authority,  namely,  the  District  Judge.
Thus understood, it is clear that the logic of the  Division  Bench  of  the
High Court cannot be faulted.

24.   This being the position in  law,  an  assessment  that  has  not  been
finalized in all cases where an appeal is pending before the District  Judge
as also in all cases which have not become “final” in  the  sense  that  the
appellate authority or the High Court or  Supreme  Court  (after  2003),  in
respect of an assessment of property tax prior to 2003, remands  the  matter
for fresh determination, would all be covered by  the  language  of  Section
116G(2). We are, therefore, of the view that the High Court is  correct  and
this group of appeals, therefore, consequently stands dismissed.

25.   We have been informed that in the appeal which dealt  with  the  first
question decided by us,  various  other  points  were  raised  in  the  writ
petition filed before the Delhi High Court which were not  adjudicated  upon
as Daruwala’s case was followed. Having  set  aside  Daruwala’s  case,  such
other points that have been raised by the petitioners in the  writ  petition
filed before the Delhi High Court may now be agitated  by  them  before  the
High Court and a remand is made of  this  case  for  determination  of  such
questions by the High Court.  As this is an old writ  petition,  we  request
the High Court to take up this writ petition at an early date.



                                  ……………………….J.
                                  (A.K. Sikri)


                                  ……………………….J.
                                  (R.F. Nariman)
New Delhi;
August 11, 2015




The appellant is a notified party under Section 3(2) of the Special Courts (Trial of Offences relating to Transactions in Securities) Act, 1992 (hereinafter referred to as ‘the Act’). Its tenancy rights over the premises bearing Flat No.2, situated on the ground floor of a building known as Krishna Mahal at 36, Marine Drive, D-Road, Mumbai belonging to respondent no.2, the owner and landlord also came to be attached under the provisions of the Act. The respondent no.1 filed an application before the Special Court which was numbered as Miscellaneous Petition No.17 of 2004. He claimed that the flat which stood attached for the tenancy rights of the notified party be also dealt with and disposed of for the best available price for satisfying the liabilities of the appellant under Section 11 of the Act= In the facts of the case while dismissing the appeal of the appellant, in the larger interest of justice we modify the impugned order and direct respondent no.2 to deposit within eight weeks from today the earlier balance amount of Rs.65 Lacs along with additional amount of Rs.13,92,000/- . In other words respondent no.2 in order to get the benefit of the impugned order shall now make in total a deposit of Rs.78,92,000/- (Rupees Seventy Eight Lac Ninety Two Thousand) within eight weeks and shall not claim interest accrued on the amount of Rs.10 Lac already deposited by him. On such deposit being made within eight weeks, the Custodian shall deliver the possession of the flat to the respondent no.2 the landlord without any delay and in any case within one week of such deposit.

                                                              NON-REPORTABLE

                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

                        CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

                        CIVIL APPEAL NO.5471 OF 2005

Fairgrowth Financial Services Ltd.                  …..Appellant

      Versus

Custodian & Anr.                               …..Respondents

                                   W I T H


                          C.A.Nos.5788-5789 of 2005



                               J U D G M E N T



SHIVA KIRTI SINGH, J.


Civil Appeal No.5471 of 2005

Heard the parties.  The appellant is a notified party under Section 3(2)  of
the  Special  Courts  (Trial  of  Offences  relating  to   Transactions   in
Securities) Act, 1992 (hereinafter referred to as ‘the Act’).   Its  tenancy
rights over the premises bearing Flat No.2, situated on the ground floor  of
a building known as Krishna  Mahal  at  36,  Marine  Drive,  D-Road,  Mumbai
belonging to respondent no.2,  the  owner  and  landlord  also  came  to  be
attached under the provisions of the Act.   The  respondent  no.1  filed  an
application before the Special Court which  was  numbered  as  Miscellaneous
Petition No.17 of 2004.  He claimed that the flat which stood  attached  for
the tenancy rights of the notified party be also dealt with and disposed  of
for  the  best  available  price  for  satisfying  the  liabilities  of  the
appellant under Section 11 of the  Act.   That  Miscellaneous  Petition  was
entertained and it ultimately resulted in acceptance  of  highest  offer  of
Rs.75 Lacs made by the landlord as it was the highest offer which  could  be
obtained for surrender of the tenancy rights of the  appellant.   Under  the
orders of the Special Court respondent no.2 has deposited Rs.10 Lacs with  a
stipulation that he will not claim any interest over the  said  deposit  and
shall deposit the balance amount of Rs.65 Lacs whenever required to do so.
By the impugned order dated 21.07.2005 the Special Court noted that  despite
public advertisement there was no matching offer and hence it  accepted  the
offer of respondent no.2 the landlord and directed the appellant to file  an
undertaking within one week to  hand  over  the  vacant  possession  of  the
premises within four weeks.
The main contention advanced on behalf of the appellant that  there  are  no
liabilities outstanding for the statutory period and therefore there  is  no
requirement to dispose of its tenancy rights is ex-facie found  to  have  no
merits.  As a result we find no illegality  or  infirmity  in  the  impugned
order and this appeal deserves to be dismissed.
On account of our concern for the proper value for surrender of the  tenancy
by the appellant on account of long pendency of  this  appeal  for  about  a
decade, learned  counsel  for  respondent  no.2  disclosed  that  for  valid
reasons, the tenancy  is not protected  under  the  relevant  rent  law  and
hence no person was likely to offer a  better  price.   But  as  a  goodwill
gesture, on instructions of Mr. Ajit Jhaveri, Director of  respondent  no.2-
Reshma Estates Pvt. Ltd. (the landlord) who is present in  Court  today,  he
has submitted in writing that the respondent no.2  shall  not  only  deposit
the balance Rs.65 Lacs as directed by the  impugned  order  of  the  Special
Court but also undertakes to deposit a further  sum  of  Rs.10  Lacs  as  an
additional consideration and also  a  sum  of  Rs.3,92,000/-  which  is  the
rental amount received by the landlord  from  2006  till  date.   Respondent
no.2 has also agreed that the interest accrued on the amount of  Rs.10  Lacs
already deposited by the landlord as per the  impugned  order  in  the  year
2005 could also go to the Custodian.   However,  he  has  prayed  for  eight
weeks’ time to make the deposit of the balance amounts,  i.e.,  Rs.65  Lacs,
Rs.10 Lacs and Rs.3.92 Lacs.  There is no opposition to this offer.
In the facts of the case while dismissing the appeal of  the  appellant,  in
the larger interest of justice we  modify  the  impugned  order  and  direct
respondent no.2 to  deposit  within  eight  weeks  from  today  the  earlier
balance amount of Rs.65 Lacs along with additional amount of  Rs.13,92,000/-
.  In other words respondent no.2  in  order  to  get  the  benefit  of  the
impugned order shall now make in total a deposit of  Rs.78,92,000/-  (Rupees
Seventy Eight Lac Ninety Two Thousand) within  eight  weeks  and  shall  not
claim interest accrued on the amount of Rs.10 Lac already deposited by  him.
 On such deposit being made within eight weeks, the Custodian shall  deliver
the possession of the flat to the respondent no.2 the landlord  without  any
delay and in any case within one week of such deposit.
Civil Appeal Nos.5788-5789 of 2005

The connected Civil Appeal Nos.5788-5789 of 2005 preferred  against  earlier
orders passed by the Special Court  in  connection  with  the  same  subject
matter shall also stand dismissed.

In the facts of the case there shall be no order as to costs.


                       …………………………………….J.
                       [VIKRAMAJIT SEN]


                       ……………………………………..J.
                             [SHIVA KIRTI SINGH]
New Delhi.
August 10, 2015.









-----------------------
5


whether services rendered by the appellants in Kurukshetra University/Punjab University is qualifying service for the purpose of pension and can be added to the services rendered by them in the respondent no.1, i.e. Maharshi Dayanand University, Rohtak (hereinafter called “M.D. University”).benefit is not an ex gratia payment but a payment in recognition of past service, in our opinion, discrimination could not have been made between those employees who have been absorbed/allocated are entitled to count their services as qualifying service for the purpose of pension and not those who have been appointed directly. Fact remains that all these employees have served in Punjab University/Kurukshetra University/MD. University without any break. M.D. University, prior to its establishment, was the regional centre of Kurukshetra University. Expectation had arisen to compute the period of service rendered in Punjab University/Kurukshetra University which cannot be unreasonably deprived of. Merely because a person has been appointed and others have been absorbed/allocated makes no difference as to the service rendered. Even otherwise, it is a case of upward revision of benefit and the classification which is sought to be created by the aforesaid method of not extending benefit to persons appointed directly and by fixing cut-off date cannot be said to be intelligible one; same is discriminatory and thus, the appellants would be entitled for the benefit from the date decision has been taken on 24.12.2001 to compute the previous service rendered in Punjab University/Kurukshetra University as qualifying service. In other words, they would be entitled for the benefit prospectively from the date of issuance of memorandum dated 24.12.2001. The employees have expressed their willingness to deposit/adjustment of the employer’s contribution of CPF as required in the memorandum dated 24.12.2001. 28. In yet another case of M.D. University v. Dr. Jahan, this Court did not interfere in the decision of the High Court of Punjab and Haryana at Chandigarh on 26.5.2009 in LPA No.27 of 2006, however, the question of law was kept open. Hence, we have examined the case on merits and found the case of the appellants on better footing as compared to Dr. Jahan and even otherwise the appellants are entitled for the benefit. 29. In view of aforesaid discussion, the appellants are entitled for the benefit of counting the services rendered in Punjab University/Kurukshetra University as qualifying service for the purpose of pension subject to fulfilment of the conditions specified in the memorandum dated 24.12.2001 etc. and in case the amount payable by the appellants towards contributory provident fund is less than the amount payable to them as pension, it would be adjusted by the respondents without insisting for its refund from the amount payable to the appellants. Let the exercise be completed within a period of three months from today. 30. The appeals are allowed, impugned judgment is set aside. We leave the parties to bear their own costs.

                                                                  Reportable

                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

                        CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

                      CIVIL APPEAL NOS.626-627 OF 2008

A.N. Sachdeva (dead) by LRs. & Ors.                      ... Appellants

Vs.

Maharshi Dayanand University, Rohtak & Anr.        ... Respondents



                               J U D G M E N T

ARUN MISHRA, J.

1.    The question involved in  the  present  appeals  is  whether  services
rendered by the appellants in Kurukshetra  University/Punjab  University  is
qualifying service for the purpose of  pension  and  can  be  added  to  the
services rendered by them in the respondent  no.1,  i.e.  Maharshi  Dayanand
University, Rohtak (hereinafter called “M.D. University”).

2.    The appellants are receiving pension after their retirement from  M.D.
University, however, it is confined to the services rendered by them in  the
same university.    Deceased  A.N.  Sachdeva  and  Ram  Parshad  Saini  were
appointed in Punjab University. R.K. Tuteja, petitioner no.3 and Prem  Kumar
were appointed as Lecturer  and  Clerk  respectively.  They  were  appointed
without any break in M.D. University.

3.    A.N. Sachdeva, since deceased was appointed as Steno-Typist in  Punjab
University on 7.8.1961, thereafter as Private Secretary  to  Vice-Chancellor
in M.D. University on 1.5.1976, promoted  as  Deputy  Registrar  in  August,
1988 and retired from the service of M.D. University on 31.12.2000.

       Ram  Prashad  Saini  after  rendering  services  from  16.11.1962  to
14.1.1975 in Punjab University was  appointed  as  Asistant  in  Kurukshetra
University on 15.1.1975 and served till 11.5.1977 and on  12.5.1977  he  was
appointed in M.D. University and retired from service on 31.10.1999.

      R.K. Tuteja was appointed as Lecturer  in  Kurukshetra  University  on
29.7.1964, served  uninterruptedly  till  20.8.1979  and  was  appointed  on
21.8.1979 in the same capacity in M.D. University where he served  till  his
retirement on 31.12.2001.

      Prem Kumar Naveen was appointed Clerk  in  Kurukshetra  University  on
7.8.1961 and served  till  6.10.1976  and  next  day  on  7.10.1976  he  was
appointed in M.D. University.  He retired on 28.2.2000.

4.    The services  of  the  said  employees  rendered  by  them  in  Punjab
University/Kurukshetra University   have  not  been  counted  as  qualifying
service for the purpose of pension  by  the  M.D.  University.   Hence,  the
writ petition was filed by them in the High Court after rejection  of  their
representation.   The  appellants  submitted  that   M.D.   University   had
introduced pension scheme with effect from  1.4.1995.   The  appellants  had
opted for the same.   A  memorandum  dated  24.12.2001  was  issued  by  the
Haryana Government for counting of service rendered by employees  of  Punjab
University/Kurukshetra University/M.D. University as qualifying service  for
the purpose of pension.

5.    Haryana Government issued a memorandum dated  7.1.2002  confining  the
policy issued by it for the persons who  retired  after  7.1.2002,  however,
Finance Department issued clarification  dated  9.7.2003  that  instructions
contained in the  memorandum  dated  7.1.2002  are  not  applicable  to  the
employees of the university because the pension schemes  of  the  university
are  different.   Before  that  a  clarification  had  been  issued  by  the
Government of Haryana on 5.6.2002  mentioning  that  the  employees  of  the
Punjab University were subsequently  allocated  to  Kurukshetra  University,
Rohtak and M.D. University, Rohtak before its formation used to be  regional
centre of Kurukshetra University.  That being the  situation,  decision  was
taken to  treat  the  services  rendered  in  Punjab  University/Kurukshetra
University as qualifying service for the purpose of  pension  on  retirement
from M.D. University, Rohtak.  It was also clarified  that  as  regards  the
services rendered by the employees elsewhere  such  as  Central  Government/
State Government/Autonomous Body, the same is  not  to  be  counted  towards
qualifying service for the purpose of pension.

6.    The stand of the respondents is  that  the  retiral  benefits  of  the
employees are governed by the provisions of M.D. University Pension  Scheme,
1997  (hereinafter  referred  to  as  “Pension  Scheme,  1997”).   The  past
services could not have been treated as qualifying service  for  pension  in
view of Rule 4(vii) of the Pension Scheme, 1997 introduced with effect  from
1.4.1995 in lieu of Contributory Provident Fund.    Option was given to  the
employees to opt for the contributory provident scheme or  for  the  pension
scheme.  In the pension scheme 1997  there  is  no  provision  for  counting
previous    service    rendered    by    the    appellants     in     Punjab
University/Kurukshetra  University.   Reliance  had  been  placed   on   the
clarification dated 5.6.2002 to contend that the employees who continued  in
the M.D. University on allocation/absorption with change  of  employer  were
entitled to count their  services  for  the  purpose  of  pension.   As  the
appellants were directly appointed in the respondent university,  they  were
not entitled to count the service qualifying for pension.

7.    The Division Bench of the High Court by  way  of  impugned  order  has
dismissed the writ application  on the ground that in view  of  Rule  4(vii)
of the Pension Scheme 1997, services rendered by the  appellants  in  Punjab
University/Kurukshetra University cannot  be  counted.   Reliance  has  also
been placed on  the  memorandum  dated  7.1.2002.   As  the  appellants  had
retired before 7.1.2002, they are not entitled to  count  the  past  service
rendered by them in the aforesaid universities as  qualifying   service  for
pension in M.D. University.  It has also been observed that  pension  scheme
provides for constitution of corpus  fund  by  transferring  the  university
contribution alongwith interest.  Even if memorandum dated 7.1.2002  is  not
applicable, as clarified by the Finance Department,  appellants  cannot  get
the benefit as they had retired prior to 7.1.2002.

8.    It was submitted on behalf of the appellants that  as  per  memorandum
dated 24.12.2001 and its clarification dated 5.6.2002,  the  appellants  are
entitled to count the services  rendered  in  Punjab  University/Kurukshetra
University as qualifying service for the purpose of pension. It is only  the
service rendered in other autonomous body etc. which is not  to  be  counted
towards the pensionary benefits.  The appellants were receiving pension  and
liberalised pension scheme has to  be  applied  to  the  employees  who  had
retired earlier.  It is  not  a  new  scheme,  but  an  upward  revision  of
existing benefits.  It is not a case of new  retiral  benefits.   Appellants
have  been  discriminated  vis-a-vis  the  other  employees  who  had   been
absorbed/allocated  in  the  services  of  M.D.   University   from   Punjab
University/Kurukshetra University, inasmuch as, their services  rendered  in
these universities have been counted as qualifying service for  the  purpose
of pension.  Even the services of the  employees  who  have  rendered  their
services  in  some  other  university  have  also   been   counted   towards
pensionable services.  In one of such case of Dr. Jahan  Singh,  this  Court
did not intervene in the special leave petition which was  dismissed.   Even
otherwise, the classification sought to be created  by  the  respondents  is
not impermissible in view of Articles 14 and 16 and  the  services  rendered
by the appellants in Punjab University/Kurukshetra University deserve to  be
counted as qualifying service for the purpose of pension as  has  been  done
in  the  case  of  employees  who  have  been  absorbed/allocated  to   M.D.
University.

9.     Per  contra,  the  respondents  would  contend  that  the  admissible
benefits under Pension Scheme,  1997  have  already  been  extended  to  the
appellants.  In view of the clarification dated 5.6.2002,  the  services  of
the employees who had been allocated/absorbed could have been  counted,  not
the past services of the employees who had been directly appointed  in  M.D.
University, appellants stood retired before 7.1.2002 as such they  were  not
entitled for benefit of counting of past services.  The memorandum  was  not
having retrospective effect.  Even if,  memorandum  dated  7.1.2002  is  not
applicable, the appellants are  not  entitled  for  the  benefit  under  the
Pension Scheme, 1997.  Other employees who have been given the  benefit  for
counting their past services, namely, K.L. Pahuja, Yudhvir Singh Dahiya  and
Sunder Singh Dahiya had  retired  on  30.9.2003,  31.5.2002  and  31.10.2002
respectively  whereas  appellants  stood  retired  before   7.1.2002.    The
decision in the case of Dr. Jahan Singh cannot be applied to the  appellants
as while dismissing the special leave petition,  this  Court  has  left  the
question of law open.  The employer’s share of CPF has to be transferred  to
the pension fund.  It was a case of a new scheme as such its benefits  could
not  have  been  extended  retrospectively.   The  appellants  cannot  claim
equality and complain of discrimination.

10.   It is not in dispute that the appellants had opted for  pension  under
Pension Scheme, 1997.  Para 4(vii) of the Pension Scheme, 1997 as  has  been
relied upon by the respondents reads thus:-

“(vii) The period of service rendered by an employee in any State  Govt.  or
Govt. aided Private College or in  any  University/autonomous  body  against
aided post prior to joining in the University shall not count as  qualifying
service for pensionary benefits.”



           However,  it  is  not  in  dispute  that  vide  memorandum  dated
24.12.2001 issued by the Government  of  Haryana,  the  pension  scheme  was
modified inasmuch as the  State  Government  has  agreed  for  counting  the
services of the employees of the  Punjab  University/Kurukshetra  University
on retirement from M.D. University as qualifying  service.   The  memorandum
dated 24.12.2001 is extracted hereunder:-

“From

      Higher Education Commissioner,
      Haryana Chandigarh.


To

      The Vice-Chancellor,
M.D. University
Rohtak.

Memo No.18/41-2001 UNP (1)

Dated : Chandigarh the 24.12.2001

Sub:  Implementation of Pension Scheme in M.D.U. Rohtak.

      The State Govt. has considered and  agreed  for  counting  of  service
rendered   by    the    employees    of    the    University    in    Punjab
University/Kurukshetra University/M.D. University as qualifying service  for
the purpose of pension subject to the following terms and conditions :

The service rendered by the said employees in these institutions is  without
any break and is continuous.

That the employer’s share of the CPF in respect of these employees has  been
transferred to the pension fund even with respect to  the  service  rendered
in Punjab University/Kurukshetra University as required  under  the  pension
rules of the  University.   Further,  that  all  other  requirement  of  the
pension rules are fulfilled in respect  of  these  employees.   Kindly  take
necessary action accordingly.


                                            Sd/- Deputy Director, College-I,
                                          For Higher Education Commissioner,
                                                       Haryana, Chandigarh”.


Another memorandum dated 7.1.2002 was issued by the  Government  of  Haryana
on the basis of which certain incorporation was made in the  Pension  Scheme
1997.  However, later on, the Finance Department on 9.7.2003  has  clarified
that memorandum dated 7.1.2002 is not applicable to  the  employees  of  the
University.

11.   Yet another memorandum  dated  5.6.2002  has  been  referred  to  with
respect   to   the   counting   of    the    services    of    the    Punjab
University/Kurukshetra  University  into  M.D.  University   as   qualifying
service for the purpose of pension.  Same is extracted hereunder :-

“From

      Higher Education Commissioner, Haryana,
     Chandigarh.

To

      Registrar,

Kurukshetra University, Kurukshetra.
Maharshi Dayanand University, Rohtak.


Memo No.18/44-2001 UNP (1)

Dated : Chandigarh, the 6.6.2002

Subject:   Clarification  regarding  counting  of  previous  service/foreign
service towards Pension.

Kindly refer to the subject noted above.

The advice issued vide letter No.18/44-2001 UNP (1) dated 24.12.2001 was  in
respect  of  service  rendered  by  the  employees  of   Maharshi   Dayanand
University,  Rohtak  in  Kurukshetra  University,  Kurukshetra  and   Punjab
University.  It is as well as  known  that  initially,  it  was  Kurukshetra
University, Kurukshetra and what constitutes Maharshi  Dayanand  University,
Rohtak now was a regional  centre  of  Kurukshetra  University,  Kurukshetra
earlier.  Similarly the employees also has rendered service  in  the  Punjab
University  and  were  subsequently  allocated  to  Kurukshetra  University,
Rohtak.  That being the  situation  the  advice  was  with  regard  to  that
service which the employees had rendered initially in the Punjab  University
followed by Maharshi Dayanand University, Rohtak.  This pattern  follows  in
the same manner as the employees of the joining  Punjab  were  allocated  to
Haryana Govt. at the time of the creation of the Haryana State.   Hence  the
service rendered by these employees who continued  to  remain  in  suit  but
there was a change of employer on account of division of jurisdiction  after
a period of time.  In their case, the previous service rendered  was  agreed
to be countable for the purpose of pension in Maharshi Dayanand  University,
Rohtak.

To the extent the employees of Kurukshetra University, Kurukshetra  fall  in
the same category, their service may also be  counted  for  the  purpose  of
pension at the time of retirement from Kurukshetra  University,  Kurukshetra
subject  to  fulfillment  of  the  conditions  mentioned  in  letter   dated
24.12.2001 (copy enclosed)  in  respect  of  Maharshi  Dayanand  University,
Rohtak.


As regards service rendered by  the  employees  elsewhere  such  as  Central
Govt./State Govt./Autonomous  Body,  the  same  is  not  countable  for  the
purpose of pensionary benefits as there is no provision to  this  effect  in
the pension scheme of Kurukshetra  University,  Kurukshetra.   In  case  the
Kurukshetra University, Kurukshetra  is  keen  to  count  such  service  for
pensionary benefits, they should be advised to first consider  amendment  in
their pension scheme for which a separate self-contained proposal should  be
submitted for approval of the State Govt.



        It  is,  therefore  requested  that  the  cases   may   be   decided
accordingly.


                                              Sd/- 5.6.02
                             Deputy Director Colleges-I,
                                          For Higher Education Commissioner,
                                  Haryana, Chandigarh.”


12.   It is apparent from the memorandum  dated 24.12.2001  that  the  first
requirement to count the services rendered in Punjab  University/Kurukshetra
University/M.D.  University  by  the  appellants  were  without  break   and
continuous.  It is also not in dispute that after rendering the services  in
Punjab University/Kurukshetra University, the aforesaid employees  had  been
directly appointed on the very next day in M.D.  University.   Earlier,  the
employees of Punjab University were allocated to Kurukshetra University  and
it is not in dispute that present M.D. University used to  be  the  regional
centre of Kurukshetra University prior to its establishment as  full-fledged
University.

13.   Second requirement of the memorandum  dated  24.12.2001  is  that  the
employer’s share of the CPF has to be transferred to the pension  fund  with
respect to services rendered in  Punjab  University/Kurukshetra  University.
The appellants had expressed their willingness in  their  representation  to
fulfil  the  aforesaid  requirement  of  the  memorandum  dated   24.12.2001
including all other requirements of the pension scheme.

14.   The question which arises for consideration is whether it  is  a  case
of upward revision of existing benefits or  a  new  scheme  floated  by  the
respondents, while issuing the memorandum dated 24.12.2001.

      The appellants have placed reliance on a Constitution  Bench  decision
of this Court in D.S. Nakara & Ors. v. Union of India [1983 (1) SCC 305]  in
which  this  Court  has  laid  down  that   reasonable   classification   is
permissible.   The  classification  must  be  founded  on  an   intelligible
differentia and that must have a rational relation to the object  sought  to
be achieved. This Court has  laid  down  that  even  though  the  scheme  is
prospective, the benefit of liberalised pension  scheme  should  be  applied
equally to all and  they  are  required  to  be  paid  the  upward  revision
commencing from the specified date.  No  arrears  would  be  payable.   This
Court has laid down thus:-


“29. Summing up it can be said with confidence  that  pension  is  not  only
compensation for loyal service rendered in the past, but pension also has  a
broader significance, in that it is  a  measure  of  socio-economic  justice
which inheres economic security in  the  fall  of  life  when  physical  and
mental prowess is ebbing corresponding to aging process and, therefore,  one
is required to fall back on savings. One such saving in  kind  is  when  you
give your best in  the  hey-day  of  life  to  your  employer,  in  days  of
invalidity, economic security by way of periodical payment is  assured.  The
term has been judicially defined as a stated allowance or  stipend  made  in
consideration of past service or a surrender of rights or emoluments to  one
retired from service. Thus the pension payable to a government  employee  is
earned by rendering long and efficient service and therefore can be said  to
be a deferred portion of the compensation or for service  rendered.  In  one
sentence one can say that the most practical raison d’etre  for  pension  is
the inability to provide for oneself due to old age. One may live and  avoid
unemployment but not senility and penury if there is nothing  to  fall  back
upon.

                                  x x x x x

42. If it appears to be undisputable, as it does to us that  the  pensioners
for the purpose of pension benefits form a class, would its upward  revision
permit a homogeneous  class  to  be  divided  by     arbitrarily  fixing  an
eligibility    criteria    unrelated     to        purpose of revision,  and
would such  classification  be  founded  on  some  rational  principle?  The
classification has to be  based,  as  is  well  settled,  on  some  rational
principle and the rational principle must have nexus to the  objects  sought
to be achieved. We have set  out  the  objects  underlying  the  payment  of
pension. If the State considered it  necessary  to  liberalise  the  pension
scheme, we find no rational principle behind it for granting these  benefits
only to those who retired subsequent to  that  date  simultaneously  denying
the same to those who retired prior to that date. If the liberalisation  was
considered  necessary  for  augmenting  social  security  in  old   age   to
government servants then those who, retired  earlier  cannot  be  worst  off
than those who retire  later.  Therefore,  this  division  which  classified
pensioners into two classes is not based on any rational  principle  and  if
the rational principle is the one of dividing  pensioners  with  a  view  to
giving something more to persons  otherwise  equally  placed,  it  would  be
discriminatory. To illustrate, take two persons,  one  retired  just  a  day
prior and another a day just succeeding the specified  date.  Both  were  in
the same pay bracket, the average emolument was the same and  both  had  put
in equal number of years of service. How does a fortuitous  circumstance  of
retiring a day earlier or a day later will permit totally unequal  treatment
in the matter of pension? One  retiring  a  day  earlier  will  have  to  be
subject to ceiling of Rs 8100 p.a. and average emolument to  be  worked  out
on 36 months’ salary while the other will have a ceiling of Rs  12,000  p.a.
and average emolument will be computed on  the  basis  of  last  10  months’
average. The artificial division stares into face and is  unrelated  to  any
principle and whatever principle, if there be any, has absolutely  no  nexus
to the objects sought to be achieved by liberalising the pension scheme.  In
fact this arbitrary division has  not  only  no  nexus  to  the  liberalised
pension scheme but it is counter-productive and runs counter  to  the  whole
gamut of pension scheme. The equal treatment guaranteed  in  Article  14  is
wholly violated inasmuch as the pension rules being statutory in  character,
since the specified date, the rules accord differential  and  discriminatory
treatment to equals in the matter of commutation of  pension.  A  48  hours’
difference in matter of retirement would have a traumatic  effect.  Division
is thus both arbitrary and unprincipled. Therefore, the classification  does
not stand the test of Article 14.

43. Further the classification is wholly arbitrary because we do not find  a
single acceptable or persuasive reason for  this  division.  This  arbitrary
action violated the guarantee of Article 14. The next question  is  what  is
the way out?

                                  x x x x x

48. It was very seriously contended, remove the  event  correlated  to  date
and examine whether the  scheme  is  workable.  We  find  no  difficulty  in
implementing the scheme omitting the event  happening  after  the  specified
date retaining the more humane formula for computation of pension. It  would
apply to all existing pensioners and  future  pensioners.  In  the  case  of
existing pensioners, the pension will have to be recomputed by applying  the
rule of average emoluments as set out in Rule 34 and  introducing  the  slab
system and the amount worked out within the floor and the ceiling.

49. But we make it abundantly clear that arrears  are  not  required  to  be
made because to that  extent  the  scheme  is  prospective.  All  pensioners
whenever they retired would be covered by the  liberalised  pension  scheme,
because the scheme is a  scheme  for  payment  of  pension  to  a  pensioner
governed by 1972 Rules. The  date  of  retirement  is  irrelevant.  But  the
revised scheme would be operative from the date mentioned in the scheme  and
would bring under  its  umbrella  all  existing  pensioners  and  those  who
retired subsequent to that date. In case of pensioners who retired prior  to
the specified date, their pension would be  computed  afresh  and  would  be
payable in future commencing from the specified date. No  arrears  would  be
payable. And that would take care of the grievance  of  retrospectivity.  In
our opinion, it would make  a  marginal  difference  in  the  case  of  past
pensioners because the emoluments are not  revised.  The  last  revision  of
emoluments was as  per  the  recommendation  of  the  Third  Pay  Commission
(Raghubar  Dayal  Commission).  If  the  emoluments  remain  the  same,  the
computation of average emoluments  under  amended  Rule  34  may  raise  the
average emoluments, the period for averaging  being  reduced  from  last  36
months to last 10 months. The slab will provide slightly higher pension  and
if someone reaches the maximum the old lower ceiling will not deny him  what
is otherwise justly due on computation. The words “who were  in  service  on
March 31, 1979 and retiring from service on or after  that  date”  excluding
the date for commencement of revision are words  of  limitation  introducing
the mischief and are vulnerable  as  denying  equality  and  introducing  an
arbitrary fortuitous circumstance  can  be  severed  without  impairing  the
formula. Therefore, there  is  absolutely  no  difficulty  in  removing  the
arbitrary and discriminatory portion of the scheme  and  it  can  be  easily
severed”.


15.   In M.C. Dhingra v. Union of India &  Ors.  [1996  (7)  SCC  564],  the
question arose with respect to the counting  of  the  previous  service  for
grant  of  pension.   The  circular  dated  31.3.1982  which  came  up   for
consideration provided the benefit thereof only to the persons  retiring  on
or after the date of issuance of circular was  held to be  arbitrary.   This
Court has laid down thus:-

“4. It is seen that though the appellant had retired on 1-2-1973, since  the
question of tagging the previous service rendered in  the  State  Government
on temporary basis and the similar cases are  pending,  the  Government  had
taken a decision on 31-3-1982 to tag the previous  service  for  computation
of the pension. Learned counsel  appearing  for  the  respondents  contended
that clause 4 of the abovesaid circular  is  one  of  the  conditions  which
prescribes that it would  be  applicable  to  the  government  servants  who
retired from that date, namely, 31-3-1982. Since the appellant  had  retired
on 1-2-1973, he is not eligible. We find no force  in  the  contention.  All
the persons who rendered  temporary  service  prior  to  their  joining  the
Government of India Service have been given the benefit of fixation  of  the
pension payable by tagging  the  temporary  service.  The  cut-off  date  is
arbitrary violating Article 14 of the Constitution of India. Having  grouped
all the similarly circumstanced  employees,  fixing  the  cut-off  date  and
giving benefit to those who retired thereafter is  obviously  arbitrary.  In
similar circumstances, following the ratio in D.S. Nakara v. Union of  India
[1983 (1) SCC 305], this Court held in the case of R.L. Marwaha v. Union  of
India [1987 (4) SCC 31  that  such  a  restriction  is  arbitrary  violating
Article 14. On the facts and circumstances, we  find  that  the  restriction
imposed in clause 4 of the circular is  violative  of  Article  14.  It  is,
therefore, unconstitutional. However, the appellant will be entitled to  the
pro rata pension from March 1982”.

16.   In State of Punjab v. Justice S.S. Dewan (Retd.) & Ors. [1997 (4)  SCC
569], this Court held that benefit  extended  was  new  one.  However,  this
Court has observed thus:-

“7. Therefore, what we have to consider is what is the nature of the  change
made by the amendment. Is it by way  of  upward  revision  of  the  existing
pension scheme? Then obviously the ratio of  the  decision  in  D.S.  Nakara
case [1983 (1) SCC 305] would apply. If it is  held  to  be  a  new  retiral
benefit or a new scheme then the benefit of it cannot be extended  to  those
who retired earlier”.

17.    In State of Rajasthan & Anr. v. Prem Raj [1997 (10)  SCC  317],  this
Court rejected the submission that decision  in  D.S.  Nakara  (supra)   has
given a complete go-by.  This Court has laid down thus:-


“12. In State of W.B. v. Ratan Behari Dey [1993  (4)  SCC  62],  this  Court
considered the question whether in providing  a  pension  scheme  the  State
could fix up a particular date and make it applicable to those  who  retired
on or after that date. The Court distinguished Nakara  case  [1983  (1)  SCC
305] by holding that in Nakara case an artificial date  had  been  specified
classifying the retirees governed by the same rules and  similarly  situated
into two different classes depriving one such class of the  benefit  of  the
liberalised pension rules and  that  was  held  to  be  bad.  Following  the
decision of the Court in Krishena Kumar case [1990 (4) SCC 207] it was  held
that the State can specify a date with effect  from  which  the  Regulations
framed or amended conferring the pensionary benefits shall come  into  force
but the only condition is that the State cannot pick a date out of  its  hat
and the date has to be prescribed in a reasonable manner  having  regard  to
all the facts and circumstances.

13. In State of Rajasthan v. Sevanivatra  Karamchari  Hitkari  Samiti  [1995
(2) SCC 117] the provisions contained in Rule  268-H  of  Rajasthan  Service
Rules came up for consideration  as  to  whether  the  aforesaid  provisions
restructuring the rights of government servants in service on 29-2-1964  can
be held to be violative of Article 14. The Court applied  the  principle  in
Krishena Kumar case and Indian Ex-Services League case [1991  (2)  SCC  104]
and held that the fixation of 29-2-1964 as  the  cut-off  date  with  effect
from which the  new  liberalised  pension  scheme  in  Chapter  XXIII-A  was
introduced cannot be said to be arbitrary or violative of Article 14 of  the
Constitution.  As  has  been  stated  earlier  for  deciding   the   present
controversy it is not necessary for us to further delve  into  the  question
as to the extent to which the decision of this  Court  in  Nakara  case  has
been followed or explained. But suffice it to say that the contention of  Mr
Gupta, the learned counsel for the appellant,  that  the  decision  of  this
Court in Nakara case  has been given a complete go-by cannot be sustained”.


18.   In Dhan Raj & Ors. v. State of J&K & Ors.  [1998  (4)  SCC  30],  this
Court considered the case where the appellants  who  had  retired  from  the
services of  Corporation  prior  to  9.6.1981  claimed  to  be  entitled  to
pensionary benefits by virtue of G.O. dated  3.10.1986.  The  contention  of
the State that the benefit could not be  extended   to  the  appellants  was
rejected.  The relevant portion is extracted hereunder:-

“14. Even otherwise, we do not find any justifiable criteria for  the  State
Government to draw the line between those who retired earlier and those  who
retired after 9-6-1981. Both such set of employees were  equally  placed  in
the same Undertaking/Corporation  temporary  in  character  and  all  having
served in the organisations for more than 20 years. In fact, the  appellants
have served with the Government for more than 30 to  40  years.  The  person
serving for such a long period earns his legitimate expectation. It  is  not
something which he seeks with a begging bowl.  It  is  inappropriate  for  a
State Government to take up a  stand  to  get  its  own  order  to  be  held
illegal, by giving restrictive interpretation to deny  benefit  to  its  own
employees  who  had  worked  for  such  a  long  period.  In  fact,  in  the
Constitution Bench decision of this Court in D.S. Nakara v. Union  of  India
[1983 (1) SCC 305] this Court held that criterion of date of enforcement  of
the revised scheme entitling benefits of  the  revision  to  those  retiring
after specified date while depriving the benefits to  those  retiring  prior
to that date was violative of Article 14. Even otherwise, while  considering
the question of grant of pensionary benefits the State has to act  to  reach
the constitutional goal of setting up a socialist State as  stated  and  the
assurance as given in the Directive Principles of State  Policy.  A  pension
is a part and parcel of that goal, which secures to a  person  serving  with
the State after retirement of his livelihood. To deny such a right  to  such
a person, without any sound reasoning or any justifiable  differentia  would
be against the spirit of the Constitution. We find in the present  case  the
stand taken by the State Government to be contrary to the said  spirit.   In
the  aforesaid  D.S.  Nakara  this  Court  has  very  clearly  recorded  the
following:

“36. Having set out clearly the society which we  propose  to  set  up,  the
direction in which the State action must move, the welfare  State  which  we
propose to build up, the constitutional  goal  of  setting  up  a  socialist
State and  the  assurance  in  the  Directive  Principles  of  State  Policy
especially of security in old age  at  least  to  those  who  have  rendered
useful service during their active years, it is  indisputable,  nor  was  it
questioned, that pension as a retirement benefit is in consonance  with  and
in furtherance of the  goals  of  the  Constitution.  The  goals  for  which
pension is paid themselves give a fillip and push to the policy  of  setting
up a welfare State because by pension the  socialist  goal  of  security  of
cradle to grave is assured at least when  it  is  mostly  needed  and  least
available, namely, in the fall of life.””

19.   This Court in Union of India & Ors. v. K.G.  Radhakrishna  Panickar  &
Ors. [1998 (5 SCC 111] again considered the question of  classification  and
differential treatment.  It was held that conferment of new benefit  from  a
particular date cannot be held to be violative of Article 14.   The  benefit
in question was held to be a new benefit conferred  on  the  casual  labour.
This Court held that  :-

12. In its judgment dated 8-2-1991 the Tribunal has held that  exclusion  of
period of service  rendered  as  Project  Casual  Labour  before  they  were
regularly absorbed  prior  to  1-1-1981  results  in  such  employees  being
discriminated  against  as  compared  to  Project  Casual  Labour  who  were
employed subsequently and whose service as Project Casual  Labour  prior  to
absorption is counted for  the  purpose  of  qualifying  service.  The  said
finding of the Tribunal is based on the  decision  of  this  Court  in  D.S.
Nakara [1983 (1) SCC 305]. In  this  regard,  it  may  be  stated  that  the
Tribunal was in error in invoking the principle laid down in D.S. Nakara  in
the present case. The decision in D.S. Nakara has been  considered  by  this
Court in subsequent decisions and it has been laid down that  the  principle
laid down in D.S. Nakara can have application  only  in  those  cases  where
there is discrimination in the matter of existing  benefit  between  similar
set of employees and the said principle  has  no  application  where  a  new
benefit is being conferred with effect from a particular  date.  In  such  a
case the conferment of the  benefit  with  effect  from  a  particular  date
cannot be held to be violative of Article 14  of  the  Constitution  on  the
basis that such a benefit  has  been  conferred  on  certain  categories  of
employees on the basis of a particular date. (See: Krishena Kumar  v.  Union
of India [1990 (4) SCC 207]; State of W.B. v. Ratan  Behari  Dey  [1993  (4)
SCC 62] and State of Rajasthan  v.  Sevanivatra  Karamchari  Hitkari  Samiti
[1995 (2) SCC 117]) In the present case, the benefit of counting of  service
prior to regular employment as  qualifying  service  was  not  available  to
casual labour. The said benefit was granted to Open Line Casual  Labour  for
the first time under order dated 14-10-1980 since Open  Line  Casual  Labour
could be treated as  temporary  on  completion  of  six  months’  period  of
continuous service which period was subsequently reduced to 120  days  under
para 2501(b)(i) of  the  Manual.  As  regards  Project  Casual  Labour  this
benefit of being treated as temporary  became  available  only  with  effect
from 1-1-1981 under the scheme which was accepted by  this  Court  in  Inder
Pal Yadav [1985 (2) SCC 648]. Before  the  acceptance  of  that  scheme  the
benefit of temporary status was not available to Project Casual  Labour.  It
was thus a new benefit which was conferred on Project  Casual  Labour  under
the scheme as approved by this Court in Inder Pal Yadav and on the basis  of
this new benefit Project Casual Labour became entitled to count half of  the
service rendered as Project Casual Labour on the basis of  the  order  dated
14-10-1980 after being treated as temporary on the basis of  the  scheme  as
accepted in Inder Pal  Yadav.  We  are,  therefore,  unable  to  uphold  the
judgment of the Tribunal dated 8-2-1991 when it holds that service  rendered
as  Project  Casual  Labour  by  employees  who  were  absorbed  on  regular
permanent/ temporary posts prior to  1-1-1981  should  be  counted  for  the
purpose of retiral benefits and the said judgment as well  as  the  judgment
in which the said judgment has been followed  have  to  be  set  aside.  The
judgments in which the Tribunal  has  taken  a  contrary  view  have  to  be
affirmed.

20.   In V. Kasturi v. Managing Director, State Bank of India &  Anr.  [1998
(8) SCC 30],  this  Court  considered  the  prospective  amendment  and  the
question  whether  earlier  retirees  were  eligible  for  benefit  of  such
amendment.  It was held that where the amendment  enhanced  the  pension  or
provided for a new formula of pension even the earlier retirees who  at  the
time  of  retirement  were  eligible  for  pension  and  survived  till  the
amendment would be eligible for the benefit  from  the  date  it  came  into
effect, however, where the amendment extended the  benefit  of  the  pension
scheme to a new class of persons,  the  earlier  retirees  at  the  time  of
retirement who were not eligible for  pension  cannot  get  the  benefit  of
amendment.  This Court has laid down thus:-

“22. If the person retiring is eligible for  pension  at  the  time  of  his
retirement and if he survives till the time of subsequent amendment  of  the
relevant pension scheme, he would become eligible to  get  enhanced  pension
or would become eligible to get more pension  as  per  the  new  formula  of
computation  of  pension  subsequently  brought  into  force,  he  would  be
entitled to get the benefit of the amended pension provision from  the  date
of such order as he would be a member of the very same class  of  pensioners
when the additional benefit is being conferred on all of  them.  In  such  a
situation, the additional benefit available to the same class of  pensioners
cannot be denied to him on the ground that he had retired prior to the  date
on which the aforesaid additional benefit was conferred on all  the  members
of the same class of pensioners who had survived  by  the  time  the  scheme
granting additional benefit to these pensioners came into  force.  The  line
of decisions tracing their roots to the ratio of Nakara case [1983  (1)  SCC
305] would cover this category of cases”.

21.   In Subrata Sen & Ors. v. Union of India &  Ors.  [2001  (8)  SCC  71],
this Court has laid down thus:-

“18. Further, in All India Reserve Bank Retired Officers Assn. v.  Union  of
India [1992 supp. (1) SCC 664], Ahmadi, J. (as he then  was),  speaking  for
the Court in the aforesaid decision highlighted the observations  in  Nakara
case [1983 (1) SCC 305] found at  SCC  p.  333  para  46  to  the  following
effect:
“… the pension will have to be  recomputed  in  the  light  of  the  formula
enacted in the liberalised pension scheme and effective from  the  date  the
revised scheme comes into force. And beware that it is not a new scheme,  it
is only a revision of existing scheme. It is not a new retiral  benefit.  It
is an upward revision of an  existing  benefit.  If  it  was  a  wholly  new
concept, a new retiral benefit, one could have appreciated an argument  that
those who had already retired could not expect it.”

      The Court further observed:

“It must be realised that in the case of an employee  governed  by  the  CPF
(Contributory Provident Fund) Scheme his relations with  the  employer  come
to an end on his retirement and receipt of the CPF amount but  in  the  case
of an employee governed under the pension  scheme  his  relations  with  the
employer merely undergo a change but do not snap  altogether.  That  is  the
reason  why  this  Court  in  Nakara  case  drew   a   distinction   between
liberalisation of an existing benefit and  introduction  of  a  totally  new
scheme. In the case of pensioners it is  necessary  to  revise  the  pension
periodically as the continuous fall in the  rupee  value  and  the  rise  in
prices of essential commodities necessitates an adjustment  of  the  pension
amount but that is not the case of employees governed under the CPF  Scheme,
since they had received the lump sum payment which they were at  liberty  to
invest in a manner that would yield optimum return which would take care  of
the inflationary trends. This distinction between  those  belonging  to  the
pension scheme and those belonging  to  the  CPF  Scheme  has  been  rightly
emphasised by this Court in Krishena case [1990 (4) SCC 207]”.


22.    In John Vallamattom & Anr. v. Union of India [2003 (6) SCC 611],
this Court considered the decision in D.S. Nakara (supra)  and has observed
thus:-

“62. Article 14 of the Constitution states that the State shall not deny  to
any person equality before the law or  the  equal  protection  of  the  laws
within the territory  of  India.  The  first  part  of  Article  14  of  the
Constitution of India is a declaration of equality of civil rights  for  all
purposes  within  the  territory  of   India   and   basic   principles   of
republicanism and there will be no discrimination. The  guarantee  of  equal
protection embraces the entire realm of “State action”. It would extend  not
only when an individual is discriminated against in the matter  of  exercise
of his right or in the matter of imposing liabilities upon him, but also  in
the matter of granting privileges etc. In all these cases, the principle  is
the same, namely, that there should be no discrimination between one  person
and another if as  regards  the  subject-matter  of  the  legislation  their
position is the same. In my  view,  all  persons  in  similar  circumstances
shall be treated alike both  in  privileges  and  liabilities  imposed.  The
classification should not be arbitrary; it should be reasonable and it  must
be based on qualities and characteristics and not any  other  who  are  left
out, and those qualities or characteristics must have  reasonable  relations
to the object of the legislation.
                                  x x x x x

64. It has also been observed in the above judgment that in the very  nature
of things, the society being composed of  unequals,  a  welfare  State  will
have to strive by both executive and legislative action  to  help  the  less
fortunate in the society to ameliorate their condition so  that  the  social
and economic inequality in the society may be bridged and in the absence  of
the doctrine of classification such legislation is  likely  to  flounder  on
the bedrock of equality enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution”.


23.   In State Bank of India v. L. Kannaiah &  Ors.  [2003  (10)  SCC  499],
this Court considered fixation of cut-off date for applicability of  pension
scheme.  Minimum service was prescribed 20 years and cut-off date  for  such
induction was fixed   as  1.1.1965.   This  Court  held  minimum  qualifying
service being  the  essential  consideration.   There  is  no  rationale  to
exclude employees confirmed earlier who have put in more than  20  years  of
service.  This Court has laid down thus:-

“6. Para 5 of the circular stipulated that the  age-limit  (viz.  not  being
over 35 years) for admission  to  Pension  Fund  shall  continue.  Thus  the
pensioned ex-service personnel were admitted  to  pensionary  benefits  with
effect from 1-1-1965 subject to the  restriction  of  the  age-limit  of  35
years (which was later on enhanced to 38 years) on that date.  As  the  date
of confirmation of  the  respondents  was  much  earlier  to  1-1-1965,  the
crucial date for admission to the Pension Fund would be  1-1-1965.  On  that
date, the confirmed employee of the Bank should not have exceeded  35  years
of age. That is the combined effect of Staff Circular No. 18 dated  8-4-1974
read with  the  Pension  Fund  Rules  referred  to  supra.  The  reason  for
prescribing the maximum age-limit of 35 or 38, as the case may be,  for  the
purpose of induction into Pension Fund  appears  to  be  that  the  employee
would be able to render minimum service of 20 years as contemplated by  Rule
22 of the Pension Fund Rules. However, there  does  not  appear  to  be  any
rationale or discernible basis for fixing  the  cut-off  date  as  1-1-1965,
notwithstanding their earlier confirmation in  bank  service.  True,  a  new
benefit has been conferred on the ex-servicemen  and  therefore,  a  cut-off
date could be fixed for extending this new benefit,  without  offending  the
ratio of the decision in D.S. Nakara v. Union of India [1983  (1)  SCC  305]
but, there could be no arbitrariness or irrationality in fixing  such  date.
Minimum  qualifying  service  being  the   essential   consideration,   even
according to the Bank, there is no reason why  the  ex-servicemen  like  the
respondents, who from the date of their confirmation had put  in  more  than
twenty years of service, even taking the retirement age  as  58,  should  be
excluded. No reason is forthcoming in the  counter-affidavit  filed  by  the
Bank for  choosing  the  said  date.  When  it  is  decided  to  extend  the
pensionary benefits to ex-servicemen drawing  pension,  the  denial  of  the
benefit to some of the serving employees should be  based  on  rational  and
intelligible criterion. In substance, that is the view  taken  by  the  High
Court and we see no reason to differ with that view”.

24.   In Union of India & Anr. v. SPS Vains [2008 (9) SCC 125], decision  of
this Court in D.S. Nakara has been followed.  It was held that  there  could
not be disparity of pension within the same rank.  It was held thus:-

“29. The Constitution  Bench  (in  D.S.  Nakara  [1983  (1)  SCC  305])  has
discussed in detail the  objects  of  granting  pension  and  we  need  not,
therefore, dilate any further on the said subject, but the decision  in  the
aforesaid case has been  consistently  referred  to  in  various  subsequent
judgments of this Court, to which we  need  not  refer.  In  fact,  all  the
relevant judgments delivered on the subject prior to  the  decision  of  the
Constitution Bench have been considered and dealt  with  in  detail  in  the
aforesaid case. The directions ultimately given by  the  Constitution  Bench
in the said case in order to resolve the dispute which  had  arisen,  is  of
relevance to resolve the dispute in this case also.

30. However, before we give such directions we must also  observe  that  the
submissions advanced on behalf of the Union of India cannot be  accepted  in
view of the decision in D.S. Nakara case. The object sought to  be  achieved
was not to create a class within a class, but to ensure  that  the  benefits
of pension were made available to all persons of the same class equally.  To
hold otherwise would cause violence to the provisions of Article 14  of  the
Constitution. It could not also have been the intention of  the  authorities
to equate the  pension  payable  to  officers  of  two  different  ranks  by
resorting to the step-up principle envisaged in the fundamental rules  in  a
manner where the other  officers  belonging  to  the  same  cadre  would  be
receiving a higher pension” .


25.   In K.J.S. Buttar v. Union of India & Anr. [2011 (11)  SCC  429],  this
Court  considered  the  question  when  some  new  retiral   benefits   were
introduced and measurement to calculate disability was changed  pursuant  to
recommendation made by the 5th Pay Commission and same was implemented  with
effect from 1.1.1996.  The appellant was denied retiral benefits on  account
of  his  retirement  in  1979.  This  Court  held  the   treatment   to   be
discriminatory and laid down that restriction of benefit  to  only  officers
who were invalided out of service after 1.1.1996 is violative of Article  14
of the Constitution and hence illegal.  In the  case  of  liberalisation  of
existing scheme all pensioners are to be  treated  equally.   The  appellant
was entitled to all retiral benefits with effect from 1.1.1996.  This  Court
has laid down thus:-

“11. In our opinion the appellant was entitled to the benefit  of  Para  7.2
of the Instructions dated 31-1-2001 according to which where the  disability
is assessed between 50% and 75% then the same should be treated as 75%,  and
it makes no difference whether he  was  invalided  from  service  before  or
after 1-1-1996. Hence the appellant was entitled to the said  benefits  with
arrears from 1-1-1996, and interest at 8% per annum on the same.

12. It may be mentioned that the Government of India,  Ministry  of  Defence
had been granting war injury pension to pre-1996 retirees also in  terms  of
Para 10.1 of the Ministry’s Letter No. 1(5)/87/D(Pen-Ser)  dated  30-10-1987
(p. 59, Para 8). The mode  of  calculation,  however,  was  changed  by  the
Notification dated 31-1-2001 which was  restricted  to  post-1996  retirees.
The appellant, therefore, was entitled to the war injury pension even  prior
to 1-1-1996 and especially in  view  of  the  Instructions  dated  31-1-2001
issued by the Government of India. The said instruction  was  initially  for
persons retiring after 1-1-1996 but later on by  virtue  of  the  subsequent
Notifications dated 16-5-2001 it was extended to pre-1996 retirees  also  on
rationalisation of the scheme”.

26.   Reliance has been placed by the respondents on a decision in State  of
Punjab & Anr. v. J.L. Gupta & Ors. [2000 (3) SCC 736] in  which  this  Court
referring to the decision in State of Punjab & Ors. v. Boota  Singh  &  Anr.
[2000 (3) SCC 733] held  that  when  financial  implication  is  there,  the
benefit conferred by notification dated 9.7.1985 can  be  claimed  by  those
who retired after the date of stipulation in the notification and those  who
have retired prior to the date of  stipulation,  as  the  notifications  are
governed by different rules.  It was a case of  pensionary  benefits,  i.e.,
pension, gratuity/DCRG, internal gratuity.  Hence, the decision  is  clearly
distinguishable.  Moreover, in the instant case, employees are  governed  by
same set of rules.

27.   Considering the principles enunciated under Articles 14 and 16 of  the
Constitution, and that the benefit  is  not  an  ex  gratia  payment  but  a
payment in recognition of  past  service,  in  our  opinion,  discrimination
could  not  have  been  made  between  those   employees   who   have   been
absorbed/allocated are  entitled  to  count  their  services  as  qualifying
service for the purpose of pension and not those  who  have  been  appointed
directly. Fact remains that  all  these  employees  have  served  in  Punjab
University/Kurukshetra University/MD. University without  any  break.   M.D.
University,  prior  to  its  establishment,  was  the  regional  centre   of
Kurukshetra University.  Expectation had arisen to  compute  the  period  of
service rendered in Punjab University/Kurukshetra  University  which  cannot
be unreasonably deprived of. Merely because a person has been appointed  and
others have been absorbed/allocated makes no difference as  to  the  service
rendered.  Even otherwise, it is a case of upward revision  of  benefit  and
the classification which is sought to be created by the aforesaid method  of
not extending benefit to persons appointed directly and  by  fixing  cut-off
date cannot be said to be  intelligible  one;  same  is  discriminatory  and
thus, the appellants would  be  entitled  for  the  benefit  from  the  date
decision has been taken  on  24.12.2001  to  compute  the  previous  service
rendered in Punjab University/Kurukshetra University as qualifying  service.
 In other words, they would be entitled for the benefit  prospectively  from
the date of issuance of memorandum dated  24.12.2001.   The  employees  have
expressed  their  willingness  to  deposit/adjustment  of   the   employer’s
contribution of CPF as required in the memorandum dated 24.12.2001.

28.   In yet another case of M.D. University v. Dr. Jahan,  this  Court  did
not interfere in the decision of the High Court of  Punjab  and  Haryana  at
Chandigarh on 26.5.2009 in LPA No.27 of 2006, however, the question  of  law
was kept open.  Hence, we have examined the case on  merits  and  found  the
case of the appellants on better footing as compared to Dr. Jahan  and  even
otherwise the appellants are entitled for the benefit.
29.   In view of aforesaid discussion, the appellants are entitled  for  the
benefit of counting the services rendered in  Punjab  University/Kurukshetra
University as qualifying service for  the  purpose  of  pension  subject  to
fulfilment of the conditions specified in the  memorandum  dated  24.12.2001
etc. and in case the amount payable by the appellants  towards  contributory
provident fund is less than the amount payable to them as pension, it  would
be adjusted by the respondents without insisting for  its  refund  from  the
amount payable to the appellants.  Let the exercise be  completed  within  a
period of three months from today.
30.   The appeals are allowed, impugned judgment is  set  aside.   We  leave
the parties to bear their own costs.
..........................................J.
                                        (M.Y. Eqbal)


New                                                                   Delhi;
..........................................J.
August 10, 2015.                                 (Arun Mishra)Ha