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Saturday, January 16, 2016

In order to claim benefit of the policy, it was obligatory upon the respondent to have removed the insured items from display window everyday after business hours and keep them inside safe during night hours till opening of the shop next day. Like wise all insured items in side the shop should also have been kept in side the safe everyday after business hours till opening of the shop next day. It was, however, not done by the respondent. 50) A contract of insurance is one of the species of commercial transaction between the insurer and insured. It is for the parties (insurer/insured) to decide as to what type of insurance they intend to do to secure safety of the goods and how much premium the insured wish to pay to secure insurance of their goods as provided in the tariff. If the insured pays additional premium to the insurer to secure more safety and coverage of their insured goods, it is permissible for them to do so. In this case, the respondent did not pay any additional premium to get the coverage of even two instances mentioned above to avoid rigour of note of clauses 4, 5 and clause 12. 51) In view of foregoing discussion, we cannot concur with the reasoning and the conclusion arrived at by the Commission. The appeal filed by the insurance company, i.e., Civil Appeal No. 2140 of 2007, therefore, deserves to be allowed. It is accordingly allowed. Impugned order is set aside. As a consequence thereof, the complaint filed by the respondent against the appellant out of which this appeal arises is dismissed. No costs. Civil Appeal No. 5141 of 2007

                                                                  Reportable
                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
                        CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
                        CIVIL APPEAL No.2140 OF 2007

United India Insurance Co. Ltd.          ……Appellant(s)


                             VERSUS


M/s Orient Treasures Pvt. Ltd.          ……Respondent(s)

                             WITH
                 CIVIL APPEAL No.5141 OF 2007

M/s Orient Treasures Pvt. Ltd.           ……Appellant(s)


                             VERSUS


United India Insurance Co. Ltd.   ……Respondent(s)

                               J U D G M E N T
Abhay Manohar Sapre, J.
C.A. No. 2140 of 2007
1)    This appeal under Section 23 of the Consumer Protection Act,  1986  is
filed against the order dated 19.03.2007 of the National  Consumer  Disputes
Redressal Commission (hereinafter referred  to  as  “the  Commission”),  New
Delhi in Original Petition No. 375 of 1999 whereby the   Commission  allowed
the petition filed by the respondent  herein  and  directed  the  appellant-
insurance company to pay a sum of Rs.36,10,211/-  with  interest  @10%  p.a.
from 03.12.1995 till  date  of  payment  and  also  directed  the  insurance
company to pay costs assessed at Rs.50,000/- to  the  respondent-Complainant
herein.
2)    In order to appreciate the issue involved in this appeal,  which  lies
in a narrow compass, it is necessary to set out the relevant facts in  brief
infra.
3)    The appellant herein is an insurance  company incorporated  under  the
Companies Act having its registered office at No. 24, Whites Road,  Chennai.
 The respondent herein is also a company incorporated  under  the  Companies
Act, 1956 having its registered office at Oceanic Buildings, Quilon,  Kerala
and its branches inter alia at Janpriya Centre No.34, Sir  Thyagaraya  Road,
Pondy Bazar, Chennai.
4)    The respondent herein is the complainant.  They  are  engaged  in  the
business of sale of various kinds of Jewellery.  The  respondent  is  having
their jewellery shop  known  as  “Kanchana  Mahal”  which  is   situated  at
Janpriya Centre No.34, Sir Thyagaraya Road, Pondy Bazar, Chennai.
5)    The respondent had insured their jewellery kept  in  their  shop  with
the appellant under successive “Jewellers Block Policies” with  effect  from
02.07.1993 onwards.  The procedure followed  was  that  the  respondent  was
required to submit proposal form.  On receipt  of  the  proposal  form,  the
officials of the appellant-insurance company used to  inspect  the  shop  to
verify the security and storage particulars.
6)    The respondent filled up the  insurance  proposal  form  by  providing
necessary information as mentioned in the form. On the  basis  of  the  said
proposal form, the appellant issued an insurance policy  in  favour  of  the
respondent from 02.07.1993 to 01.07.1994. It was then  subsequently  renewed
for further one year, i.e. from 02.07.1994 to 01.07.1995.
7)    On 02.06.1995, the respondent alleged that there  was  a  burglary  in
their Jewellery  shop.   According  to  the  respondent,  on  the  night  of
02.06.1995, burglars broke open the locks of shutters, entered the shop  and
decamped with the gold and silver ornaments valued at  Rs.40,63,735.53.  The
respondent accordingly  lodged  FIR  at  the  concerned  Police  Station  on
03.06.1995.  The respondent also informed the appellant on 03.06.1995  by  a
telegraphic communication about this incident.  By letter dated  05.06.1995,
the appellant informed the respondent that a Surveyor has been appointed  to
assess the loss suffered by the respondent in  the  burglary.  The  surveyor
then inspected the site and also examined all the relevant material,  books,
inventory etc. with a view to assess the actual loss alleged  to  have  been
suffered by the respondent  and  accordingly  assessed  the  total  loss  at
Rs.36,10,211/.  Thereafter he submitted  his  report.  After  investigation,
the police  also  submitted  a  final  investigation  report  on  24.06.1995
treating the case as untraceable.
8)     The respondent then submitted their claim with the appellant  on  the
basis of the Insurance Policy and claimed that they are entitled to  receive
the value of Jewellery which they lost in burglary committed in  their  shop
on 02.06.1995. On  19.01.1998,  the  Divisional  Manager  of  the  Insurance
Company, Tuticorin after examining the respondent’s claim for loss of  their
Jewellery repudiated the claim inter alia on  the  ground  that  the  stolen
gold ornaments and silver articles were found to had been  kept  on  display
window and in the sales counters at the time of burglary  which  took  place
in the night of 02.06.1995, which according to appellant,  was  contrary  to
the terms of the policy and, therefore, not covered in the policy. In  other
words, such items were not insured. It was further stated  that  the  policy
was issued subject  to  the  terms,  conditions,  warranties  and  exclusion
printed in the proposal form which was  a  part  of  policy.  The  appellant
relied on clause 12 of the policy and stated that since the burglary in  the
shop took place during night and stolen articles  kept  in   window  display
and lying out of safe in the shop were stolen, the appellant  could  not  be
made liable to indemnify  such  loss  which,  according  to  them,  was  not
insured and specifically excluded from the insurance policy.
9)    Being aggrieved by the decision of  the  appellant-Insurance  Company,
the Respondent sent letters and reminders pointing out therein the terms  of
the proposal form and policy and insisted that the loss  was  fully  covered
by the policy and hence they were entitled to claim the value  of  the  lost
articles from the appellant on the basis of Insurance  Policy.   As  nothing
was done, the respondent filed a  complaint  before  the  National  Consumer
Disputes Redressal Commission, New Delhi (hereinafter referred  to  as  “the
Commission”) being Original Petition No. 375  of  1999  claiming  a  sum  of
Rs.1,32,06,786.30.
10)    By  order  dated  19.03.2007,   the  Commission  partly  allowed  the
petition filed  by  the  respondent  and  directed  the  appellant-Insurance
Company to pay a sum  of  Rs.36,10,211/-  with  interest  @  10%  p.a.  from
03.12.1995 till date of payment and also directed the Insurance  Company  to
pay costs assessed at Rs.50,000/- to the respondent.
11)   Aggrieved by the  said  order,  the  appellant-Insurance  Company  has
filed this appeal.
12) Dissatisfied with the claim awarded by the  Commission,  the  respondent
has filed C.A. No. 5141 of  2007  seeking  enhancement  in  the  quantum  of
claim. According to the respondent, they are entitled  to  claim  a  sum  of
Rs.1,32,06,786.30 as against Rs. 36,10,211/- awarded by the Commission.
13)   Heard Mr. P.P. Malhotra, learned senior counsel for the appellant  and
Mr. H. Ahmadi, learned senior counsel for the respondent.
14)   Shri P.P.Malhotra, learned senior counsel appearing for the  appellant
while assailing the legality and correctness of the  impugned  order  mainly
urged two points in support of his submissions.
15)   In the first place, learned senior counsel urged that  the  Commission
erred in partly allowing the complaint filed by  the  respondent  herein  by
passing the impugned award  against  the  appellant.  According  to  learned
counsel, had the Commission properly interpreted clauses  4  and  5  of  the
proposal form, which was part of the policy along  with  clause  12  of  the
policy then in such event, the  respondent's  complaint  was  liable  to  be
dismissed in its entirety.
16)   Elaborating the aforementioned  submission,  learned  counsel  pointed
out that the plain reading of clauses 4  and  5  (b)  with  their  note  and
clause 12 of the  policy  clearly  show  that  the  respondent's  claim  was
excluded from the policy issued by the appellant because it was in  relation
to the items which were kept in display window and out of safe at  the  time
of burglary.
17)   In other words, the submission was that  the  respondent's  claim  was
not covered under the  policy  and  was  expressly  excluded  by  virtue  of
clauses 4 and 5(b) read with clause 12 of the policy  because  firstly,  the
burglary in the shop took place in night  hours  and  secondly,  the  stolen
articles were kept in display window and outside the safe.
18)   Learned counsel, therefore, urged  that  due  to  these  two  admitted
facts, the note appended to  clauses  4  and  5  read  with  clause  12  was
attracted rendering the respondent's complaint as not maintainable.
19)    Learned counsel further  pointed  out  that  the  respondent  despite
knowing these clauses of the proposal form/policy  instead  of  seeking  any
clarification regarding meaning of the clauses  paid  the  premium  pursuant
thereto  the  appellant  issued  the  Insurance  policy  on  the  terms  and
conditions  set  out  therein  which  are  binding  on  both  parties  while
adjudicating their rights against each other arising out of the policy.
20)   Learned counsel, in the second place, submitted that the  language  of
clauses 4, 5 and 12 being plain, clear and unambiguous  conveying  only  one
meaning, the appellant had every right to  rely  upon  these  clauses  while
opposing the respondent's complaint on merits.
21)   Learned counsel, therefore, submitted  that  in  the  light  of  these
facts, the  respondent  had  no  right  to  file  a  complaint  against  the
appellant seeking monetary compensation for the loss alleged  to  have  been
suffered by them arising out of  burglary  of  their  articles  stolen  from
their shop. Such claim, according to learned counsel, was barred  by  virtue
of clauses 4, 5 and 12 of  the  policy  and  was  therefore,  liable  to  be
dismissed as being untenable.
22)   In support of his submission, learned counsel placed reliance  on  the
decisions in General Assurance Society Ltd.  vs.  Chandumull  Jain  &  Anr.,
AIR 1966 SC 1644 = (1966) 3 SCR 500, United India  Insurance  Co.  Ltd.  vs.
Harchand Rai Chandan Lal (2004) 8 SCC 644, Oriental Insurance Co.  Ltd.  vs.
Sony Cheriyan, (1999) 6 SCC 451, Rahee Industries  Ltd.  vs.  Export  Credit
Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd. & Anr., (2009) 1 SCC 138,  Sikka  Papers
Ltd. vs. National Insurance Co. Ltd.  &  Ors.,  (2009)  7  SCC  777,  Vikram
Greentech India Ltd. & Anr. vs. New India Assurance Co. Ltd., (2009)  5  SCC
599, New India Assurance Co. Ltd. vs. Zuari Industries Ltd. &  Ors.,  (2009)
9 SCC 70, Amravati District Central Cooperative Bank Ltd. vs.  United  India
Fire and General Insurance Co. Ltd., (2010) 5 SCC 294, Suraj Mal  Ram  Niwas
Oil Mills P. Ltd. vs. United India Insurance Co. Ltd. & Anr., (2010) 10  SCC
567, Deokar Exports P. Ltd. vs. New India Assurance  Co.  Ltd.,   (2008)  14
SCC 598,  Export  Credit  Guarantee  Corp.  of  India  Ltd.  vs.  Garg  Sons
International, (2014) 1 SCC 686 and Rust vs. Abbey Life Assurance  Co.  Ltd.
& Anr., (1979) Vol.2 Lloyd’s Law Reports 334.
23)   In reply, Mr. H. Ahmadi,  learned senior  counsel  appearing  for  the
respondent while supporting the        impugned  order  contended  that  the
issue involved in this case  needs  to  be  decided  in  the  light  of  the
principle underlined in  the  rule  known  as   "contra  proferentem  rule”.
According to learned counsel, there is an ambiguity  in  the  language/words
of clauses 4 and 5 of the proposal form  and  since  the  ambiguity  noticed
created some confusion as to what these clauses actually provide and  expect
the respondent to comply at the  time  of  filling  the  proposal  form  for
obtaining the insurance policy, this Court should interpret the  clauses  by
applying the principle underlined in the aforesaid rule in such a  way  that
its benefit would go to the respondent rather than to the appellant. It  was
also his submission that the appellant being the author of the proposal  and
policy are not entitled to claim the benefit  of  the  clauses  of  proposal
form/policy in their favour thereby defeating the rights of  the  respondent
which they have got under the policy to enforce against  the  appellant  for
claiming the compensation.
24)   Learned counsel also contended that the  respondent  had  intended  to
insure all their articles kept in the shop regardless  of  timings  and  the
manner in keeping the articles in their shop. He also pointed out  that  the
respondent having paid the full premium for the articles which  were  valued
at Rs. 2 crore as disclosed by  the  respondent  in  clauses  4  and  5  and
therefore the respondent was entitled to claim compensation for the loss  of
the stolen items (jewelry) treating them as insured and  covered  under  the
policy, issued in their favour.
25)   So far as the connected appeal filed by the respondent-Complainant  is
concerned, the submission of the learned senior counsel for  the  respondent
was that the Commission  erred  in  not  allowing  their  complaint  in  its
entirety despite  availability  of  evidence  on  record.  Learned  counsel,
therefore, prayed for dismissal of the appellant's appeal and  allowing  the
appeal filed by the respondent by enhancing the quantum of  compensation  as
claimed by the respondent in the complaint.
26)   Learned senior counsel also placed  reliance  on  the  same  decisions
which were cited by learned senior counsel for the appellant  and  contended
that the law laid down therein also supports the respondent's case.
27)   Having heard the learned counsel for the parties  and  on  perusal  of
the record of the case including the written submissions, we find  force  in
the submissions of learned counsel for  the  appellant  (Insurance  company-
Insurer).
28)   The question which arises for consideration in this appeal is  whether
the Commission  was  justified  in  allowing  the  complaint  filed  by  the
respondent  against  the  appellant-Insurance  Company  in  part  and   was,
therefore, justified in awarding a sum of Rs.36,10,211/- to the  respondent.

29)   In order to answer the aforementioned question, clauses 4,  5  of  the
proposal form and clause 12 of the policy need mention infra.
                                     (1)
|4  |WINDOW DISPLAY               |                   |
|   |State the approximate value  |                   |
|   |of any of article of         |Rs.3,50,5000/-     |
|   |Jewellery or Gem stock which |                   |
|   |will be displayed in the     |                   |
|   |window (A pad or tray        |                   |
|   |containing a number of rings |                   |
|   |or other articles to be      |                   |
|   |counted as one article).     |                   |
|   |(Give separate answer for    |                   |
|   |each location).              |                   |
|   |Note : Window display at     |                   |
|   |night is not covered.        |                   |
|5  |STOCK                        |                   |
|   |a. What was (i) the average  |(a)(i)New Shop     |
|   |daily total value of your    |(b)(iii)New shop   |
|   |stock during the past 12     |                   |
|   |months?                      |                   |
|   |(ii)  Will the whole of your |(b) All stocks of  |
|   |stock when on your premises  |Gold, Diamond,     |
|   |be kept in safe at night and |Gems, Silver and   |
|   |at all times when the state  |other precious     |
|   |value and class of stock     |stones-kept outside|
|   |which will left outside      |the                |
|   |safes.                       |safe-Rs.2,00,00,000|
|   |Note : We do  not cover      |(Two crores).      |
|   |stocks kept out of the       |                   |
|   |safe---business hours at     |                   |
|   |night.                       |                   |


                                     (2)

The company shall not be liable for under this policy in respect of

1 to 11………….

12.   Loss or damage to property, insured whilst in window display at  night
or whilst kept out of safe after business hours.”

30)   Before we examine the issue involved in the case, it is  necessary  to
take note of the law laid down on the subject by the Constitution  Bench  of
this Court in General Assurance Society Ltd. vs.  Chandumull  Jain  &  Anr.,
AIR 1966 SC 1644.
31)  The Constitution Bench in this case has explained the  true  nature  of
contract relating to Insurance and laid down the relevant factors which  the
courts should keep in mind while interpreting the contract of insurance.
32)   Justice Hidayatullah, J. (as His Lordship then was) speaking  for  the
Bench in his distinctive style of writing held in Para 11 as under:

“11. A contract of insurance is a species  of  commercial  transactions  and
there is a well established commercial practice to  send  cover  notes  even
prior to the completion of a proper proposal or while the proposal is  being
considered or a policy is in preparation for delivery. A  cover  note  is  a
temporary and limited  agreement.  It  may  be  self  contained  or  it  may
incorporate by reference the terms and  conditions  of  the  future  policy.
When the cover note incorporates the policy in  this  manner,  it  does  not
have to recite the term and conditions, but merely to refer to a  particular
standard policy. If the proposal is for a  standard  policy  and  the  cover
note refers to it, the assured is taken to have accepted the terms  of  that
policy. The reference to the policy and its  terms  and  conditions  may  be
expressed in the proposal or the  cover  note  or  even  in  the  letter  of
acceptance including the cover note. The  incorporation  of  the  terms  and
conditions of the policy may also arise from a combination of references  in
two or more documents  passing  between  the  parties.  Documents  like  the
proposal, cover  note  and  the  policy  are  commercial  documents  and  to
interpret them commercial habits and practice cannot altogether be  ignored.
During the time the cover note operates, the relations of  the  parties  are
governed by its terms and conditions, if any, but more usually by the  terms
and conditions of the policy bargained for  and  to  be  issued.  When  this
happens the terms of the policy  are  incipient  but  after  the  period  of
temporary  cover,  the  relations  are  governed  only  by  the  terms   and
conditions of the policy unless  insurance  is  declined  in  the  meantime.
Delay in issuing the policy makes no difference.  The  relations  even  then
are governed by the  future  policy  if  the  cover  notes  give  sufficient
indication that it would be so. In other respects  there  is  no  difference
between a contract of insurance and any other  contract  except  that  in  a
contract of insurance there is a requirement of  uberrima  fides  i.e.  good
faith on the part of the assured and the contract is likely to be  construed
contra proferentem that is against the  company  in  case  of  ambiguity  or
doubt. A contract is formed when there is an unqualified acceptance  of  the
proposal. Acceptance may be expressed in writing or it may even  be  implied
if the insurer accepts the premium and  retains  it.  In  the  case  of  the
assured, a positive act on his part by  which  he  recognises  or  seeks  to
enforce the policy amounts to  an  affirmation  of  it.  This  position  was
clearly recognised by the assured himself, because he wrote, close upon  the
expiry of the time of the cover  notes,  that  either  a  policy  should  be
issued to him before that period had expired or the cover note  extended  in
time. In interpreting documents relating to a  contract  of  insurance,  the
duty of the court is to  interpret  the  words  in  which  the  contract  is
expressed by the parties, because it is not for the  court  to  make  a  new
contract, however reasonable, if the parties have not  made  it  themselves.
Looking at the proposal, the letter of acceptance and the  cover  notes,  it
is clear that a contract of insurance under the  standard  policy  for  fire
and extended to cover flood, cyclone etc. had come into being.”

33)   Keeping in view the aforesaid principle of law in  mind  and  applying
the same to the facts of the case, we proceed to examine the issue  involved
in this appeal.
34)   Mere perusal of the note appended to clause 4 quoted  above  would  go
to show that the appellant (Insurance Company) had  made  it  clear  in  the
proposal form itself  that  "window display of  articles  at  night  is  not
covered".  This clearly meant that the insurance coverage was given  to  the
articles kept in "window display during day time in business hours"  whereas
insurance coverage was not given to the articles  when  they  were  kept  in
"window display at night".
35)   In other words, if the burglary had been committed during day time  in
business hours and in that burglary, the articles  kept  in  display  window
were stolen  then  in  such  circumstances,  the  appellant  was  liable  to
reimburse the loss to the respondent of  such  stolen  articles  as  insured
articles under the policy. But if the burglary had  been  committed  of  the
articles kept in display window during night  time  (after  business  hours)
then in such circumstances  the  appellant  having  made  it  clear  to  the
respondent in the note in  clause  4  that  they  would  not  be  liable  to
indemnify the loss of  any  such  articles  kept  in  display  window  after
business hours, the respondent was not entitled to  claim  any  compensation
for the loss of any such stolen articles.  In  other  words,  the  insurance
coverage was not extended to such stolen articles under the policy.
36)   Similarly, mere perusal of note appended  to  clause  5  quoted  above
would go to show that the appellant had made it clear in the  proposal  form
itself to the respondent that "stock which is kept out  of  the  safe  after
business hours at night" is not covered  under  the  policy.   This  clearly
meant that "stock kept out of safe during business hours",  if  stolen,  was
insured and given coverage under the policy but if it was kept out  of  safe
after business hours at night, then it was not covered under the policy  and
therefore, the appellant was not liable to indemnify the loss  sustained  by
the respondent of any such stolen articles.
37)   In other words, if the burglary had been committed during day time  in
business hours then the appellant was liable to reimburse the  loss  to  the
respondent of the stolen articles treating them as  insured  articles  under
the policy. But if the burglary had been  committed  of  the  stock/articles
kept out of safe after business hours at night then  in  such  circumstances
the appellant was not liable to  indemnify  the  loss  of  any  such  stolen
articles by virtue of note appended to clause  5.  In  these  circumstances,
the respondent was not entitled to  claim  any  compensation  for  the  loss
sustained in the burglary of any such stolen articles.
38)   In  our  considered  opinion,  there  is  neither  any  ambiguity  nor
vagueness and nor absurdity in the  language/wording  of  note  appended  to
clauses 4 or/and 5.  On the other hand, we find  that  the  language/wording
of the note in both the clauses is plain, clear, unambiguous and creates  no
confusion in the mind of the reader about its meaning. That apart clause  12
of the policy, in clear terms, provides that  the  appellant  would  not  be
liable to indemnify any loss under the policy if such loss or damage to  the
insured property occurs while  the  insured  property  was  kept  in  window
display at night or while it was kept out of safe after business hours.
39)   This takes us to the next submission of  Mr.  Ahmadi,  learned  senior
counsel for  the  respondent  that  we  should  apply  the  rule  of  contra
proferentum  to interpret clauses 4 and 5 because according to him there  is
an ambiguity in the language/wording of clauses 4 and 5  and  secondly,  the
appellant being the author of these clauses has no right to take benefit  of
the ambiguity to defeat the  rights  of  the  respondent.   Learned  counsel
maintained that the interpretation of  the  clauses  should,  therefore,  be
made in such a way that its benefit would go  to  the  respondent  (insured)
for claiming  compensation  from  the  appellants.  We  cannot  accept  this
submission of learned counsel for the respondent for more than one reason.
40)   In Halsbury's Laws of England (fifth edition- Volume  60  Para  105  )
principle of contra proferentem rule is stated thus :
“Contra proferentem rule.  Where there is ambiguity in the policy the  court
will apply the contra proferentem rule.  Where a policy is produced  by  the
insurers, it is their  business  to  see  that  precision  and  clarity  are
attained and, if they fail to do so,  the  ambiguity  will  be  resolved  by
adopting the construction favourable to the insured.  Similarly, as  regards
language which emanates from the insured,  such  as  the  language  used  in
answer to questions in the proposal or in a slip, a construction  favourable
to the insurers will prevail if  the  insured  has  created  any  ambiguity.
This rule, however,  only  becomes  operative  where  the  words  are  truly
ambiguous; it is a rule for resolving ambiguity and  it  cannot  be  invoked
with a view to creating a doubt.  Therefore, where the words used  are  free
from ambiguity in the sense that,  fairly  and  reasonably  construed,  they
admit of only one meaning, the rule has no application.”

41)    The aforesaid rule, in our considered opinion, has no application  to
the facts of this case. It is for the reason  that  firstly,  we  find  that
there is no ambiguity in the language/wording used in clauses 4  and  5.  In
other words, as held above, the language/wording of clauses 4 and 5 and  the
note appended thereto is clear, plain and unambiguous and carries  only  one
meaning. Secondly, in the absence of any ambiguity, the  respondent  is  not
entitled  to  invoke  the  principle  underlined  in  the  rule  of   contra
proferentem for interpreting the clauses of the policy and lastly,  presence
of ambiguity in the language of policy being sine qua non for invocation  of
the contra proferentem rule, which is not present here, we cannot apply  the
rule for deciding the issue involved in case.
42)     It is a settled rule of interpretation that  when  the  words  of  a
statute  are  clear,  plain  or  unambiguous,  i.e.,  they  are   reasonably
susceptible to only one meaning, the courts are  bound  to  give  effect  to
that meaning irrespective of consequences. In other words, when  a  language
is plain and unambiguous and admits of only  one  meaning,  no  question  of
construction of a statue arises, for the  Act  speaks  for  itself.  Equally
well-settled rule of interpretation is that whenever the  NOTE  is  appended
to the main Section, it is explanatory in nature to  the  main  Section  and
explains the true meaning of the main Section and has  to  be  read  in  the
context  of  main  Section   (See  -  G.P.Singh  -Principle   of   Statutory
Interpretation  13th  Edition  page  50  and  172).  This  analogy,  in  our
considered opinion, equally applies while interpreting  the  words  used  in
any contract.
43)   Coming now to the facts of the case, it is not  in  dispute  that  the
burglary  took  place  in  the  respondent's  shop  during  night  hours  on
02.06.1995 when the burglars took away the jewelry  (gold/silver  ornaments)
kept in display window and jewelry lying out of  safe.  The  appellant  was,
therefore, justified  in  contending  that  the  stolen  articles  were  not
covered under the policy by virtue of clauses 4,  5  of  Proposal  Form  and
Clause 12 of the policy and no  liability  could  be  fastened  on  them  to
indemnify the loss of such articles for awarding  any  compensation  to  the
respondent.  Indeed  clauses  4,  5  and  12  were  clearly   attracted   in
appellant’s favour.
44)   We do not agree to  the  submission  of  Mr.  Ahmadi,  learned  senior
counsel  for  the  respondent  that  once  the  respondent  disclosed  their
intention to get their stock (ornaments) valued at Rs 2 Crores insured  with
the appellant by filling the details in Columns 4  and  5  of  the  proposal
form and once  they  paid  the  necessary  premium  to  the  appellant,  the
respondent became entitled to claim  loss  of  the  stolen  items  from  the
appellant treating the stolen items as insured under the  policy  regardless
of note contained in clauses 4 , 5 and clause  12  of  the  policy.  In  our
view, the submission has a fallacy.
45)   Firstly, as mentioned above, if the burglary had  taken  place  during
day time in business hours in respect of the items kept  in  display  window
or out of safe, the appellant was liable to compensate  the  respondent  for
the entire loss suffered by them treating the stolen items as insured  items
under the policy. In other words, if the burglary  had  taken  place  during
business hours then item kept in display window or those lying out  of  safe
were covered under the policy.
46)   Likewise, if the burglary had taken place during night in relation  to
the items  kept  in  the  safe,  then  also  the  appellant  was  liable  to
compensate the loss suffered by the  respondent  in  burglary  treating  the
stolen items as insured items under the policy.
47)   In both the category of cases mentioned above, the appellant  was  not
entitled to rely upon clauses 4, 5 and 12 to avoid their  liability  because
both the instances did not fall either in clause 4 or  clause  5  or  clause
12. However, this was not the case set up  by  the  respondent  against  the
appellant.
48)   On the other hand, it is the case of the respondent that the  burglary
took place at night and the insured items kept in display  window  and  some
lying out of safe were stolen. Due to these facts, clauses 4, 5 and 12  were
attracted against the respondent.
49)   In order to claim benefit of the policy, it was  obligatory  upon  the
respondent to have removed the insured items from  display  window  everyday
after business hours and keep them  inside  safe  during  night  hours  till
opening of the shop next day. Like wise all insured items in side  the  shop
should also have been kept in side the safe everyday  after  business  hours
till opening of the shop  next  day.  It  was,  however,  not  done  by  the
respondent.
50)    A  contract  of  insurance  is  one  of  the  species  of  commercial
transaction  between  the  insurer  and  insured.  It  is  for  the  parties
(insurer/insured) to decide as to what type of insurance they intend  to  do
to secure safety of the goods and how much premium the insured wish  to  pay
to secure insurance of their  goods  as  provided  in  the  tariff.  If  the
insured pays additional premium to the insurer to  secure  more  safety  and
coverage of their insured goods, it is permissible for them to  do  so.   In
this case, the respondent did not pay any  additional  premium  to  get  the
coverage of even two instances mentioned above to avoid rigour  of  note  of
clauses 4, 5 and clause 12.
51)   In view of foregoing discussion, we cannot concur with  the  reasoning
and the conclusion arrived at by the Commission. The  appeal  filed  by  the
insurance company, i.e., Civil Appeal No. 2140 of 2007, therefore,  deserves
to be allowed. It is accordingly allowed. Impugned order is set aside. As  a
consequence thereof, the complaint  filed  by  the  respondent  against  the
appellant out of which this appeal arises is dismissed. No costs.
Civil Appeal No. 5141 of 2007
In the light of the order passed in Civil Appeal No. 2140  of  2007,  it  is
not necessary to examine the merits of the claim filed by  the  Complainant,
which has been rendered infructuous. The appeal thus fails and is  dismissed
as having rendered infructuous.  No costs.


.……...................................J.
                                     [J. CHELAMESWAR]


                     ………..................................J.
                                      [ABHAY MANOHAR SAPRE]
      New Delhi,
      January 13, 2016.
-----------------------
32


whether the denial of access to common carrier capacity on reasonable endeavor basis to the two pipelines laid by the appellant to the second respondent, is discreminatory and amounting to Restrictive Trade Practices or not.= we find that the the following crucial aspect has not been considered either by the Board or by the Appellate Authority. The main arguments of the learned counsel for the respondents rests on the application of the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (Affiliate Code of Conduct for Entities Engaged in Marketing of Natural Gas and Laying, Building, Operating or Expanding Natural Gas Pipeline) Reglations, 2008 and without addressing this issue, the dispute as raised in the complaint cannot be resolved.= Issue - To what extent, the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (Affiliate Code of Conduct for Entities Engaged in Marketing of Natural Gas and Laying, Building, Operating or Expanding Natural Gas Pipeline) Reglations, 2008 are applicable to the complainant. 12. While addressing this issue, the interplay between the scheme as per the Act and the regulations will also be addressed. 13. We find that the pleadings by both the parties have not been satisfactory before the original authority. Therefore, as requested by the learned senior counsel appearing for both the sides, we permit both sides to file additional pleadings before the Board. The complainant may file its additional pleadings within two weeks from today and the appellant will file its reply within two weeks thereafter. Based on the additional pleadings, we make it clear, it will be open to the Board to raise additional issues, if required.Having regard to the fact that the original complaint was filed in the year 2013, we direct the Board to dispose of the complaint within six months from today. We also grant liberty to the complainant, if so required, to make an application before the Board for an appropriate interim order after completion of the pleadings and in which case, the Board may dispose of the application within three months. 15. In that view of the matter, we set aside the impugned order passed by the Appellate Authority dated 28.11.2014 in Appeal No. 52 of 2014 as also the original order passed by the Board dated 26.12.2013 in Case No. 68 of 2013.

                                                                  REPORTABLE

                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
                        CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION


                       CIVIL APPEAL NO. 11450 OF 2014


      GAIL (INDIA) LTD.                         Appellant(s)

                                VERSUS

      PETROLEUM AND NATURAL GAS REGULATORY
      BOARD & ORS.                                   Respondent(s)



                               J U D G M E N T

KURIAN, J.

1.    The main issue raised in this appeal is whether the denial  of  access
to  common  carrier  capacity  on  reasonable  endeavor  basis  to  the  two
pipelines laid by the appellant to the second respondent, is  discreminatory
and amounting to Restrictive Trade Practices or not.  In the nature  of  the
order we are required to pass in this case,  it  is  unnecessary  to  go  in
detail to the factual matrix.

2.    The issue arises under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory  Board
(Authorising  entities  to  lay,  build,  operate  or  expand  natural   gas
pipeline) Regulations, 2008 and Petroleum and Natural Gas  Regulatory  Board
(Guiding Principles for Declaring or Authorising  Natural  Gas  Pipeline  as
Common Carrier or Contract Carrier) Regulations, 2009.

3.    In terms of the Regulations, the  appellant  published  the  available
common carrier capacity for the prospective contracting by any third  party.


4.    On 19.11.2012, the appellant published an Expression of  Interest  for
booking capacity by intrested parties mentioning  therein  that  the  common
carrier capacity thus available is on Ship or Pay basis.

5.    Respondent No. 2, on 04.05.2013, expressed its  desire  to  avail  the
common carrier capacity on reasonable endeavour basis.

6.    Failing to resolve the disputes between ship  or  pay  and  reasonable
endeavour basis, Respondent No.2 filed a complaint before the Petroleum  and
Natural Gas Regulatory Board (in short, "the Board") on 21.09.2013.

7.    The Board, after elaborate discussions,  allowed  the  complaint.   We
shall extract the relevant portion as under :-
" .........
52. The respondent's explanation  does  not  deserve  any  acceptability  or
credibility at all because the  common  carrier  capacity  has  to  be  non-
discriminatory reserved on 'first-cum-first-serve' basis without making  any
specific classification for reservation of common carrier capacity.
53.   The practice adopted  by  the  respondent  on  the  one  hand  reveals
discrimination towards the customer like complainant and on the other  hand,
results in additional burden for the shippers who are not  the  regular  and
long  standing  customers  of  the  respondent  and  such   practices   also
discourage fair competition in the market.
54.   In view of above, it would not be appropriate for  us  to  direct  the
respondent for booking  common  carrier  capacity  on  reasonable  endeavour
basis but we hold that the practice being adopted by the  respondent,  while
booking common  carrier  capacity,  is  not  only  discriminatory,  it  also
amounts to restrictive trade practice and must follow the consequence  under
Section 28 in the light of  the  provision  of  Section  11  (a)  read  with
Section 12(1)(b)(v) of the Petroleum &  Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act.
55.   On giving careful consideration to all the  facts  and  circumstances,
we hereby direct the respondent to immediately cease its  restrictive  trade
practice of preventing the shippers like complainant, the access  of  common
carrier capacity in its  common  carrier  pipeline  and  also  impose  civil
penalty of Rs. 1.00 lac under Section 28 of  the  PNGRB  Act,  2006,  to  be
deposited within a month from today."

8.    Aggrieved, the appellant took  up  the  matter  before  the  Appellate
Tribunal for Electricity (in short, "Appellate Authority"), leading  to  the
impugned order dated 28.11.2014, by which the Appellate Authority  dismissed
the appeal in the following terms :-
"On giving careful consideration to  the  facts  and  circumstances  of  the
Appeal, including the pleadings and submissions made by the parties, we  are
of the opinion that it has been  established  that  the  Appellant,  in  the
instant case, while booking common carrier capacity  in  its  pipeline,  has
acted in a discriminatory manner leading to restrictive trade practices  and
as such, the Appellant is liable to pay the penalty of Rs.  1  lakh  to  the
Board.  Thus, the Impugned Order is upheld.   Consequently,  the  Appeal  is
hereby dismissed"

9.    Feeling aggrieved by  the  impugned  order  passed  by  the  Appellate
Authority, the appellant has preferred this appeal before us.

10.   Though the parties have taken elaborate contentions  both  before  the
Board as well as before the Appellate Authority,  having  extensively  heard
Mr.Tushar Mehta, learned Additional  Solicitor  General  appearing  for  the
appellant and Mr. Parag Tripathi, learned senior counsel appearing  for  the
second respondent, we find that the the following  crucial  aspect  has  not
been considered either by the Board or by the Appellate Authority. The  main
arguments  of  the  learned  counsel  for  the  respondents  rests  on   the
application of the Petroleum and Natural  Gas  Regulatory  Board  (Affiliate
Code of Conduct for  Entities  Engaged  in  Marketing  of  Natural  Gas  and
Laying, Building, Operating or Expanding Natural Gas  Pipeline)  Reglations,
2008 and without addressing  this  issue,  the  dispute  as  raised  in  the
complaint cannot be resolved.

11.   In the facts and circumstances of the case, we are of  the  view  that
unless the issue, which is formulated below,  is  addressed,  the  complaint
filed by the second  respondent  before  the  Board  should  not  have  been
disposed of.  Therefore, we propose to frame the following  issue  and  send
the matter back to the Board :-

Issue - To what extent, the  Petroleum  and  Natural  Gas  Regulatory  Board
(Affiliate Code of Conduct for Entities Engaged in Marketing of Natural  Gas
and  Laying,  Building,  Operating  or  Expanding  Natural   Gas   Pipeline)
Reglations, 2008 are applicable to the complainant.



12.   While addressing this issue, the interplay between the scheme  as  per
the Act and the regulations will also be addressed.

13.   We find  that  the  pleadings  by  both  the  parties  have  not  been
satisfactory before the original authority.  Therefore, as requested by  the
learned senior counsel appearing for both the sides, we  permit  both  sides
to file additional pleadings before the Board. The complainant may file  its
additional pleadings within two weeks from  today  and  the  appellant  will
file its reply  within  two  weeks  thereafter.   Based  on  the  additional
pleadings, we make it  clear,  it  will  be  open  to  the  Board  to  raise
additional issues, if required.

14.   Having regard to the fact that the original  complaint  was  filed  in
the year 2013, we direct the Board to dispose of the  complaint  within  six
months from today.   We  also  grant  liberty  to  the  complainant,  if  so
required, to make  an  application  before  the  Board  for  an  appropriate
interim order after completion of the  pleadings  and  in  which  case,  the
Board may dispose of the application within three months.

15.   In that view of the matter, we set aside the impugned order passed  by
the Appellate Authority dated 28.11.2014 in Appeal No. 52 of  2014  as  also
the original order passed by the Board dated 26.12.2013 in Case  No.  68  of
2013.

16.   We make it clear that we have not expressed any opinion on the  merits
of the case and it will be open to both the parties to raise  all  available
contentions before the Board at any stage.

17. With  the  above  observations  and  directions,  the  Civil  Appeal  is
disposed of with no order as to costs.

                                                   .......................J.
                                                           [ KURIAN JOSEPH ]


                                                   .......................J.
                                                   [ ROHINTON FALI NARIMAN ]

      New Delhi;
      January 13, 2016.

Friday, January 8, 2016

Section 294 CrPC reads as under: - “294. No formal proof of certain documents. – (1) Where any document is filed before any Court by the prosecution or the accused, the particulars of every such document shall be included in a list and the prosecution or the accused, as the case may be, or the pleader for the prosecution or the accused, if any, shall be called upon to admit or deny the genuineness of each such document. (2) The list of documents shall be in such form as may be prescribed by the State Government. (3) Where the genuineness of any document is not disputed, such document may be read in evidence in any inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this Code without proof of the signature of the person to whom it purports to be signed: Provided that the Court may, in its discretion, require such signature to be proved.” The object of Section 294 CrPC is to accelerate pace of trial by avoiding the time being wasted by the parties in recording the unnecessary evidence. Where genuineness of any document is admitted, or its formal proof is dispensed with, the same may be read in evidence. Word “document” is defined in Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, as under: - “ ‘Document’ means any matter expressed or described upon any substance by means of letters, figures or marks, or by more than one of those means, intended to be used, or which may be used, for the purpose of recording that matter. Illustration A writing is a document; Words printed, lithographed or photographed are documents; A map or plan is a document; An inscription on a metal plate or stone is a document; A caricature is a document.” In R.M. Malkani vs. State of Maharashtra[1], this Court has observed that tape recorded conversation is admissible provided first the conversation is relevant to the matters in issue; secondly, there is identification of the voice; and, thirdly, the accuracy of the tape recorded conversation is proved by eliminating the possibility of erasing the tape record.- In Ziyauddin Barhanuddin Bukhari vs. Brijmohan Ramdass Mehra and others[2], it was held by this Court that tape-records of speeches were “documents”, as defined by Section 3 of the Evidence Act, which stood on no different footing than photographs, and that they were admissible in evidence on satisfying the following conditions: “(a) The voice of the person alleged to be speaking must be duly identified by the maker of the record or by others who know it. (b) Accuracy of what was actually recorded had to be proved by the maker of the record and satisfactory evidence, direct or circumstantial, had to be there so as to rule out possibilities of tampering with the record. (c) The subject-matter recorded had to be shown to be relevant according to rules of relevancy found in the Evidence Act.” In view of the definition of ‘document’ in Evidence Act, and the law laid down by this Court, as discussed above, we hold that the compact disc is also a document. It is not necessary for the court to obtain admission or denial on a document under sub-section (1) to Section 294 CrPC personally from the accused or complainant or the witness. The endorsement of admission or denial made by the counsel for defence, on the document filed by the prosecution or on the application/report with which same is filed, is sufficient compliance of Section 294 CrPC. Similarly on a document filed by the defence, endorsement of admission or denial by the public prosecutor is sufficient and defence will have to prove the document if not admitted by the prosecution. In case it is admitted, it need not be formally proved, and can be read in evidence. In a complaint case such an endorsement can be made by the counsel for the complainant in respect of document filed by the defence.=We are not inclined to go into the truthfulness of the conversation sought to be proved by the defence but, in the facts and circumstances of the case, as discussed above, we are of the view that the courts below have erred in law in not allowing the application of the defence to get played the compact disc relating to conversation between father of the victim and son and wife of the appellant regarding alleged property dispute. In our opinion, the courts below have erred in law in rejecting the application to play the compact disc in question to enable the public prosecutor to admit or deny, and to get it sent to the Forensic Science Laboratory, by the defence. The appellant is in jail and there appears to be no intention on his part to unnecessarily linger the trial, particularly when the prosecution witnesses have been examined. Therefore, without expressing any opinion as to the final merits of the case, this appeal is allowed, and the orders passed by the courts below are set aside. The application dated 19.2.2015 shall stand allowed. However, in the facts and circumstances of the case, it is observed that the accused/appellant shall not be entitled to seek bail on the ground of delay of trial.

                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

                       CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

                      CRIMINAL APPEAL NO. 1525 OF 2015
               (Arising out of S.L.P. (Crl.) No. 9151 of 2015)


Shamsher Singh Verma                         … Appellant

                                   Versus

State of Haryana                             …Respondent








                               J U D G M E N T


Prafulla C. Pant, J.


      This appeal is directed against order dated 25.8.2015, passed  by  the
High Court of Punjab and Haryana  at  Chandigarh,  whereby  said  Court  has
affirmed the order dated 21.2.2015, passed by the  Special  Judge,  Kaithal,
in Sessions Case No. 33  of  2014,  and  rejected  the  application  of  the
accused for getting exhibited the compact disc, filed in defence and to  get
the same proved from Forensic Science Laboratory.

We have heard learned counsel for the parties  and  perused  the  papers  on
record.

Briefly stated, a report was  lodged  against  the  appellant  (accused)  on
25.10.2013 at Police Station, Civil Lines, Kaithal, registered  as  FIR  No.
232 in respect of offence punishable under Section 354 of the  Indian  Penal
Code (IPC) and one relating to Protection of Children from  Sexual  Offences
Act, 2015 (POCSO) in which complainant Munish Verma alleged that  his  minor
niece was molested by the appellant.  It appears that  after  investigation,
a charge sheet is filed  against  the  appellant,  on  the  basis  of  which
Sessions Case No. 33 of 2014 was registered.  Special Judge, Kaithal,  after
hearing the parties, on 28.3.2014  framed  charge  in  respect  of  offences
punishable under Sections 354A and 376 IPC and also in  respect  of  offence
punishable under Sections 4/12 of POCSO.  Admittedly  prosecution  witnesses
have been examined in said case, whereafter statement  of  the  accused  was
recorded under Section 313 of the Code  of  Criminal  Procedure,  1973  (for
short “CrPC”).  In defence the accused has examined four witnesses,  and  an
application purported to have  been  moved  under  Section  294  CrPC  filed
before the trial court with following prayer: -

“In view of the submissions made above it is therefore prayed that the  said
gadgets may be got operated initially in the court for preserving a copy  of
the  text  contained  therein  for  further  communication  to  F.S.L.   for
establishing their authenticity.  It is further prayed  that  the  voice  of
Sandeep Verma may kindly be ordered to be taken by the experts at FSL to  be
further got matched with the recorded voice above mentioned.”


In said application dated 19.2.2015, it is alleged that there  is  recording
of conversation between Sandeep Verma (father of  the  victim)  and  Saurabh
(son  of  the  accused)  and  Meena  Kumari  (wife  of  the  accused).   The
application appears to have been opposed by the prosecution.   Consequently,
the trial court rejected the same vide order dated 21.2.2015  and  the  same
was affirmed, vide impugned order passed by the High Court.
Learned counsel for the appellant argued before us that the  accused  has  a
right to adduce the evidence in defence and the courts below have  erred  in
law in denying the right of defence.

On the other hand, learned counsel for the complainant and  learned  counsel
for the State contended that it is a case of sexual abuse of a female  child
aged nine years by his uncle, and the accused/appellant is trying to  linger
the trial.


In reply to this, learned counsel for the appellant pointed out  that  since
the accused/appellant is in jail, as such, there is no question on his  part
to protract the trial.  It is further submitted on behalf of  the  appellant
that the appellant was initially detained on  24.10.2013  illegally  by  the
police at the instance of the complainant, to settle  the  property  dispute
with the complainant and his brother.  On this Writ Petition (Criminal)  No.
1888 of 2013 was filed before the High Court for issuance of writ of  habeas
corpus.  It is further pointed out that  the  High  Court,  vide  its  order
dated 25.10.2013, appointed Warrant Officer, and the appellant was  released
on 25.10.2013 at  10.25  p.m.  Immediately  thereafter  FIR  No.  232  dated
25.10.2013 was registered at 10.35 p.m.  regarding  alleged  molestation  on
the basis of which Sessions Case is proceeding.  On behalf of the  appellant
it is also submitted that appellant’s wife Meena is sister of  Munish  Verma
(complainant) and Sandeep  Verma  (father  of  the  victim),  and  there  is
property dispute between the parties due to which  the  appellant  has  been
falsely implicated.

Mrs.  Mahalakshmi  Pawani,  learned  senior  counsel  for  the   complainant
vehemently argued that the alleged conversation  among  the  father  of  the
victim and son and wife of the appellant is subsequent to  the  incident  of
molestation and rape with a nine year old child, as  such  the  trial  court
has rightly rejected the application dated 19.2.2015.


However, at this stage we are not inclined to express any opinion as to  the
merits of the prosecution case  or  defence  version.   The  only  point  of
relevance at present is  whether  the  accused  has  been  denied  right  of
defence or not.


Section 294 CrPC reads as under: -

“294. No formal proof of certain documents. –  (1)  Where  any  document  is
filed before any Court by the prosecution or the  accused,  the  particulars
of every such document shall be included in a list and  the  prosecution  or
the accused, as the case may be, or the pleader for the prosecution  or  the
accused, if any, shall be called upon to admit or deny  the  genuineness  of
each such document.

      (2) The list of documents shall be in such form as may  be  prescribed
by the State Government.

      (3) Where the genuineness  of  any  document  is  not  disputed,  such
document may be read in evidence in any inquiry, trial or  other  proceeding
under this Code without proof of the signature of  the  person  to  whom  it
purports to be signed:

       Provided  that  the  Court  may,  in  its  discretion,  require  such
signature to be proved.”


The object of Section 294 CrPC is to accelerate pace of  trial  by  avoiding
the time being wasted by the parties in recording the unnecessary  evidence.
 Where genuineness of any document is  admitted,  or  its  formal  proof  is
dispensed with, the same may  be  read  in  evidence.   Word  “document”  is
defined in Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, as under: -
“ ‘Document’ means any matter expressed or described upon any  substance  by
means of letters, figures or marks, or by more  than  one  of  those  means,
intended to be used, or which may be used,  for  the  purpose  of  recording
that matter.

                                Illustration

A writing is a document;
Words printed, lithographed or photographed are documents;
A map or plan is a document;
An inscription on a metal plate or stone is a document;
A caricature is a document.”


In R.M. Malkani vs. State of Maharashtra[1], this Court  has  observed  that
tape recorded conversation is admissible provided first the conversation  is
relevant to the matters in issue; secondly, there is identification  of  the
voice; and, thirdly, the accuracy  of  the  tape  recorded  conversation  is
proved by eliminating the possibility of erasing the tape record.

In Ziyauddin Barhanuddin Bukhari vs. Brijmohan Ramdass Mehra and  others[2],
it was held by this Court that tape-records of  speeches  were  “documents”,
as defined by Section 3 of the Evidence Act, which  stood  on  no  different
footing than photographs, and that  they  were  admissible  in  evidence  on
satisfying the following conditions:
“(a)  The  voice  of  the  person  alleged  to  be  speaking  must  be  duly
identified by the maker of the record or by others who know it.

(b)   Accuracy of what was actually recorded had to be proved by  the  maker
of the record and satisfactory evidence, direct or  circumstantial,  had  to
be there so as to rule out possibilities of tampering with the record.

(c)   The subject-matter recorded had to be shown to be  relevant  according
to rules of relevancy found in the Evidence Act.”

In view of the definition of ‘document’ in Evidence Act, and  the  law  laid
down by this Court, as discussed above, we hold that  the  compact  disc  is
also a document.  It is not necessary for the court to obtain  admission  or
denial on a document under sub-section (1) to Section  294  CrPC  personally
from the  accused  or  complainant  or  the  witness.   The  endorsement  of
admission or denial made by the counsel for defence, on the  document  filed
by the prosecution or on the application/report with which  same  is  filed,
is sufficient compliance of Section  294  CrPC.   Similarly  on  a  document
filed by the defence, endorsement of  admission  or  denial  by  the  public
prosecutor is sufficient and defence will have to prove the document if  not
admitted by the prosecution.  In  case  it  is  admitted,  it  need  not  be
formally proved, and can be read in evidence. In a complaint  case  such  an
endorsement can be made by the counsel for the  complainant  in  respect  of
document filed by the defence.

On going through the order dated 21.2.2015, passed by the  trial  court,  we
find that all the prosecution witnesses, including  the  child  victim,  her
mother Harjinder Kaur, maternal grandmother Parajit Kaur  and  Munish  Verma
have been examined.  Sandeep Verma (father of the victim)  appears  to  have
been discharged by the prosecution, and the evidence was closed.   From  the
copy of the  statement  of  accused  Shamsher  Singh  Verma  recorded  under
Section 313 CrPC (annexed as Annexure P-11 to the petition), it  is  evident
that in reply to second last question, the accused has alleged that  he  has
been implicated due to property  dispute.   It  is  also  stated  that  some
conversation is in possession of his son.  From the record it also  reflects
that Dhir Singh, Registration Clerk, Vipin Taneja, Document Writer,  Praveen
Kumar, Clerk-cum-Cashier, State Bank of Patiala, and Saurabh Verma,  son  of
the appellant have been  examined  as  defence  witnesses  and  evidence  in
defence is in progress.

We are not inclined to go into the truthfulness of the  conversation  sought
to be proved by the defence but, in  the  facts  and  circumstances  of  the
case, as discussed above, we are of the view  that  the  courts  below  have
erred in law in not allowing the application of the defence  to  get  played
the compact disc relating to conversation between father of the  victim  and
son and wife of the appellant regarding alleged property  dispute.   In  our
opinion, the courts below have erred in law in rejecting the application  to
play the compact disc in question to enable the public prosecutor  to  admit
or deny, and to get it sent to  the  Forensic  Science  Laboratory,  by  the
defence.  The appellant is in jail and there appears to be no  intention  on
his  part  to  unnecessarily  linger  the  trial,  particularly   when   the
prosecution witnesses have been examined.

Therefore, without expressing any opinion as to  the  final  merits  of  the
case, this appeal is allowed, and the orders passed by the courts below  are
set aside.  The application dated 19.2.2015 shall stand  allowed.   However,
in the facts and  circumstances  of  the  case,  it  is  observed  that  the
accused/appellant shall not be entitled to seek bail on the ground of  delay
of trial.


                                                          ………………….....…………J.
                                                  [Dipak Misra]




                                                            .………………….……………J.
                                                          [Prafulla C. Pant]
New Delhi;
November 24, 2015.

-----------------------
[1]    (1973) 1 SCC 471 : 1973 (2) SCR 417
[2]    (1976) 2 SCC 17 : 1975 (Supp) SCR 281


Section 2(15) “goods” means all kinds of movable property, whether tangible or intangible, other than newspapers, money, actionable claims, stocks, shares and securities, and includes materials, articles and commodities used in any form in the execution of works contract, livestock and all other things attached to or forming part of the land which is agreed to be served before sale or under the contract of sale.”= the assessee- company is engaged in the business of manufacturing Asbestos Cement Pressure Pipe and Asbestos Cement Sheets and it had availed ITC on the purchase of raw material used in the manufacture of A.C. Sheets. The assessing authority issued notice to the assessee for the purpose of disallowing ITC on purchase of raw material used in manufacturing A.C. Sheets for the period mentioned hereinabove and pursuant to the show cause notice the assessee filed a detailed reply and eventually the assessing authority passed orders under Section 22 of the Act disallowing the ITC and charged interest. The said orders were assailed before the Appellate Authority which declined to interfere with the orders appealed against, compelling the assessee to file second appeals before the Board which placed reliance on ACTO v. M/s. Suncity Trade Agency[1] and dismissed the appeals. The Board while dismissing the appeals opined that the assessee- Company, a manufacturing unit, had not been charged on the sales of its product, as per the notification which squarely fall under the definition of exempted goods and hence, the final product was exempted, but it was not entitled to avail ITC as the notification clearly postulated that the units/institution was not exempted from the tax but the sales of its goods were exempted from tax as per the definition of “Exempted Goods”.=Single Judge held that:- “In view of express language of Section 18(1)(e) of the Act, notifications S.O. 371 and S.O. 372 read with S.O. 377, the petitioner who is a manufacturer of A.C. Sheets is entitled to avail ITC and the authorities below were not justified in denying Input Tax Credit to the petitioner based on interpretation put by them on inclusion of the petitioner in Schedule-II under Section 8(3A) and notification S.O. 377 dated 09.03.2007 issued under Section 8(3) of the Act.” The expression of the said view and the ultimate setting aside of the orders of the Court below, as stated earlier, is the subject matter of assail in these appeals.= where the appellant wanted to restrict the benefit of ITC when a particular dealer or transaction was exempted, it was so stipulated in the exemption notification issued under Sections 8(3) and 8(4) of the Act. Such notifications admittedly do exist and were issued by the appellant. They are also right in drawing support from the note sheets relating to Finance Bill 2007 as also the communications issued by Commissioner of Commercial Taxes. The note sheets and the communication of the Commissioner draw a clear distinction between exemptions when the goods were not taxable as they do fall under the First Schedule and when an exemption was granted under the Second Schedule, which relates to specified transaction of sale or exempted dealers even when the goods were taxable goods. In latter cases, subsequent dealers undertaking sale of goods would be liable to pay tax on sale of such products. There can be no shadow of doubt that subsequent dealers undertaking sale of goods manufactured and sold by the respondent company would be liable to pay tax on such products.

                                 Reportable

                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

                        CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

                        CIVIL APPEAL NO. 2806 OF 2015



Commercial Taxes Officer                     ...   Appellant

                                   Versus

A Infrastructure Ltd.                                ...    Respondent


                                    WITH
                        CIVIL APPEAL NO. 2807 OF 2015
                        CIVIL APPEAL NO. 2808 OF 2015
                        CIVIL APPEAL NO. 2809 OF 2015
                        CIVIL APPEAL NO. 2810 OF 2015


                               J U D G M E N T


Dipak Misra, J.


      This batch of appeals, by special leave, calls in question  the  legal
acceptability of the common order dated 19th December, 2013  passed  by  the
learned Single Judge of the High  Court  of  Judicature  for  Rajasthan,  at
Jodhpur in a batch of revision petitions filed  by  the  assessee-respondent
assailing the judgment dated 23.11.2011 passed by the Rajasthan  Tax  Board,
Ajmer (for short ‘the Board’) in Appeal No. 680 of 2009 and other  connected
appeals whereby it had affirmed the decision  rendered  in  appeals  by  the
Deputy Commissioner (Appeals) who had upheld the  assessment  orders  passed
by the Commercial Taxes Officer in respect of various quarters of the  years
2006-2007, 2007-2008 and  2008-2009  disallowing  the  claim  of  Input  Tax
Credit (ITC) and charging interest under Sections 18, 22 and  55(4)  of  the
Rajasthan Value Added Tax Act, 2003 (for brevity “the 2003Act”).
2.    The facts giving rise to this batch of appeals are that the  assessee-
company  is  engaged  in  the  business  of  manufacturing  Asbestos  Cement
Pressure Pipe and Asbestos Cement Sheets and  it  had  availed  ITC  on  the
purchase of raw material used  in  the  manufacture  of  A.C.  Sheets.   The
assessing authority issued  notice  to  the  assessee  for  the  purpose  of
disallowing ITC on purchase of  raw  material  used  in  manufacturing  A.C.
Sheets for the period mentioned hereinabove and pursuant to the  show  cause
notice the assessee filed a detailed  reply  and  eventually  the  assessing
authority passed orders under Section 22 of the Act disallowing the ITC  and
charged interest.  The  said  orders  were  assailed  before  the  Appellate
Authority which declined to interfere  with  the  orders  appealed  against,
compelling the assessee to  file  second  appeals  before  the  Board  which
placed reliance on ACTO v. M/s. Suncity Trade Agency[1]  and  dismissed  the
appeals. The Board while dismissing the appeals opined  that  the  assessee-
Company, a manufacturing unit, had not been charged  on  the  sales  of  its
product, as per the notification which squarely fall  under  the  definition
of exempted goods and hence, the final product was exempted, but it was  not
entitled to avail ITC  as  the  notification  clearly  postulated  that  the
units/institution was not exempted from the tax but the sales of  its  goods
were exempted from tax as per the definition of “Exempted Goods”.
3.    The grievance of  dismissal  constrained  the  assessee  to  file  the
revision petitions before the High Court, and seeking  interference  in  the
revision petition it was contended that the scheme of Section 8 of  the  Act
which deals with exemption of tax and  the  notification  issued  under  the
Rajasthan Sales Tax Act, 1994 (for short, ‘the 1994 Act’)  and  the  various
notifications issued under the said Act from time to  time  deal  with  A.C.
Sheets and in view of the postulates laid down  in  the  notification  dated
09.03.2007,  issued  under  sub-section  (3A)  of  Section  8  wherein   the
manufacturer of asbestos cement sheets and bricks have  been  exempted  and,
therefore, it could not  be  said  that  A.C.  Sheets  manufactured  by  the
assessee were exempted goods which is  the  pre-requisite  for  denying  ITC
under Section 18 of the Act.  Reliance was placed on the  judgment  of  ACTO
v. Abishek Granites Ltd.[2] to buttress the proposition  that  exemption  to
unit is different from the exemption to  the  transaction  of  sale  of  the
commodity.  It was also highlighted before the  High  Court  that  when  two
views are possible, the view in favour of the assessee  should  be  accepted
and for the  said  purpose  reliance  was  placed  on  CIT  v.  Kulu  Valley
Transport Co. (P) Ltd[3].  The  background  of  the  issue  of  notification
dated  09.03.2007  and  the  communication  issued  by   the   Commissioner,
Commercial Taxes, Rajasthan, Jodhpur were stressed upon to bolster the  plea
that assessee was exempted from tax and not the A.C. Sheets manufactured  by
it.
4.    The stand of the assessee was controverted by the revenue  contending,
inter alia, that vide notification S.O. 372, manufacturers of A.  C.  Sheets
and Bricks were included at S. No. 20 in  Schedule-II,  which  entitles  the
units  to  claim  exemption  on  the  sale  of  manufactured  goods  on  the
fulfillment of certain conditions and in view  of  the  specific  conditions
stipulated in Section 18(1)(A) of the Act, ITC was  not  allowed.   Reliance
was placed on notification S.O. 377, dated 09.03.2007 issued  under  Section
8(3) of the Act to harp that A.C. Sheets clearly fall  within  the  category
of exempted goods.  Reference  was  made  to  the  definition  of  ‘exempted
goods’ and ‘goods’ contained in Section 2(13) & (15) of  the  Act.   It  was
further submitted that irrespective of whether the notification  was  issued
under sub-Section (1) or (3) or (3A) or (4), the  goods  would  fall  within
the definition of exempted goods and consequently the assessee would not  be
entitled to ITC.  For the said purpose, reliance  was  placed  on  M/s.  Sun
City Trade Agency (supra).
5.    The High Court referred to the  dictionary  clause  as  enumerated  in
Section 2(13) which deals with “exempted goods”, Section 2(15) that  defines
the terms “goods”, Section 8 which  provides  for  “exemption  of  tax”  and
Section 18 which deals with “Input Tax Credit and  thereafter,  referred  to
the notification dated 16.03.2005 under the 1994 Act and  the  notifications
dated 01.06.2006, 05.07.2006,  09.03.2007  and  the  amendment  notification
issued on the same day  by  the  Finance  Department  (Tax  Division).   The
learned  Single  Judge  analysed  the  provisions  of  the   Act   and   the
notifications and took note of the fact that under the  1994  Act  exemption
granted  related  to  sale  of  A.C.  Sheets  and  Bricks,  subject  to  the
conditions indicated  therein.   The  High  Court  further  noted  that  the
notification dated 01.06.2006 which had been issued  in  exercise  of  power
under Section 8(2) and Schedule-I which was  amended  and  A.C.  Sheets  and
Bricks having contents of fly ash 25% more than by weight  was  inserted  as
entry 60A, and further adverted to the notification issued  under  the  same
provision, on 05.07.2006 vide which the Schedule-I  was  amended  and  entry
60A was substituted. After so stating, the learned Single Judge referred  to
the notifications issued on 09.03.2007 that deals with A.C. Sheets and  also
noted the fact that vide S.O. 371 issued under Section 8(2) of the Act,  the
existing entry 60A was deleted from  Schedule-I  and  further  by  S.O.  377
issued under Section 8(3A) of the Act which pertained to  “manufacturers  of
asbestos cement  sheets  and  bricks”  were  added  in  Schedule-II  and  it
provides the conditions for availing exemption for sale of A.C.  Sheets  and
Bricks manufactured in the state.
6.    On the aforesaid basis, the Court proceeded to  further  observe  that
by notification dated 16.03.2005 under the 1994 Act  and  the  notifications
dated 16.02.2006 and 05.07.2006  read  with  notification  dated  09.03.2007
A.C. Sheets and Bricks were exempted.  The goods, that is,  A.C. Sheets  and
Bricks were taken out by S.O. 371 and the manufacturers of A.C.  Sheets  and
Bricks were exempted by inclusion in Schedule-II by S.O. 372 and  conditions
for availing such exemption by the  manufacturers  were  indicated  by  S.O.
377. On the basis of the aforesaid analysis,  the  revisional  Court  opined
that it is significant that while S.O. 371 had  been  issued  under  Section
8(2) of the Act, S.O. 372 and 377 had been issued under  Section  8(3A)  and
(3) respectively, which provisions,  as  noticed  hereinbefore,  dealt  with
Schedule-I under Section 8(2) and Schedule-II under Sections 8(3) and  (3A),
which in turn related  to  exemption  of  goods  and  exemption  of  persons
respectively, therefore, it was apparent from the  notifications  issued  on
09.03.2007 that the intention of the State was to exempt  the  manufacturers
of A.C. Sheets and Bricks subject to fulfillment of conditions as  indicated
in S.O. 377 and to take away exemption available to A.C. Sheets  and  Bricks
as goods, as was available before the said date on account of its  inclusion
in Schedule-I.
7.    As the impugned order would show, the  High  Court  distinguished  the
judgment rendered in Sun City Trade Agency (supra), on the ground  that  the
said decision dealt with a  situation  wherein  the  exemption  notification
pertaining to stainless steel flats, ingots and billets were  exempted  from
tax on the conditions indicated in the notification and  it  had  been  held
therein that merely because the exemption is conditional  or  given  subject
to fulfillment of certain conditions it does not mean that such goods  would
fall outside the definition of exempted goods.
8.    The learned Single Judge  referred  to  the  definition  contained  in
Section 2(13) of the Act which  deals  with  exempted  goods  and  not  with
exemption of person or class as indicated in Section 8(3) of  the  Act,  and
observed that the intention of  the  legislature  in  incorporating  Section
18(1)(e) of the Act takes away the exempted goods from the  purview  of  the
ITC and not the person or class of persons exempted under Section  8(3)  and
the intention of the legislature was not to include exempted  goods  in  the
category of exempted persons as mentioned in Section 18(1)(e)  of  the  Act,
and hence, it was demonstrable  that  the  goods  and  dealers  are  treated
separately and the same was also evident from the provision of Section 5  of
the Act.
9.    As is evident, the High Court further  proceeded  to  opine  that  the
goods included in Schedule-II were entitled for ITC  inasmuch  as  the  said
conditions indicated for exemption related to  Self-Help  Groups  and  those
who had been registered with the Khadi and Village Industries Commission  or
Rajasthan Khadi and Village Industries Board by the notifications  S.O.  376
and S.O. 378 issued on 09.03.2007 wherein a specific  stipulation  had  been
made to the extent that no  input  tax  credit  shall  be  claimed  by  such
dealers in respect of purchase of raw  materials  used  for  manufacture  of
aforesaid goods.  Thereafter, the High Court proceeded to observe:-
“If the persons included in Schedule-II were  not  entitled  to  claim  ITC,
there was no reason to include the  said  conditions  for  the  above  noted
persons. Apparently, it is the sale of  goods  made  by  person  or  persons
included in Schedule-II, which is exempt and not the goods  manufactured  by
them, whereas, for  denying  ITC,  the  requirement  is  that  of  ‘exempted
goods’.”


10.   Being of this view the learned Single Judge held that:-
“In view of express language of Section 18(1)(e) of the  Act,  notifications
S.O. 371 and  S.O.  372  read  with  S.O.  377,  the  petitioner  who  is  a
manufacturer of A.C. Sheets is entitled to avail  ITC  and  the  authorities
below were not justified in denying  Input  Tax  Credit  to  the  petitioner
based on interpretation put by  them  on  inclusion  of  the  petitioner  in
Schedule-II under Section 8(3A) and notification S.O. 377  dated  09.03.2007
issued under Section 8(3) of the Act.”

11.   The expression of the said view and the ultimate setting aside of  the
orders of the Court below, as stated  earlier,  is  the  subject  matter  of
assail in these appeals.

12.  We have heard Mr. Shovan Mishra and Mr. Milind Kumar,  learned  counsel
for the appellant and Mr.  Paras  Kuhad,  learned  senior  counsel  for  the
respondent.

13.   To appreciate the controversy at hand, it is necessary  to  scrutinize
the various provisions of the Act  and  the  notifications  that  have  been
issued from time to time. Section 2(13) and 2(15)  define  “exempted  goods”
and “goods” respectively, and they are extracted below:-
“Section 2(13) “Exempted  goods”  means  any  goods  exempted  from  tax  in
accordance with the provisions of this Act;

      xxx        xxx         xxx
Section 2(15) “goods” means all kinds of movable property, whether  tangible
or intangible, other than  newspapers,  money,  actionable  claims,  stocks,
shares and securities, and  includes  materials,  articles  and  commodities
used in any form in the execution  of  works  contract,  livestock  and  all
other things attached to or forming part of the land which is agreed  to  be
served before sale or under the contract of sale.”

14.   Section 8 deals with exemption of tax and Section  18  lays  down  the
method, the manner and the conditions prescribed for availing the input  tax
credit. Section 8 and the relevant portion  of  Section  18  are  reproduced
below:-

“Section 8 – Exemption of tax –

(1)   The goods specified in  the  Schedule-I  shall  be  exempt  from  tax,
subject to such conditions as may be specified therein.

(2)   Subject to such conditions as it  may  impose,  the  State  Government
may, if it  considers  necessary  so  to  do  in  the  public  interest,  by
notification in the Official Gazette, add to  or  omit  from,  or  otherwise
amend or  modify  the  Schedule-I,  prospectively  or  retrospectively,  and
thereupon the Schedule shall be deemed to have been amended accordingly.

(3)   The State Government in the public interest, by  notification  in  the
Official Gazette, may exempt whether prospectively or  retrospectively  from
tax the sale or purchase by any person or class of persons as  mentioned  in
Schedule-II, without  any  condition  or  with  such  condition  as  may  be
specified in the notification.

(3A)  Subject to such conditions as it  may  impose,  the  State  Government
may, if it  considers  necessary  so  to  do  in  the  public  interest,  by
notification in the Official Gazette, add to  or  omit  from,  or  otherwise
amend or modify  the  Schedule-II,  prospectively  or  retrospectively,  and
thereupon the Schedule shall be deemed to have been amended accordingly.

(4)   The State Government may, if it  considers  necessary  in  the  public
interest so to do, notify grant of exemption from payment of  whole  of  tax
payable under this Act in respect of any class of  sales  or  purchases  for
the purpose of promoting the scheme of Special Economic Zones  or  promoting
exports,  subject  to  such  conditions  as  may  be  laid   down   in   the
notification.

(5)   Every notification issued under this section shall be  laid,  as  soon
as may be after it is so issued, before the House of the State  Legislature,
while it is in session for a period of not less  than  30  days,  which  may
comprised in one session or in two successive sessions  and  if  before  the
expiry of the sessions and if before the expiry of the sessions in which  it
is so laid or of the session immediately following the House  of  the  State
Legislature makes any modification in such  notification  or  resolves  that
any such notification should not be  issued,  such  notification  thereafter
have effect only in such modified form or be of no effect, as the  case  may
be, so however, that any such modification or  annulment  shall  be  without
prejudice to the validity of anything previously done thereunder.”

Section 18 – Input Tax Credit:-
(1)   Input tax credit shall be allowed, to registered dealers,  other  than
the dealers covered by sub-section  (2)  of  Section  3  or  Section  5,  in
respect  of purchase of any taxable goods  made  within  the  State  from  a
registered dealer to the extent and in such manner  as  may  be  prescribed,
for the purpose of :-

(a)   sale within the State of Rajasthan or;

(b)   sale in the course of Inter-State trade and commerce; or

(c)   sale in the course of export outside the territory of India; or

(d)   being used as packing material of goods, other  than  exempted  goods,
for sale; or

(e)   being used as raw material except those as  may  be  notified  by  the
State Government in the manufacture of goods other than exempted goods,  for
sale within the State or in the course of Inter-State trade or commerce; or

(f)   ........

(g)   ........”


15.   As has been stated earlier, the High Court  has  referred  to  various
notifications. The notification dated 16th  March,  2005  was  issued  under
Section 15 of the Rajasthan Sales Tax Act, 1994. It is as under:-
“Notification dated 16.03.2005 under the Act of 1994:-

S. No. 1874; F.4(78)FD/Tax/2004-168 dated 16.03.2005

      In exercise of the powers conferred by section  15  of  the  Rajasthan
Sales Tax Act 1994 (Rajasthan Act No. 22 of 1995)  and  in  supersession  of
this Department’s Notification No. F.4/(68)FD/Tax-Div/99-271  (S.No.  1147),
dated,  January  24,  2000  (as  amended  from  time  to  time),  the  State
Government being of the opinion that it is expedient in the public  interest
so to do, hereby exempts form tax the sale of  asbestos  cement  sheets  and
bricks, manufactured in the State by an industrial unit having  fly  ash  as
its main raw material on the following conditions, namely:-

that such fly ash shall constitute  twenty  five  percent  or  more  in  the
contents by weight of such asbestos cement sheets and bricks; and

that such unit commences commercial production by 31.12.2006.

This notification shall remain in force upto 23.1.2010.”

16.   The said notification as mentioned therein  was  to  remain  in  force
upto  23.1.2010.  When  the  said  notification   was   in   vogue   another
notification dated 1.6.2006 was issued under Section 8 of the 2003 Act.  The
said notification is as under:-
                       “Notification
                                                  Jaipur, Dated : 01.06.2006

In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (2) of Section 8  of  the
Rajasthan Value Added Tax Act, 2003 (Rajasthan  Act  No.  4  of  2003),  the
State Government being of the opinion that it is  expedient  in  the  public
interest so  to  do,  hereby  makes  the  following  further  amendments  is
SCHEDULE-I appended to the said Act; namely :-
                                 AMENDMENTS

After the existing S.No. 60 and before S.No. 61, the following  new  S.  No.
and entries thereto shall be inserted, namely :-







17.   On 05.07.2006 another notification  was  issued  in  exercise  of  the
powers conferred by sub-section (2)  of  Section  8  of  the  2003  Act.  On
09.03.2007, S.O. 371 was issued by the  Finance  Department  (Tax  Division)
vide which S. No. 68A from Schedule-I appended to the Act (2)  deleted.  May
it  be  noted  that  S.  No.  60A  was  substituted  by  notification  dated
05.07.2006 which has been referred to hereinbefore.

18.   The notification dated 09.03.2007, S.O. 372 was issued by the  Finance
Department (Tax Division)  and  the  said  department  also  issued  another
notification on the same day which is relevant. Both the  notifications  are
reproduced below:-

                  “Notification dated 09.03.2007 S.O. 372:-
                             FINANCE DEPARTMENT
                               (TAX DIVISION)

                       NOTIFICATION
                  Jaipur, March 9, 2007

S.O. 372 – In exercise of  the  powers  conferred  by  sub-section  (3A)  of
Section 8 of the Rajasthan Value Added Tax Act, 2003 (Rajasthan  Act  No.  4
of 2003), the State Government being of the opinion that it is expedient  in
the public interest so to do,  hereby  makes  the  following  amendments  is
Schedule-II appended to the said Act, namely :-

                                 AMENDMENTS

In Schedule-II appended to the said Act:-

(1)   ........
(2)   After the existing S.No.18  and  entries  thereto  the  following  new
S.Nos. and entries thereto shall be added; namely :-

|19  |Self Help Group                            |    |
|20  |Manufacturers of asbestos cement sheets and|    |
|    |bricks                                     |    |


                   Notification dated 09.03.2007, S.O. 377

                             “FINANCE DEPARTMENT
  (TAX DIVISION)

                                NOTIFICATION
                              Jaipur, March 9, 2007

S.O. 377 – In exercise  of  the  powers  conferred  by  sub-section  (3)  of
Section 8 of the Rajasthan Value Added Tax Act, 2003 (Rajasthan  Act  No.  4
of 2003), the State Government being of the opinion that it is expedient  in
the public interest so to do, hereby exempts from payment of tax,  the  sale
of asbestos cement sheets and  bricks  manufacturers  in  the  State  having
contents of fly ash  twenty  five  per  cent  or  more  by  weight,  on  the
following conditions, namely :-

(1)   that the goods shall be entered in  the  registration  certificate  of
the selling dealer;

(2)   that the exemption shall be for such goods manufactured by the  dealer
who commenced commercial production in the State by 31.12.2006; and

(3)   that the exemption shall be available up to 23.01.2010.”

19.   As we find the High Court in the impugned order has  referred  to  the
provisions of the Act and the notifications.   On a careful scrutiny of  the
order passed by the High Court, it is perceivable that it has  proceeded  on
the foundation that there is a distinction between the  exempted  units  and
exempted  sales,  and  finally  manufactured  sales  area,  or  to  put   it
differently, the final transactions of goods or a sale when it takes  place.
Thus, the distinction as laid down by the learned Single Judge is  based  on
exemption of unit and exemption on transaction or sale.
20.   On an analysis of the scheme of the Act, it is manifest that there  is
difference between exempted goods, i.e., goods on which no Value  Added  Tax
is payable  and  are,  therefore,  not  taxable  and  other  cases  where  a
particular transaction when it satisfies specific condition is not  taxable.
 In this regard reference to the authority in State of Tamil  Nadu  v.  M.K.
Kandaswami & others[4], would be seemly, for  this  Court  had  adverted  to
three distinct concepts; taxable persons, taxable goods and  taxable  events
and how they were distinguished.  It was observed in the said case  that  if
the said distinction  is  overlooked,  it  may  lead  to  serious  error  in
construction and application of a taxing provision  or  enactment.   In  the
case of taxable or non-taxable/exempted  goods,  the  focal  point  and  the
focus is  on  the  character  and  class  of  goods  in  relation  to  their
exigibility.  Referring to the provisions  of  Section  7-A  of  the  Madras
General Sales Tax, 1959, the expression in the Act “taxable goods”,  it  was
opined as regards the goods mentioned in the First Schedule of the Act  that
the sale and purchase was liable to  tax  at  the  rate  and  at  the  point
specified therein.  It was further held that the  goods  which  were  exempt
were not taxable goods and, therefore, could not be brought  to  charge  and
taxed.  However, notwithstanding the goods being taxable goods, there  could
be circumstances in a given case by reason of which  a  particular  sale  or
purchase would not attract sales tax.
21.   Be it noted, in the said decision, Section 7-A of the  Madras  General
Sales Tax Act, 1959, which reads as under, fell for consideration:-
“(1) Every dealer who in  the  course  of  his  business  purchases  from  a
registered dealer or from any other person, any goods (the sale or  purchase
of which is liable to tax under this Act) in circumstances in which  no  tax
is payable under Sections 3, 4 or 5, as the case may be, and either-

(a) consumes such goods in the  manufacture  of  other  goods  for  sale  or
otherwise; or

(b) disposes of such goods in any manner other than by way of  sale  in  the
State; or

(c) dispatches them to a place outside the State except as a  direct  result
of sale or purchase in the course of inter-State trade  or  commerce,  shall
pay tax on the turnover relating to  the  purchase  aforesaid  at  the  rate
mentioned in Sections 3, 4 or 5 as the case may be whatever be  the  quantum
of such turnover in a year:

Provided that a dealer (other than a  casual  trader  or  agent  of  a  non-
resident dealer) purchasing goods the sale of which is liable to  tax  under
sub-section (1) of Section 3 shall not be liable to pay tax under this  sub-
section, if his total turnover for a year is less than twenty-five  thousand
rupees.”

      Section 7-A, it was observed, provided for such situations  where  the
goods were taxable goods in the hands of the purchasing dealer,  if  any  of
the conditions (a), (b) and (c)  of  sub-section  (1)  of  Section  7-A  was
satisfied.  In the facts of the case, it  was  noticed  that  the  goods  in
question were chargeable to tax as they were taxable  goods  under  Schedule
I, but exemption had been granted.   Reversing  the  decision  of  the  High
Court, reference was made to an earlier decision of  the  Supreme  Court  in
Ganesh Prasad Dixit Vs. Commissioner of  Sales  Tax[5]  and  a  decision  of
Kerala High Court in Malabar Fruit  Products  Co.  Vs.  Sales  Tax  Officer,
Palai[6] (1972) 30 STC 537 (Ker).
22.   With reference to the decision in Ganesh Prasad Dixit (supra) and  the
language in Madhya Pradesh General Tax Act, 1959, it was observed:
“29. The impugned Section 7-A is based on Section 7 of  the  Madhya  Pradesh
Act.  Although the language  of  these  two  provisions  is  not  completely
identical, yet their substance and object are  the  same.   Instead  of  the
longish phrase, “the goods, the sale or purchase of which is liable  to  tax
under this Act” employed in Section 7-A of the Madras Act, Section 7 of  the
Madhya Pradesh Act conveys the very connotation  by  using  the  convenient,
terse expression, “taxable goods”.  The ratio  decidendi  of  Ganesh  Prasad
(supra)  is  therefore,  an  apposite  guide  for  construing  Section  7-A.
Unfortunately, that decision, it seems, was not brought  to  the  notice  of
the learned Judges of the High Court.”

23.   With reference to Kerala General Sales Tax,  1963,  this  Court  noted
the following reasoning given by the Single Judge of the Kerala  High  Court
:-
“32.  Holding that  Section  5-A,  was  valid  and  intra  vires  the  State
Legislature, the learned Judge explained the scheme of the section, thus:-

      Though normally a sale by a registered dealer or by a dealer  attracts
tax, there may be circumstances under which the seller  may  not  be  liable
as, for example, when his turnover is below the specified minimum.  In  such
cases the “goods” are liable to be taxed,  but  the  sales  takes  place  in
circumstances in which no tax is payable  at  the  point  in  which  tax  is
levied under the Act.  If the goods are  not  available  in  the  State  for
subsequent  taxation  by  reason  of  one  or  other  of  the  circumstances
mentioned in clauses (a), (b) and (c) of Section 5A(1) of the Act  then  the
purchaser is sought to be made liable under Section 5A.

                                   *  *  *

      Another instance I can conceive of is  a  case  of  a  dealer  selling
agricultural or horticultural produce grown by him or grown in any  land  in
which he has interested, whether as owner,  usufructuary  mortgagee,  tenant
or otherwise.  From the definition of “turnover” in  Section  2  (xxvii)  of
the Act it is evident that the proceeds of such sale would be excluded  from
the turnover of a person who sells goods produced  by  him  by  manufacture,
agriculture, horticulture or otherwise,  though  merely  by  such  sales  he
satisfies the definition of ‘dealer’  in  the  Act.   Thus,  such  a  person
selling such produce is treated as a dealer within the meaning  of  the  Act
and the sales are of goods which are taxable  under  the  Act  but  when  he
sells these goods, it is not part of his turnover.  Therefore, it is a  case
of a dealer selling goods liable to tax under the Act  in  circumstances  in
which no tax is payable under the Act.  In such a  case,  the  purchaser  is
sought to be taxed under Section 5A provided the conditions  are  satisfied.
The case of growers selling  goods  to  persons  to  whom  Section  5A  thus
applies is covered by this example.”

24.   In CST v. Pine Chemicals Limited[7], this Court  posed  the  following
question:-
“7.   The simple question before us is whether the Bench which decided  Pine
Chemicals is right in holding that the benefit of the  said  sub-section  is
available even where the goods are exempted  with  reference  to  industrial
unit and for a specified period, viz., period of five years  from  the  date
the relevant unit goes into production.  In other  words,  the  question  is
whether an exemption of the nature granted under Government  Order  No.  159
dated 26-03-1971 is an exemption available “only in specified  circumstances
or under specified conditions” within the  meaning  of  the  Explanation  to
Section 8(2-A), as contended by the State or is it a case  where  the  goods
are exempt from the tax ‘generally’ within the meaning  of  Section  8(2-A),
as contended by the respondents/dealers? We are  of  the  opinion  that  the
respondents/dealers’ contention cannot be accepted in view of the clear  and
unambiguous language of the sub-section.”

25.   Thus, the Court drew a distinction  between  goods,  generally  exempt
from tax after noticing that Section 8(2A) of  the  Central  Sales  Tax  Act
specifically uses the expression “exempt from tax generally  or  subject  to
tax generally at a rate which is lower than 4%”,  and  accordingly  observed
that when the goods are exempt under certain specified circumstances  alone,
the  exemption  is  not  a  general,  but  a  conditional  one.    In   such
circumstances, it cannot  be  said  that  the  goods  are  exempt  from  tax
generally for the exemption may vary from unit  to  unit  and  would  depend
upon date of commencement of production of each unit.   Reference  was  made
to  earlier  decision  in  Indian  Aluminium  Cables  Limited  v.  State  of
Haryana[8], wherein it has been held that exemption from tax when  conferred
by conditions or in certain circumstances, there was no exemption  from  tax
generally.
26.   At this juncture, we are required to  understand  the  effect  of  the
principles spelt out in above decisions especially in  K.N.  Kandaswami  and
Others (supra) on the facts of the present case.  There is no doubt  that  a
distinction has to be drawn between exempted  goods,  which  means  complete
exemption for the specified goods, and when the  goods  are  taxable  goods,
but a transaction or a person is granted  exemption.   When  the  goods  are
exempt, there would be no taxable transactions or  exemption  to  a  taxable
person.  In other cases, goods might be  taxable,  but  exemption  could  be
given  in  respect  of  a  taxable  event,  i.e.,  exemption  to   specified
transactions from liability of tax or exemption to a taxable person,  though
the goods are taxable.  Such exemptions operate in circumscribed  boundaries
and not as expansive as in the  case  of  taxable  goods.   Exemptions  with
reference to taxable events or taxable persons would not  exempt  the  goods
as such, for a  subsequent  transaction  or  when  the  goods  are  sold  or
purchased by a non-specified  person,  the  subsequent  transaction  or  the
taxable person would be liable to pay tax.  It is, in this context,  it  has
been  highlighted  by  the  respondent  and,  in  our  opinion,   absolutely
correctly that Section 4 of the Act provides for levy of tax in a  situation
where the goods,  which  were  not  exempted  but  could  otherwise  not  be
subjected to tax on account of  exemption  granted  to  a  person  or  to  a
transaction.  The  goods  remain  taxable  goods  through  exemption  stands
granted to a particular individual or a specified transaction.   That  being
so, all subsequent transactions in those goods, which are  not  specifically
exempt and not undertaken by  an  exempted  person  could  be  subjected  to
taxation.  Therefore, the appellant though exempted  from  payment  of  tax,
subsequent transactions of sale of asbestos cement sheets would be  taxable.
The transaction of sale by the manufacturer/dealer covered by the  exemption
notifications issued under Section 8(3) of the Act would be protected or  an
exempted transaction, but the  goods  not  being  exempted  goods  would  be
taxable and could be taxed on the happening of a taxable or charging  event.
 It is simply because the goods are not exempt from tax or  exempted  goods,
but are taxable.  As a logical corollary it follows  that  the  Value  Added
Tax would have to be paid on the taxable goods in a  subsequent  transaction
by the purchasing dealer.
27.   As a sequitur, we are obliged to observe that  if  the  contention  of
the appellant is to be accepted, the respondent though covered by  exemption
notification under Section 8(3) of  the  Act  could  be  at  a  disadvantage
because finally when the subsequent sale is made by  a  non-exempted  dealer
or tax stands paid on the non-exempted transfer, the goods,  i.e.,  asbestos
cement sheet, would suffer the tax on the entire sale  consideration.   This
would place an exempted manufacturer-dealer at  a  disadvantageous  position
and make his products uncompetitive inspite of the  exemption  notifications
under Section 8(3) of the Act.
28.   In the context of the issue in question, the respondents have  rightly
highlighted that where the appellant wanted to restrict the benefit  of  ITC
when a particular dealer or transaction was exempted, it was  so  stipulated
in the exemption notification issued under Sections 8(3)  and  8(4)  of  the
Act.  Such  notifications  admittedly  do  exist  and  were  issued  by  the
appellant.  They are also right in drawing  support  from  the  note  sheets
relating  to  Finance  Bill  2007  as  also  the  communications  issued  by
Commissioner of Commercial Taxes.  The note sheets and the communication  of
the Commissioner draw a clear distinction between exemptions when the  goods
were not taxable as they do fall  under  the  First  Schedule  and  when  an
exemption was granted under the Second Schedule, which relates to  specified
transaction of sale or exempted dealers even when  the  goods  were  taxable
goods.  In latter cases, subsequent dealers undertaking sale of goods  would
be liable to pay tax on sale of such products.  There can be  no  shadow  of
doubt that subsequent dealers undertaking sale  of  goods  manufactured  and
sold by the respondent company would be liable to pay tax on such products.
29.   In view of the aforesaid premised reasons, we do not  find  any  merit
in these appeals and accordingly they stand dismissed.  There  shall  be  no
order as to costs.



                                             .............................J.
                                                               [Dipak Misra]



                                             ..........................., J.
                                                          [Prafulla C. Pant]
New Delhi
November 24, 2015
-----------------------
[1]    (2006) 147 STC 405
[2]    23 Tax-world 285
[3]    (1970) 2 SCC 192
[4]    (1975) 4 SCC 745
[5]     (1969) 1 SCC 492
[6]     (1972) 30 STC 537 (Ker)
[7]    (1995) 1 SCC 58
[8]    (1976) 4 SCC 27

-----------------------
|“60A.   |Asbestos cement     |Subject to the condition|
|        |sheets and bricks   |of entry in Registration|
|        |having contents of  |Certificate of the      |
|        |fly ash 25% or more |selling dealer.”        |
|        |by weight.          |                        |





-----------------------
28


first object of the three charities mentioned in the Will, is of private Trust and the rest are of public Trust and therefore, the respondent no.1 and 2 therein, have power under Section 64 of the Tamil Nadu Hindu Religious and Charitable Endowment Act, 1959, to frame a scheme, in so far as, the public Trust is concerned.=Supply of food on Chitra Pournami day every year has to be done when God Kallalagar is taken in procession through the Vaigai river on way to Vandiur, is the second charity mentioned in the Will. It is necessary to refer at this stage to some of the relevant provisions of the Act. “Religious institution” has been defined in Section 6(18) as meaning a math, temple or specific endowment. “Specific endowment” in Section 6(19) reads thus: “any property or money endowed for the performance of any specific service or charity in a math or temple or for the performance of any other religious charity but does not include an inam of the nature described in Explanation (1) to Clause (17)”. “Religious charity” is defined in Section 6(16) as meaning a public charity associated with a Hindu festival or observance of a religious character, whether it be connected with a math or temple or not. “Religious endowment” or “endowment” has been defined in Section 6(17) to mean all property belonging to or given or endowed for the support of maths or temples, or given or endowed for the performance of any service or charity of a public nature connected therewith or of any other religious charity, and includes the institution concerned and also the premises thereof but does not include gifts or property made as personal gifts to the Archaka, Service holder or other employee of a religious institution.=The charities of offering Neivedyam to Swami during Punguni Uthiaram festival and the feeding by way of Pundhi Bojanam on the occasion of God Kallalagar passing through Vaigai river to Vandiyur on Chitra Pournami day are religious charities and constitute a service to the Deity in the temple and in our view, the High Court is right in concluding that the framing of a scheme in respect of these matters is within the ambit of powers vested under Section 64 of the Act.


                                 REPORTABLE

                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
                        CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
                        CIVIL APPEAL NO. 2401 OF 2003


K.S. Soundararajan and Ors.       ..         Appellants

                                   versus

Commissioner of H.R. & C.E.
and Ors.                                ..         Respondents




                               J U D G M E N T



C. NAGAPPAN, J.



1.    This appeal  is  preferred  against  the  judgment  and  decree  dated
13.12.2000 passed by the High Court  of  Judicature  at  Madras  in  Letters
Patent Appeal No.183 of 1994, wherein  the  Division  Bench  held  that  the
first object of the three charities mentioned in the  Will,  is  of  private
Trust and the rest are of public Trust and therefore,  the  respondent  no.1
and 2 therein,  have  power  under  Section  64  of  the  Tamil  Nadu  Hindu
Religious and Charitable Endowment Act, 1959, to frame a scheme, in  so  far
as, the public Trust is concerned.





2.    Briefly the facts are summarized as follows :  One  Sundararaja  Naidu
had no male issues, except two daughters and his brother’s son is  Kondasamy
Naidu  and  he  executed  a  registered  Will  dated  7.12.1949  bequeathing
properties mentioned in Item nos.1, 2 and 3 absolutely  in  favour  of  them
and directed Kondasamy Naidu to be in possession of Item  no.4  and  perform
the charities mentioned in the Will from out  of  the  income  of  the  said
properties and prohibited the alienation of the said item  of  land.   Later
Kondasamy Naidu alienated a portion of land in Item no.4  in  the  Will  and
claimed to have purchased  some  other  properties  from  out  of  the  sale
proceeds.





3.    Five persons claiming to belong  to  the  community  of  the  testator
filed application before the Deputy Commissioner  for  Hindu  Religious  and
Charitable Endowments under Section 64 of H.R. &  C.E.  Act  for  setting  a
scheme in respect of the charities mentioned  in  the  Will  of  Sundararaja
Naidu.  The Deputy Commissioner held that the Trust is a private  Trust  and
no scheme could be framed.  On  appeal  his  order  was  set  aside  by  the
Commissioner, who held that the  Trust  is  a  public  Trust  and  charities
required to be performed are religious charities and the  beneficiaries  are
the members of the public and a scheme could be framed and in fact  required
to be framed.  Meanwhile Kondasamy Naidu died and his legal  representatives
instituted a statutory suit for setting aside the order of the  Commissioner
referred to supra.  The trial court dismissed  the  suit  and  judgment  was
affirmed by a single Judge of the High  Court  and  in  the  Letters  Patent
Appeal preferred, the Division Bench modified the order of the  Commissioner
to the extent that the  scheme  to  be  framed  shall  be  confined  to  the
specific endowments attached to the temple,  namely,  performance  of  Pooja
and Neivedyam to Subramania Swami on the occasion of Panguni Uthiram and  by
feeding by way of Pundhi Bojanam on the occasion of God  Kallalagar  passing
through Vaigai river on the Chitra Pournami day  to  Vandiyur.   Challenging
the same the plaintiffs have preferred the present Civil Appeal.



4.    Mr.  R.  Venkataramani,  learned  senior  counsel  appearing  for  the
appellants contended that the pious acts to be  performed  under  the  Will,
have no relationship whatsoever to the Deities mentioned  and  there  is  no
charitable  activity  of  public   character  and  the  pious  acts  do  not
constitute public Trust and the High Court  misconstrued  Section  64(1)  of
the Act by misreading the Will and  by  holding  that  the  term  ‘attached’
occurring in the explanation  under  Section  64(1)  has  to  be  understood
broadly. Per contra  the  learned  counsel  appearing  for  the  respondents
contended that  the  High  Court  has  rightly  held  that  the  pious  acts
mentioned  in the Will are religious charities and the framing of scheme  in
respect of it, is within the ambit of power conferred under  Section  64  of
the Act.





5.    Provision  is made in  the  Will  for  the  performance  of  following
charities:

“1)   During Panguni festival at Thirupparankundram  every  year   according
to income supplying of food to the people of our own  caste  and  performing
poojas and neivadhiyam to Swami without fail.



2)    Also every year on  Chitra  Pournami  when  Kallalagar  entering  into
Vaigai River and going to Vandiur, supplying of food called Arasa.”





6.          The Presiding Deity  of  the  temple  at  Thirupparankundram  is
Subramaniaswami and the performance of  Neivedyam  and  Pooja  to  the  said
Swami during festival mentioned as first charity is clearly a service to  be
rendered to the Deity in the Temple.  Supply of  food  on   Chitra  Pournami
day every year has to be done when God Kallalagar  is  taken  in  procession
through the Vaigai river on way to Vandiur, is the second charity  mentioned
in the Will.  It is necessary  to  refer  at  this  stage  to  some  of  the
relevant provisions of the Act.  “Religious institution”  has  been  defined
in Section 6(18) as meaning a math, temple or specific endowment.  “Specific
endowment” in Section 6(19) reads thus: “any property or money  endowed  for
the performance of any specific service or charity in a math  or  temple  or
for the performance of any other religious charity but does not  include  an
inam  of  the  nature  described  in  Explanation  (1)  to   Clause   (17)”.
“Religious charity” is defined in Section 6(16) as meaning a public  charity
associated with a Hindu festival or observance of  a   religious  character,
whether it  be  connected  with  a  math  or  temple  or  not.    “Religious
endowment” or “endowment” has been defined in  Section  6(17)  to  mean  all
property belonging to or given or  endowed  for  the  support  of  maths  or
temples, or given or endowed for the performance of any service  or  charity
of a public nature connected therewith or of any  other  religious  charity,
and includes the institution concerned and also  the  premises  thereof  but
does not include gifts or property made as personal gifts  to  the  Archaka,
Service holder  or other employee of a religious institution.





7.    The Constitution Bench of this Court in the  decision  in  Mahant  Ram
Saroop Dasji Vs. S.P. Sahi and Ors. [1959 Supp.(2) SCR 583]  has  succinctly
stated the distinction in Hindu Law between religious endowments  which  are
public and those which are private, as under:



“To put it briefly, the essential distinction is that in a public trust  the
beneficial interest is vested  in  an  uncertain  and  fluctuating  body  of
persons, either the public at large  or  some  considerable  portion  of  it
answering a particular description; in a  private  trust  the  beneficiaries
are definite and ascertained individuals or who within  a definite time  can
be definitely ascertained.  The fact  that  the  uncertain  and  fluctuating
body of persons is a section of the public following a particular  religious
faith or is only a sect of persons of a certain religious persuasion   would
not make any difference in the  matter  and  would  not  make  the  trust  a
private trust.”





8.          This  Court  in  the  decision  in  Commissioner,  Madras  Hindu
Religious and Charitable Endowments  Vs. Narayana Ayyangar  and  Ors.  [1965
(3) SCR 168],  while  considering  the  charity  to  feed  Brahmins  on  the
occasion of Rathotsavam  festival  of  Sri  Prasanna  Venkatachalapathiswami
Temple in Gunaseelam, when feeding is not done in the  Temple  premises  but
at a separate place, held that it is a public charity by observing thus :



“On the facts found, it is clear that on the  occasion  of  the  Rathotsavam
festival of Sri Prasanna Venkatachalapathiswami shrine, pilgrims  from  many
places attend the festival  and  the  object  of  the  charity  is  to  feed
Brahmins attending the shrine on the occasion of this festival.  It  is  not
disputed that setting up a Fund for feeding Brahmins is  a  public  charity.
The primary purpose of the charity is to  feed  Brahmin  pilgrims  attending
the Rathotsavam.  This public charity has therefore a real  connection  with
the Rathotsavam which is a Hindu festival  of  a  religious  character,  and
therefore, it is a religious charity within the meaning of Section 6(13)  of
Madras Act 19 of 1951.”



The object of the second charity herein is to feed on the occasion  of   God
Kallalagar being taken  out  in   procession   on  Chitra  Pournami  day  by
entering into Vaigai river and going to Vandiyur, and  therefore,  it  is  a
religious charity and such a service should be regarded  as  one  meant  for
the Deity.    Specific endowment is  a  religious  institution  as  per  the
definition stated supra.  For the purpose of Section 64 of the Act,  as  per
explanation  provided,  the  institution  means  a  temple  or  a   specific
endowment  attached  to  a  temple.   The  expression  ‘attached’   in   the
explanation to Section 64(1) has  to  be  construed  having  regard  to  the
history of the legislation and the scheme and objects  of  the  Act  and  as
rightly held by the High Court it is required to be  understood  broadly  in
that sense  of providing for the performance of any service  or  charity  in
or connected with temple.



9.    The charities of offering Neivedyam to Swami during  Punguni  Uthiaram
festival and the feeding by way of Pundhi Bojanam on  the  occasion  of  God
Kallalagar passing through Vaigai river to Vandiyur on Chitra  Pournami  day
are religious charities and constitute a service to the Deity in the  temple
and in our view, the  High  Court     is  right  in    concluding  that  the
framing of a  scheme in respect of these matters  is  within  the  ambit  of
powers vested under Section 64 of the Act.





10.   There are no merits in the appeal  and  the  same  is  dismissed.   No
costs.


                                                                  ………………….J.
                                                                (M.Y. Eqbal)


                                                                  .…………………J.
                                                               (C. Nagappan)


New  Delhi;
November  24, 2015.