LawforAll

advocatemmmohan

My photo
since 1985 practicing as advocate in both civil & criminal laws. This blog is only for information but not for legal opinions

Just for legal information but not form as legal opinion

WELCOME TO MY LEGAL WORLD - SHARE THE KNOWLEDGE

Thursday, May 2, 2024

Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 – s.41(2), 42 – “personal knowledge”, “and taken in writing” – Non-compliance

* Author

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 442 : 2024 INSC 290

Smt. Najmunisha

v.

The State of Gujarat

(Criminal Appeal Nos. 2319-2320 of 2009)

09 April 2024

[Aniruddha Bose and Augustine George Masih,* JJ.]

Issue for Consideration

As per the prosecution, secret information was received by PW-2

(Intelligence Officer/Inspector) as to Accused No. 4 (husband of

Accused No.1) carrying contraband from a particular route in an

auto rickshaw. Said secret information was recorded by her and

reported to her superior-PW-3, (Zonal Officer, a Gazetted Officer).

The raiding party chased the said auto rickshaw however, Accused

No.4 allegedly abandoned it fleeing away from the scene. On

conducting the search of the said auto rickshaw, the raiding party

inter alia found 1.450 Kgs charas. It eventually searched the

house of Accused No.4 and 1 and found 2.098 Kgs of charas.

The said raid/search not based on the personal knowledge of

PW-3 as regards there being contraband in the house of Accused

No.4 thereby necessitating search for the same, if was bereft of

mandatory statutory compliance of s.41(2) of the Narcotics Drugs

and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985. Conviction of Accused

No.1 and 4, if justified.

Headnotes

Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 –

s.41(2), 42 – “personal knowledge”, “and taken in writing”

– Non-compliance:

Held: s.41(2) empowers a Magistrate to issue search warrant

for the arrest of any person or for search, whom he has reason

to believe to have committed any offence under the NDPS Act –

s.41(2) further enables a Gazetted Officer, so empowered to arrest

or conduct a search – The empowered Gazetted Officer must have

reason to believe that an offence has been committed under Chapter

IV, which necessitated the arrest or search– As per s.41(2), such

reason to believe must arise from either his personal knowledge

or information given by any person to him – Additionally, such

knowledge or information is to be reduced into writing by virtue 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 443

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

of expression “and taken in writing” used therein – The secret

information received by PW-2 was limited to the apprehension that

Accused No.4 was to carry contraband via an auto rickshaw from

a particular route – There was no reference to the apprehension

of existence of contraband in the house of Accused No.4 in the

said recorded information – There was no prior information to the

raiding party, including PW-3 (Gazetted Officer) that there was

contraband in his house, necessitating search for the same – PW-1

deposed that he was asked to accompany the raiding party to the

house of Accused No.4, located nearby for carrying out a search

thereof and admits of having no knowledge about any written

information with the raiding party for conducting raid at the said

house – PW-2 admitted that the raiding team proceeded to the

house for the search of the contraband pursuant to the discussions

carried by them and not particularly on the personal knowledge of

PW-3 – She further admitted that it was obligatory for her to obtain

a written authorization from her superior officer, PW-3 however,

omitted seeking the said authorization on the premise that there

was an emergent need to conduct search at the house – Such

major inconsistency as to the ‘source’ of information of existence

of contraband at the house of Accused No.4 weakens the case

of prosecution – Plea that the expressions “personal knowledge”

and “and taken in writing” contemplated by s.41(2) ought to be

read disjunctively, eliminating the requirement of taking down

information in writing when it arises out of the personal knowledge

of the Gazetted Officer, rejected – Raid/search at the house of the

Accused No.1 and 4 was not based on the personal knowledge

of PW-3, rather it was an action on the part of raiding party bereft

of mandatory statutory compliance of s.41(2) – Conviction of

Accused No.1 premised on the recovery of 2.098 kgs of charas

from the house was not in consonance with the mandatory statutory

compliance of s.41(2)– Prosecution not able to establish its case

beyond reasonable doubt – Impugned judgment of the High Court

and Trial Court, set aside – Appellants acquitted by giving benefit

of doubt. [Paras 42-47, 54]

Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 –

s.42(1), (2), s.41(2) – Amendment Act of 2001:

Held: s.42(1) obligates an officer empowered by virtue of s.41(2)

to record the information received from any person regarding an

alleged offence under Chapter IV of the NDPS Act 1985 or record

the grounds of his belief as per the Proviso to s.42(1) in case an 

444 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

empowered officer proceeds on his personal knowledge – While

the same is to be conveyed to the immediate official superior

prior to the said search or raid, in case of any inability to do so,

the s.42(2) provides that a copy of the same shall be sent to the

concerned immediate official superior along with grounds of his

belief as per the proviso hereto – This relaxation contemplated

by virtue of s.42(2) was brought about through the Amendment

Act of 2001 to the NDPS Act wherein prior to this position s.42(2)

mandated the copy of the said writing to be sent to the immediate

official superior “forthwith”. [Para 31]

Evidence Act, 1872 – s.6 – “acts forming part of same

transaction” – Search conducted at the residence of the

Accused No.4 if was in continuance of action of the raiding

party towards the search of the auto rickshaw based on the

secret information received by PW-2 (Intelligence Officer/

Inspector):

Held: No – The attempt towards raiding/searching the residence

of Accused No.4 was not explicitly in pursuance of detaining the

said accused – Testimonies of the members of the raiding party

showcase the idea of search of the house to be an afterthought

with an admitted time gap of 40-45 minutes between having raided

the auto rickshaw which was alleged to be abandoned by the driver

and Accused No.4 and subsequent search of the house of Accused

No.4, wherein Accused No.1 was present – Moreover, it appears

from the record that even the idea to search the house was for

the purpose of recovery of more contraband and not to apprehend

the said absconded accused at the first instance – Hence, the

search conducted at the residence of the Accused No.4 was not

a continuance of action of the raiding party towards the search

of the auto rickshaw based on the secret information received by

PW-2 – Accordingly, it does not appropriately fulfill the requirements

of the test laid down in Gentela Vijyvardhan Rao and Anr. v. State

of Andhra Pradesh – Searches of the abandoned auto rickshaw,

and at the house wherein Accused No.1 was present, were thus,

different transactions. [Paras 28, 29]

Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 – s.67

– Statement of the appellants-accused recorded u/s.67 – Plea

of the appellants that same was not admissible and ought

not to have been the basis of conviction of the appellantsAccused No.1 and 4:

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 445

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

Held: In Tofan Singh v. State of Tamil Nadu it was held held that

s.67 is at an antecedent stage to the investigation, which occurs

after the empowered officer u/s.42 of the NDPS Act has the reason

to believe upon information gathered in an enquiry made in that

behalf that an offence under NDPS Act has been committed and is

thus not even in the nature of a confessional statement – Hence,

question of its being admissible in trial as a confessional statement

against the accused does not arise - The same, therefore, cannot

be considered to convict an accused person under the NDPS

Act – By virtue of the decision in Tofan Singh, the benefit is to be

granted to the appellants in regard to the inadmissibility of their

statements u/s. 67. [Paras 51, 52]

Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985

– s.41(2) – Power of search and seizure – Limited by the

recognition of fundamental rights by the Constitution and

statutory limitations:

Held: s.41(2) begins from the power of search and seizure

conferred by the State upon its executive or administrative

arms – Such power is inherently limited by the recognition

of fundamental rights by the Constitution as well as statutory

limitations – At the same time, it is not legitimate to assume that

Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India would be affected by

the provisions of search and seizure – The statutory provisions

conferring authorities with the power to search and seize are

a mere temporary interference with the right of the accused as

they stand well regulated by reasonable restrictions emanating

from the statutory provisions itself – Such a power cannot be

considered as a violation of any fundamental rights of the person

concerned. [Para 41]

Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985

– Constitution of India – Article 21 – Just and fair trial, a

fundamental right – Actions of authorities within the NDPS

Act must ensure upholding the rights of the accused to have

a fair trial:

Held: Article 21 necessitates a just and fair trial to be a humane

and fundamental right and actions of the prosecution as well as

the authorities concerned within the meaning of the NDPS Act

1985 must be towards ensuring of upholding of the rights of the

accused in order to allow to have a fair trial – The harmonious 

446 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

balance between the Latin maxims salus populi suprema lex (the

safety of the people is the supreme law) and salus republicae

suprema lex (safety of the State is the supreme law) is not only

crucial and pertinent but lies at the core of the doctrine that welfare

of an individual must yield to that of the community subject to the

State being right, just, and fair. [Para 24]

Case Law Cited

Tofan Singh v. State of Tamil Nadu [2020] 12 SCR

583 : (2021) 4 SCC 1; Gentela Vijyvardhan Rao and

Anr. v. State of Andhra Pradesh [1996] Supp. 5 SCR

273 : (1996) 6 SCC 241; State of Punjab v. Balbir Singh

[1994] 2 SCR 208 : (1994) 3 SCC 299; Karnail Singh

v. State of Haryana [2009] 11 SCR 470 : (2009) 8 SCC

539 – relied on.

Darshan Singh v. State of Haryana (2016) 14 SCC

358; Abdul Rashid Ibrahim Mansuri v. State of Gujarat

[2000] 1 SCR 542 : (2000) 2 SCC 513; Sajan Abraham

v. State of Kerala [2001] Supp. 1 SCR 335 : (2001) 6

SCC 692; Balak Ram v. State of Uttar Pradesh [1975]

1 SCR 753 : (1975) 3 SCC 219; State of Himachal

Pradesh v. Pawan Kumar [2005] 3 SCR 417 : (2005)

4 SCC 350; Madan Lal v. State of Himachal Pradesh

[2003] Supp. 2 SCR 716 : (2003) 7 SCC 465; Dhal

Singh Dewangan v. State of Chhattisgarh [2016] 8

SCR 36 : (2016) SCC OnLine SC 983; Chhunna alias

Mehtab v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2002) 9 SCC

363; Dharamveer Parsad v. State of Bihar (2020) 12

SCC 492; Ramabora alias Ramaboraiah & Anr. v.

State of Karnataka [2022] 4 SCR 827 : (2022) SCC

OnLine SC 996; Arvind Kumar alias Nemichand

& Ors. v. State of Rajasthan [2021] 11 SCR 237 :

(2021) SCC OnLine SC 1099; MP Sharma v. Satish

Chandra Sharma, District Magistrate, Delhi [1954] 1

SCR 1077 – referred to.

Miranda v. Arizona (1966) 384 US 436 – referred to.

List of Acts

Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985; Evidence

Act, 1872; Constitution of India.

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 447

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

List of Keywords

Contraband; Raid/search of house; Raiding party; “Personal

knowledge”; “and taken in writing”; Written authorization; Gazetted

Officer; Benefit of doubt; Beyond reasonable doubt; Search and

seizure; Confessional statements.

Case Arising From

CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Criminal Appeal Nos. 2319-

2320 of 2009

From the Judgment and Order dated 16.03.2009 of the High Court of

Gujarat at Ahmedabad in CRLA No. 1702 and 2097 of 2004

Appearances for Parties

Sanjay Jain, Adv. for the Appellants.

K M Nataraj, A.S.G., Ms. Deepanwita Priyanka, Ms. Swati Ghildiyal,

Ms. Devyani Bhatt, Ms. Srujana Suman Mund, Shailesh Madiyal, T

A Khan, Vatsal Joshi, Annirudh Sharma Ii, Arvind Kumar Sharma,

Advs. for the Respondents

Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court

Judgment

Augustine George Masih, J.

1. The instant criminal appeals arise out of SLP (Criminal) No(s). 7419-

7420 of 2009 assailing the Common Impugned Judgment dated

16.03.2009 of the Division Bench of Gujarat High Court in Criminal

Appeal Nos. 1702 of 2004 and 2097 of 2004 moved by the Original

Accused No. 01 (Smt. Najmunisha – Appellant in Criminal Appeal No.

1702 of 2004 before the High Court) and Original Accused No. 04

(Abdul Hamid Chandmiya alias Ladoo Bapu – Appellant in Criminal

Appeal No. 2097 of 2004 before the High Court).

2. Smt. Najmunisha (hereinafter referred to as “Accused No. 01”) was

originally convicted under Sections 29 read with 20(b)(ii)(c) and

25 of the Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985

(hereinafter referred to as “NDPS Act 1985”). The Trial Court had

sentenced her to ten years of rigorous imprisonment and fine of

INR 30,000/- (Rupees Thirty Thousand only) for the charge under

Section 29 read with Section 20(b)(ii)(c) of the NDPS Act 1985 and 

448 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

in default, she had to undergo one year of simple imprisonment. No

separate sentence was imposed under Section 25 of the NDPS Act

1985. This sentence was subsequently modified by the High Court of

Gujarat while partly allowing her appeal to the effect that her fine was

enhanced to the minimum prescribed fine of INR 1,00,000/- (Rupees

One Lakh only) and reduced the sentence in default of paying the

fine from simple imprisonment of one-year to simple imprisonment

of three months.

2A. Abdul Hamid Chandmiya alias Ladoo Bapu (hereinafter referred to

as “Accused No. 04”) is the husband of Accused No. 01 who was

originally convicted under Section 29 read with 20(b)(ii)(c) of the NDPS

Act 1985 and sentenced to thirteen years of rigorous imprisonment

and fine of INR 1,00,000/- (Rupees One Lakh only). The same was

affirmed by the High Court of Gujarat while also dismissing his appeal.

3. Accused No. 05 (Nazir Ahmed alias Nazir Bazara) was convicted

under Section 20(b)(ii)(a) of the NDPS Act 1985 and was sentenced

to six months of rigorous imprisonment along with fine of INR 5,000/-

(Rupees Five Thousand only) which he completed during the trial and

therefore did not prefer any appeal before the High Court of Gujarat.

4. The facts leading to the present set of appeals are that on 10.12.1999

at about 06:30 PM, the PW-02 Mrs Krishna Chaube (Intelligence

Officer/Inspector) (hereinafter referred to as “Mrs Chaube”) had

received a secret information that the Accused No. 04 would be

carrying narcotic substances in an auto rickshaw bearing registration

number GJ-9T-2355 at about 07:00 AM on 11.12.1999 and shall be

passing through one Shahpur Darwaja. The said secret information

was recorded by her and reported to her superior officer (PW03), namely Mr Pawan Singh Tomar – who was the Zonal Officer

(hereinafter referred to as “Mr Tomar”).

5. Thereby, on 11.12.1999, it is submitted by the prosecution that on

directions of Mr Tomar, they assembled at about 06:30 AM near the

raiding point and arranged for the panchas and waited for the Accused

No. 04 at different points of the raiding route. When the Accused

No. 04 showed up in the said vehicle as per the information, they

attempted to stop the auto rickshaw, instead it sped away at a high

speed. Therefore, the members of the raiding party arranged for and

chased the said auto rickshaw which was eventually, after covering

a certain distance, found abandoned near a road and the Accused 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 449

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

No. 04 was said to have escaped. On conducting the search of the

said auto rickshaw, the raiding party found a driving license of one

Shri Abdulgafar Gulamali Shaikh alias Rajubhai in addition to charas

to the tune of 1.450 Kilograms.

6. As Accused No. 04 had run away, the raiding party eventually was

led to the house of Accused No. 04 wherein the Accused No. 01 was

already present. Thereinafter, the son of Accused No. 01 and Accused

No. 04 – namely Abdul Rajak (hereinafter referred to as “Accused

No. 02”) – came inquiring. Eventually the raiding party conducted

a search of the said house wherein in the open kitchen there was

a cement bag which had yellow coloured wires beneath which they

are said to have found one bundle wrapped in newspaper which

was fastened with a linen thread inside which a transparent plastic

bag contained 2.098 Kilograms of substance of which turned out

to be charas. Thereafter, the necessary formalities were completed

and Accused No. 01 and Accused No. 02 were arrested. Eventually,

the panchnama was also recorded with two independent witnesses.

7. The statements of Accused No. 01 and Accused No. 02 were

recorded under Section 67 of the NDPS Act 1985 wherein it was

stated that Accused No. 01 aids the business of drug trafficking as

conducted by Accused No. 04 – who was absconding. Eventually,

Accused No. 04 is also said to have been arrested on 26.06.2000

and per his statement under Section 67 of the NDPS Act 1985 he

had confessed to be transporting and selling the contraband which

he sold regularly to Accused No. 05.

8. Eventually, the charges were framed and a total of five prosecution

witnesses were examined with PW-01 being one of the panch

witnesses, PW-02 to PW-04 being members of the raiding party, and

PW-05 being the FSL expert. Per contra, the defence had examined

a total of seven witnesses in their favour.

9. The trial of Accused No. 01 to Accused No. 05 was concluded by the

Additional Sessions Judge in Sessions Case No. 143 of 2000 and

Sessions Case No. 295 of 2000 vide judgment dated 28.01.2004,

whereby while the Accused No. 02 and Accused No. 03 were

acquitted, Accused No. 01, Accused No. 04 and Accused No. 05

were convicted as aforementioned.

9A. Since both the Accused No. 01 and Accused No. 04 had moved in

respective appeals before the High Court of Gujarat their conviction 

450 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

stood affirmed, while the fine imposed on Accused No. 01 was

enhanced as aforementioned and the default sentence was reduced.

As stated above, Accused No. 05 did not prefer any appeal.

10. The High Court of Gujarat had observed that the statements of the

appellants herein under Section 67 of the NDPS Act 1985 were

prima facie voluntary and without inducement, threat or coercion

and the statement of Accused No. 01 refers to dealing of narcotic

substances by Accused No. 04 for a long period of time in which

she aided as well. Therefore, there exists a presumption in favour

of the prosecution under Section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act,

1872 (hereinafter referred to as “IEA 1872”). None of the accused

had either retracted the said statements or they had moved any

complaints alleging perversity. The defence, despite leading evidence,

could not establish their version that the officers had come inquiring

about house of Accused No. 04 and eventually arrested Accused

No. 01 and Accused No. 02 as against all legalities. Furthermore,

there was consistency in the statements of prosecution witnesses

and that no specific unreliability was established in the panchnama

by the defence. As to the necessary compliance laid down in the

provisions of the NDPS Act 1985, the procedure established under

Section 52A of the NDPS Act 1985 was not to be considered and

that there was no requirement of any authorization under Section 41

of the NDPS Act 1985. Since Mr Tomar, being a Gazetted Officer,

had accompanied the raiding party pursuant to the information

communicated by Mrs Chaube on 10.12.1999, defence has also

not raised any contention as to breach of Section 36 or Section 53

of the NDPS Act 1985.

11. The High Court of Gujarat had also observed in paragraph number

36 of its judgment that there is compliance of Section 57 of the

NDPS Act 1985 as established from the reports (Ex. 87 and Ex.

112) submitted to the Zonal Officer. Furthermore, it rejected the

defence that the prosecution failed to prove documentary evidence

as the defence did not raise any objection to the exhibiting of said

documents, including arrest reports recorded in compliance of Section

57 of the NDPS Act, arrest memo of Accused No. 04 and Accused

No. 01 and intimation given to the next kin of the accused persons.

12. The High Court of Gujarat was of the opinion that except two minor

inconsistencies, namely, apropos who called the panchas and the 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 451

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

recording of statement of Accused No. 02, there was no reason to

question the veracity of the depositions of the members of the raiding

party. Those minor fallacies in the statements of the prosecution

witnesses do not go to the root of the matter. Thereafter, while

acquitting Accused No. 02, the High Court believed that there was

no evidence implicating him to the criminality involved. In the same

breath, the Court observed that such finding of acquittal does not

throw prosecution’s case as against other accused persons, inter alia,

Accused No. 01 and Accused No. 04, which is established beyond

any reasonable doubts.

13. With respect to the objection that no independent witnesses were

examined to prove joint possession of house by Accused No. 01 and

Accused No. 04, the High Court of Gujarat placed reliance on the

depositions of Defence Witness (brother of Accused No. 04), who

testified that the said accommodation was occupied by the accused

persons to entertain their guests. The fact of possession of the house

by Accused No. 01 and Accused No. 04 is bolstered by their own

confessional statements and corroborated by the testimony of an

independent witness PW-01. Thereupon, perusing the statements

of Mrs Chaube and PW-05, the High Court held that there was no

infirmity regarding the receipt of muddamal with seals intact on the

goods being sent to the Forensic Science Laboratory for examination.

14. Delving into the question of compliance of Section 42(2) of the

NDPS Act 1985, the High Court was inclined to accept the argument

of the prosecution that the statement of Mrs Chaube with respect

to recording of secret information and conveying it to her superior

officer stood established by consistent testimonies of Mrs Chaube

and Mr Tomar and clarified that the testimony of the former cannot

be thrown on the premise that there was variation on the point that

who called the panch witness. Considering the aforementioned, the

High Court of Gujarat affirmed the case of conviction of the Accused

No. 01 and Accused No. 04.

15. The learned Counsel for the appellants herein contends that the

statement of the appellants/accused in the instant case recorded

under the provision of Section 67 of the NDPS Act 1985 was not

admissible and ought not to have been the basis of conviction of

the Accused No. 01 and Accused No. 04. It has been brought to

our attention that the High Court has critically scrutinized the said 

452 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

statements of Accused No. 01 to Accused No. 04 and has observed

that the same being voluntary in nature and having been corroborated

by other evidence can form the basis of their conviction. For this

purpose, reliance has been placed on the decision in Tofan Singh

v. State of Tamil Nadu (2021) 4 SCC 1 whereby it has been

categorically held that a statement recorded under Section 67 of the

NDPS Act 1985 is inadmissible in evidence. The majority opinion

herein had held that power of recording of statement under Section

67 of the NDPS Act is limited in nature and conferred upon subject

to the safeguards as set out in Sections 41 to 44 of the NDPS Act

1985 for the purpose of entry, search, seizure and arrest without

warrants and for conducting of only an enquiry and not in the course

of investigation. It is for the initiation of an investigation or enquiry

under the NDPS Act 1985 and it does not meet the threshold of a

confessional statement.

16. It is submitted that the secret information received by Mrs Chaube was

only related to the auto rickshaw wherein the Accused No. 04 was to

be carrying the contraband – which was eventually seized. However,

there existed no secret information apropos the house wherein the

subsequent search/raid was conducted by the raiding party. The

latter was totally out of the scope of the information received and

recorded and thereby the search therein was absolutely illegal and

in violation of the provisions of Section 42 of the NDPS Act 1985.

The learned Counsel has further drawn our attention to the fallacies

and inconsistencies in the panchnama recorded by the raiding party

in addition to the depositions of the prosecution witnesses.

17. The learned Counsel further relies on Darshan Singh v. State of

Haryana (2016) 14 SCC 358 which deals with scope of Sections

41(1) and (2) of the NDPS Act 1985 and the need of their independent

compliance against each other. This Court herein went on to hold

that mere registration of FIR at the instance of the SHO and its

subsequent communication to the Superintendent of Police would

not amount to sufficient compliance with Section 42(2) of the NDPS

Act 1985. For this purpose, reference is made to paragraph number

13 of the said judgment at Page 364 as follows:

“13. Having given our thoughtful consideration to the

submission advanced at the hands of the learned counsel

for the respondent, we are of the view that the mandate 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 453

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

contained in Section 42(1) of the NDPS Act, requiring the

recording in writing, the details pertaining to the receipt of

secret information, as also, the communication of the same

to the superior officer are separate and distinct from the

procedure stipulated under the provisions of the Criminal

Procedure Code. Sub-section (1) of Section 41 of the

NDPS Act provides that a Metropolitan Magistrate or a

Magistrate of the First Class or any Magistrate of Second

Class specially empowered by the State Government may

issue a warrant for the arrest of any person whom he has

reason to believe to have committed any offence punishable

under Chapter IV. Sub-section (2) of Section 41 refers

to issuance of authorisation for similar purposes by the

officers of the Departments of Central Excise, Narcotics,

Customs, Revenue Intelligence, etc. Sub-section (1) of

Section 42 of the NDPS Act lays down that the empowered

officer if he has a prior information given by any person,

should necessarily take it down in writing, and where he

has reason to believe from his personal knowledge, that

offences under Chapter IV have been committed or that

materials which may furnish evidence of commission of

such offences are concealed in any building, etc. he may

carry out the arrest or search, without warrant between

sunrise and sunset and he may do so without recording

his reasons of belie. The two separate procedures noticed

above are exclusive of one another. Compliance with

one, would not infer compliance with the other. In the

circumstances contemplated under Section 42 of the NDPS

Act the mandate of the procedure contemplated therein will

have to be followed separately, in the manner interpreted

by this Court in Karnail Singh case [Karnail Singh v. State

of Haryana, (2009) 8 SCC 539 : (2009) 3 SCC (Cri) 887]

and the same will not be assumed, merely because the

Station House Officer concerned had registered a first

information report, which was also dispatched to the

Superintendent of Police, in compliance with the provisions

of the Criminal Procedure Code.”

18. The aforesaid reference places its reliance on a judgment of the

Constitution Bench of this Court, i.e., Karnail Singh v. State of 

454 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

Haryana (2009) 8 SCC 539 which is also relied upon by the learned

Counsel for the appellants. It is a well celebrated judgment on the

statutory requirement of writing down and conveying information to

the superior officer prior to entry, search and seizure as per Section

42(1) and (2) of the NDPS Act 1985, requiring a literal or substantial

compliance. The learned Counsel has brought our attention to

paragraph number 35 of the judgment at page 554 which dealt with

effect of the decisions in Abdul Rashid Ibrahim Mansuri v. State

of Gujarat (2000) 2 SCC 513 and that in Sajan Abraham v. State

of Kerala (2001) 6 SCC 692. By virtue of this, it was observed that

while a total non-compliance of Section 42 of the NDPS Act 1985

would be impermissible, a delayed compliance with satisfactory

explanation about the said delay could be an acceptable compliance

of statutory requirements under Sections 42(1) and (2). For a better

clarity of the judgment, paragraph number 35 is reproduced as follows:

“35. In conclusion, what is to be noticed is that Abdul

Rashid [(2000) 2 SCC 513 : 2000 SCC (Cri) 496] did not

require literal compliance with the requirements of Sections

42(1) and 42(2) nor did Sajan Abraham [(2001) 6 SCC

692 : 2001 SCC (Cri) 1217] hold that the requirements of

Sections 42(1) and 42(2) need not be fulfilled at all. The

effect of the two decisions was as follows:

(a) The officer on receiving the information [of

the nature referred to in sub-section (1) of

Section 42] from any person had to record

it in writing in the register concerned and

forthwith send a copy to his immediate

official superior, before proceeding to

take action in terms of clauses (a) to (d)

of Section 42(1).

(b) But if the information was received when

the officer was not in the police station, but

while he was on the move either on patrol

duty or otherwise, either by mobile phone,

or other means, and the information calls

for immediate action and any delay would

have resulted in the goods or evidence

being removed or destroyed, it would not 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 455

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

be feasible or practical to take down in

writing the information given to him, in

such a situation, he could take action as

per clauses (a) to (d) of Section 42(1) and

thereafter, as soon as it is practical, record

the information in writing and forthwith

inform the same to the official superior.

(c) In other words, the compliance with the

requirements of Sections 42(1) and 42(2)

in regard to writing down the information

received and sending a copy thereof to the

superior officer, should normally precede

the entry, search and seizure by the officer.

But in special circumstances involving

emergent situations, the recording of the

information in writing and sending a copy

thereof to the official superior may get

postponed by a reasonable period, that

is, after the search, entry and seizure. The

question is one of urgency and expediency.

(d) While total non-compliance with

requirements of sub-sections (1) and (2)

of Section 42 is impermissible, delayed

compliance with satisfactory explanation

about the delay will be acceptable

compliance with Section 42. To illustrate,

if any delay may result in the accused

escaping or the goods or evidence being

destroyed or removed, not recording in

writing the information received, before

initiating action, or non-sending of a copy

of such information to the official superior

forthwith, may not be treated as violation

of Section 42. But if the information was

received when the police officer was in the

police station with sufficient time to take

action, and if the police officer fails to record

in writing the information received, or fails to

send a copy thereof, to the official superior, 

456 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

then it will be a suspicious circumstance

being a clear violation of Section 42 of

the Act. Similarly, where the police officer

does not record the information at all,

and does not inform the official superior

at all, then also it will be a clear violation

of Section 42 of the Act. Whether there is

adequate or substantial compliance with

Section 42 or not is a question of fact to be

decided in each case. The above position

got strengthened with the amendment to

Section 42 by Act 9 of 2001.”

19. Per contra, the learned Counsel for the Respondent No. 02 herein

contents that there is no infirmity in the concurrent findings of the

Trial Court and the High Court. There has been well recorded

compliance of the statutory requirements and the evidences have

been sufficiently appraised by the Courts below. Moreover, there has

been no material contradiction in the testimonies of the prosecution

witnesses and the same aspires confidence. It is a settled law that

the concurrent findings of the facts must not ordinarily be interfered

with unless there exists a prima facie perversity or absurdity in light

of the observation in paragraph number 26 in the decision delivered

in Balak Ram v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1975) 3 SCC 219.

20. It is further submitted by the learned Counsel for the Respondent

No. 02 that there has been substantial compliance of the statutory

requirements under Section 42 of the NDPS Act 1985 as Mrs Chaube

recorded the secret information in writing and conveyed the same to

her superior officer namely, Mr Tomar prior to the raid conducted as

against Accused No. 04 and Accused No. 01. It is contended that

the search undertaken at the residence of Accused No. 04 whereby

Accused No. 01 was also present, was in continuation of the action

taken on the basis of the said secret information. For this, the learned

Counsel has brought to our attention the testimonies of Mrs Chaube

(PW-02) and Mr Tomar (PW-03). Alternatively, even assuming that

the said latter part of the raid/search at the house of the Accused

No. 01 and Accused No. 04 was not in continuation of the action

taken towards Accused No. 04 as per the secret information, there

has still been appropriate compliance of Section 42 of the NDPS

Act 1985 for the reason that the same was based on the personal 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 457

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

knowledge of Mr Tomar, who is a Gazetted Officer. It is further

contended that the provision of Section 42(2) of the NDPS Act is to

be read disjunctively and henceforth there is no requirement to take

down the information in writing where it emanates from the personal

knowledge of the superior officer. To further this argument, the learned

Counsel has distinguished the facts of the present case from the

ratio in decisions in State of Punjab v. Balbir Singh (1994) 3 SCC

299 and Karnail Singh (supra) as they refer only to the process to

be followed upon receipt of information from any person and not to

“personal knowledge” of the officer.

21. Furthermore, it is submitted that there has been a substantial

compliance of Section 42(1) of the NDPS Act 1985 as during the

action being taken against the Accused No. 04 and his absconding

therefrom, an emergent situation arose which necessitated the

search in his house – which was nearby to the place where auto

rickshaw was abandoned. There was a grave possibility that if the

Accused No. 04 was at his house then he might run away and/or

if there was any further amount of contraband at his residence, he

would have appropriated that as well. Thence, the raiding party had

their hands tied down to necessarily carry out the said search at the

house of Accused No. 04 in light of the ratio in Karnail Singh (supra)

not necessitating literal compliance rather substantial compliance

contingent on the facts of each case.

22. The learned Counsel for the Respondent No. 02 further contends

that the scope of Section 50 of the NDPS Act 1985 is limited to the

search on the person of an individual and does not include adherence

to the search made on any premise(s). Reliance is placed on State

of Himachal Pradesh v. Pawan Kumar (2005) 4 SCC 350 wherein

it was held that presence of a Gazetted Officer is required only at the

time of the search which is on the person and is not applicable during

search of premises. To bolster this argument, it is submitted that the

said interpretation fits into the reading of Section 42 of the NDPS

Act 1985 as Section 42(1)(a) of the NDPS Act 1985 comprehends

search of a building or conveyance or place while Section 42(1)(d)

of the NDPS Act 1985 contemplates for search of a person.

23. Apropos, the presumption pertaining to the recovery of contraband,

the learned Counsel for the Respondent No. 02, submits that

once the recovery of the contraband has been made from the 

458 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

possession of an individual, there arises a rebuttable presumption

as per Section 54 of the NDPS Act 1985 that the said individual

has committed an offence under the NDPS Act 1985. To further

build this contention, the learned Counsel has brought our attention

to the decision in Madan Lal v. State of Himachal Pradesh

(2003) 7 SCC 465 whereby at paragraph numbers 22 to 26 of the

judgment, it was has been laid down that the aforesaid possession

of contraband includes constructive possession and it need not

be only an actual possession of the contraband. On the basis of

these above recorded submissions, he prays for dismissal of the

instant appeals.

24. Before we delve into the factual analysis based on the legal principles

and jurisprudence existing in each contention, it is pertinent to refer

to the heart and soul of the Constitution of India, 1950 (hereinafter

referred to as “Constitution of India”) – Article 21 – necessitates a

just and fair trial to be a humane and fundamental right and actions

of the prosecution as well as the authorities concerned within the

meaning of the NDPS Act 1985 must be towards ensuring of upholding

of the rights of the accused in order to allow to have a fair trial.

The harmonious balance between the Latin maxims salus populi

suprema lex (the safety of the people is the supreme law) and salus

republicae suprema lex (safety of the State is the supreme law) is

not only crucial and pertinent but lies at the core of the doctrine that

welfare of an individual must yield to that of the community subject

to the State being right, just, and fair as was iterated in the decision

of Miranda v. Arizona (1966) 384 US 436.

25. The NDPS Act 1985 being a special law with the purpose to curtail

the drug menace in the republic necessitated the comprehensive

control in favour of the authorities. The same is well reflected in the

decisions of this Court across the last couple of decades. Accordingly,

the key provisions to be contemplated for the purpose of appraising

the present factual matrix are Sections 41, 42, and 67 of the NDPS

Act 1985. The same are thereby analysed herein after.

26. Having heard the learned Counsels for both the parties, we deem

it appropriate to refer to the jurisprudence of Section 6 of the IEA

1872. It is to be observed that it deals with relevancy of facts forming

part of same transaction and therefore, it is crucial to refer the bare

provision which reads as follows:

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 459

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

“6. Relevancy of facts forming part of same

transaction.––Facts which, though not in issue, are so

connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same

transaction, are relevant, whether they occurred at the

same time and place or at different times and places.”

27. This court has laid down the test for “acts forming part of same

transaction” in Gentela Vijyvardhan Rao and Anr. v. State of

Andhra Pradesh (1996) 6 SCC 241, wherein it has been held that

it is based on spontaneity and immediacy of such statement or fact

in relation to the fact in issue. Provided that if there was an interval

which ought to have been sufficient for purpose of fabrication then

the said statement having been recorded, with however slight delay

there may be, is not part of res gestae. The same was adopted by a

3-Judges’ Bench in the decision of Dhal Singh Dewangan v. State

of Chhattisgarh (2016) SCC OnLine SC 983.

28. In the present factual matrix, having perused the material it appears

that the attempt towards raiding/searching the residence of Accused

No. 04 was not explicitly in pursuance of detaining the said accused

but the testimonies of the members of the raiding party showcase the

idea of search of the house to be an afterthought with an admitted

time gap of 40-45 minutes between having raided the auto rickshaw

which was alleged to be abandoned by the driver and Accused No.

04 and subsequent search of the house of Accused No. 04, wherein

Accused No. 01 was present. Moreover, it appears from the record that

even the idea to search the house was for the purpose of recovery

of more contraband and not to apprehend the said absconded

accused at the first instance. Thence, it can be safely concluded that

the search conducted at the residence of the Accused No. 04 is not

a continuance of action of the raiding party towards the search of

the auto rickshaw based on the secret information received by Mrs

Chaube. Accordingly, it does not appropriately fulfill the requirements

of the test laid down in Gentela Vijyvardhan Rao (supra).

29. Having reached the conclusion that the searches of the abandoned

auto rickshaw, and at the house wherein Accused No. 01 was

present, to be different transactions, the subsequent consideration

is apropos necessary statutory safeguards enlisted in the NDPS Act

1985. Henceforth, we shall further delve into the legal analysis of

relevant provisions of the NDPS Act 1985.

460 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

30. The next issue that falls for our consideration is with respect to

the compliance of Section 42 of the NDPS Act 1985. For the said

purposes, an analysis of the bare text of Section 42 of the NDPS

Act 1985 is undertaken hereinafter. Section 42 of the NDPS Act

1985 is worded as follows:

“42. Power of entry, search, seizure and arrest without

warrant or authorisation.—

(l) Any such officer (being an officer superior in rank to a

peon, sepoy or constable) of the departments of central

excise, narcotics, customs, revenue intelligence or any

other department of the Central Government including

para-military forces or armed forces as is empowered

in this behalf by general or special order by the Central

Government, or any such officer (being an officer superior

in rank to a peon, sepoy or constable) of the revenue, drugs

control, excise, police or any other department of a State

Government as is empowered in this behalf by general or

special order of the State Government, if he has reason

to believe from personal knowledge or information given

by any person and taken down in writing that any narcotic

drug, or psychotropic substance, or controlled substance

in respect of which an offence punishable under this Act

has been committed or any document or other article

which may furnish evidence of the commission of such

offence or any illegally acquired property or any document

or other article which may furnish evidence of holding any

illegally acquired property which is liable for seizure or

freezing or forfeiture under Chapter VA of this Act is kept

or concealed in any building, conveyance or enclosed

place, may between sunrise and sunset,—

(a) enter into and search any such building,

conveyance or place;

(b) in case of resistance, break open any door

and remove any obstacle to such entry;

(c) seize such drug or substance and all

materials used in the manufacture thereof

and any other article and any animal 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 461

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

or conveyance which he has reason to

believe to be liable to confiscation under

this Act and any document or other article

which he has reason to believe may

furnish evidence of the commission of

any offence punishable under this Act or

furnish evidence of holding any illegally

acquired property which is liable for seizure

or freezing or forfeiture under Chapter VA

of this Act; and

(d) detain and search, and, if he thinks proper,

arrest any person whom he has reason

to believe to have committed any offence

punishable under this Act:

[Provided that in respect of holder of a licence for

manufacture of manufactured drugs or psychotropic

substances or controlled substances granted under this

Act or any rule or order made thereunder, such power

shall be exercised by an officer not below the rank of

sub-inspector:

Provided further that] if such officer has reason to believe

that a search warrant or authorisation cannot be obtained

without affording opportunity for the concealment of

evidence or facility for the escape of an offender, he may

enter and search such building, conveyance or enclosed

place at any time between sunset and sunrise after

recording the grounds of his belief.

(2) Where an officer takes down any information in writing

under sub-section (1) or records grounds for his belief

under the proviso thereto, he shall within seventy-two hours

send a copy thereof to his immediate official superior.”

31. From the perusal of provision of Section 42(1) of the NDPS Act

1985, it is evident that the provision obligates an officer empowered

by virtue of Section 41(2) of the NDPS Act 1985 to record the

information received from any person regarding an alleged offence

under Chapter IV of the NDPS Act 1985 or record the grounds of

his belief as per the Proviso to Section 42(1) of the NDPS Act 1985 

462 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

in case an empowered officer proceeds on his personal knowledge.

While the same is to be conveyed to the immediate official superior

prior to the said search or raid, in case of any inability to do so, the

Section 42(2) of the NDPS Act provides that a copy of the same

shall be sent to the concerned immediate official superior along

with grounds of his belief as per the proviso hereto. This relaxation

contemplated by virtue of Section 42(2) of the NDPS Act 1985 was

brought about through the Amendment Act of 2001 to the NDPS Act

of 1985 wherein prior to this position, the Section 42(2) mandated

the copy of the said writing to be sent to the immediate official

superior “forthwith”.

32. The decision in Karnail Singh (supra) has been extensively

referred by the learned Counsel for the Appellants and at the cost

of repetition, it is observed that absolute non-compliance of the

statutory requirements under the Section 42(1) and (2) of the NDPS

Act 1985 is verboten. However, any delay in the said compliance

may be allowed considering the same is supported by well-reasoned

explanations for such delay. This position adopted by the instant

5-Judges’ Bench of this Court is derived from the ratio in the decision

in Balbir Singh (supra) which is a decision by a 3-Judges’ Bench

of this Court.

33. Another 3-Judges’ Bench while dealing with compliance of Section

42 of the NDPS Act 1985 in Chhunna alias Mehtab v. State of

Madhya Pradesh (2002) 9 SCC 363 dealt with criminal trial wherein

there was an explicit non-compliance of the statutory requirements

under the NDPS Act 1985. It was held that the trial of the PetitionerAppellant therein stood vitiated. For a better reference, the judgment

is quoted below as:

“1. The case of the prosecution was that at 3.00 a.m. a

police party saw opium being prepared inside a room and

they entered the premises and apprehended the accused

who was stated to be making opium and mixing it with

chocolate.

2. It is not in dispute that the entry in search of the premises

in question took place between sunset and sunrise at 3.00

a.m. This being the position, the proviso to Section 42

of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act

was applicable and it is admitted that before the entry for 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 463

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

effecting search of the building neither any search warrant

or authorisation was obtained nor were the grounds for

possible plea that if opportunity for obtaining search

warrant or authorisation is accorded the evidence will

escape indicated. In other words, there has been a noncompliance with the provisions of the proviso to Section

42 and therefore, the trial stood vitiated.

3. The appeals are, accordingly, allowed.”

34. In Dharamveer Parsad v. State of Bihar (2020) 12 SCC 492,

there was non-examination of the independent witness without any

explanation provided by the prosecution and even the panchnama

or the seizure memo were not prepared on the spot but after having

had reached police station only. Since the vehicle was apprehended

and contraband was seized in non-compliance of the Section 42

of the NDPS Act 1985 – conviction and sentence of the appellant

therein was set aside. Apart from the said reasons there were

various suspicious circumstances that inspired the confidence of the

Court to set aside the conviction affirmed by the High Court therein.

Paragraph numbers 05 and 06 are reiterated below for reference:

“5. In the present case PW 1, who is the investigating

officer, in his deposition has stated that the information

i.e. the contraband was being carried from the IndoNepal border identified in a vehicle, details of which had

also been provided, had been received in the evening of

2-7-2007. PW 1 has further stated that on receipt of this

information, he had formed a team and had moved to

Raxaul from Patna, which place they had reached by 2.00

a.m. in the morning of 3-7-2007. The vehicle in question

had been apprehended and the contraband seized at

about 6.00 a.m. of 3-7-2007. No explanation has been

offered why the statement had not been recorded at any

anterior point of time and the same was so done after the

seizure was made.

6. Even if we were to assume that the anxiety of the

investigating officer was to reach Raxaul which is on

the international border and therefore, he did not have

the time to record said information as per requirement

of Section 42 of the Act, the matter does not rest there. 

464 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

There are other suspicious circumstances affecting the

credibility of the prosecution case. Though, the investigating

officer has stated that he had moved to Raxaul along

with a team and two independent witnesses, the said

independent witnesses were not examined. No explanation

is forthcoming on this count also. That apart from the

materials on record it appears that no memos including

the seizure memo were prepared at the spot and all the

papers were prepared on reaching the police station at

Patna on 4-7-2007.”

35. The case presented by the prosecution appears to be primarily

standing on the fact that initially, Accused No. 04 – who was

identified by Mr Tomar to be sitting inside the auto rickshaw which

was part of the secret information – had absconded, leaving behind

the contraband which was eventually seized by members of the

raiding party. It is furthermore admitted that a Driving License was

also recovered from the said auto rickshaw. However, it has never

been their case that neither the owner of the auto rickshaw was

attempted to be identified nor the person whose driving license

was found therein was searched for by the authorities for the

purpose of the instant case. It is never explained by Mr Tomar

how he was able to identify the face of the Accused No. 04 sitting

on the passenger seat inside the auto rickshaw while it was being

driven at high speed. It is also not their case that any previous

photographic identification for the Accused No. 04 was provided

as part of the said information or as to how did he know the face

of the Accused No. 04.

36. Even further, it is an admitted fact by the PW-01 – the alleged

independent witness of the recovery – that the panchnama was not

prepared at the time of actual recovery from the auto rickshaw. Same

is affirmed by the testimonies of the members of the raiding party,

namely, PW-02 to PW-04. It is furthermore intriguing to note that

the panchnama which is timed “0930” was prepared and the PW-01

states as part of his cross-examination that he left for his office taking

an auto rickshaw after the incident. However, the testimony of Mrs

Chaube reveals that the PW-01 and the other panch were present

in the NCB Office after the incident and even deposes to the effect

that they, being present in the said office, ended up inscribing their

signatures on the statements taken by them.

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 465

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

37. It does not transpire from the material on record as to exactly how

the Accused No. 04 came into the fiasco here except for the claim

by Mr Tomar of having identified him as the auto rickshaw per the

secret information fled the scene. It creates a doubt in the mind of

the Court apropos the case presented by the prosecution.

38. Adopting the words of V. Ramasubramanian, J., while speaking for

the Bench in Ramabora alias Ramaboraiah & Anr. v. State of

Karnataka (2022) SCC OnLine SC 996 referred to the mythological

Swan, Hamsa and drew an analogy with the following observations

made in the decision in Arvind Kumar alias Nemichand & Ors. v.

State of Rajasthan (2021) SCC OnLine SC 1099:

49. The principle that when a witness deposes falsehood,

the evidence in its entirety has to be eschewed may not

have strict application to the criminal jurisprudence in our

country. The principle governing sifting the chaff from the

grain has to be applied. However, when the evidence

is inseparable and such an attempt would either be

impossible or would make the evidence unacceptable,

the natural consequence would be one of avoidance.

The said principle has not assumed the status of law

but continues only as a rule of caution. One has to

see the nature of discrepancy in a given case. When

the discrepancies are very material shaking the very

credibility of the witness leading to a conclusion in the

mind of the court that is neither possible to separate it

nor to rely upon, it is for the said court to either accept

or reject.

39. It becomes difficult to accept the case presented against the

Accused No. 04 by the prosecution and it is not acceptable to state

that the same has been proved beyond a reasonable doubt. The

inconsistencies in the testimonies and lack of observation of due

process of law by the investigating agency has severely impacted

the case of the prosecution.

40. The subsequent and alternate contention put forth by the learned

Counsel for the Respondent No. 02 pertains to the non-requirement of

the compliance of Section 41 of the NDPS Act 1985. To appreciate the

said contention, jurisprudential aspect ought to be dealt with. Section

41 of the NDPS Act 1985 deals with the power to issue warrant and 

466 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

authorization to both a Magistrate and an Officer of Gazetted rank

as applicable and the same is reproduced below as follows:

“41. Power to issue warrant and authorisation.—

(1) A Metropolitan Magistrate or a Magistrate of the first

class or any Magistrate of the second class specially

empowered by the State Government in this behalf,

may issue a warrant for the arrest of any person

whom he has reason to believe to have committed

any offence punishable under this Act, or for the

search, whether by day or by night, of any building,

conveyance or place in which he has reason to

believe any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance

or controlled substance in respect of which an offence

punishable under this Act has been committed or

any document or other article which may furnish

evidence of the commission of such offence or any

illegally acquired property or any document or other

article which may furnish evidence of holding any

illegally acquired property which is liable for seizure

or freezing or forfeiture under Chapter VA of this Act

is kept or concealed:

(2) Any such officer of gazetted rank of the departments

of central excise, narcotics, customs, revenue

intelligence or any other department of the Central

Government including the para-military forces or

the armed forces as is empowered in this behalf by

general or special order by the Central Government, or

any such officer of the revenue, drugs control, excise,

police or any other department of a State Government

as is empowered in this behalf by general or special

order of the State Government if he has reason to

believe from personal knowledge or information given

by any person and taken in writing that any person

has committed an offence punishable under this Act

or that any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance

or controlled substance in respect of which any

offence under this Act has been committed or any

document or other article which may furnish evidence 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 467

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

of the commission of such offence or any illegally

acquired property or any document or other article

which may furnish evidence of holding any illegally

acquired property which is liable for seizure or freezing

or forfeiture under Chapter VA of this Act is kept or

concealed in any building, conveyance or place, may

authorise any officer subordinate to him but superior

in rank to a peon, sepoy or a constable to arrest such

a person or search a building, conveyance or place

whether by day or by night or himself arrest such a

person or search a building, conveyance or place.

(3) The officer to whom a warrant under sub-section

(1) is addressed and the officer who authorised the

arrest or search or the officer who is so authorised

under sub-section (2) shall have all the powers of an

officer acting under section 42.”

41. In the instant case, we are primarily affected by virtue of the

jurisprudence of Section 41(2) of the NDPS Act 1985, which begins

from the power of search and seizure conferred by the State upon

its executive or administrative arms for the protection of social

security in any civilized nation. Such power is inherently limited by

the recognition of fundamental rights by the Constitution as well as

statutory limitations. At the same time, it is not legitimate to assume

that Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India would be affected by the

provisions of search and seizure. It is a settled law that the statutory

provisions conferring authorities with the power to search and seize

are a mere temporary interference with the right of the accused

as they stand well regulated by reasonable restrictions emanating

from the statutory provisions itself. Thence, such a power cannot be

considered as a violation of any fundamental rights of the person

concerned. The same is iterated in MP Sharma v. Satish Chandra

Sharma, District Magistrate, Delhi 1954 SCR 1077.

42. In light of the aforementioned constitutional backdrop, provisions of

general search warrants and seizure were incorporated for the first

time in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1882, thereupon, in Sections

96, 97, 98, 102, 103, 105, 165 and 550 of the Code of Criminal

Procedure, 1898 and presently, in the Code of Criminal Procedure,

1973 under Sections 93, 94, 100, 102, 103 and 165. Upon perusal 

468 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

of Section 41(1) of the NDPS Act 1985, it is evident that the said

provision empowers a Magistrate to issue search warrant for the

arrest of any person or for search, whom he has reason to believe

to have committed any offence under the provisions of the NDPS Act

1985. Section 41(2) of the NDPS Act 1985 further enables a Gazetted

Officer, so empowered in this regard by the Central Government or

the State Government, to arrest or conduct a search or authorize an

officer subordinate to him to do so, provided that such subordinate

officer is superior to the rank of a peon, sepoy or constable. It is

pertinent to note that the empowered Gazetted Officer must have

reason to believe that an offence has been committed under Chapter

IV of the NDPS Act 1985, which necessitated the arrest or search.

As per Section 41(2) of the NDPS Act 1985, such reason to believe

must arise from either personal knowledge of the said Gazetted

Officer or information given by any person to him. Additionally, such

knowledge or information is required to be reduced into writing by

virtue of expression “and taken in writing” used therein.’

43. The learned Counsel of the Respondent No. 02 presents an alternate

argument that the expressions “personal knowledge” and “and taken

in writing” contemplated by Section 41(2) of the NDPS Act 1985

ought to be read disjunctively, thereby eliminating the requirement

of taking down information in writing when it arises out of the

personal knowledge of the Gazetted Officer. We are not inclined

to accept this interpretation. The position for recording the reasons

for conducting search and seizure are well established through the

ratio in paragraph number 25 (2C) in Balbir Singh case (supra)

as mentioned below:

“(2-C) Under Section 42(1) the empowered officer if has

a prior information given by any person, that should

necessarily be taken down in writing. But if he has reason

to believe from personal knowledge that offences under

Chapter IV have been committed or materials which may

furnish evidence of commission of such offences are

concealed in any building etc. he may carry out the arrest or

search without a warrant between sunrise and sunset and

this provision does not mandate that he should record his

reasons of belief. But under the proviso to Section 42(1) if

such officer has to carry out such search between sunset

and sunrise, he must record the grounds of his belief.

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 469

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

To this extent these provisions are mandatory and

contravention of the same would affect the prosecution

case and vitiate the trial.”

44. Applying the aforesaid legal position to the present factual matrix,

we do not find force in the submission that the raiding party

proceeded to conduct search at the house on personal knowledge

of the Gazetted Officer, Mr Tomar. Foremost, the fact that the secret

information received by Mrs Chaube was limited to anticipation

of Accused No. 04 carrying contraband from a particular route

in an auto rickshaw, remains unchallenged. Accordingly, there

was no prior information to the raiding party, including Mr Tomar

(Gazetted Officer) that there is contraband in the house of Accused

No. 04, thereby necessitating search for the same. Additionally, it

is deposed by the PW-01 that he was asked to accompany the

raiding party to the house of Accused No. 04, which was located

nearby for the purpose of carrying out a search thereof and

admits of having no knowledge about any written information with

the raiding party for conducting raid at the said house. Further,

Mrs Chaube in her examination in chief stated that upon the

directions of Mr Tomar that the house of Accused No. 04 was

nearby, they proceeded to conduct raid thereof. Per contra, in her

cross-examination, she admits that the raiding team proceeded

to the house of Accused No. 04 for the purpose of search of the

contraband pursuant to the discussions carried by them and not

particularly on the personal knowledge of Mr Tomar.

45. She further goes on to admit that it was obligatory for her to obtain

a written authorization from her superior officer – which was Mr

Tomar in this case. She omitted seeking the said authorization on

the premise that there was an emergent need to conduct search at

the house. Such major inconsistency as to the ‘source’ of information

of existence of contraband at the house of Accused No. 04 weakens

the case of the prosecution. Furthermore, the testimony of Mr Tomar

has some glaring irregularities apropos his personal knowledge of

having contraband at the house of Accused No. 04. Mr Tomar, on

one hand in his testimony admits that the officers of raiding party

together decided to conduct raid at the house of Accused No. 04

post recovery from the auto rickshaw, however, on the other hand

admits of having knowledge of the residential address of Accused

No. 04 from the secret information. However, Mr Tomar nowhere 

470 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

in his depositions stated that he proceeded to conduct raid at the

house on his personal knowledge.

46. From the aforementioned, we are of the view that the raid/search

conducted at the house of the Accused No. 01 and Accused No. 04

was not based on the personal knowledge of Mr Tomar, rather it was

an action on the part of raiding party bereft of mandatory statutory

compliance of Section 41(2) of the NDPS Act 1985.

47. Furthermore, even if the learned Counsel for the Respondent No.

02 would justify the raid at the house on account of “reason to

believe from …. information given by any person and taken down

in writing” as per Section 41(2) of the NDPS Act 1985, still the

prosecution is not able to establish its case beyond reasonable

doubts. Because the secret information, as received by Mrs

Chaube in the present facts was limited to the apprehension that

Accused No. 04 was to carry contraband via an auto rickshaw

from a particular route. There is no reference to the apprehension

of existence of contraband in the house of the Accused No. 04

in the said recorded information. Thence, the raid at the house

of the Accused No. 01 and Accused No. 04 is in violation of the

statutory mandate of Section 41(2) of the NDPS Act 1985 and the

ratio in the precedent of Balbir Singh (supra) and Karnail Singh

(supra). Consequently, the conviction of Accused No. 01 premised

on the recovery of 2.098 kilograms of charas from the house is

not in consonance with the mandatory statutory compliance of

Section 41(2) of the NDPS Act 1985.

48. While the facts and evidences are appreciated in the instant case,

the testimonies of the PW-01 and the members of the raiding party

do not present such a compliance of the information of rights to the

Accused No. 01 herein. While a claim is made to this effect, nothing

has come up from the perusal of the panchnama or the deposition

of the PW-01 to this effect. Accordingly, the authorities have further

failed to protect the inherent rights granted to the Accused No. 01

by virtue of the statutory safeguards.

49. Thereinafter, a significant reliance was placed by the High

Court on the statements of the accused wherein a categorical

admission was substantiated by them, especially Accused No.

01 and Accused No. 04. To begin with, Section 67 of the NDPS

Act 1985 reads:

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 471

Smt. Najmunisha v. The State of Gujarat

“67. Power to call for information, etc.—

Any officer referred to in section 42 who is authorised in this

behalf by the Central Government or a State Government

may, during the course of any enquiry in connection with

the contravention of any provision of this Act,—

(a) call for information from any person for the

purpose of satisfying himself whether there has

been any contravention of the provisions of this

Act or any rule or order made thereunder;

(b) require any person to produce or deliver any

document or thing useful or relevant to the

enquiry;

(c) examine any person acquainted with the facts

and circumstances of the case.”

50. The evidentiary value of confessional statements recorded under

Section 67 of the NDPS Act 1985 was dealt with by this Court in the

case of Tofan Singh (supra). As per the majority verdict delivered

by 3-Judges’ Bench in this case has held that the powers conferred

on the empowered officers under Section 41 and 42 of the NDPS

Act 1985 read with Section 67 of the NDPS Act 1985 are limited

in nature conferred for the purpose of entry, search, seizure and

arrest without warrant along with safeguards enlisted thereof. The

“enquiry” undertaken under the aforesaid provisions may lead to

initiation of an investigation or enquiry by the officers empowered to

do so either under Section 53 of the NDPS Act 1985 or otherwise.

Thus, the officers empowered only under the aforesaid provisions

neither having power to investigate nor to file a police report meet

the test of police officer for the purpose of Section 25 of the IEA

1872. Consequently, the bar under Section 25 of the IEA 1872 is

not applicable against the admissibility of confessional statement

made to the officers empowered under Section 41 and 42 of the

NDPS Act 1985.

51. Furthermore, it was also held by this Court that Section 67 is at

an antecedent stage to the investigation, which occurs after the

empowered officer under Section 42 of the NDPS Act 1985 has the

reason to believe upon information gathered in an enquiry made in

that behalf that an offence under NDPS Act 1985 has been committed 

472 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

and is thus not even in the nature of a confessional statement. Hence,

question of its being admissible in trial as a confessional statement

against the accused does not arise.

52. The same, therefore, cannot be considered to convict an accused

person under the NDPS Act 1985. A reference at this stage may be

made to the majority view in the 3-Judges’ Bench decision wherein

it was held as follows in paragraph number 158:

“158. We answer the reference by stating:

158.1. That the officers who are invested with powers

under Section 53 of the NDPS Act are “police officers”

within the meaning of Section 25 of the Evidence Act, as a

result of which any confessional statement made to them

would be barred under the provisions of Section 25 of the

Evidence Act, and cannot be taken into account in order

to convict an accused under the NDPS Act.

158.2. That a statement recorded under Section 67 of the

NDPS Act cannot be used as a confessional statement in

the trial of an offence under the NDPS Act.

53. By virtue of the decision in Tofan Singh (supra), the benefit is to

be granted to the appellants herein in regard to the inadmissibility

of their statements under Section 67 of the NDPS Act 1985.

54. In the light of the above, these appeals are allowed by setting aside

the impugned judgment of the High Court as well as that of the Trial

Court. The appellants are acquitted of the charges framed against

them by giving benefit of doubt.

55. Pending applications, if any, stand disposed of.

Headnotes prepared by: Divya Pandey Result of the case:

Appeals allowed.

there is a miscarriage of justice: Held: The Supreme Court laid down an overarching principle in Rupa Hurra v. Ashok Hurra [2002] 2 SCR 1006 that the Court may entertain a curative petition to (i) prevent abuse of its process; and (ii) to cure a gross miscarriage of justice – The enumeration of the situations in which the curative jurisdiction can be exercised is not intended to be exhaustive – The Court went on to lay down certain procedural requirements to entertain a curative petition such as a certificate by a Senior Advocate about fulfilling of the requirements. [Paras 33 and 34] Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996 – s.34 – Scope of interference of courts with arbitral awards: Held: Section 34 of the Arbitration Act delineates the grounds for setting aside an arbitral award – In addition to the grounds on which an arbitral award can be assailed laid down in section 34(2), there is another ground for challenge against domestic awards, such as the award in the present case – Under Section 34(2-A) of the Arbitration Act, a domestic award may be set aside if the 474 [2024] 4 S.C.R. Digital Supreme Court Reports Court finds that it is vitiated by ‘patent illegality’ appearing on the face of the award. [Paras 36, 37] Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996 – s.34 – Setting aside of domestic award – Ground of patent illegality:

* Author

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 473 : 2024 INSC 292

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd.

v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

Curative Petition (C) Nos.108-109 of 2022

In

Review Petition (C) Nos.1158-1159 of 2021

In

(Civil Appeal Nos 5627-5628 of 2021)

10 April 2024

[Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud,* B R Gavai and

Surya Kant, JJ.]

Issue for Consideration

(i) Whether the curative petition is maintainable; and (ii) Whether

this Court (two-judge Bench) was justified in restoring the arbitral

award which had been set aside by the Division Bench of the

High Court on the ground that it suffered from patently illegality.

Headnotes

Curative Petition – Curative Jurisdiction may be invoked if

there is a miscarriage of justice:

Held: The Supreme Court laid down an overarching principle in

Rupa Hurra v. Ashok Hurra [2002] 2 SCR 1006 that the Court may

entertain a curative petition to (i) prevent abuse of its process; and

(ii) to cure a gross miscarriage of justice – The enumeration of

the situations in which the curative jurisdiction can be exercised

is not intended to be exhaustive – The Court went on to lay down

certain procedural requirements to entertain a curative petition

such as a certificate by a Senior Advocate about fulfilling of the

requirements. [Paras 33 and 34]

Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996 – s.34 – Scope of

interference of courts with arbitral awards:

Held: Section 34 of the Arbitration Act delineates the grounds for

setting aside an arbitral award – In addition to the grounds on

which an arbitral award can be assailed laid down in section 34(2),

there is another ground for challenge against domestic awards,

such as the award in the present case – Under Section 34(2-A)

of the Arbitration Act, a domestic award may be set aside if the 

474 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

Court finds that it is vitiated by ‘patent illegality’ appearing on the

face of the award. [Paras 36, 37]

Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996 – s.34 – Setting aside

of domestic award – Ground of patent illegality:

Held: The ground of patent illegality is available for setting aside

a domestic award, if the decision of the arbitrator is found to be

perverse, or so irrational that no reasonable person would have

arrived at it; or the construction of the contract is such that no fair

or reasonable person would take; or, that the view of the arbitrator

is not even a possible view – A ‘finding’ based on no evidence

at all or an award which ignores vital evidence in arriving at its

decision would be perverse and liable to be set aside under the

head of ‘patent illegality’ – An award without reasons would suffer

from patent illegality – The arbitrator commits a patent illegality by

deciding a matter not within his jurisdiction or violating a fundamental

principle of natural justice. [Para 40]

Constitution of India – Art.136 – Arbitration and Conciliation

Act 1996 – ss. 34, 37 – Remedy u/Art. 136 against a decision

rendered in appeal u/s. 37 of 1996 Act:

Held: In the statutory scheme of the Arbitration Act, a recourse to

s.37 is the only appellate remedy available against a decision u/s.

34 – The Constitution, however, provides the parties with a remedy

u/Art. 136 against a decision rendered in appeal u/s. 37 – This

is the discretionary and exceptional jurisdiction of the Supreme

Court to grant Special Leave to Appeal – While adjudicating the

merits of a Special Leave Petition and exercising its power u/Art.

136, this Court must interfere sparingly and only when exceptional

circumstances exist, justifying the exercise of this Court’s discretion

– The Court must apply settled principles of judicial review such

as whether the findings of the High Court are borne out from the

record or are based on a misappreciation of law and fact – In

particular, this Court must be slow in interfering with a judgement

delivered in exercise of powers u/s. 37 unless there is an error in

exercising of the jurisdiction by the Court u/s. 37. [Paras 42 and 43]

Curative Petition – The petitioner-DMRC and DAMEPL (a

special purpose vehicle incorporated by a consortium)

entered into the Concession Agreement (2008 agreement) –

DAMPEL was to undertake among other things, the design,

supply, installation, testing and commissioning of railway 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 475

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

system – Dispute arose between the parties – DAMEPL

alleged that the line was unsafe to operate – Operations were

stopped – DAMEPL issued a notice to DMRC listing defects

attributable to faulty construction and deficient designs

which affected project safety – DMRC was requested to

cure the defects within 90 days from the date of this notice

– Thereafter, DAMPEL issued another notice terminating the

2008 agreement as defects were not cured within 90 days –

Arbitral Tribunal passed award in favour of DAMPEL – Single

Judge of the High Court dismissed the petition filed u/s. 34

of 1996 Act – Division Bench of the High Court allowed the

appeal u/s. 37 of 1996 Act in part – DAMEPL moved a SLP

u/Art. 136 of the Constitution – A two-judge bench of the

Supreme Court allowed the appeal, and restored the award

– Correctness:

Held: Commissioner of Metro Railway Safety (CMRS), after inquiry

and inspection had issued sanction for running of the metro line

– In the instant case, the Division Bench of the High Court found

the award to be perverse, irrational and patently illegal since it

ignored the vital evidence of CMRS certification in deciding the

validity of termination – It underlined the significance of the CMRS

sanction under the Metro Railways (Operation and Maintenance)

Act, 2002 – Also, clause 29.5.1(i) of the 2008 agreement entitles

the concessionaire to terminate the agreement if DMRC “failed to

cure such breach or take effective steps for curing such breach”

within the cure period – Pertinently, the clause uses two separate

phrases, “cure” and “effective steps to cure” – The Tribunal found

that since certain defects remained after the cure period, this was

indicative of the fact that the defects were not cured and that no

effective steps were taken – The Tribunal fails to explain what

amounts to an ‘effective step’ and how the steps taken by DMRC

were not effective, within the meaning of the phrase – Parties

clearly intended that once a cure notice was served on a party, it

would be open to them to either cure defects or to initiate effective

steps, even if they could not culminate into the complete curing of

defects within the cure period – Incremental progress, even if it

does not lead to complete cure, is an acceptable course of action

to prevent termination according to the 2008 Agreement – The

decisions of the Single Judge of the High Court and this Court

(two-judge bench) are similarly silent on the aspect of “effective

steps” – The judgment of this Court also never tested the relevance 

476 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

of the CMRS certificate vis-à-vis “effective steps” – Admittedly,

some of the defects were cured in their entirety and steps were

taken by DMRC to cure the remainders – DMRC did take certain

steps to alleviate DAMEPL’s concerns so as to warrant this change

of position – There is no explanation forthcoming in the award

about why none of these steps initiated during the cure period

were ‘effective steps’ – This gap in reasoning stems from the

arbitral tribunal wrongly separating the issue of termination and

the CMRS certificate – The structure and safety of the project,

as certified by the CMRS, were thus relevant before the Tribunal,

making the CMRS certificate a vital piece of evidence in deciding

the issue – The CMRS certificate was relevant evidence about

the safety of the structure – The arbitral tribunal erroneously

rejected the CMRS sanction as irrelevant – The Division Bench

correctly held that the arbitral tribunal ignored vital evidence on

the record, resulting in perversity and patent illegality, warranting

interference – The conclusions of the Division Bench are, thus, in

line with the settled precedent including the decisions in Associate

Builders and Ssangyong – The judgment of the two-judge Bench

of this Court, which interfered with the judgment of the Division

Bench of the High Court, has resulted in a miscarriage of justice

– Thus, Curative Petitions allowed. [Paras 44, 48, 49, 50, 53,

54, 58, 67, 68]

Case Law Cited

Rupa Hurra v. Ashok Hurra [2002] 2 SCR 1006 : 2002

4 SCC 388; Associate Builders v. Delhi Development

Authority [2014] 13 SCR 895 : 2015 3 SCC 49;

Ssangyong Engineering & Construction Co. Ltd. v. NHAI

[2019] 7 SCR 522 : 2019 15 SCC 131 – relied on.

List of Acts

Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996; Arbitration and Conciliation

(Amendment) Act, 2015; Metro Railways (Operation and

Maintenance) Act, 2002.

List of Keywords

Curative Petition; Arbitral awards; Miscarriage of justice; Patent

illegality; Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court; Concession

Agreement; Arbitration; Defects; Faulty construction; Deficient

designs; Cure; Effective steps to cure; Vital evidence on record. 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 477

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

Case Arising From

INHERENT JURISDICTION: Curative Petition(C) Nos. 108-109 of

2022

In

Review Petition(C) Nos. 1158-1159 of 2021

In

Civil Appeal Nos. 5627-5628 of 2021

From the Judgment and Order dated 23.11.2021 in R.P.(C) No. 1158

and 1159 of 2021 and dated 09.09.2021 in C.A. No. 5627 and 5628

of 2021 of the Supreme Court of India

Appearances for Parties

R. Venkataramani, AG., K.K. Venugopal, Parag P Tripathi, Maninder

Singh, Sr. Advs., Tarun Johri, Ankur Gupta, Vishwajeet Tyagi,

Srinivasan Ramaswamy, Chitvan Singhal, Ms. Ashita Chawla, Ankur

Talwar, Ms. Arushi Mishra, Ameyavikrama Thanvi, Kartikey Aggarwal,

Advs. for the Petitioner.

Harish N Salve, Kapil Sibal, J.J. Bhatt, Prateek Seksaria, Sr. Advs.,

Mahesh Agarwal, Rishi Agrawala, Shri Venkatesh, Megha Mehta

Agarwal, Pranjit Bhattacharya, Ms. Madhavi Agarwal, Suhael Buttan,

Vineet Kumar, Ms. Manisha Singh, Nishant Chothani, E.C. Agrawala,

Advs. for the Respondent

Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court

Judgment

Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, CJI

Table of Contents*

A. Factual Background............................................................ 3

B. DMRC’s claim and the Tribunal’s findings......................... 7

C. Decisions of the High Court............................................... 10

D. Judgment of this Court in appeal....................................... 11

E. Issues in the Curative Petition........................................... 12

* Ed. Note: Pagination as per the original Judgment.

478 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

F. Submissions........................................................................ 12

G. Analysis............................................................................... 16

I. Curative Jurisdiction may be invoked if there is a

miscarriage of justice..................................................... 16

II. Scope of interference of courts with arbitral awards..... 19

III.The award was patently illegal....................................... 24

i. Interpretation of the termination clause by the

Tribunal was unreasonable.................................... 26

ii. The award overlooked vital evidence and

matters on the record............................................ 29

H. Conclusion........................................................................... 37

1. The curative jurisdiction of this Court under Article 142 of the

Constitution has been invoked in regard to its decision in Delhi Airport

Metro Express Private Limited vs. Delhi Metro Rail Corporation

Ltd.

1

. The judgment remained undisturbed in the exercise of the

review jurisdiction of this Court.2

A. Factual Background

2. The petitioner, Delhi Metro Rail Corporation3 is a state-owned

company wholly owned by the Government of India and the National

Capital Territory of Delhi. The respondent, Delhi Airport Metro

Express Private Limited4

 is a special-purpose vehicle incorporated

by a consortium comprising of Reliance Infrastructure Limited

and Construcciones Y Auxiliar de Ferrocarriles SA, Spain. The

consortium bagged the contract for the construction, operation and

maintenance of the Delhi Airport Metro Express Ltd5

 in 2008. The

Concession Agreement6 envisaged a public-private partnership

1 (2022) 1 SCC 131.

2 Review Petition (C) Nos. 1158-1159/2921.

3 “DMRC”

4 “DAMEPL”/” Concessionaire”

5 “AMEL”

6 “2008 Agreement”

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 479

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

for providing metro rail connectivity between New Delhi Railway

Station and the Indira Gandhi International Airport and other points

within Delhi.

3. Under the 2008 Agreement, DAMEPL was granted exclusive rights,

license and authority to implement the project and concession in

respect of AMEL. This included the right to manage and operate

the Project as a commercial enterprise. DMRC was to undertake

clearances and bear costs relating to land acquisition, and civil

structures, while DAMEPL was to undertake among other things,

the design, supply, installation, testing and commissioning of railway

systems. DAMEPL was to complete the work in two years, and

thereafter, to maintain AMEL until August 2038.

4. In April 2012, DAMEPL sought a deferment of the concession fee,

citing delays in providing access to the stations by DMRC. DAMEPL

stated that while AMEL had been running without a glitch since 23

February 2011, the retail activity had not picked pace. DAMEPL

urged DMRC to extend their support, to this first-of-its-kind publicprivate partnership by deferring the concession fee payable by

DAMEPL.

5. There was an exchange of correspondence between the parties

which ultimately led the Ministry of Urban Development to convene

a meeting of stakeholders in July 2012. A Joint Inspection Committee

was set up to inspect the defects alleged by DAMEPL.

6. Meanwhile, DAMEPL expressed its intention to halt operations,

alleging that the line was unsafe to operate. Operations were stopped

on 08 July 2012. On 09 July 2012, DAMEPL issued a notice to DMRC

containing a ‘non-exhaustive’ list of eight defects which according to

them, affected the performance of their obligations under the 2008

Agreement7

. The notice stated that the defects were attributable to

faulty construction and deficient designs which affected project safety.

7. DAMEPL stated that the defects caused a “material adverse effect”

on the performance of the obligations by it to operate, manage and

maintain the project. DMRC was therefore requested to cure the

defects within 90 days from the date of this notice, failing which

it stated that it would be considered that a “Material Breach” and

7 “Cure Notice” 

480 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

a “DMRC Event of Default” had occasioned, entitling DAMEPL to

terminate the 2008 agreement.

8. On 8 October 2012, DAMPEL issued a notice terminating the 2008

agreement.8 The termination notice stated that as 90 days had

elapsed since the cure notice in spite of which the defects had not

been cured within the ‘cure period’, DAMEPL as Concessionaire

was terminating the agreement in terms of clause 29.5.1 of the

2008 agreement.

9. DMRC initiated conciliation under clause 36.1 of the 2008 Agreement.

Since conciliation did not succeed, DMRC initiated arbitration

proceedings on 23 October 2012 under clause 36.2 of the 2008

agreement.

10. On 30 June 2013, DAMEPL halted operations and handed over the

line to DMRC. Before this, on 19 November 2012, both parties made

a joint application to the Commissioner of Metro Railway Safety9

for re-opening of AMEL for public carriage of passengers. Enclosed

with the application, was an administrative note jointly signed by

representatives of both DAMEPL and DMRC, which we shall avert

to in the course of the judgment.

11. Following this application, after inquiry and inspection, the CMRS

issued sanction on 18 January 2013. This sanction was subject to

certain conditions including speed restrictions. Specifically, the metro

was to be run at a speed of 50kmph, and an increase in speed beyond

50kmph up to 80kmph was to be authorized in steps of 10kmph at

a time. For an increase in speed beyond 80kmph, DMRC was to

approach the Commissioner for sanction with a justification as to

the improvements carried out by it.

12. Consequently, on 22 January 2013, AMEL operations were

commenced by DAMEPL. On 30 June 2013, the project assets were

handed over by DAMEPL to DMRC. After that, from 01 July 2013,

DMRC continued AMEL operations.

13. In August 2013, the arbitral tribunal comprising Mr AP Mishra, Mr

SS Khurana and Mr HL Bajaj was constituted.10 On 11 May 2017,

8 “Termination Notice”

9 “CMRS”/”Commissioner”

10 “Tribunal”

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 481

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

the three-member Tribunal passed a unanimous award in favour of

DAMEPL11.

14. The award held that DAMEPL was entitled first, to the termination

payment of Rs. 2782.33 Crores plus interest in terms of the

concession agreement; second, to expenses incurred in operating

AMEL from 07 January 2013 to 30 June 2013 and debt service made

by DAMEPL during this period, of Rs 147.52 Crores plus interest at

11% per annum from the date of payment of stamp duty; third, to

the refund of the bank guarantee amounting to Rs 62.07 Crores plus

interest at 11% p.a. which had been encashed; fourth, to security

deposits with the service providers, amounting to Rs 56.8 Lakhs

plus interest at 11% p.a.; and that DMRC was entitled to Rs 46.04

Crores as Concession fee for the period from 23 February 2012 to

7 January 2013.

15. Assailing the award, DMRC instituted an application under Section

34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 199612 before the Delhi High

Court. The Single-Judge of the High Court dismissed the petition13.

This gave rise to an appeal under Section 37 before a Division Bench

of the High Court. The appeal was partly allowed.14

16. Against the decision of the Division Bench of the High Court, DAMEPL

moved a Special Leave Petition under Article 136 of the Constitution.

A two-judge bench of this Court allowed the appeal, and restored

the award. The review petition assailing this decision was dismissed.

Thus, the curative petition.

B. DMRC’s claim and the Tribunal’s findings

17. Before the Tribunal, DMRC claimed that – (i) it took steps to cure

the defects immediately after it received the cure notice, including

approaching SYSTRA -the original design consultant and convening

meetings with the Ministry of Urban Development and that DAMEPL

actively participated in all of these steps; (ii) that the real reason

for the termination notice was that DAMPL had ceased to find the

project financially viable. DMRC sought, inter alia, quashing of the

11 “Award”

12 “Arbitration Act”.

13 OMP (COMM) 307/2017 & OMP (I) (COMM) 200/2017 (‘Single Judge’)

14 FAO(OS)(COMM) 58/2018 & CM Nos. 13434/2018 (‘Division Bench’) 

482 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

termination notice; and a direction to the respondent to resume the

performance of its obligations under the 2008 agreement. DAMEPL,

on the other hand, claimed that there were defects attributable to

DMRC’s faulty design; that these defects were not cured and no

effective steps were taken to cure them within the 90-day cure

period, resulting in material adverse effects to DAMEPL, entitling it

to terminate the concession agreement.

18. The Tribunal was required to adjudicate on the validity of the

termination notice. It framed the following issues:

“Were there any defects in the civil structure of the airport

metro line?

If there were defects, did such defects have a material

adverse effect on the performance of the obligation of

DAMEPL under CA?

If there were defects in the civil structure, which had

a material adverse effect on the performance of the

obligations under the CA by DAMEPL, have such defects

been cured by DMRC and/or have any effective steps been

taken within a period of 90 days from the date of notice

by DAMEPL to cure the defects by DMRC and thus, were

DMRC in breach of the CA as per 29.5.1 (i)?”

19. The Tribunal undertook an analysis of the defects in the structure

and whether they had been cured or effective steps taken during

the cure period. It noted that 72% of the girders were affected by

cracks; the cause of the cracks was uncertain; the depth of the

cracks was not reliably determined; and that the inspection for

repairs carried out at the instance of DMRC was ‘non-serious’.

Further, it noted that there were twists in about 80 girders and

gaps between the shear key and the girders which were not cured

by DMRC in the cure period. Taken together, these defects were

considered to have compromised the integrity of the structure. This,

the Tribunal held, amounted to a breach of DMRC’s obligations

under the 2008 agreement resulting in a material adverse effect

on the concessionaire.

20. The Tribunal framed the legal issues that arose for its consideration.

The issue about the validity of the termination agreement was framed

in the following terms: 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 483

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

“D. Was DAMEPL entitled to or justified in termination of

the CA, since the cost of repairs of the alleged defects was

only approximately Rs.14 crores as compared to the total

costs of the project of approximately Rs. 5700 crores?”

21. The issue pertaining to the CMRS certificate was framed as follows:

“H. Did the issuance of certificate by CMRS show that the

defects were duly cured?”

22. Both these issues were answered in the negative by the Tribunal. On

Issue ‘D’ about the validity of the termination, it was held that since

the Tribunal had found that there were defects in the civil structure,

which remained uncured during the cure period, the amount incurred

by DMRC in repairs compared to the overall cost of the project was

irrelevant.15 On issue ‘H’, about the CMRS certificate, the tribunal

found that the CMRS sanction mandated rigorous monitoring of

operations of the line and imposed a speed restriction. Since the

purpose of the line was to serve as a high-speed line, the tribunal found

that the speed restrictions meant that this purpose was not served

and therefore, the CMRS certificate or the subsequent operation of

the line were not relevant in deciding the issues before it.16

C. Decisions of the High Court

23. The Single Judge of the High Court17, deciding the Section 34

application, upheld the award, observing that so long as the award

was reasonable and plausible, considering the material before the

Tribunal no interference was warranted, even if an alternate view

was possible. It was held that the Tribunal, in this case, had analysed

material and evidence in great detail, and arrived at a plausible

conclusion.

24. The Division Bench of the High Court18 partly set aside the award

as perverse and patently illegal, for the following reasons:

24.1. On the validity of the termination, ex-facie, the termination

which was effective immediately from the date of termination

15 The Award, para 93.

16 ibid, paras 105-108.

17 “Single Judge”.

18 “Division Bench”. 

484 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

was invalid. There was some ambiguity on the relevant date

of termination. The award did not interpret clause 29.5.1(i)

of the concession agreement regarding the duration of the

cure period;

24.2. The speed restrictions were not stated as the reason for

termination in the cure or termination notices and there was no

deliberation on this being a justification for termination before

the Tribunal. Thus, the award was silent and unreasoned on

this issue; and

24.3. Underlining the significance of the CMRS sanction under the

Act of 2002, the findings of the tribunal on this issue were

incorrect because (i) the award overlooked the legal effect

of the CMRS certificate which was binding on the tribunal;

and (ii) the award erroneously treated the CMRS certificate

as irrelevant to the issue of the validity of the termination by

wrongly separating the issue of defects and material adverse

effects from the issue of the certificate.

D. Judgment of this Court in appeal

25. This Court set aside the decision of the Division Bench and restored

the arbitral award on the following grounds:

25.1. There was no ambiguity in the date of termination and even

if a different view from that of the tribunal were possible,

construction of the provisions of the contract was within the

exclusive domain of the tribunal;

25.2. The award was not perverse. The finding of the tribunal that

the defects were not cured was a finding of fact, not warranting

interference;

25.3. DMRC had not contended before the Tribunal that the

certificate was binding and conclusive of the fact that the

defects were cured or that effective steps had been taken; and

25.4. The Division Bench of the High Court was in error in

holding that the issue of the CMRS certificate was wrongly

separated from the issue of defects. It held that dealing with

the certificate separately from the validity of termination did

not render the tribunal’s findings on the latter erroneous. The

Tribunal comprised of engineers and the award could not 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 485

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

be scrutinised in the same manner as an award drawn by a

legally trained mind.

26. The review petition against the above judgment of this Court was

dismissed on 23 November 2021.

E. Issues in the Curative Petition

27. The issues that arise for our consideration are (i) whether the

curative petition is maintainable; and (ii) whether this Court was

justified in restoring the arbitral award which had been set aside by

the Division Bench of the High court on the ground that it suffered

from patently illegality.

F. Submissions

28. We have heard Mr R Venkataramani, Attorney General for India

and Mr K K Venugopal, Mr Parag Tripathi, and Mr Maninder Singh

senior counsel on behalf of the petitioners. They made the following

submissions:

28.1. Considering the definition of ‘material adverse effect’ under the

concession agreement, the defects had no material adverse

effect on DAMEPL’s performance of obligations under the

agreement, as is apparent from the running of the metro

line. The purpose of the agreement was fully subserved, as

evinced by the continuous running of the line;

28.2. The purpose of the cure notice was to demand cure

compliance from DMRC. As long as ‘effective steps’ were

taken by DMRC, culminating in cure compliance under the

statutory process under the Metro Railways (Operation

and Maintenance) Act, 200219, the termination notice was

invalid;

28.3. Clause 29.5.1 of the agreement shows that the termination

ought to have been effected after 90 days from the cure notice

plus 90 days in addition. Termination was thus effective only

on 07 January 2013 and on this date, none of the defects

were pending to be rectified by DMRC;

19 The 2002 Act

486 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

28.4. The sanction/certificate granted by CMRS was issued on a

joint application by both the parties after thorough inspection

of the operations. The terms of the agreement and the

provisions relating to the CMRS process under the 2002 Act

are intrinsically connected;

28.5. The Tribunal should have considered the binding effect of the

CMRS sanction as the issue of speed was neither raised, nor

deliberated before it and was irrelevant to the termination;

28.6. The line has been running since 1 July 2013. The speed

of operations was sanctioned at 50kmph, and has been

progressively increased to 60 kmph in January 2013, 80 kmph

in August 2013, 90 kmph in July 2019, and ultimately 100

kmph and then 110 kmph in 2023. The metro was running

at 80 kmph prior to the termination of the agreement. It is

currently running at 120kmph for which a fresh sanction was

obtained from the CMRS. The smooth operation of the metro

line for five and a half years, until the date of the award was

entirely ignored by the Tribunal, making the award perverse;

28.7. The running of the metro line shows that even if there were

defects, they did not render the metro unviable nor did they

interfere with DAMEPL’s obligations under the agreement.

Thus, the award is perverse and patently illegal;

28.8. The tribunal ignored vital evidence, warranting the High

Court’s interference under Section 37 of the Arbitration Act.

The miscarriage of justice principle is informed by the scheme

of the Arbitration Act;

28.9. The High Court’s interference with the patent illegality was

justified and this Court under Article 136 ought to have been slow

to interfere with the decision of the Division Bench of the high

Court. Miscarriage of justice in terms of the decision in Rupa

Hurra vs. Ashok Hurra20 is linked with patent illegality. The High

Court’s interference under Section 37 was justified because the

exercise of jurisdiction under Section 34 was erroneous; and

28.10. The issue of the fitness of the line was a matter falling under

the 2002 Act under which the Commissioner was the final

20 [2002] 2 SCR 1006 : 2002 4 SCC 388

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 487

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

authority to decide on the safety of the metro. The certificate

could not have been substituted by the Tribunal’s finding on

safety of the line.

29. We have heard Mr Harish Salve, Mr Kapil Sibal, Mr JJ Bhatt and Mr

Prateek Seksaria, learned senior counsel for the respondent. They

have made the following submissions:

29.1. The curative petition is not maintainable as this Court cannot

revisit the conclusions arrived at by the Tribunal;

29.2. DMRC has taken over the project and has been operating

it since 01 July 2012 without having paid for its operation

between 01 January 2013 till 30 June 2013, except for a

small fraction of the total awarded amount;

29.3. Till early March 2023, the trains were running at 90kmph,

as opposed to the speed of 120kmph at which they ought to

have been running;

29.4. The issue about the relevance of the CMRS certificate has

been squarely addressed by the Single Judge and this Court.

The arbitrator is the sole judge of the quality and the quantity

of evidence;

29.5. The award was made after 68 hearings and after consideration

of 35,000 pages of documents and oral evidence. It has been

two and a half years since this Court restored the award on

09 September 2021 and the review against this decision was

dismissed on 23 November 2021;

29.6. According to the decision in Rupa Hurra (supra), the court is

not supposed to sit over a judgment like a court of appeal. The

scope of the review jurisdiction is narrow in itself and does

not warrant rehearing and correction of a judgment. Curative

proceedings cannot be treated as a second review; and

29.7. DAMEPL is not unjustly enriching itself. DAMEPL completed

the project with an investment of Rs 2802 Crores comprising

of debt and equity contributions and it continued to service

the debt even after handing over the line to DMRC. DMRC on

the other hand, has paid the decretal amount of Rs 2599.18

Crores while Rs 5088 Crores under the decree is outstanding

as on 31 January 2024.

488 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

G. Analysis

I. Curative Jurisdiction may be invoked if there is a

miscarriage of justice

30. Senior Counsel for the respondent set forth preliminary objections

challenging the maintainability of the Curative Petition, in view of the

scope of that jurisdiction delineated inter alia in the decision in Rupa

Hurra (supra) We will first lay down the contours of the jurisdiction

of this Court to entertain a curative petition in exercise of its inherent

powers under Article 142.

31. In Rupa Hurra (supra), a Constitution Bench of this Court dwelt on

whether any relief is available against a final judgement of this Court

after the dismissal of a petition seeking review of the judgement.

Two opinions were authored. The main judgment was by Justice

Syed Shah Quadri (on behalf of Chief Justice S P Bharucha, Justice

Variava, Justice Shivraj Patil and himself). A concurring opinion was

authored by Justice U C Banerjee.

32. Justice Quadri observed that the concern of the Court for rendering

justice in a cause cannot be considered less important than the

principle of finality. There are certain situations, the opinion observed,

which would require reconsideration of a final judgement even after

the review has been dismissed to set right a miscarriage of justice.

Such circumstances, the court held, are those where declining to

reconsider the judgement would be oppressive to judicial conscience

and cause the perpetuation of irremediable injustice. Justice Quadri

observed:

“42. … the duty to do justice in these rarest of rare cases

shall have to prevail over the policy of certainty of judgment

as though it is essentially in the public interest that a final

judgment of the final court in the country should not be

open to challenge, yet there may be circumstances, as

mentioned above, wherein declining to reconsider the

judgment would be oppressive to judicial conscience

and would cause perpetuation of irremediable

injustice.”

(emphasis supplied)

33. This Court laid down an overarching principle that the Court may

entertain a curative petition to (i) prevent abuse of its process; and 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 489

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

(ii) to cure a gross miscarriage of justice.21 The Court provided

examples of such circumstances, such as a violation of the principles

of natural justice; or a situation where the Judge fails to disclose his

connection with the subject matter or the parties, giving scope for

an apprehension of bias. However, the Court observed that it is not

possible to exhaustively enumerate the grounds on which a curative

petition may be entertained. The Court noted as follows:

“50. The next step is to specify the requirements to entertain

such a curative petition under the inherent power of this

Court so that floodgates are not opened for filing a second

review petition as a matter of course in the guise of a

curative petition under inherent power. It is common ground

that except when very strong reasons exist, the Court

should not entertain an application seeking reconsideration

of an order of this Court which has become final on

dismissal of a review petition. It is neither advisable nor

possible to enumerate all the grounds on which such

a petition may be entertained.

51. Nevertheless, we think that a petitioner is entitled to

relief ex debito justitiae if he establishes (1) violation of the

principles of natural justice in that he was not a party to

the lis but the judgment adversely affected his interests or,

if he was a party to the lis, he was not served with notice

of the proceedings and the matter proceeded as if he had

notice, and (2) where in the proceedings a learned Judge

failed to disclose his connection with the subject-matter or

the parties giving scope for an apprehension of bias and

the judgment adversely affects the petitioner.”

34. The enumeration of the situations in which the curative jurisdiction

can be exercised is thus not intended to be exhaustive. The Court

went on to lay down certain procedural requirements to entertain a

curative petition such as a certificate by a Senior Advocate about

fulfilling of the requirements.

35. In his concurring opinion, Justice Banerjee also laid down a similar

test of ‘manifest injustice’ to exercise the jurisdiction of this Court

21 Rupa Hurra, para 49.

490 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

under Article 142 while entertaining a curative petition. In essence, the

jurisdiction of this Court, while deciding a curative petition, extends

to cases where the Court acts beyond its jurisdiction, resulting in

a grave miscarriage of justice. We now proceed to lay down the

scope of jurisdiction of this Court and the competent courts below

while dealing with cases arising out of an application to set aside

an arbitral award under Section 34 of the Arbitration Act.

II. Scope of interference of courts with arbitral awards

36. Section 34 of the Arbitration Act delineates the grounds for setting

aside an arbitral award. The provision, as amended by the Arbitration

and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 reads as follows:

“34. Application for setting aside arbitral award.—

(2) An arbitral award may be set aside by the Court only if—

(b) the Court finds that--

(i) the subject-matter of the dispute is not capable of

settlement by arbitration under the law for the time being

in force, or

(ii) the arbitral award is in conflict with the public policy

of India.

Explanation 1. --For the avoidance of any doubt, it is

clarified that an award is in conflict with the public policy

of India, only if,--

(i) the making of the award was induced or affected by

fraud or corruption or was in violation of section 75 or

section 81; or

(ii) it is in contravention with the fundamental policy of

Indian law; or

(iii) it is in conflict with the most basic notions of morality

or justice.

Explanation 2. --For the avoidance of doubt, the test as

to whether there is a contravention with the fundamental 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 491

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

policy of Indian law shall not entail a review on the merits

of the dispute.

(2A) An arbitral award arising out of arbitrations other

than international commercial arbitrations, may also

be set aside by the Court, if the Court finds that the

award is vitiated by patent illegality appearing on the

face of the award:

Provided that an award shall not be set aside merely on

the ground of an erroneous application of the law or by

reappreciation of evidence.”

(emphasis supplied)

37. The contours of the power of the competent court to set aside an

award under Section 34 has been explored in several decisions of

this Court. In addition to the grounds on which an arbitral award

can be assailed laid down in Section 34(2), there is another ground

for challenge against domestic awards, such as the award in the

present case. Under Section 34(2-A) of the Arbitration Act, a domestic

award may be set aside if the Court finds that it is vitiated by ‘patent

illegality’ appearing on the face of the award.

38. In Associate Builders vs. Delhi Development Authority22, a twojudge Bench of this Court held that although the interpretation of a

contract is exclusively within the domain of the arbitrator, construction

of a contract in a manner that no fair-minded or reasonable person

would take, is impermissible. A patent illegality arises where the

arbitrator adopts a view which is not a possible view. A view can be

regarded as not even a possible view where no reasonable body of

persons could possibly have taken it. This Court held with reference

to Sections 28(1)(a) and 28(3), that the arbitrator must take into

account the terms of the contract and the usages of trade applicable

to the transaction. The decision or award should not be perverse

or irrational. An award is rendered perverse or irrational where the

findings are (i) based on no evidence; (ii) based on irrelevant material;

or (iii) ignores vital evidence. Patent illegality may also arise where

the award is in breach of the provisions of the arbitration statute, as

when for instance the award contains no reasons at all, so as to be

22 [2014] 13 SCR 895 : 2015 3 SCC 49. 

492 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

described as unreasoned. A fundamental breach of the principles

of natural justice will result in a patent illegality, where for instance

the arbitrator has let in evidence behind the back of a party. In the

above decision, this Court observed:

“31. The third juristic principle is that a decision which is

perverse or so irrational that no reasonable person would

have arrived at the same is important and requires some

degree of explanation. It is settled law that where:

(i) a finding is based on no evidence, or

(ii) an Arbitral Tribunal takes into account something

irrelevant to the decision which it arrives at; or

(iii) ignores vital evidence in arriving at its decision,

such decision would necessarily be perverse.

42.2. (b) A contravention of the Arbitration Act itself

would be regarded as a patent illegality — for example

if an arbitrator gives no reasons for an award in

contravention of Section 31(3) of the Act, such award

will be liable to be set aside.”

(emphasis supplied)

39. In Ssangyong Engineering & Construction Co. Ltd. vs. NHAI23,

a two-judge bench of this Court endorsed the position in Associate

Builders (supra), on the scope for interference with domestic awards,

even after the 2015 Amendment:

“40. The change made in Section 28(3) by the Amendment

Act really follows what is stated in paras 42.3 to 45 in

Associate Builders, namely, that the construction of the

terms of a contract is primarily for an arbitrator to decide,

unless the arbitrator construes the contract in a manner

that no fair-minded or reasonable person would; in

short, that the arbitrator’s view is not even a possible

view to take. Also, if the arbitrator wanders outside the

23 [2019] 7 SCR 522 : 2019 15 SCC 131

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 493

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

contract and deals with matters not allotted to him,

he commits an error of jurisdiction. This ground of

challenge will now fall within the new ground added

under Section 34(2-A).

41. … Thus, a finding based on no evidence at all or

an award which ignores vital evidence in arriving at its

decision would be perverse and liable to be set aside

on the ground of patent illegality. Additionally, a finding

based on documents taken behind the back of the parties

by the arbitrator would also qualify as a decision based

on no evidence inasmuch as such decision is not based

on evidence led by the parties, and therefore, would also

have to be characterised as perverse.”

(emphasis supplied)

40. In essence, the ground of patent illegality is available for setting

aside a domestic award, if the decision of the arbitrator is found to

be perverse, or so irrational that no reasonable person would have

arrived at it; or the construction of the contract is such that no fair

or reasonable person would take; or, that the view of the arbitrator

is not even a possible view.24 A ‘finding’ based on no evidence at all

or an award which ignores vital evidence in arriving at its decision

would be perverse and liable to be set aside under the head of

‘patent illegality’. An award without reasons would suffer from patent

illegality. The arbitrator commits a patent illegality by deciding a

matter not within his jurisdiction or violating a fundamental principle

of natural justice.

41. A judgment setting aside or refusing to set aside an arbitral award

under Section 34 is appealable in the exercise of the jurisdiction

of the court under Section 37 of the Arbitration Act. It has been

clarified by this Court, in a line of precedent, that the jurisdiction

under Section 37 of the Arbitration Act is akin to the jurisdiction of

the Court under Section 34 and restricted to the same grounds of

challenge as Section 34.25

24 Patel Engineering Limited vs North Eastern Electric Power Corporation Limited (2020) 7 SCC 176.

25 MMTC Ltd. v. Vedanta Ltd, (2019) 4 SCC 163, para 14; Konkan Railways v. Chenab Bridge Project

Undertaking, 2023 INSC 742, para 14. 

494 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

42. In the statutory scheme of the Arbitration Act, a recourse to Section

37 is the only appellate remedy available against a decision under

Section 34. The Constitution, however, provides the parties with a

remedy under Article 136 against a decision rendered in appeal under

Section 37. This is the discretionary and exceptional jurisdiction of

this Court to grant Special Leave to Appeal. In fact, Section 37(3) of

the Arbitration Act expressly clarifies that no second appeal shall lie

from an order passed under Section 37, but nothing in the section

takes away the constitutional right under Article 136. Therefore, in

a sense, there is a third stage at which this court tests the exercise

of jurisdiction by the courts acting under Section 34 and Section 37

of the Arbitration Act.

43. While adjudicating the merits of a Special Leave Petition and

exercising its power under Article 136, this Court must interfere

sparingly and only when exceptional circumstances exist, justifying

the exercise of this Court’s discretion.26 The Court must apply settled

principles of judicial review such as whether the findings of the High

Court are borne out from the record or are based on a misappreciation

of law and fact. In particular, this Court must be slow in interfering

with a judgement delivered in exercise of powers under Section 37

unless there is an error in exercising of the jurisdiction by the Court

under Section 37 as delineated above. Unlike the exercise of power

under Section 37, which is akin to Section 34, this Court (under

Article 136) must limit itself to testing whether the court acting under

Section 37 exceeded its jurisdiction by failing to apply the correct

tests to assail the award.

III. The award was patently illegal

44. In the case at hand, the Division Bench found the award to

be perverse, irrational and patently illegal since it ignored the

vital evidence of CMRS certification in deciding the validity of

termination. This, the Division Bench held, overlooked the statutory

certification deeming it irrelevant without reasons and thus the

award was patently illegal according to the test in Associate

Builders (supra).27

26 Chandi Prasad Chokhani v. State of Bihar, AIR 1961 SC 1708; Pritam Singh v. State, 1950 SCC 189.

27 Division Bench, paras 98-99. 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 495

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

45. This Court in appeal against the judgment of the Division Bench

of the High Court held that the award was not perverse. Factual

findings such as the finding that the cure period was 90 days and

that DAMEPL was entitled to terminate the contract, could not, it was

held, be interfered with.28 On the CMRS Certificate, this Court held

that the arbitral tribunal was deciding whether there was a breach

of the agreement and whether the defects were cured within the

cure period; hence the safety of the line was not an issue before

the tribunal. This Court held that the Commissioner may be the

competent authority to determine the safety of the project but the

certificate itself did not show that the defects were cured within 90

days. This Court disagreed with the Division Bench and held that the

CMRS certificate had no bearing on the validity of the termination.

46. There is a fundamental error in the manner in which this Court dealt

with the challenge to the decision of the High Court. This jurisdiction

of this Court was invoked under Article 136 of the Constitution. The

Court was exercising its jurisdiction over a decision rendered by the

Division Bench of the High Court in appeal under Section 37. The

Division Bench had held that the award overlooked crucial facts and

evidence on record that were crucial to the determination of the issues

before the arbitral tribunal. This led to the award being perverse and

patently illegal within the parameters of Section 34 as explained

in the judgments of this Court in Associate Builders (supra) and

Ssangyong (supra). The award overlooked the express terms of

clause 29.5.1(i) which stipulated that if “effective steps” were taken

during the cure period by DMRC, the contractual power to terminate

could not be exercised. This Court incorrectly considered the CMRS

certificate to be irrelevant to the validity of the termination.

i. Interpretation of the termination clause by the Tribunal was

unreasonable

47. Interference with an arbitral award cannot frustrate the ‘commercial

wisdom behind opting for alternate dispute resolution’, merely because

an alternate view exists.29 However, the interpretation of a contract

cannot be unreasonable, such that no person of ordinary prudence

would take it. The contract, which is a culmination of the parties’

28 Civil Appeal, para 31.

29 Dyna Technologies Private Limited v. Crompton Greaves Limited, (2019) 20 SCC 1, paras 24, 25. 

496 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

agency, should be given full effect. If the interpretation of the terms

of the contract as adopted by the tribunal was not even a possible

view, the award is perverse.30

48. Clause 29.5.1(i) entitles the concessionaire to terminate the

agreement if DMRC “failed to cure such breach or take effective

steps for curing such breach” within the cure period. Pertinently,

the clause uses two separate phrases, “cure” and “effective steps

to cure”. The clause reads as follows:

“29.5.1 The Concessionaire may after giving 90 (ninety)

days’ notice in writing to DMRC terminate this Agreement

upon the occurrence and continuation of any of the following

events (each a “DMRC Event of Default”), unless any

such DMRC Event of Default has occurred as a result

of Concessionaire Event of Default or due to a Force

Majeure Event.

(i) DMRC is in breach of this Agreement and such breach

has a Material Adverse Effect on the Concessionaire and

DMRC has failed to cure such breach or take effective

steps for curing such breach within 90 (ninety) days of

receipt of notice in this behalf from the Concessionaire;”

(emphasis supplied)

49. The Tribunal found that since certain defects remained after the

cure period, this was indicative of the fact that the defects were not

cured and that no effective steps were taken. However, logically,

the fact that defects existed at the end of the cure period relates

to one aspect of the termination clause – that the defects were not

completely cured. It does not explain whether effective steps were

taken within the cure period. Effectively, the Tribunal considered that

in-progress steps that had not yet culminated into completely cured

defects were not “effective steps” to offset termination. This places

the two components i.e. ‘curing of defects’ and ‘taking effective steps

to cure defects’ at par, to mean that only the completed curing of

defects is relevant. The Tribunal fails to explain what amounts to an

‘effective step’ and how the steps taken by DMRC were not effective,

within the meaning of the phrase.

30 Konkan Railway Corporation Limited v. Chenab Bridge Project Undertaking, 2023 9 SCC 85.

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 497

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

50. Evidently, this could not have been the intention of the parties,

because they have clearly agreed to include the phrase “effective

steps”. They clearly intended that once a cure notice was served

on a party, it would be open to them to either cure defects or to

initiate effective steps, even if they could not culminate into the

complete curing of defects within the cure period. Incremental

progress, even if it does not lead to complete cure, is an acceptable

course of action to prevent termination according to the 2008

Agreement.

51. The Tribunal did not appreciate the individual import of the two

phrases separately from each other. This was not a matter of mere

“alternate interpretation” of the clause, but an unreasonable and

uncalled for interpretation of the clause, which frustrated the very

provision, and which no reasonable person would have accepted

considering the terms of the clause. We must clarify that Tribunal

could have still arrived at the conclusion that the steps taken during

the cure period were not effective within the meaning of the clause

for certain reasons. However, such discussion and reasoning is

conspicuously absent.

52. Issue H framed by the Tribunal- “Did the issuance of certificate by

CMRS show that the defects were duly cured” similarly glosses

over the effective steps aspect of the clause. Given this framing,

the issue was bound to be answered in the negative since

the CMRS certificate does not conclude that the defects were

completely cured.

53. The decisions of the Single Judge and this Court are similarly silent

on the aspect of “effective steps”. In paragraphs 31 to 34 of its

judgment, this Court noted that since the defects were not cured in

90 days, the termination was valid. Impliedly, this Court found that

the defects ought to have been fully cured within the cure period

in order to avoid termination.

54. The judgment of this Court also never tested the relevance of the

CMRS certificate vis-à-vis “effective steps”. This Court accepted a

reading of the termination clause by the Arbitral tribunal and the

Single Judge that was not even a possible view and could not

have been arrived at on any objective assessment. This Court not

only overlooked the plain words of the clause but also rendered the

phrase “effective steps” otiose. 

498 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

ii. The award overlooked vital evidence and matters on the record

55. The erroneous and misleading framing of the issue as noted above led

to the ignoring of vital evidence relevant to the issue of termination.

The arbitral tribunal held that since the Commissioner imposed

conditions of inspection and speed restrictions, this meant that the

defects were not fully cured.

56. Certainly, the imposition of conditions shows that the defects were

not cured completely, to warrant an unconditional sanction for full

speed operations. However, as the Division Bench of the High Court

correctly observed, the separation of the validity of termination and

relevance of the CMRS certificate was the reason for this erroneous

finding. Since the ‘effective steps’ aspect was overlooked, the CMRS

certificate was erroneously deemed to be irrelevant.

57. On 19 November 2012, a joint application was made by the parties

to the Commissioner under the 2002 Act. Significantly, the annexure

to the application which was jointly signed by the parties states as

set out below:

“f) The repairs have been Inspected by an Independent

Engineer M/s TUV, engaged by

DMRC to conduct the technical check on the quality

of work and to ensure that the repairs are carried out

as per the approved repair methodology. The copies

of the certificates obtained from TUV are enclosed as

Annexures xvii.

g) Cracks in soffit of some ‘U’ girders were also observed

and, therefore, inspection of all the girders have been

done and mapping of the cracks have been undertaken

accordingly (Annexure-xviii). Cracks have beery noticed

in 367 girders. These cracks were analysed by M/s

SYSTRA and their report is, enclosed as Annexure xix.

They have concluded that there is no effect on the

integrity of the girders and that there is no reason

to-be further worried. M/s SYSTRA have also given

the repair methodology for these cracks from the point of

view of durability and to avoid permeation of water during

the service life of girders, (Included in Annexure-xvi).

Accordingly, the cracks wider than 0.2 mm have been 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 499

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

Injected with epoxy resin and cracks less than 0.2 mm

have been sealed with epoxy sealant.

h) Train trials after repairs by DMRC have been

completed successfully and all systems have been

checked for correct functioning at various speeds

Including at speed of 120 kmph. Track recording was

done with OMS-2000 during these trials and no peak of

value ≥ 0.15g was recorded upto 120 Kmph (results of

OMS 2000 are enclosed in Annexure XIV)”

(emphasis supplied)

58. Admittedly, some of the defects were cured in their entirety and

steps were taken by DMRC to cure the remainders, based on which

the parties had jointly sought permission under the 2002 Act. The

parties stated that the repairs had been inspected by an independent

engineer; an analysis of the cracks revealed that the integrity of the

girders was intact and there was no cause of concern. Further, the

parties stated that the train trials “after repairs by DMRC have been

completed successfully and all systems have been checked for correct

functioning at various speeds including the speed of 120kmph”. It is

apparent on the face of the record that certain repairs were completed

by DMRC and the trials had been completed at full speed as on the

date of application, 19 November 2012.

59. On 9 July 2012, about four months before the date of the joint

application, DAMEPL had averred in the cure notice that the project

was not ‘safe for operations’ and that it posed a threat to life and

property. The arbitral tribunal was correct in concluding that the joint

application does not constitute a waiver of the termination, but this

evidence was vital considering the change in DAMEPL’s position

on the safety of the line from the date of the cure notice to the date

of the joint application. DMRC did take certain steps to alleviate

DAMEPL’s concerns so as to warrant this change of position. There

is no explanation forthcoming in the award about why none of these

steps initiated during the cure period were ‘effective steps’. This gap

in reasoning stems from the arbitral tribunal wrongly separating the

issue of termination and the CMRS certificate.

60. Besides the effective steps aspect, there is another reason why the

CMRS certificate ought to have been treated as relevant. The Tribunal

treats the cure notice as a crucial document. At paragraph 26 of the 

500 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

award, it noted that “since the cure notice dated 9th July 2012 is a

crucial document in this case, it is useful to quote certain paragraphs

of the said letter”. The cure notice, in turn, was heavily premised on

the safety of operations.31 Interestingly, at paragraph 27 of the cure

notice, DAMEPL avers that the trains can only be operated once

the defects are cured to the satisfaction of the stakeholders about

the safety of operations.

61. Reference may be made to the 2002 Act under which the CMRS is

the relevant statutory stakeholder whose satisfaction about the safety

of operations is necessary for running of the metro. The relevant

provisions of the Act may be adverted to here:

“14. Sanction of Central Government to the opening

of metro railway.—The metro railway in the the National

Capital Region, metropolitan city and metropolitan area shall

not be opened for the public carriage of passengers except

with the previous sanction of the Central Government.

15. Formalities to be complied with before giving

sanction to the opening of metro railway.—(1) The

Central Government shall, before giving its sanction to the

opening of the metro railway under Section 14, obtain a

report from the Commissioner that—

(a) he has made a careful inspection of the metro railway

and the rolling stock that may be used thereon;

(b) the moving and fixed dimensions as laid down by

the Central Government have not been infringed;

(c) the track structure, strength of bridges, standards of

signalling system, traction system, general structural

character of civil works and the size of, and maximum

gross load upon, the axles of any rolling stock, comply

with the requirements laid down by the Central

Government; and

(d) in his opinion, metro railway can be opened for the

public carriage of passengers without any danger to

the public using it.

31 Cure Notice paras 18,21,26, and 27. 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 501

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

(2) If the Commissioner is of the opinion that the metro

railway cannot be opened without any danger to the

public using it, he shall, in his report, state the grounds

therefor, as also the requirements which, in his opinion,

are to be complied with before sanction is given by the

Central Government.

(3) The Central Government, after considering the report

of the Commissioner, may sanction the opening of the

metro railway under Section 14 as such or subject to such

conditions as may be considered necessary by it for the

safety of the public.

18. Power to close metro railway opened for public

carriage of passengers.—Where, after the inspection

of the metro railway opened and used for the public

carriage of passengers or any rolling stock used thereon,

the Commissioner is of the opinion that the use of the

metro railway or of any rolling stock will be attended with

danger to the public using it, the Commissioner shall send

a report to the Central Government who may thereupon

direct that—

(i) the metro railway be closed for the public carriage

of passengers; or

(ii) the use of the rolling stock be discontinued; or

(iii) the metro railway or the rolling stock may be used

for the public carriage of passengers subject to such

conditions as it may consider necessary for the safety

of the public.

21. Delegation of powers.—The Central Government

may, by notification, direct that any of its powers or

functions under this chapter, except power to make rule

under Section 22, shall, in relation to such matters and

subject to such conditions, if any, as may be specified in

the notification, be exercised or discharged also by the

Commissioner.”

62. In essence, the scheme of the 2002 Act, provides that no metro

line will operate except with the previous sanction of the Central 

502 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

Government.32 Before granting the sanction, the Central Government

has to obtain a report from the Commissioner that (inter alia) the

latter has carefully inspected the metro railway, the general structure

of civil works and that in their opinion, the metro railway can be

opened for passengers without any danger to the public.33 The

Central Government may sanction the opening of the line as such or

subject to conditions it considers necessary for public safety.34 If the

Commissioner is of the opinion that the use of the metro will “attend

danger to the public using it”, they may send a report to the Central

Government, which may in turn direct that the metro be closed or

may be open for public carriage only subject to certain conditions.35

The powers of the Central Government may be delegated to the

Commissioner.36

63. The structure and safety of the project, as certified by the CMRS,

were thus relevant before the Tribunal, making the CMRS certificate

a vital piece of evidence in deciding the issue. The CMRS certificate

was relevant evidence about the safety of the structure. Considering

the statutory scheme of the 2002 Act, especially Section 15, the

Tribunal erred in deeming the sanction irrelevant to its central issue

– which was the validity of the termination, which, according to the

cure notice, was premised on safety.

64. Overall, the cure notice places great emphasis on the safety of the

passengers, which, they claimed stood compromised by defects,

justifying discontinuation of operations. This issue falls directly within

the domain of the Commissioner under the scheme of the 2002 Act.

65. Rather than considering the vital evidence of the CMRS certificate

towards safety and effective steps, the arbitral tribunal focussed on

the conditions imposed by the Commissioner on speed and regarding

inspections. While the Division Bench correctly noted that the

certificate was relevant for the issue of the validity of termination, this

Court held that safety was not in issue, even though DAMEPL insisted

on discontinuing operations citing safety concerns. We respectfully

32 Section 14, Metro Railways (Operations and Maintenance) Act 2002.

33 Section 15, ibid.

34 Section 15(3), ibid.

35 Section 18, ibid.

36 Section 21, ibid. 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 503

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

disagree with this Court’s re-assessment of the Division Bench’s

interpretation. The cure notice was relevant for the reasons stated

above. Moreover, the fact that DAMEPL premised it on safety could

not have been overlooked by the Tribunal. In doing so, it overlooked

vital evidence pertaining to an issue that goes to the root of the

matter. The cure notice was obviously on the record and merited

consideration for its contents bearing on vital elements of safety.

66. The cure notice, which contains statements bearing on the safety

of the line and other material indicating that the line was running

uninterrupted are matters of record. While the cure notice contains

allegations about the line not being operational, there is evidence

on the record indicating that the line was in fact running. Even if we

were to accept that the finding of the arbitral tribunal that the defects

were not completely cured during the cure period is a factual finding

incapable of interference, it is clear from the record that DMRC took

steps towards curing defects which led to the eventual resumption

of operations. The award contains no explanation as to why the

steps which were taken by DMRC were not ‘effective steps’ within

the meaning of the termination clause.

67. In essence, therefore the award is unreasoned on the above important

aspects. It overlooks vital evidence in the form of the joint application

of the contesting parties to CMRS and the CMRS certificate. The

arbitral tribunal ignored the specific terms of the termination clause. It

reached a conclusion which is not possible for any reasonable body

of persons to arrive at. The arbitral tribunal erroneously rejected the

CMRS sanction as irrelevant. The award bypassed the material on

record and failed to reconcile inconsistencies between the factual

averments made in the cure notice, which formed the basis of

termination on the one hand and the evidence of the successful

running of the line on the other. The Division Bench correctly held

that the arbitral tribunal ignored vital evidence on the record, resulting

in perversity and patent illegality, warranting interference. The

conclusions of the Division Bench are, thus, in line with the settled

precedent including the decisions in Associate Builders (supra)

and Ssangyong (supra).

H. Conclusion

68. The judgment of the two-judge Bench of this Court, which interfered

with the judgment of the Division Bench of the High Court, has resulted 

504 [2024] 4 S.C.R.

Digital Supreme Court Reports

in a miscarriage of justice. The Division Bench applied the correct test

in holding that the arbitral award suffered from the vice of perversity

and patent illegality. The findings of the Division Bench were borne

out from the record and were not based on a misappreciation of law

or fact. This Court failed, while entertaining the Special Leave Petition

under Article 136, to justify its interference with the well-considered

decision of the Division Bench of the High Court. The decision of

this Court fails to adduce any justification bearing on any flaws in

the manner of exercise of jurisdiction by the Division Bench under

Section 37 of the Arbitration Act. By setting aside the judgement of

the Division Bench, this Court restored a patently illegal award which

saddled a public utility with an exorbitant liability. This has caused

a grave miscarriage of justice, which warrants the exercise of the

power under Article 142 in a Curative petition, in terms of Rupa

Hurra (supra).

69. The Curative petitions must be and are accordingly allowed. The

parties are restored to the position in which they were on the

pronouncement of the judgement of the Division Bench. The execution

proceedings before the High Court for enforcing the arbitral award

must be discontinued and the amounts deposited by the petitioner

pursuant to the judgment of this Court shall be refunded. The part

of the awarded amount, if any, paid by the petitioner as a result of

coercive action is liable to be restored in favour of the petitioner.

The orders passed by the High Court in the course of the execution

proceedings for enforcing the arbitral award are set aside.

70. Before concluding, we clarify that the exercise of the curative

jurisdiction of this Court should not be adopted as a matter of ordinary

course. The curative jurisdiction should not be used to open the

floodgates and create a fourth or fifth stage of court intervention in

an arbitral award, under this Court’s review jurisdiction or curative

jurisdiction, respectively.

71. In the specific facts and circumstances of this case to which we

have adverted in the course of the discussion, we have come to the

conclusion that this Court erred in interfering with the decision of the

Division Bench of the High Court. The judgment of the Division Bench

in the appeal under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act

1996 was based on a correct application of the test under Section 34

of the Act. The judgment of the Division Bench provided more than 

[2024] 4 S.C.R. 505

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. v.

Delhi Airport Metro Express Pvt. Ltd.

adequate reasons to come to the conclusion that the arbitral award

suffered from perversity and patent illegality. There was no valid

basis for this Court to interfere under Article 136 of the Constitution.

The interference by this Court has resulted in restoring a patently

illegal award. This has caused a grave miscarriage of justice. We

have applied the standard of a ‘grave miscarriage of justice’ in

the exceptional circumstances of this case where the process of

arbitration has been perverted by the arbitral tribunal to provide an

undeserved windfall to DAMEPL.

72. The curative petitions are allowed in the above terms.

73. Pending applications, if any, stand disposed of.

Headnotes prepared by: Ankit Gyan Result of the case:

Curative petitions allowed.