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Tuesday, December 24, 2024

Armed Forces – Permanent Commissioning – Benefit of – Extension of benefit to similarly situated persons – Appellant-Short Commissioned Officer in Army Dental Crops, denied third opportunity for permanent Commission in view of amendment in 2013 – However, the Principle Bench of the AFT holding that the applicants (identically situated officers) were denied the third chance directed consideration of their cases for permanent absorption by granting one-time age relaxation by considering them under the unamended policy – Appellant not considered because she was not part of the application – Appellant filed Original Application before the AFT, Regional Bench seeking the relief granted to the batch of similarly situated ones by AFT, Principal Bench, which attained finality– Said application dismissed – Correctness:


[2024] 12 S.C.R. 381 : 2024 INSC 942


Lt. Col. Suprita Chandel v. Union of India and Ors.

(Civil Appeal No. 1943 of 2022)


09 December 2024


[B.R. Gavai and K.V. Viswanathan,* JJ.]

Issue for Consideration


Matter pertains to the correctness of the order passed by the Armed Forces Tribunal, dismissing the application of the Appellant seeking relief of Permanent Commissioning, granted by the AFT, Principal Bench to the applicants therein, who were identically situated officers.


Headnotes


Armed Forces – Permanent Commissioning – Benefit of – Extension of benefit to similarly situated persons – Appellant-Short Commissioned Officer in Army Dental Crops, denied third opportunity for permanent Commission in view of amendment in 2013 – However, the Principle Bench of the AFT holding that the applicants (identically situated officers) were denied the third chance directed consideration of their cases for permanent absorption by granting one-time age relaxation by considering them under the unamended policy – Appellant not considered because she was not part of the application – Appellant filed Original Application before the AFT, Regional Bench seeking the relief granted to the batch of similarly situated ones by AFT, Principal Bench, which attained finality– Said application dismissed – Correctness:


Held: Where a citizen aggrieved by an action of the government department has approached the court and obtained a declaration of law in his/her favour, others similarly situated ought to be extended the benefit without the need for them to go to court – No doubt, in exceptional cases where the court has expressly prohibited the extension of the benefit to those who have not approached the court till then or in cases where a grievance in personam is redressed, the matter may acquire a different dimension, and the department may be justified in denying the relief to an individual who claims the extension of the benefit of the said judgment – While the AFT Principal Bench granted relief to the applicants, it did not prohibit the department from considering similarly situated persons – Appellant is entitled to parity with those applicants who succeeded before the AFT, Principal Bench – Union of India not been able to point out any valid justification as to how the applicants who obtained the benefit from the AFT, Principal Bench and batch are not identically situated with the Appellant – Accepting the stand of the Union of India would result in this Court putting its imprimatur on an unreasonable stand adopted by the authorities – If the applicants who are identically situated to the appellant were found to be eligible to be given a third chance for promotion, because they acquired eligibility before the amendment, no reason why the appellant should not be treated alike – No delay in the appellant approaching the tribunal – Appellant wrongly excluded from consideration when other similarly situated officers were considered and granted permanent commission – Since nothing adverse placed on record with regard to performance of the Appellant, in exercise of powers u/Art. 142 of the Constitution, the Appellant ought to be given Permanent Commission – Appellant’s case be taken up for grant of Permanent Commission and be extended the benefit of Permanent Commission along with the all consequential benefits with effect from the same date the similarly situated persons who obtained benefits pursuant to the judgment of the AFT, Principal Bench – Order of the AFT, Regional Bench quashed and set aside – Constitution of India – Art. 142. [Paras 10, 13, 14, 16, 17, 18, 19, 21, 23-25]


Case Law Cited


Amrit Lal Berry v. Collector of Central Excise, New Delhi and Others [1975] 2 SCR 960 : (1975) 4 SCC 714; K.I. Shephard and Others v. Union of India and Others [1988] 1 SCR 188 : (1987) 4 SCC 431; State of Maharashtra and Another v. Chandrakant Anant Kulkarni and Others [1982] 1 SCR 665 : (1981) 4 SCC 130 – referred to.


List of Keywords


Armed Forces Tribunal; Permanent Commissioning; Identically situated officers; Extension of benefit to similarly situated persons; Short Commissioned Officer; Army Dental Crops; Third opportunity for permanent Commission; Permanent absorption; One-time age relaxation; Delay; Non-suited.


Case Arising From


CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Civil Appeal No. 1943 of 2022


From the Judgment and Order dated 05.01.2022 of the Armed Forces Tribunal in OA No. 241 of 2021


Appearances for Parties


Ms. Vibha Datta Makhija, Sr. Adv., Rakesh Kumar, Advs. for the Appellant.


R Bala, Sr. Adv., Mukesh Kumar Maroria, Vatsal Joshi, Sanjay Kumar Tyagi, S S Rebello, Anuj Srinivas Udupa, Akshay Amritanshu, Siddhant Kohli, Advs. for the Respondents.


Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court


Judgment


K.V. Viswanathan, J.


1.This appeal challenges the order of the Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT) Regional Bench, Lucknow dated 05.01.2022 in Original Application No. 241 of 2021. By the said order, the AFT dismissed the application of the appellant and declined her prayer for reliefs similar to the ones granted by the judgment dated 22.01.2014 of the AFT Principal Bench in O.A. No. 111 of 2013 and batch, to the applicants therein. The appellant claims that those applicants were identically situated with her.


2.The appellant on 10.03.2008 was commissioned as a Short Service Commissioned Officer in the Army Dental Corps (AD Corps). She was at that time 27 years 11 months and 28 days of age. The regulation, as it then stood, entitled her to three chances for taking up the departmental examination for permanent commission. It also provided extension of age limit. The relevant clauses, namely, Para 12 of Army Instruction 15 of 79 and Para 4(a) and 4(b) of AI 37 of 78 read as under:


“…Officers granted Short Service Commission will be given three chances for taking up the departmental examination for permanent commission. Two chances will be given after completion of 2 years of service and before completion of 4 years of service and third chance in extended tenure after completion of 5 years of service and before completion of 8 years of service provided they fulfill the conditions of eligibility as laid down in AI 37/78, as amended.”


Paras 4(a) and 4(b) of Annexure ‘A’ to the AI 37/78


“(a) Candidates must not have attained 28 years of age on 31st December of the year of receipt of application from them. This age limit may be extended upto 30 years by the Government of India on the recommendation of the AD Corps Selection Board in the case of candidates with additional Post-Graduate qualifications.


(b) A candidate with previous commissioned service in the Army Dental Corps will be entitled to extension of the above age limits as given below:-


Full period of previous reckonable service if such service was rendered while in possession of dental qualification recognized by the Dental Council of India (vide para 3 above).”


(Emphasis supplied)


3.It is undisputed that the appellant could not qualify in the first two chances on completion of two years of service and four years of service respectively. On 15.11.2012, her services were extended for another five years. By 9th of March 2013 the appellant had completed five years of service and was eligible to avail of her third chance, subject to age relaxation up to the full period of reckonable service.


4.However, on 20th of March, 2013, amendments were carried out to clause 4(a) and 4(b) of AI 37 of 78 as amended in AI 15 of 79, inasmuch as, while Para 4(a) was amended, Para 4(b) came to be deleted. The amended Para 4(a) of AI 37 of 78 introduced on 20.03.2013, reads as under:


“(a) Para 4(a) of Annexure ‘A’ to AI 37/78


Candidates must not have attained 30 years of age on 31st December of the year of receipt of application form from them for Departmental Permanent Commission. The age limit may be extended up to 35 years in respect of those candidates who are in receipt of PG qualification of Masters in Dental Surgery duly recognized by Dental Council of India, at the time of initial commission to Army Dental Corps.”


5.The net result was the appellant was deprived of her third chance since the extension was capped at 35 years and was confined to those who were in receipt of PG qualification of Masters in Dental Surgery on and from 20.03.2013.


6.According to the appellant, Officers similarly situated with the appellant who were also not given an opportunity to appear for the clinical test and interview, in view of the amendment, quickly moved applications before the AFT, Principal Bench in O.A. No. 111 of 2013 and batch of matters raising various contentions and contended that they have been wrongly deprived of availing the third chance for no fault of theirs. Though the amendments to the policy were upheld, the Principal Bench of the AFT granted relief in the following terms in the said batch of matters.


“35. The other contention of the learned counsel for the petitioners is that the Government can grant age relaxation in the given facts and circumstances of the case. It is trite that the Government has the power to relax the upper age limit if it is found that operation of the rule or policy has hardship on the persons working in the Corps. Nothing has been shown that the Government has no power to relax the upper age limit. Now coming to the question as to whether the operation of the policy has hardship, it would be seen that an exception was provided for SSC Officers for giving the benefit by extending the upper age limit. It is also admitted by the respondents in para-41 of their counter that one time age relaxation in the upper age limit has been granted in the case of an AMC officer who had joined as SSC Officer prior to the issuance of the impugned amendment. By deletion of para-4(b) some of the SSC Officers became ineligible for permanent absorption. The petitioners, who were working in the Corps continuously, expected to be given three chances to seek their permanent absorption. However, due to impugned amendment, they have been denied these chances. Therefore, as one time exception, the Government can relax the upper age limit in respect of those petitioners who have become ineligible on account of the impugned amendment.


36. In view of the above discussions, all the four petitions stand partly allowed with following directions:-


(1) The impugned policy of 2013 is held to be intra vires.


(2) A direction is issued to the respondents to consider the case of the petitioners, who were eligible in the year 2012 but became ineligible in the year 2013 for grant of permanent absorption on account of amendment of policy after clubbing the selection of 2012 with 2013. Their case shall be considered in terms of the previous policy.


(3) A further direction is issued to the respondents to grant one time age relaxation in favour of the petitioners for seeking permanent absorption as has been done in the case of AMC officers who had joined as SSC Officer prior to the issuance of the impugned amendment. The entire exercise for consideration of the petitioners for grant of permanent commission shall be completed within a period of two months from the date of receipt of a copy of this order. The petitioners’ case thereafter shall be considered by the ensuing Board for their permanent absorption in the Corps.”


7.According to the appellant, she could not join the applicants therein in the litigation as she was in her advance stage of pregnancy and while posted at Bareilly, she proceeded on maternity leave on 16.05.2013. The appellant delivered a child on 01.07.2013.


8.Consequent to the order of the Principal Bench, permanent commissions were granted to officers who were eligible prior to the amendment to avail a third chance but could not avail in view of the amendment of 20.03.2013. The appellant was not considered because she was not part of the Original Application.


9.A representation submitted by the appellant on 06.09.2014 did not yield any favorable result and was rejected with the following endorsement on 15.09.2014:-


“1. Ref advance copy of your application No. DS-12301/05/2004 dated 06 Sep 2014.


2. As per directions of MoD communicated vide DGAFMS letter No.12252/CC/AKJ/DGAFMS/LC dated 12 Aug 2014, hon’ble Armed Forces Tribunal (Principal Bench). New Delhi has granted ‘one time’ age relaxation in the eligibility criteria ‘only to the petitioners’. Hon’ble AFT has further clarified that this order will not form a precedence.


3. For your info please.”


(Emphasis Supplied)


10.At the outset itself, we may say that the phrase “Only to the Petitioners” in the order rejecting the representation is patently erroneous. While the AFT Principal Bench granted relief to the petitioners, it did not prohibit the department from considering similarly situated persons. Another representation was disposed of on 9th November 2017, inter alia, on the primary ground that she did not meet the criterion. In the meantime, the appellant’s services were further extended for a period of 4 years on 31.10.2017.


11.The appellant thereafter filed Original Application No. 241 of 2021 before the AFT, Regional Bench, Lucknow seeking relief similar to the ones granted to the batch of petitioners in O.A. 111 of 2013 by AFT, Principal Bench, New Delhi which attained finality. For the sake of completion of record, it should be mentioned that the appellant had in 2014 itself moved to the Armed Forces Tribunal by filing an application in Diary No. 1761 of 2014. However, the said application was withdrawn with liberty to move afresh. Thereafter, again she filed O.A. 70 of 2017 before the Principal Bench which was again withdrawn with liberty to move the appropriate Tribunal. It was thereafter that after making the representation on 4th October 2017 which was rejected on 09.11.2017 and after returning from the Arunachal Pradesh posting and further after the Covid-19 ordeal had reasonably subsided in January, 2021, she moved the AFT, Regional Bench, Lucknow by filing O.A. No. 241 of 2021, which has been dismissed by the impugned order.


12.The only reasoning given in the impugned order is in the following terms.


“(d) The applicant was not a petitioner in those petitions filed before AFT (PB), New Delhi, therefore, applicant cannot be granted any relief with regard to relaxation of age limit which is clarified by AFT (PB) in its judgment dated 22.01.2014 that ‘an officer is not entitled to be absorbed permanent, if he/she has crossed the upper age limits’. The benefit of age relaxation was granted to the petitioners of Original Applications who were eligible in the year 2012 but became ineligible in the year 2013 for grant of permanent absorption on account of amendment of policy after clubbing the selection of 2012 with 2013 considering the terms of the previous policy and were granted one time age relaxation.”


13.We have heard Ms. Vibha Datta Makhija, learned senior counsel for the appellant and Mr. R Balasubramanian, learned senior counsel for the respondents. Having considered the submissions of the learned counsels and perused the records, we are of the opinion that the appellant is entitled to parity with those applicants who succeeded before the AFT, Principal Bench in O.A. No. 111 of 2013. We say so for the following reasons.


14.It is a well settled principle of law that where a citizen aggrieved by an action of the government department has approached the court and obtained a declaration of law in his/her favour, others similarly situated ought to be extended the benefit without the need for them to go to court. [See Amrit Lal Berry vs. Collector of Central Excise, New Delhi and Others (1975) 4 SCC 714]


15.In K.I. Shephard and Others vs. Union of India and Others (1987) 4 SCC 431, this Court while reinforcing the above principle held as under:-


“19. The writ petitions and the appeals must succeed. We set aside the impugned judgments of the Single Judge and Division Bench of the Kerala High Court and direct that each of the three transferee banks should take over the excluded employees on the same terms and conditions of employment under the respective banking companies prior to amalgamation. The employees would be entitled to the benefit of continuity of service for all purposes including salary and perks throughout the period. We leave it open to the transferee banks to take such action as they consider proper against these employees in accordance with law. Some of the excluded employees have not come to court. There is no justification to penalise them for not having litigated. They too shall be entitled to the same benefits as the petitioners. ….”


(Emphasis Supplied)


16.No doubt, in exceptional cases where the court has expressly prohibited the extension of the benefit to those who have not approached the court till then or in cases where a grievance in personam is redressed, the matter may acquire a different dimension, and the department may be justified in denying the relief to an individual who claims the extension of the benefit of the said judgment.


17.That is not the situation here. In the submissions too, the respondents have not been able to point out any valid justification as to how the applicants who obtained the benefit from the AFT, Principal Bench in OA No. 111 of 2013 and batch are not identically situated with the appellant. Like the applicants who succeeded, the appellant was also ripe for the third chance before the amended para 4(a) of AI No. 37 of 1978 was introduced on 20.03.2013. The Principal Bench of the AFT in OA No. 111 of 2013 after clearly holding that the applicants therein were denied the third chance directed consideration of their cases for permanent absorption by granting one-time age relaxation by considering them under the unamended policy.


18.The respondent authorities on their own should have extended the benefit of the judgment of AFT, Principal Bench in OA No.111 of 2013 and batch to the appellant. To illustrate, take the case of the valiant Indian soldiers bravely guarding the frontiers at Siachen or in other difficult terrain. Thoughts on conditions of service and job perquisites will be last in their mind. Will it be fair to tell them that they will not be given relief even if they are similarly situated, since the judgment they seek to rely on, was passed in the case of certain applicants alone who moved the court? We think that would be a very unfair scenario. Accepting the stand of the respondents in this case would result in this Court putting its imprimatur on an unreasonable stand adopted by the authorities.


19.The stand of the Department relying on the judgment of this Court in State of Maharashtra and Another vs. Chandrakant Anant Kulkarni and Others (1981) 4 SCC 130 to contend that mere reduction in chance of consideration did not result in deprivation of any right does not appeal to us. The appellant’s case is founded on the principle of discrimination. What is sauce for the goose ought to be sauce for the gander. If the applicants in O.A. No. 111 of 2013 whom we find are identically situated to the appellant were found to be eligible to be given a third chance for promotion, because they acquired eligibility before the amendment to AI No. 37 of 1978 on 20.03.2013, we find no reason why the appellant should not be treated alike.


20.The order dated 13.03.2014 in the application for clarification of the AFT, Principal Bench, order of 22.01.2014 and the order dated 19.05.2014 in the review relied upon in the counter affidavit do not in any manner dilute the case of the appellant herein. In fact, the order dated 13.03.2014 fully supports the appellant since it extended the benefit to those persons who acquired the eligibility in 2013. As far as the order in review dated 19.05.2014 directing that there would be no dilution in the laid down criterion and the further direction that the order in review shall not form a precedent does not imply that the main order of 22.01.2014 of the Principal Bench, AFT, should not be extended to similarly situated individuals like the appellant, who has been knocking the doors for relief since September, 2014.


21.We see no delay in the appellant approaching the Tribunal. The appellant has been seeking justice from 2014 and the only delay between 2017 to 2021 after the withdrawal of the earlier applications with liberty, was due to the fact that between August, 2017 and 2019 she was posted in Arunachal Pradesh and it was during this time that the appellant made a second representation. Thereafter, the period between March, 2020 and January, 2021 was on account of Covid-19 pandemic. In any event, since a clear case of discrimination has been made out, we do not want to non-suit the appellant on the ground of delay. We say so on the special facts of this case.


22.We also find that the appellant - a woman officer has continuously worked since 2007 and even as late as on 31.10.2017, she was granted extension of another four years of service, and she continues to be in service thereafter also on account of the status quo granted by this Court on 08.03.2022. Not only this, the appellant was awarded Commendation Card by the Chief of Army Staff on 14.01.2019. It is also undisputed that the appellant has had a distinguished service and is now posted as Lieutenant Colonel in the Army Dental Corps at Agra.


23.We hold that the appellant was wrongly excluded from consideration when other similarly situated officers were considered and granted permanent commission. Today, eleven years have elapsed. It will not be fair to subject her to the rigors of the 2013 parameters as she is now nearly 45 years of age. There has been no fault on the part of the appellant.


24.On the peculiar facts of this case and since nothing adverse has been placed on record with regard to performance of the appellant, in exercise of powers under Article 142 of the Constitution, we direct that the appellant ought to be given Permanent Commission. We direct that the appellant’s case be taken up for grant of Permanent Commission and she be extended the benefit of Permanent Commission with effect from the same date the similarly situated persons who obtained benefits pursuant to the judgment dated 22.01.2014 in O.A. No. 111 of 2013 of the Principal Bench of the AFT. All consequential benefits like seniority, promotion and monetary benefits, including arrears shall be extended to the appellant. The above directions shall be implemented within a period of four weeks from today.


25.The appeal is allowed and the order of the AFT, Regional Bench, Lucknow, dated 05.01.2022 in O. A. No. 241 of 2021 is quashed and set aside. No costs.


Result of the case: Appeal allowed.


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Service law – Retirement age – Age of superannuation, enhancement to 65 years – Appellant appointed as Director in CSIIT, affiliated with University governed by the laws applicable in the State of Telangana – At the time of issuance of the appointment letter, the age of superannuation according to the All India Council For Technical Education-AICTE and University Grants Commission-UGC Regulations was sixty years – Subsequently, the regulations were revised and the age of superannuation for teachers in Technical Institution enhanced to sixty-five years – Writ petition by the appellant seeking retirement age as sixty five years – Dismissed by the Single Judge as also the Division Bench of the High Court – Interference with: Held: Not called for – If the State Government itself has not adopted the amended regulations, the same cannot be applicable to the CSIIT – Even CSIIT has not determined the age of retirement of teachers to be 65 years – Merely because the UGC and AICTE regulations were subsequently amended in 2010 and the age of superannuation for teachers in Technical Institutions was increased to sixty-five years, the same benefit would not automatically extend to the appellant – Government of Andhra Pradesh (now Telangana) decided to not adopt the amendment increasing the age of superannuation to sixty-five in their universities or colleges – Respondent No.2 Institute is a self-financing, Minority Educational Institution administered by the respondent No.1, and is neither run nor funded by Central Government – Regulations governing the age of superannuation throughout the State, the JNT University and its affiliated colleges including CSIIT is sixty years of age and thus, when the teachers of the University are only to continue up to the age of sixty years, the appellant cannot be given special consideration – Teachers of CSIIT cannot have their age of retirement more than that of the teachers of the affiliating University – It would create a serious anomaly, discrimination and inequality – After the appellant was given his notice for superannuation, he continued to make representations for retiral benefits, which shows that the appellant accepted his retirement at the age of sixty – Also, the appellant not a teacher and was only involved in administrative work with CSIIT – Appellant not led any evidence to prove that he qualifies as a teacher after becoming Director – AICTE and UGC regulations are applicable only to those who qualify as teachers and are discharging classroom teaching duties – Furthermore, the appellant has already retired, and respondent No.4 appointed in place of the appellant, is discharging his duties as Director. [Paras 9, 10]


[2024] 12 S.C.R. 374 : 2024 INSC 938


P.J. Dharmaraj v. Church of South India & Ors.

(Civil Appeal No. 14029 of 2024)


06 December 2024


[Vikram Nath* and Prasanna B.Varale, JJ.]

Issue for Consideration


Matter pertains to the claim of the appellant seeking retirement age as sixty five years.


Headnotes


Service law – Retirement age – Age of superannuation, enhancement to 65 years – Appellant appointed as Director in CSIIT, affiliated with University governed by the laws applicable in the State of Telangana – At the time of issuance of the appointment letter, the age of superannuation according to the All India Council For Technical Education-AICTE and University Grants Commission-UGC Regulations was sixty years – Subsequently, the regulations were revised and the age of superannuation for teachers in Technical Institution enhanced to sixty-five years – Writ petition by the appellant seeking retirement age as sixty five years – Dismissed by the Single Judge as also the Division Bench of the High Court – Interference with:


Held: Not called for – If the State Government itself has not adopted the amended regulations, the same cannot be applicable to the CSIIT – Even CSIIT has not determined the age of retirement of teachers to be 65 years – Merely because the UGC and AICTE regulations were subsequently amended in 2010 and the age of superannuation for teachers in Technical Institutions was increased to sixty-five years, the same benefit would not automatically extend to the appellant – Government of Andhra Pradesh (now Telangana) decided to not adopt the amendment increasing the age of superannuation to sixty-five in their universities or colleges – Respondent No.2 Institute is a self-financing, Minority Educational Institution administered by the respondent No.1, and is neither run nor funded by Central Government – Regulations governing the age of superannuation throughout the State, the JNT University and its affiliated colleges including CSIIT is sixty years of age and thus, when the teachers of the University are only to continue up to the age of sixty years, the appellant cannot be given special consideration – Teachers of CSIIT cannot have their age of retirement more than that of the teachers of the affiliating University – It would create a serious anomaly, discrimination and inequality – After the appellant was given his notice for superannuation, he continued to make representations for retiral benefits, which shows that the appellant accepted his retirement at the age of sixty – Also, the appellant not a teacher and was only involved in administrative work with CSIIT – Appellant not led any evidence to prove that he qualifies as a teacher after becoming Director – AICTE and UGC regulations are applicable only to those who qualify as teachers and are discharging classroom teaching duties – Furthermore, the appellant has already retired, and respondent No.4 appointed in place of the appellant, is discharging his duties as Director. [Paras 9, 10]


Case Law Cited


Islamic Academy of Education and Ors. v. State of Karnataka and Ors. [2003] Supp. 2 SCR 474 : (2003) 6 SCC 697; Sreejith P.S. v. Rajasree M.S. and Ors. [2022] 18 SCR 252 : 2022 SCC OnLine SC 1473; Kalyani Mathivanan v. K.V. Jeyaraj and Ors. [2015] 3 SCR 467 : (2015) 6 SCC 363; Janet Jeyapaul v. SRM University and Ors. [2015] 10 SCR 1049 : (2015) 16 SCC 530; T.M.A Pai Foundation and Ors. v. State of Karnataka and Ors. [2002] Supp. 3 SCR 587 : (2002) 8 SCC 481 – distinguished.


List of Keywords


Retirement age as sixty five years; Retirement age; Age of superannuation for teachers; Anomaly; Discrimination; Inequality; Leave encashment and gratuity.


Case Arising From


CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Civil Appeal No. 14029 of 2024


From the Judgment and Order dated 22.11.2021 of the High Court for the State of Telangana at Hyderabad in WA No. 753 of 2019


Appearances for Parties


Gopal Sankaranarayanan, Sr. Adv., Ms. Aditi Gupta, Mandeep Kalra, Ms. Anushna Satapathy, Ms. Chitrangada Singh, Ms. Radhika Jalan, Yashas J, Ms. Arushi Kulshrestha, Ms. Widaphi Lyngdoh, Advs. for the Appellant.


Vinay Navare, J. Prabhakar, Sr. Advs., A. Sreenivas, Abhijeet Sinha, Sarthak Gaurav, Ms. Rimmi Bharadwaj, Ravinder Agarwal, Lekh Raj Singh, Amit Gaurav Singh, Harish Pandey, Anil Soni, Advs. for the Respondents.


Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court


Judgment


Vikram Nath, J.


1.Leave granted.


2.The present appeal before us is arising out of a judgement passed by the High Court of Telangana on 22.11.2021 in Writ Appeal 753 of 2019 whereby the Division Bench of the High Court has upheld the decision of the Single Judge of the High Court dated 04.09.2019 in W.P.No.45297 of 2018 whereby the Appellant’s Writ Petition was dismissed wherein he was contesting his retirement from the Respondent No.2 Institute which took effect from 14.08.2018 and the appointment of Respondent No.4 in his place. Aggrieved by this, the Appellant is before us.


3.The facts of the case are such that the Appellant before us was initially appointed as Lecturer in Jawaharlal Nehru Technological (JNT) University in 1985. He was eventually promoted as Reader in 1995. CSI Institute of Technology (CSIIT), Respondent No.2 issued an advertisement dated 25.09.1998 for the post of Director. The Appellant applied against the said advertisement and was selected and appointed as Director vide appointment letter dated 26.11.1998. At the time that the appointment letter was issued to the Appellant, the age of superannuation according to the All India Council For Technical Education (AICTE) and University Grants Commission (UGC) Regulations wassixty years. These regulations were revised vide AICTE notification dated 22.01.2010 and UGC regulations dated 18.09.2010 wherein the age of superannuation for teachers in Technical Institution was enhanced to sixty-five years.


4.During his stint of Director at CSIIT the appellant claims to have been promoted to the post of Professor. On 14.08.2018, the Appellant was relieved from the post of Director and Respondent No.4 was appointed in his place. Two days later, on 16.08.2018, the Appellant made a representation praying that he be continued in service until the age of sixty-five. Appellant filed Writ Petition No.39511 of 2018 before the High Court against the entrustment of work to Respondent No.4. The High Court vide order dated 02.11.2018 disposed of this Writ Petition directing CSIIT to consider and pass orders on Appellant’s representation dated 16.08.2018. CSIIT in compliance of the order ultimately rejected the Appellant’s representation on 03.12.2018. Aggrieved, the Appellant filed Writ Petition No.45297 of 2018 which was dismissed by the Single Judge vide order dated 04.09.2019 primarily on the ground that CSIIT is affiliated with JNT University which is following sixty years to be the age of superannuation and therefore the Appellant cannot expect to be continued in service up to sixty-five years of age. This order was further challenged by the Appellant before the Division Bench of the High Court in Writ Appeal No.753 of 2019 which was dismissed vide impugned order dated 22.11.2021.


5.We have heard Shri Gopal Sankaranarayanan, learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant and learned senior counsels, Shri Vinay Navare and Shri J.Prabhakar appearing on behalf of Respondent Nos.1 and 2 and learned counsels Shri Ravinder Agarwal and Shri Harish Pandey appearing for Respondent No.3 and Respondent No.6 respectively.


6.The submissions advanced for the Appellant are that he has been retired from service on a premature and illegal basis as effected by Respondent Nos.1 and 2. It is contended that when the Appellant was appointed to the post of Director in the year 1998, his age of superannuation was determined as per the AICTE and UGC regulations prevailing at that time, which was sixty years of age. However, seeing that in 2010, AICTE and UGC issued amended regulations, wherein the age of superannuation was revised up to sixty-five years of age, the same benefit should be extended to the Appellant now as professional institutes cannot depart from such binding regulations. This stand has been corroborated by AICTE; Respondent No.6 vide their Counter Affidavit as well. To establish that UGC regulations are not merely recommendatory, reliance has been placed on the following judgements:


i.Islamic Academy of Education and Ors. vs. State of Karnataka and Ors1


ii.Sreejith P.S. vs. Rajasree M.S. and Ors2


iii.Kalyani Mathivanan vs. K.V. Jeyaraj and Ors3


iv.Janet Jeyapaul vs. SRM University and Ors4


v.T.M.A Pai Foundation and Ors. vs. State of Karnataka and Ors5


7.On the other hand, it is contended on behalf of Respondent Nos.1 and 2 that the Respondent No.2 Institute is a Private Unaided Minority Educational Institution, administered by Respondent No.1, Church of South India and affiliated to the State University in the State of Telangana. The subsequent amendment to the UGC regulations has not been adopted by the State of Telangana and the revised age of sixty-five years for superannuation does not prevail as the norm in the State and in the JNT University with which CSIIT is affiliated.


8.It is also submitted that the Appellant was never involved in teaching and was only working on the post of Director with administrative duties and if the AICTE regulations were applicable at all, the benefits would still not extend to the Appellant as the said regulation uses the term “Teacher” and “Principal” distinctly which does not apply to the present Appellant as he discharged no teaching duties. It is further contended that the Appellant was due for retirement at the end of February 2018 and until August 2018, the Appellant was making representations urging that he be given academic duties and was negotiating for his retiral benefits. This goes to show that the Appellant himself accepted his retirement at sixty years of age.


9.Having considered the submissions advanced, we do not find merit in the contention that merely because the UGC and AICTE regulations were subsequently amended in 2010 and the age of superannuation for teachers in Technical Institutions was increased to sixty-five years, the same benefit would automatically extend to the Appellant. The Appellant was working as Director in CSIIT which is affiliated with JNT University which is governed by the laws applicable in the State of Telangana. In this case, the Government of Andhra Pradesh (now Telangana) has decided to not adopt the amendment increasing the age of superannuation to sixty-five in their universities or colleges vide G.O.Ms.No.40, Higher Education & UE-II Department, dated 28.06.2012. The Respondent No.2 Institute is a self-financing, Minority Educational Institution administered by the Respondent No.1 Church of South India, and it is neither run nor funded by the Central Government. The regulations governing the age of superannuation throughout the State, the JNT University and its affiliated colleges including CSIIT is sixty years of age and therefore, when the teachers of JNT University are only to continue up to the age of sixty years, the Appellant cannot be given special consideration. CSIIT is an affiliated Institute of JNT University. Its teachers cannot have their age of retirement more than that of the teachers of the affiliating University. It would create a serious anomaly, discrimination and inequality. If the State Government itself has not adopted the amended regulations, the same cannot be applicable to the CSIIT. Even CSIIT has not determined the age of retirement of teachers to be 65 years.


10.We have also considered the submission that after the Appellant was given his notice for superannuation, he continued to make representations for retiral benefits such as leave encashment and gratuity etc. This clearly goes to show that the Appellant has accepted his retirement at the age of sixty. Any other way, the Appellant is not a teacher and was only involved in administrative work with CSIIT. The Appellant has not led any evidence until now to prove that he qualifies as a teacher after becoming Director. AICTE and UGC regulations are applicable only to those who qualify as teachers and are discharging classroom teaching duties.


11.Regarding the judgements relied upon by the Appellant to establish that the amended UGC regulations are not merely recommendatory, we have considered them and find those to be distinguishable on fact and as such we are not dealing with them.


12.In view of the above and the fact that the Appellant has already retired, and Respondent No.4 is discharging his duties as Director of Respondent No.2 Institute, we find no reason to interfere with the impugned judgement passed by the High Court.


13.Accordingly, the present appeal stands dismissed.


14.Pending applications, if any, shall stand disposed of.


Result of the case: Appeal dismissed.


1 [2003] Supp. 2 SCR 474 : (2003) 6 SCC 697


2 [2022] 18 SCR 252 : 2022 SCC OnLine SC 1473


3 [2015] 3 SCR 467 : (2015) 6 SCC 363


4 [2015] 10 SCR 1049 : (2015) 16 SCC 530


5 [2002] Supp. 3 SCR 587 : (2002) 8 SCC 481


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Liability of private college to pay retiral benefits to employee; Grant-in-aid scheme of the State Government; Retiral benefits; Misconduct; Reinstatement; Dismissal; Punishment; Back wages; Review petitions; Pensionary benefits; Discipline in the institution.


 


[2024] 12 S.C.R. 366 : 2024 INSC 935


Nutan Bharti Gram Vidyapith v. Government of Gujarat and Anr.

(Civil Appeal No(s). 13958-13959 of 2024)


02 December 2024


[J.K. Maheshwari and Rajesh Bindal,* JJ.]

Issue for Consideration


Issue arose as regards the liability of the appellant-private college covered under the grant-in-aid scheme of the State Government, to pay retiral benefits to the respondent-employee.


Headnotes


Service law – Retiral benefits – Liability of the appellant-private college covered under the grant-in-aid scheme of the State Government, to pay retiral benefits to the respondent-employee – Respondent dismissed from service on account of misconduct – Challenge to – Respondent directed to be reinstated as the dismissal was found to be an extreme punishment by the appellate authority – High Court upheld the order of reinstatement since the respondent had already superannuated, however directed the appellant to pay back wages to the extent of 75% – In appeal, back wages granted to the respondent set aside, however, the appellant and the State directed to pay retiral dues to the respondent – Thereagainst, the review petitions filed wherein the appellant directed to pay the retiral dues – Correctness:


Held: Appellant is an institution entitled to Grant-in-Aid and the employees thereof are entitled to pensionary benefits in terms of the said Scheme – State directing the reinstatement of the Respondent no. 2 cannot be fatal for the Appellant and burden it with the retiral benefits of Respondent no. 2 whereas the Scheme provides for otherwise – No exception provided in the Scheme to enable the State to deny payment of retiral benefits to an employee of the Grant-in-Aid Institution under certain circumstances and shift the burden on the institution – There were serious charges against the Respondent no. 2 which included inter alia instigation of students to go on strike, improper behaviour with the co-employees, attempt to pollute the atmosphere in the institution, violation of rules and regulations of the institution and involvement in the activities which may cause damage to the institution – After inquiry, with a view to maintain discipline in the institution, it was found appropriate that the Respondent no. 2 be dismissed from service – However, appellate authority found that the punishment of dismissal too harsh and the issues could have been resolved by way of discussion – Appellant, keeping in view the discipline in the institution, thought it appropriate to challenge the same – In such circumstances, it cannot be opined that it’s conduct was such that it should be burdened with the retiral benefits of delinquent employee – It cannot be said that the action taken by the appellant against the Respondent no. 2 was without jurisdiction – Impugned order passed by the High Court set aside – State to pay retiral dues to Respondent no. 2. [Paras 13-16]


Case Law Cited


Educational Society, Tumsar and Others v. State of Maharashtra and Others (2016) 3 SCC 512 : 2016 SCC Online SC 93 – distinguished.


List of Keywords


Liability of private college to pay retiral benefits to employee; Grant-in-aid scheme of the State Government; Retiral benefits; Misconduct; Reinstatement; Dismissal; Punishment; Back wages; Review petitions; Pensionary benefits; Discipline in the institution.


Case Arising From


CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Civil Appeal Nos. 13958-13959 of 2024


From the Judgment and Order dated 26.07.2022 and 21.04.2023 of the High Court of Gujarat at Ahmedabad in LPA No. 1456 of 2010 and MCA (for review) No. 1 of 2022 respectively


Appearances for Parties


Nikhil Goel, Sr. Adv., Mrs. Taruna Singh Gohil, Alapati Sahithya Krishna, Ms. Hetvi Patel, Ms. Navin Goel, Ms. Siddhi Gupta, Advs. for the Appellant.


Bhashkar Tanna, Sr. Adv., Ms. Swati Ghildiyal, Ms. Devyani Bhatt, Ms. Dharita Malkan, Alok Kumar, Dhruva Kumar, Ms. Khushboo Aakash Sheth, Advs. for the Respondents.


Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court


Judgment


Rajesh Bindal, J.


1.Leave granted.


2.The Private College1 covered under the Grant-in-Aid scheme of the State Government has filed the present appeal impugning the orders passed by the High Court2 dated 26.07.20223 and 21.04.2023.4


3.At the time of hearing, the learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant submitted that he only wishes to press the claim regarding liability of the appellant-college to pay retiral benefits to the respondent-employee.


4.Briefly noticed, the facts are that the respondent no.2 was appointed as lecturer by the appellant. On account of certain misconduct, he was issued a chargesheet on 07.08.1993. After inquiry, he was dismissed from service on 06.06.1994.


4.1.Aggrieved by the dismissal, the respondent no. 2 preferred an appeal to the Joint Director of Higher Education (appellate authority). The said appeal was dismissed as not maintainable vide order dated 15.11.1994.


4.2.By order dated 20.03.1996, in an application5 filed by the respondent no. 2 before the High Court, his appeal before the Joint Director of Higher Education was held to be maintainable and the same was directed to be heard by appellate authority-respondent no. 1. The appeal was allowed vide order dated 21.08.1996.


4.3.Aggrieved against the aforesaid order, the appellant preferred an application6 before the High Court where the above said order was set aside and the matter was directed to be heard afresh vide order dated 07.10.1996. Thereafter vide order dated 02.03.2000, the appeal filed by the private respondent was allowed by appellate authority. He was directed to be reinstated as the dismissal was found to be an extreme punishment.


5.The appellant challenged the aforesaid order before the High Court by filing an application.7 The Learned Single Judge vide order dated 30.06.2010, noticing the fact that the private respondent had already superannuated, upheld the order of reinstatement passed in the aforesaid appeal. However, the High Court directed the appellant to pay back wages to the extent of 75%. The aforesaid order was challenged by the appellant by filing Letters Patent Appeal.8 Vide order dated 26.07.2022, the appeal was disposed of while passing the following directions:


“Private respondent No. 2 would not be entitled for any backwages as ordered by learned Single Judge.


Services of the private respondent No.2 shall be treated as continuous service from the date of his appointment till date of his superannuation. Private respondent shall be entitled for all the retiral benefits of his employment.


All the benefits shall be granted to the private respondent No. 2 by the appellant as well as by the State authority within a period of eight weeks from the date of receipt of this order along with interest, as per the prevailing policy in such cases.


If the amount is not paid within a period of eight weeks, the appellant as well as respondent authority shall pay the entire amount along with interest at the rate of 9% per annum till it is actually paid.”


6.A perusal of the aforesaid direction shows that the back wages granted to the respondent no. 2 were set aside and the appellant as well as the State were directed to pay retiral dues to the respondent No. 2. Aggrieved against the aforesaid order, the State as well as the appellant filed Review Petitions.9 The review filed by the State was allowed vide order dated 21.04.2023 and it was directed that the appellant shall be liable to pay the retiral dues. The order as modified is extracted below:


“7. We do recollect that the parties – the appellant University and the employee (original respondent No. 2) have agreed for such order and, therefore, the order was passed directing to grant benefits to the employee. However, through oversight, we have observed appellant as well as respondent – State shall be liable to pay the amount. Hence, we hereby modify the order. Paragraphs 6 sub-para (3) and (4) shall read as under:


“All the benefits shall be granted to the private respondent No.2 by the appellant within a period of eight weeks from the date of receipt of today’s order along with interest, as per the prevailing policy in such cases.


If the amount is not paid within a period of eight weeks, the appellant shall pay the entire amount along with interest at the rate of 9% per annum till it is actually paid”.”


7.Aggrieved against the aforesaid modification, where the direction has been issued to the appellant to pay retiral dues to the private respondent, the college is before this Court.


8.Learned counsel appearing for the appellant submitted that the order passed by the High Court is not in consonance with the Scheme10 applicable for grant of retiral dues to an employee of an aided institution. The relevant paragraph of the Scheme applicable is extracted below:


“11. The pension papers of the members of the staff entitled to pension, gratuity, etc. under the scheme should be prepared in case of Gram Vidyapeeth staff by the Principal of the Gram Vidyapeeth on the basis of service record maintained by the Gram Vidyapeeth concerned. The entries in the service book of the staff will be made and attested by the Principal of Gram Vidyapeeths and in case of Principal, by the management of the Gram Vidyapeeth concerned and such entries should be verified by the Director of Higher Education of the officer authorized by him and a certificate of verification recorded in the service books. The Director of Higher Education should sanction the pension, gratuity, etc. and forward the pension completed to the Director of Pension and Provisions Fund. The pension, gratuity, etc. so sanctioned will be payable from the Government Treasurers. The Director of pension and Provident Fund will produced be clean and issue a pension payment order and/or gratuity payment order on the Treasury, from which the pensioner illegible pension gratuity, under intimation to Director of Higher Education.”


9.Learned counsel argued that the aforesaid Paragraph 11 of the Scheme provides that the liability to pay pension is on the State Government. The direction given by the High Court in the order passed in the Review Application is not in consonance with the aforesaid provisions. Hence, the same be set aside and the State should be held liable to pay retiral dues to the respondent no. 2.


10.On the other hand, learned counsel for the State submitted that the conduct of the appellant is to be seen before putting any liability with the State to pay retiral dues to an employee. It is a case in which the respondent no. 1/appellate authority vide order dated 02.03.2000 directed reinstatement of the respondent no. 2. However, thereafter the college continued litigating, raising frivolous grounds, as a result of which, the State is now sought to be burdened with liability to pay pension to the respondent no. 2, who had not actually worked for the requisite period. More than two decades have passed thereafter and during this period, respondent no. 2 attained the age of superannuation. In support, reliance has been placed upon judgment of this Court in Educational Society, Tumsar and Others vs. State of Maharashtra and Others.11


11.Learned counsel appearing for respondent no. 2 supported the argument raised by learned counsel for the appellant while stating that in terms of the laws applicable to the appellant, being Grant-in-Aid Institution, the duty to pay retiral dues lies with the State, which cannot escape it’s liability.


12.Heard learned counsel for the parties and perused the paper book.


13.It is not a matter of dispute that the appellant is an institution entitled to Grant-in-Aid and the employees thereof are entitled to pensionary benefits in terms of the aforesaid Scheme. The only argument raised by the learned counsel for the State is regarding conduct of the appellant in fighting litigation after the State had directed reinstatement of the respondent no. 2 and finally settling the matter before the High Court. In our opinion, the same cannot be fatal for the appellant and burden it with the retiral benefits of respondent no. 2 whereas the Scheme provides for otherwise. There is no exception provided in the Scheme to enable the State to deny payment of retiral benefits to an employee of the Grant-in-Aid Institution under certain circumstances and shift the burden on the institution.


14.The judgment relied upon by the State may not have application in the facts of the case, wherein it was found that the action of the Education Institution was without jurisdiction, transgressing its power to terminate its employee. If the facts of the present case are concerned, no such finding has been recorded by the appellate authority. There were serious charges against the respondent no. 2 which included inter alia instigation of students to go on strike, improper behaviour with the co-employees, attempt to pollute the atmosphere in the institution, violation of rules and regulations of the institution and involvement in the activities which may cause damage to the institution. Out of 30 charges, 10 were proved. After inquiry, with a view to maintain discipline in the institution, it was found appropriate that the respondent no. 2 be dismissed from service. However, the appellate authority found the charges established to be trivial in nature and opined that those should have been sorted out. The appellate authority found that the punishment of dismissal is too harsh and the issues could have been resolved by way of discussion.


15.The appellant, keeping in view the discipline in the institution, thought it appropriate to challenge the same. In such circumstances, it cannot be opined that it’s conduct was such that it should be burdened with the retiral benefits of delinquent employee. It is not the opinion of the appellate authority or any Court that the action taken by the appellant against the respondent no. 2 was without jurisdiction as was the case in Educational Society, Tumsar and Others (supra).


16.For the reasons mentioned above, the appeals are allowed. The impugned order dated 21.04.2023 passed by the High Court, allowing the Review Application filed by the State and dismissing the Review Application filed by the appellant, is set aside. The Review Application filed by the appellant is allowed. As a consequence, the order dated 26.07.2022 is modified. The consequence thereof is that the State, respondent no. 1 shall be liable to pay retiral dues to respondent no. 2.


Result of the case: Appeals allowed.


1 Nutan Bharti Gram Vidyapith


2 High Court of Gujarat at Ahmedabad


3 Letters Patent Appeal Number 1456 of 2010


4 Miscellaneous Civil Application (for Review) Number 01 of 2022


5 Special Civil Application Number 12822 of 1994


6 Special Civil Application No. 7111 of 1996


7 Special Civil Application Number 4357 of 2000


8 Appeal No. 1456 of 2010


9 Miscellaneous Civil Application Number 01 of 2022 and Miscellaneous Civil Application Number 01 of 2023


10 Pension Scheme for the teaching/ non-teaching staff in the Gram Vidyapeeth, Government of Gujarat, Education Department, Resolution Number GUS/1089-5369/B Sachivalaya, Gandhinagar dated 13.07.1990


11 (2016) 3 SCC 512 : 2016 SCC Online SC 93


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Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – s.313(5) – Power to examine accused – Role of the public prosecutor: Held: Under sub-Section (5) of s.313 (sub-Section (5) of s.351 of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023), the court is entitled to secure the assistance of the public prosecutor and the advocate representing the accused to prepare the questions to be put in the examination u/s.313 – Public Prosecutor has to play an active role in ensuring that every trial is conducted in a fair manner and in accordance with the law – It is the Public Prosecutor's duty to invite the Court's attention to the requirement of putting all incriminating material to the accused – Thus, the Public Prosecutor under an obligation to remain present when the examination of the accused is made to assist the Court – Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023. [Para 18]

[2024] 12 S.C.R. 335 : 2024 INSC 919


Ashok v. State of Uttar Pradesh

(Criminal Appeal No. 771 of 2024)


02 December 2024


[Abhay S. Oka,* Ahsanuddin Amanullah and Augustine George Masih, JJ.]

Issue for Consideration


Matter pertains to the correctness of the order of conviction and sentence against the appellant, for the offences punishable u/ss.376, 302, 201 IPC as also SC and ST Act 1989; and as regards the role of the Public Prosecutor and appointment of legal aid lawyers.


Headnotes


Penal Code, 1860 – ss.376, 302, 201 – Rape and murder – Prosecution case that appellant committed rape and murder of a ten year old girl – Victim’s cousin-witness to the incident, and narrated the same to the victim’s father – Dead body found hidden at the place of incident – Appellant fled from the spot when questioned by the victim’s father and thereafter, FIR was registered – Order of conviction and imposition of death sentence against the appellant, for the offences punishable u/ss.376, 302, 201 as also the 1989 Act – High Court upheld the conviction, however reduced the sentence to life imprisonment – Correctness:


Held: Evidence of victim’s cousin, the only eyewitness, cannot be held to be of sterling quality – It is unsafe to base conviction only on his testimony – At the most, it can be the evidence of the last seen together – As regards, the recovery of articles at instance of the appellant, the prosecution failed to prove that the recovery was from a particular place – Thus, evidence of recovery to be kept out of consideration – Appellant's guilt beyond reasonable doubt not established – As regards, the examination of the appellant u/s.313 Cr.P.C., material circumstances appearing in evidence against the appellant, version of the main prosecution witnesses not been put to him – Unless all material circumstances appearing against him in evidence are put to the accused, he cannot decide whether he wants to lead any defence evidence – Even the date and place of the crime allegedly committed by the appellant not put to the appellant – Thus, the appellant was prejudiced – Even assuming that failure to put material to the appellant in his examination was an irregularity, it cannot be cured by remanding the case to the trial court, since the incident is fifteen and a half years old and after such a long gap, it would be unjust to ask the appellant to explain the circumstances and material specifically appearing against him in the evidence – Moreover, the appellant had been incarcerated for about twelve years and nine months before he was released on bail – Even assuming that the evidence of eye witness can be believed, the appellant entitled to acquittal on the ground of the failure to put incriminating material to him in his examination u/s.313 CrPC – Both the trial court and High Court overlooked non-compliance with the requirements of s.313 CrPC – Shockingly, the trial court imposed the death penalty in a case which ought to have resulted in acquittal – Imposing capital punishment in such a case shocks the conscience of this Court – There was failure of the State to provide timely and quality of legal aid to the appellant – Thus, impugned judgments and orders set aside and the appellant is acquitted – Directions regarding the role of the Public Prosecutor and appointment of legal aid lawyers issued – Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. [Paras 12, 13, 14-17, 19, 21-24]


Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – s.313(5) – Power to examine accused – Role of the public prosecutor:


Held: Under sub-Section (5) of s.313 (sub-Section (5) of s.351 of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023), the court is entitled to secure the assistance of the public prosecutor and the advocate representing the accused to prepare the questions to be put in the examination u/s.313 – Public Prosecutor has to play an active role in ensuring that every trial is conducted in a fair manner and in accordance with the law – It is the Public Prosecutor's duty to invite the Court's attention to the requirement of putting all incriminating material to the accused – Thus, the Public Prosecutor under an obligation to remain present when the examination of the accused is made to assist the Court – Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023. [Para 18]


Constitution of India – Arts.21 and 39A – Equal justice and free legal aid – Failure to provide legal aid to the accused – Effect:


Held: Right to get legal aid is a fundamental right of the accused, guaranteed by Art.21 – Even u/s.303 CrPC, every accused has a right to be defended by a pleader of his choice – Under s.304 CrPC, it is the duty of the Court to ensure that a legal aid lawyer is appointed to espouse the cause of the accused free of costs – When an accused has either not engaged an advocate or does not have sufficient means to engage an advocate, it is the trial court's duty to inform the accused of his right to obtain free legal aid, which is a right covered by Art.21 – ss.340 and 341 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 correspond to ss.303 and 304 CrPC – On facts, there was failure of the State to provide timely and quality of legal aid to the appellant – Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023. [Paras 19, 20]


Criminal trial – Role of the Public Prosecutor and appointment of legal aid lawyers – Issuance of directions regarding the role of the Public Prosecutor and appointment of legal aid lawyers:


Held: (i)Duty of the Court to ensure that proper legal aid is provided to an accused;


(ii)Duty of Public Prosecutor to point out to the Court the requirement of providing accused free legal aid;


(iii)Public Prosecutor to request the Court not to proceed without offering to provide legal aid to the accused;


(iv)Duty of the Public Prosecutor to assist the trial court in recording the accused's statement u/s. 313 CrPC. If the Court omits any material circumstance against the accused, the Public Prosecutor must bring it to the Court's notice and assist in framing questions. It is the Public Prosecutor's duty to prevent trial infirmities that may prejudice the accused.;


(v)Accused entitled to free legal aid at all material stages, starting from remand, including bail petitions;


(vi)Accused to be made aware of his right to get free legal aid at all material stages;


(vii)For all the cases where there is a possibility of a life sentence or death sentence, appoint legal aid advocates with at least 10 years of criminal practice, and in other cases the accused entitled to a legal aid advocate who has good knowledge of the law and experience of conducting trials on the criminal side. Legal Services Authorities at all levels to give proper training to the newly appointed legal aid advocates;


(viii)Legal Services Authorities to monitor the work of the legal aid advocate and to ensure that they attend the court regularly and punctually when the cases entrusted to them are fixed;


(ix)It is necessary to ensure that the same legal aid advocate is continued throughout the trial unless there are compelling reasons to do so;


(x)In cases of serious nature and complicated legal and factual issues, the Court may appoint a senior member of the Bar who has a vast experience of conducting trials;


(xi)Accused is entitled to free trial and if effective legal aid is not made available to an accused it would amount to infringement of his fundamental rights guaranteed by Art. 21; and


(xii)Legal aid must be effective. Advocates appointed to espouse the cause of the accused must have good knowledge of criminal laws, law of evidence and procedural laws. If the legal aid advocate provided to an accused is not competent enough to conduct the trial efficiently, the rights of the accused will be violated. [Para 23]


Case Law Cited


Raj Kumar v. State (NCT of Delhi) [2023] 5 SCR 754 : 2023 SCC OnLine SC 609; Shivaji Sahabrao Bobade v. State of Maharashtra [1974] 1 SCR 489 : (1973) 2 SCC 793; Hussainara Khatoon (IV) v. Home Secy., State of Bihar [1979] 3 SCR 1276 : (1980) 1 SCC 98; M.H. Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra [1979] 1 SCR 192 : (1978) 3 SCC 544; Anokhilal v. State of M.P. [2019] 18 SCR 1196 : (2019) 20 SCC 196 – referred to.


List of Acts


Penal Code, 1860; Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989; Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973; Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.


List of Keywords


Role of Public Prosecutor; Appointment of legal aid lawyers; Rape and murder; Imposition of death sentence; Eyewitness; Last seen together; Recovery of articles; Established beyond reasonable doubt; Examination u/s.313 Cr.P.C; Material circumstances appearing in evidence; Defence evidence; Irregularity; Incarceration; Failure to put incriminating material to accused in his examination u/s.313 CrPC; Death penalty; Capital punishment; Assistance of public prosecutor; Failure to provide legal aid to accused; Right to get legal aid; Right to be defended by a pleader of his choice; Espouse the cause of accused free of costs; State to provide timely and quality of legal aid to accused; Directions regarding role of Public Prosecutor and appointment of legal aid lawyers.


Case Arising From


CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Criminal Appeal No. 771 of 2024


From the Judgment and Order dated 28.11.2013 of the High Court of Judicature at Allahabad in CC No. 170 of 2013


Appearances for Parties


M. Shoeb Alam, Sr. Adv./Amicus Curiae, Talha Abdul Rahman, Amicus Curiae, M Shaz Khan, Sudhanshu Tewari, Faizan Ahmad, Advs. for the Appellant.


K Parameshwar, Sr. A.A.G., Ms. Sakshi Kakkar, Advs. for the Respondent.


Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court


Judgment


Abhay S. Oka, J.


FACTUAL ASPECT


1.This is a very unfortunate case. The victim of the offence was ten years old at the time of the incident. On 27th May 2009, around 9.00 a.m., she and her first cousin, PW-2, had gone to a pasture to graze her goats. The age of PW-2 was seven years at that time. As the victim was thirsty, she went near a tubewell cabin. The appellant-accused was working as an operator of the tubewell appointed by the owner of the tubewell. The victim requested the appellant to provide drinking water. The allegation of the prosecution is that, with evil intentions, the appellant took her inside the cabin. He committed rape on her and, after that, murdered her. According to the prosecution’s case, PW-2 saw the appellant forcibly taking the victim inside the cabin and raping her. By 11.00 a.m., PW-2 returned to PW-1, the victim’s father. PW-1 was the uncle of PW- 2. After PW-2 narrated the story to PW-1, he went to the tubewell cabin to find the victim and found the dead body of the victim hidden in a haystack in that cabin. On being questioned by PW-1, the appellant fled from the spot and thereafter, PW-1 registered the First Information Report.


2.The Trial Court, by judgment and order dated 24th December 2012, convicted the appellant for the offences punishable under Sections 376, 302 and 201 of the Indian Penal Code (for short, ‘the IPC’). The Trial Court also convicted the appellant under the provisions of Section 3(2)(v) of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 (for short, ‘the SCST Act’). The Trial Court imposed capital punishment.


3.The High Court heard the reference under Section 366 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (for short, ‘the CrPC’) with an appeal preferred by the appellant. Though the High Court confirmed the conviction, the death penalty was set aside and the appellant was sentenced to undergo life imprisonment for the remainder of his natural life subject to the exercise of powers of grant of remission or grant of clemency by the constitutional functionaries.


4.The present appeal is against the judgments mentioned above. By order dated 20th May 2022, this Court granted bail to the appellant after noting that he had undergone actual incarceration for about 13 years. We may note here that earlier, learned counsel Shri M Shoeb Alam was appointed as amicus curiae to espouse the cause of the appellant. After his designation as a senior advocate, he continued to assist this Court. Shri Talha Abdul Rahman, Advocate-on-Record, was appointed amicus curiae to assist the learned senior counsel.


SUBMISSIONS


5.The learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant has taken us through the evidence of the prosecution witnesses. Inviting our attention to evidence of PW-1, Heera Lal, the father of the victim, he pointed out that the version of the witness in his examination-in-chief is based on what was reported to him by PW-2, the minor witness. But, if we compare the depositions of PW-2 with the examination-in-chief of PW-1, there is a significant variance between the version of PW-2 as stated by PW-1 and what PW-2 stated in his examination-in-chief. He pointed out that in the cross-examination, PW-1 has tried to improve upon his version by trying to depose consistently with the version of PW-2. Inviting our attention to the proceedings before the Trial Court, he submitted that when the examination-in-chief of the PW-1 was recorded, the appellant-accused was not represented by any advocate. Therefore, the cross-examination was adjourned to enable the appellant to engage an advocate. An advocate was appointed to espouse his cause after the examination-in-chief of PW-1 was recorded. The appellant was not represented by any advocate at the time of the framing of the charge.


6.Coming to the depositions of PW-2, the learned senior counsel for the appellant urged that considering the difference between the version of PW-1 in his examination-in-chief and cross-examination, the possibility of PW-2 being tutored cannot be ruled out. He submitted that evidence of PW-2 was recorded two and half years after the incident, and on the date of the recording of evidence, his age was ten years. Possibly, he was tutored. He pointed out that the evidence of PW-2 was not of sterling quality and, therefore, cannot be the sole basis for the conviction, especially when evidence regarding recovery is doubtful.


7.The learned senior counsel appearing for the appellant as amicus curiae pointed out that the alleged recovery of the victim’s slippers and underwear, at the instance of the appellant, is highly doubtful as the place and time of recovery have not been mentioned in the recovery memo. The prosecution did not examine the two witnesses to the recovery memo. He pointed out that the prosecution made no attempt to prove that blood stains on the undergarments of the appellant were that of the blood of the victim. No analysis was made.


8.More importantly, he submitted that the incriminating circumstances brought on record in the evidence against the appellant were not put to him in his examination under Section 313 of the CrPC. Therefore, the appellant’s right of defence was seriously prejudiced. He relied upon a decision of this Court in the case of Raj Kumar v. State (NCT of Delhi).1


9.Shri K. Parameshwar, the learned senior counsel appearing for the State, supported the impugned judgments. However, he has assisted us on the issue of legal aid to the accused.


CONSIDERATION OF SUBMISSIONS


10.In the examination-in-chief, PW-1 stated that PW-2 witnessed the commission of rape and murder of the victim. According to the witness, PW-2 told him that as the door of the room was open while he was standing outside, he saw the act of commission of rape and murder. He deposed that after the PW-2 told him about the incident, he rushed along with two or three other persons to the spot. He found that the appellant was present there, and he questioned the appellant. Thereafter, the appellant fled. He tried to search for the victim. He found the dead body of the victim under the haystack in the room. It is pertinent to note that PW-2 had informed PW-1 that the appellant was the offender. Though two to three persons accompanied PW-1, he did not attempt to apprehend the accused and take him to the police. The conduct of PW-1 of not apprehending the appellant, though he was present, is unnatural.


11.Examination-in-chief of PW-1 was recorded by learned Trial Judge on 11th May 2011. At the end of the examination-in-chief, the learned Trial Judge recorded that the case was adjourned at the oral request of the appellant to engage a counsel. Before the cross-examination was recorded on 2nd July 2011, an advocate was appointed to espouse the appellant’s cause. The cross-examination of PW-1 was recorded on 2nd July 2011 and 24th September 2011. The witness reiterated that he had narrated the facts stated to him by PW-2.


12.As far as PW-2 is concerned, he was 10 years old when his deposition was recorded. Many preliminary questions were put to the witness by the learned Trial Judge. After satisfying himself that the witness was able to understand the questions and give a reply to the same, an oath was administered to him. His version in the examination-in-chief is that the appellant gave drinking water to him and the victim. After drinking the water, when they tried to leave, the appellant caught the victim from behind, took off her undergarments, and the victim started screaming. He did not depose that he had seen the commission of rape and murder by the appellant. To this extent, the version of PW-2, as told to PW-1, is entirely different. PW-1 claims that PW-2 reported to him that he had seen the appellant committing rape and murder from outside the cabin. PW-8, the investigating officer, stated that he had recorded the Statement of PW-2 on 18th June 2009. Thus, there was a delay of 21 days in recording his statement, though the FIR recorded that this witness had seen the appellant committing the crime. There is some dispute about whether the witness’s statement recorded under Section 161 of CrPC was produced with the charge sheet. The learned senior counsel appointed as amicus pointed out that it is not on the record of the Trial Court. In the list of witnesses mentioned in the charge sheet, the name of PW-2 has not been included. Therefore, for all the reasons discussed above, the evidence of PW-2, the only eyewitness, cannot be held to be of sterling quality. It is unsafe to base conviction only on his testimony. Even otherwise, taking his testimony as correct, the evidence of the PW-2 can, at the highest, be the evidence of the last seen together.


13.Therefore, it is necessary to consider the other circumstantial evidence. In this case, the recovery of the victim’s slipper and underwear is alleged at the appellant’s instance. We have perused the recovery memo signed by the circle officer and two independent witnesses. The prosecution did not examine the two independent witnesses. Though the date of recovery is mentioned in the memo, the time and, most importantly, the place of recovery are not mentioned. Therefore, it cannot be said that pursuant to the statement made by the appellant, in accordance with Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1972 (for short, ‘the Evidence Act’), the articles were found at the place stated by the appellant. Hence, the prosecution failed to prove that the recovery was from a particular place. Thus, evidence of recovery will have to be kept out of consideration. The recovery of the articles at the instance of the appellant is a very important circumstance in the chain of circumstances. It is not proved. Hence, the appellant’s guilt beyond reasonable doubt has not been established.


EXAMINATION OF THE APPELLANT UNDER SECTION 313 OF CR.P.C


14.Now, we come to the appellant’s statement, recorded per Section 313 of the CrPC. Only three questions were put to the appellant. In the first question, the names of ten prosecution witnesses were incorporated, and the only question asked to the appellant was what he had to say about the testimony of ten prosecution witnesses. In the second question, all the documents produced by the prosecution were referred, and a question was asked, what the appellant has to say about the documents. In the third question, it was put to the appellant that knowing the fact that the victim belongs to a scheduled caste, he caused her death after raping her and concealed her dead body, and he was asked for his reaction to the same. What PW-1 and PW-2 deposed against the appellant was not put to the appellant. The contents of the incriminating documents were not put to the appellant.


15.In the case of Raj Kumar,1 in paragraph 17, this Court has summarised the law laid down by this Court from time to time on Section 313 of the CrPC. Paragraph 17 reads thus:


“17. The law consistently laid down by this Court can be summarized as under:


(i)It is the duty of the Trial Court to put each material circumstance appearing in the evidence against the accused specifically, distinctively and separately. The material circumstance means the circumstance or the material on the basis of which the prosecution is seeking his conviction;


(ii)The object of examination of the accused under Section 313 is to enable the accused to explain any circumstance appearing against him in the evidence;


(iii)The Court must ordinarily eschew material circumstances not put to the accused from consideration while dealing with the case of the particular accused;


(iv)The failure to put material circumstances to the accused amounts to a serious irregularity. It will vitiate the trial if it is shown to have prejudiced the accused;


(v)If any irregularity in putting the material circumstance to the accused does not result in failure of justice, it becomes a curable defect. However, while deciding whether the defect can be cured, one of the considerations will be the passage of time from the date of the incident;


(vi)In case such irregularity is curable, even the appellate court can question the accused on the material circumstance which is not put to him; and


(vii)In a given case, the case can be remanded to the Trial Court from the stage of recording the supplementary statement of the concerned accused under Section 313 of CrPC.


(viii)While deciding the question whether prejudice has been caused to the accused because of the omission, the delay in raising the contention is only one of the several factors to be considered.”


This Court based its decision on several decisions, including the decision in the case of Shivaji Sahabrao Bobade v. State of Maharashtra.2 This Court relied upon what was held in paragraph 16 of the said case. Paragraph 16 of the said case reads thus:


“16. ……………. It is trite law, nevertheless fundamental, that the prisoner’s attention should be drawn to every inculpatory material so as to enable him to explain it. This is the basic fairness of a criminal trial and failures in this area may gravely imperil the validity of the trial itself, if consequential miscarriage of justice has flowed. However, where such an omission has occurred it does not ipso facto vitiate the proceedings and prejudice occasioned by such defect must be established by the accused. In the event of evidentiary material not being put to the accused, the court must ordinarily eschew such material from consideration. It is also open to the appellate court to call upon the counsel for the accused to show what explanation the accused has as regards the circumstances established against him but not put to him and if the accused is unable to offer the appellate court any plausible or reasonable explanation of such circumstances, the Court may assume that no acceptable answer exists and that even if the accused had been questioned at the proper time in the trial court he would not have been able to furnish any good ground to get out of the circumstances on which the trial court had relied for its conviction. In such a case, the Court proceeds on the footing that though a grave irregularity has occurred as regards compliance with Section 342, CrPC, the omission has not been shown to have caused prejudice to the accused. In the present case, however, the High Court, though not the trial court has relied upon the presence of blood on the pants of the blood group of the deceased. We have not been shown what explanation the accused could have offered to this chemical finding particularly when we remember that his answer to the question regarding the human blood on the blade of the knife was “I do not know”. Counsel for the appellants could not make out any intelligent explanation and the “blood” testimony takes the crime closer to the accused. However, we are not inclined to rely over much on this evidentiary circumstance, although we should emphasise how this inadvertance of the trial court had led to a relevant fact being argued as unavailable to the prosecution. Great care is expected of Sessions Judges who try grave cases to collect every incriminating circumstance and put it to the accused even though at the end of a long trial the Judge may be a little fagged out.”


(emphasis added)


In a given case, the witnesses may have deposed in a language not known to the accused. In such a case, if the material circumstances appearing in evidence are not put to the accused and explained to the accused, in a language understood by him, it will cause prejudice to the accused.


16.In the present case, there is no doubt that material circumstances appearing in evidence against the appellant have not been put to him. The version of the main prosecution witnesses PWs-1 and 2 was not put to him. The stage of the accused leading defence evidence arises only after his statement is recorded under Section 313 of the CrPC. Unless all material circumstances appearing against him in evidence are put to the accused, he cannot decide whether he wants to lead any defence evidence. In this case, even the date and place of the crime allegedly committed by the appellant were not put to the appellant. What was reportedly seen by PW-2 was not put to the appellant in his examination. Therefore, the appellant was prejudiced. Even assuming that failure to put material to the appellant in his examination is an irregularity, the question is whether it can be cured by remanding the case to the Trial Court.


17.The date of occurrence is of 27th May 2009. Thus, the incident is fifteen and a half years old. After such a long gap of fifteen and half years, it will be unjust if the appellant is now told to explain the circumstances and material specifically appearing against him in the evidence. Moreover, the appellant had been incarcerated for about twelve years and nine months before he was released on bail. Therefore, considering the long passage of time, there is no option but to hold that the defect cannot be cured at this stage. Even assuming that the evidence of PW-2 can be believed, the appellant is entitled to acquittal on the ground of the failure to put incriminating material to him in his examination under Section 313 of the CrPC. We are surprised to note that both the Trial Court and High Court have overlooked non-compliance with the requirements of Section 313 of the CrPC. Shockingly, the Trial Court imposed the death penalty in a case which ought to have resulted in acquittal. Imposing capital punishment in such a case shocks the conscience of this Court.


ROLE OF THE PUBLIC PROSECUTOR


18.Under sub-Section (5) of Section 313 of CrPC (sub-Section (5) of Section 351 of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023), the Court is entitled to secure the assistance of the public prosecutor and the advocate representing the accused to prepare the questions to be put in the examination under Section 313. A Public Prosecutor has to play an active role in ensuring that every trial is conducted in a fair manner and in accordance with the law. Hence, it is the Public Prosecutor’s duty to invite the Court’s attention to the requirement of putting all incriminating material to the accused. Therefore, the Public Prosecutor is under an obligation to remain present when the examination of the accused is made to assist the Court.


FAILURE TO PROVIDE LEGAL AID TO THE ACCUSED


19.After having perused the record of the case, we found a very disturbing feature. It is about the failure of the State to provide timely legal aid to the appellant. The other issue is about the quality of legal aid. Apart from provisions of Article 21 and Article 39A of the Constitution of India, the law on the issue of the right to legal aid has been evolved by this Court through its landmark decisions. This Court’s first well-known decision is in the case of Hussainara Khatoon (IV) v. Home Secy., State of Bihar.3 In Paragraph 7, this Court held thus:


“7. We may also refer to Article 39-A the fundamental constitutional directive which reads as follows:


“39-A. Equal justice and free legal aid.—The State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.” (emphasis added)


This article also emphasises that free legal service is an unalienable element of “reasonable, fair and just” procedure for without it a person suffering from economic or other disabilities would be deprived of the opportunity for securing justice. The right to free legal services is, therefore, clearly an essential ingredient of “reasonable, fair and just”, procedure for a person accused of an offence and it must be held implicit in the guarantee of Article 21. This is a constitutional right of every accused person who is unable to engage a lawyer and secure legal services on account of reasons such as poverty, indigence or incommunicado situation and the State is under a mandate to provide a lawyer to an accused person if the circumstances of the case and the needs of justice so require, provided of course the accused person does not object to the provision of such lawyer. We would, therefore, direct that on the next remand dates, when the undertrial prisoners, charged with bailable offences, are produced before the Magistrates, the State Government should provide them a lawyer at its own cost for the purpose of making an application for bail, provided that no objection is raised to such lawyer on behalf of such undertrial prisoners and if any application for bail is made, the Magistrates should dispose of the same in accordance with the broad outlines set out by us in our judgment dated February 12, 1979. The State Government will report to the High Court of Patna its compliance with this direction within a period of six weeks from today.”


(emphasis added)


The second decision is in the case of M.H. Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra.4 In paragraphs 14 and 25 of the decision, this Court held thus:


“14. The other ingredient of fair procedure to a prisoner, who has to seek his liberation through the court process is lawyer’s services. Judicial justice, with procedural intricacies, legal submissions and critical examination of evidence, leans upon professional expertise; and a failure of equal justice under the law is on the cards where such supportive skill is absent for one side. Our judicature, moulded by Anglo-American models and our judicial process, engineered by kindred legal technology, compel the collaboration of lawyer-power for steering the wheels of equal justice under the law. Free legal services to the needy is part of the English criminal justice system. And the American jurist, Prof. Vance of Yale, sounded sense for India too when he said: [ Justice and Reform, Earl Johnson, Jr. p. 11]


“What does it profit a poor and ignorant man that he is equal to his strong antagonist before the law if there is no one to inform him what the law is? Or that the courts are open to him on the same terms as to all other persons when he has not the wherewithal to pay the admission fee?” ”


(emphasis added)


“25. If a prisoner sentenced to imprisonment, is virtually unable to exercise his constitutional and statutory right of appeal, inclusive of special leave to appeal, for want of legal assistance, there is implicit in the Court under Article 142, read with Articles 21 and 39-A of the Constitution, power to assign counsel for such imprisoned individual “for doing complete justice”. This is a necessary incident of the right of appeal conferred by the Code and allowed by Article 136 of the Constitution. The inference is inevitable that this is a State’s duty and not Government’s charity. Equally affirmative is the implication that while legal services must be free to the beneficiary, the lawyer himself has to be reasonably remunerated for his services. Surely, the profession has a public commitment to the people but mere philanthropy of its members yields short mileage in the long run. Their services, especially when they are on behalf of the State must be paid for. Naturally, the State concerned must pay a reasonable sum that the court may fix when assigning counsel to the prisoner. Of course, the court may judge the situation and consider from all angles whether it is necessary for the ends of justice to make available legal aid in the particular case. In every country where free legal services are given it is not done in all cases but only where public justice suffers otherwise. That discretion resides in the court.”


(emphasis added)


This issue was again dealt with by a Bench of three Judges in the case of Anokhilal v. State of M.P..5 In this decision, this Court revisited the law on this aspect. In paragraph 11, this Court relied upon the decision in the case of Hussainara Khatoon (IV).3 In paragraph 20, this Court summarised the principles laid down from time to time. Paragraph 20 reads thus:


“20. The following principles, therefore, emerge from the decisions referred to hereinabove:


20.1. Article 39-A inserted by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, effected in the year 1977, provides for free legal aid to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities. The statutory regime put in place including the enactment of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 is designed to achieve the mandate of Article 39-A.


20.2. It has been well accepted that right to free legal services is an essential ingredient of “reasonable, fair and just” procedure for a person accused of an offence and it must be held implicit in the right guaranteed by Article 21. The extract from the decision of this Court in Best Bakery case [Zahira Habibulla H. Sheikh v. State of Gujarat (2004) 4 SCC 158 : 2004 SCC (Cri) 999] (as quoted in the decision in Mohd. Hussain [Mohd. Hussain v. State (NCT of Delhi) (2012) 9 SCC 408 : (2012) 3 SCC (Cri) 1139] ) emphasises that the object of criminal trial is to search for the truth and the trial is not a bout over technicalities and must be conducted in such manner as will protect the innocent and punish the guilty.


20.3. Even before insertion of Article 39-A in the Constitution, the decision of this Court in Bashira [Bashira v. State of U.P. (1969) 1 SCR 32 : AIR 1968 SC 1313 : 1968 Cri LJ 1495] put the matter beyond any doubt and held that the time granted to the Amicus Curiae in that matter to prepare for the defence was completely insufficient and that the award of sentence of death resulted in deprivation of the life of the accused and was in breach of the procedure established by law.


20.4. The portion quoted in Bashira [Bashira v. State of U.P. (1969) 1 SCR 32 : AIR 1968 SC 1313 : 1968 Cri LJ 1495] from the judgment of the Andhra Pradesh High Court authored [Alla Nageswara Rao, In re, 1954 SCC OnLine AP 115 : AIR 1957 AP 505] by Subba Rao, J., the then Chief Justice of the High Court, stated with clarity that mere formal compliance of the rule under which sufficient time had to be given to the counsel to prepare for the defence would not carry out the object underlying the rule. It was further stated that the opportunity must be real where the counsel is given sufficient and adequate time to prepare.


20.5. In Bashira [Bashira v. State of U.P. (1969) 1 SCR 32 : AIR 1968 SC 1313 : 1968 Cri LJ 1495] as well as in Ambadas [Ambadas Laxman Shinde v. State of Maharashtra (2018) 18 SCC 788 : (2019) 3 SCC (Cri) 452 : (2018) 14 Scale 730], making substantial progress in the matter on the very day after a counsel was engaged as Amicus Curiae, was not accepted by this Court as compliance with “sufficient opportunity” to the counsel.”


(emphasis added)


In paragraph 31, norms were laid down by this Court, which read thus:


“31. Before we part, we must lay down certain norms so that the infirmities that we have noticed in the present matter are not repeated:


31.1. In all cases where there is a possibility of life sentence or death sentence, learned advocates who have put in minimum of 10 years’ practice at the Bar alone be considered to be appointed as Amicus Curiae or through legal services to represent an accused.


31.2. In all matters dealt with by the High Court concerning confirmation of death sentence, Senior Advocates of the Court must first be considered to be appointed as Amicus Curiae.


31.3. Whenever any learned counsel is appointed as Amicus Curiae, some reasonable time may be provided to enable the counsel to prepare the matter. There cannot be any hard-and-fast rule in that behalf. However, a minimum of seven days' time may normally be considered to be appropriate and adequate.


31.4. Any learned counsel, who is appointed as Amicus Curiae on behalf of the accused must normally be granted to have meetings and discussion with the accused concerned. Such interactions may prove to be helpful as was noticed in Imtiyaz Ramzan Khan [Imtiyaz Ramzan Khan v. State of Maharashtra (2018) 9 SCC 160 : (2018) 3 SCC (Cri) 721] .”


(emphasis added)


20.Thus, the right to get legal aid is a fundamental right of the accused, guaranteed by Article 21 of the Constitution. Even under Section 303 of the CrPC, every accused has a right to be defended by a pleader of his choice. Section 304 provides for the grant of legal aid to an accused free of costs. When an accused has either not engaged an advocate or does not have sufficient means to engage an advocate, it is the trial court’s duty to inform the accused of his right to obtain free legal aid, which is a right covered by Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Sub-Section (1)of Section 304 reads thus:


“304. Legal aid to accused at State expense in certain cases.—(1) Where, in a trial before the Court of Session, the accused is not represented by a pleader, and where it appears to the Court that the accused has not sufficient means to engage a pleader, the Court shall assign a pleader for his defence at the expense of the State.


(2) ………………………………………………………………..


(3) …………………………………………..…………………”


(emphasis added)


Sections 340 and 341 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (for short, ‘BNSS’) are the Sections which correspond to Sections 303 and 304 of the CrPC. Thus, under Section 304 of the CrPC, it is the duty of the Court to ensure that a legal aid lawyer is appointed to espouse the cause of the accused.


21.Now, we come back to the facts of the case. From the proceedings of the Trial Court, it appears that when the charges were framed on 8th September 2010, and when the plea was recorded, the appellant was not represented by any advocate. Proceedings of 26th February 2011 record that though three witnesses of the prosecution were present, the appellant was not represented by any advocate. Therefore, assurance of the appellant has been recorded that he would call his counsel on the next date. On 11th May 2011, the examination-in-chief of PW-1 was recorded. In the proceedings, the court recorded that the appellant had not engaged any advocate on that day, and he was not desirous of taking legal aid. However, on 8th June 2011, an advocate was appointed to espouse his cause. We find that on 20th July 2012, 4th October 2012, 1st November 2012, 7th November 2012, 9th November 2012 and 23rd November 2012, the advocate appointed as amicus curiae for the appellant was absent. Applications were required to be made by him to recall certain witnesses as the cross-examination was closed due to his absence. Thus, the evidence of more than one prosecution witness was recorded in the absence of the legal aid advocate. On 7th November 2012, another advocate was appointed to espouse the appellant’s cause. We find that a third advocate conducted the cross-examination of PW-8.


22.At the stage of framing the charge, the appellant was not represented by an advocate. From 8th June 2011, the appellant never declined legal aid. We are surprised to note that the examination-in-chief of PW-1 was allowed to be recorded without giving legal aid counsel to the appellant, who was not represented by an advocate. If the examination-in-chief of a prosecution witness is recorded in the absence of the advocate for the accused, a very valuable right of objecting to the questions asked in examination-in-chief is taken away. The accused is also deprived of the right to object to leading questions. It will not be appropriate to comment on the capabilities of the two legal aid lawyers appointed in this case as they are not parties before us. But suffice it to say that the cross-examination of the witnesses was not up to the mark. Some of the crucial questions that normally would have been put in the cross-examination have not been asked.


CONCLUDING PART


23.Our conclusions and directions regarding the role of the Public Prosecutor and appointment of legal aid lawyers are as follows:


a.It is the duty of the Court to ensure that proper legal aid is provided to an accused;


b.When an accused is not represented by an advocate, it is the duty of every Public Prosecutor to point out to the Court the requirement of providing him free legal aid. The reason is that it is the duty of the Public Prosecutor to ensure that the trial is conducted fairly and lawfully;


c.Even if the Court is inclined to frame charges or record examination-in-chief of the prosecution witnesses in a case where the accused has not engaged any advocate, it is incumbent upon the Public Prosecutor to request the Court not to proceed without offering legal aid to the accused;


d.It is the duty of the Public Prosecutor to assist the Trial Court in recording the statement of the accused under Section 313 of the CrPC. If the Court omits to put any material circumstance brought on record against the accused, the Public Prosecutor must bring it to the notice of the Court while the examination of the accused is being recorded. He must assist the Court in framing the questions to be put to the accused. As it is the duty of the Public Prosecutor to ensure that those who are guilty of the commission of offence must be punished, it is also his duty to ensure that there are no infirmities in the conduct of the trial which will cause prejudice to the accused;


e.An accused who is not represented by an advocate is entitled to free legal aid at all material stages starting from remand. Every accused has the right to get legal aid, even to file bail petitions;


f.At all material stages, including the stage of framing the charge, recording the evidence, etc., it is the duty of the Court to make the accused aware of his right to get free legal aid. If the accused expresses that he needs legal aid, the Trial Court must ensure that a legal aid advocate is appointed to represent the accused;


g.As held in the case of Anokhilal,5 in all the cases where there is a possibility of a life sentence or death sentence, only those learned advocates who have put in a minimum of ten years of practice on the criminal side should be considered to be appointed as amicus curiae or as a legal aid advocate. Even in the cases not covered by the categories mentioned above, the accused is entitled to a legal aid advocate who has good knowledge of the law and has an experience of conducting trials on the criminal side. It would be ideal if the Legal Services Authorities at all levels give proper training to the newly appointed legal aid advocates not only by conducting lectures but also by allowing the newly appointed legal aid advocates to work with senior members of the Bar in a requisite number of trials;


h.The State Legal Services Authorities shall issue directions to the Legal Services Authorities at all levels to monitor the work of the legal aid advocate and shall ensure that the legal aid advocates attend the court regularly and punctually when the cases entrusted to them are fixed;


i.It is necessary to ensure that the same legal aid advocate is continued throughout the trial unless there are compelling reasons to do so or unless the accused appoints an advocate of his choice;


j.In the cases where the offences are of a very serious nature and complicated legal and factual issues are involved, the Court, instead of appointing an empanelled legal aid advocate, may appoint a senior member of the Bar who has a vast experience of conducting trials to espouse the cause of the accused so that the accused gets best possible legal assistance;


k.The right of the accused to defend himself in a criminal trial is guaranteed by Article 21 of the Constitution of India. He is entitled to a fair trial. But if effective legal aid is not made available to an accused who is unable to engage an advocate, it will amount to infringement of his fundamental rights guaranteed by Article 21;


l.If legal aid is provided only for the sake of providing it, it will serve no purpose. Legal aid must be effective. Advocates appointed to espouse the cause of the accused must have good knowledge of criminal laws, law of evidence and procedural laws apart from other important statutes. As there is a constitutional right to legal aid, that right will be effective only if the legal aid provided is of a good quality. If the legal aid advocate provided to an accused is not competent enough to conduct the trial efficiently, the rights of the accused will be violated.


24.For the reasons recorded earlier, the appeal is allowed. The impugned judgments and orders are set aside, and the appellant is acquitted of offences alleged against him. The bail bonds of the appellant stand cancelled.


25.A copy of this judgment shall be forwarded to all State Legal Services Authorities to enable the authorities to take necessary measures.


26.We record our appreciation for the able assistance rendered to the Court by the learned senior counsel Shri M.Shoeb Alam, appointed to espouse the cause of the appellant. We must also record that the learned senior counsel, Shri K.Parameshwar, appearing for the respondent, has fairly assisted the Court.


Result of the case: Appeal allowed.


1 [2023] 5 SCR 754 : 2023 SCC OnLine SC 609


2 [1974] 1 SCR 489 : (1973) 2 SCC 793


3 [1979] 3 SCR 1276 : (1980) 1 SCC 98


4 [1979] 1 SCR 192 : (1978) 3 SCC 544


5 [2019] 18 SCR 1196 : (2019) 20 SCC 196