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Wednesday, February 14, 2024

Whether the writ petition filed by the petitioner seeking appropriate direction to the State Government, to prematurely release him, having been in custody-actual imprisonment for over 26 years, and served a sentence of over 35 years including over 8 years of remission earned, for offence punishable u/ss. 302 and 392 IPC, should be allowed. Premature release – Convict served over 26 years in actual imprisonment and served 35 years of sentence including 8 years of remission earned for offences punishable u/ss. 302 and 392 – Case rejected for premature release thrice by the State Government – Writ petition seeking direction to the State Government to prematurely release him:

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 505 : 2023 INSC 843

JOSEPH

v.

THE STATE OF KERALA & ORS.

(Writ Petition (Criminal) No(s). 520 of 2022)

SEPTEMBER 21, 2023

[S. RAVINDRA BHAT AND DIPANKAR DATTA, JJ.]

Issue for consideration: Whether the writ petition filed by the

petitioner seeking appropriate direction to the State Government,

to prematurely release him, having been in custody-actual

imprisonment for over 26 years, and served a sentence of over

35 years including over 8 years of remission earned, for offence

punishable u/ss. 302 and 392 IPC, should be allowed.

Premature release – Convict served over 26 years in actual

imprisonment and served 35 years of sentence including 8

years of remission earned for offences punishable u/ss. 302

and 392 – Case rejected for premature release thrice by the

State Government – Writ petition seeking direction to the State

Government to prematurely release him:

Held: Inflexible guidelines can result in the real danger of

overlooking the reformative potential of each individual convict –

Grouping types of convicts, based on the offences they were found

to have committed, as a starting point, may be justified, however,

prison laws in India read with Arts. 72 and 161 encapsulate a

strong underlying reformative purpose – Insistence of guidelines,

and denial to consider the real impact of prison good behavior,

and other relevant factors results in violation of Art. 14 – Excluding

the relief of premature release to prisoners who have served

extremely long periods of incarceration, not only crushes their spirit,

and instils despair, but signifies society’s resolve to be harsh and

unforgiving – Idea of rewarding, a prisoner for good conduct is

entirely negated – r. 376 of the 2014 Rules prescribes that prisoners

shall be granted remission for keeping peace and good behaviour

in jail – Redirecting the petitioner who has already undergone over

26 years of incarceration and over 35 years of punishment with

remission, to undergo, again, consideration before the Advisory

* Author

506 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

Board, and thereafter, State Government for premature release,

would be cruel – Petitioner has earned over 8 years of remission,

thus demonstrates good conduct in jail – Discussions of the Jail

Advisory Board are also positive and shows that he is a reformed

inmate – Thus, in the interest of justice, issuance of direction to

release the petitioner – Kerala Prison Rules, 1958 – Kerala Prisons

and Correctional Services (Management) Rules, 2014 – rr 462 to

468. [Paras 33-35]

Remission – Grant of remission – Scope of:

Held: Blanket exclusion of certain offences, from the scope of

grant of remission, by way of an executive policy, is arbitrary and

against the ideals of reformation that run through the criminal justice

system – Penological goal is of reformation and rehabilitation rather

than retribution – Impact of applying such an executive instruction/

guideline would be that any progress made by a long-term convict

would leave them feeling hopeless, and condemned to an indefinite

period of incarceration. [Para 28]

Remission – Remission policy – Application of:

Held: Remission policy prevailing on the date of conviction, is to

be applied in a given case, and if a more liberal policy exists on

the day of consideration, then the latter would apply. [Para 19]

Administrative law – Discretion conferred widely by plenary

statute or statutory rules:

Held: Cannot be lightly fettered. [Para 29]

State of Haryana v. Jagdish [2010] 3 SCR 716; Maru

Ram, v. Union of India [1981] 1 SCR 1196; General

Officer Commanding-in-Chief v. Subhash Chandra Yadav

[1988] 3 SCR 62; State of Haryana v. Mahender Singh

[2007] 11 SCR 932; State v. H. Nilofer Nisha (2020)

14 SCC 161:[2020] 1 SCR 456; Ramdas Athawale v.

Union of India [2010] 3 SCR 1059; Union of India v. V.

Sriharan [2015] 14 SCR 613; Swamy Shraddananda (2)

@ Mural Manohar Mishra v. State of Karnataka [2008]

11 SCR 93; State of Madhya Pradesh v. Ratan Singh

[1976] Supp. 1 SCR 552; Rajan v. The Home Secretary,

Home Department of Tamil Nadu [2019] 6 SCR 1035;

State of Haryana v. Raj Kumar (2021) 9 SCC 292; 

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 507

JOSEPH v. THE STATE OF KERALA & ORS.

Rajo v. State of Bihar Judgment dated 25.08.2023 in

Writ Petition (Crl.) No. 252/2023; State of Haryana v.

Mohinder Singh [2000] 1 SCR 698; Sangeet v. State

of Haryana [2012] 13 SCR 85; Ram Chander v. State

of Chhattisgarh [2022] 4 SCR 1103; U.P. State Road

Transport Corporation & Anr v. Mohd. Ismail & Ors.

[1991] 2 SCR 274; Chairman, All India Railway Rec.

Board & Ors. v. K. Shyam Kumar & Ors. [2010] 6 SCR

291 – referred to.

CRIMINAL ORIGINAL JURISDICTION : Writ Petition (Criminal)

No.520 of 2022

(Under Article 32 of The Constitution of India)

Adolf Mathew, Sanjay Jain, Advs. for the Petitioner.

Jaideep Gupta, Sr. Adv., Harshad V Hameed, Dileep Poolakkot,

Subhash Chandran K.R., Mrs. Ashly Harshad, Advs. for the

Respondents.

The Judgment of the Court was delivered by

S. RAVINDRA BHAT, J.

1. The petitioner, currently serving a life imprisonment sentence for a

crime committed in 1996, punishable under Sections 302 and 392 of

the Indian Penal Code (hereafter “IPC”) approaches this court seeking

to enforce his right under Article 32 of the Constitution of India. He

seeks appropriate direction to the state government, to prematurely

release him, having been in custody (i.e., actual imprisonment) for

over 26 years, and served a sentence of over 35 years (including

over 8 years of remission earned).

Facts and background

2. It was alleged that on 16.09.1994, the petitioner had gone to his

sister-in-law’s (the deceased victim) place of work, and on the false

pretext that her mother was seriously ill and had been admitted to

the hospital, taken her away with the permission of the in-charge of

the convent where she worked. The prosecution case was that he

had her walk along the railway line and at a desolate place, allegedly

raped and robbed her of the ornaments she was wearing, before

laying her on the tracks to be runover by a passing train. 

508 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

3. The petitioner was arrested on 09.10.1994 in connection with the

case and remained in custody till the trial court1 acquitted him of

all charges on 23.03.1996. The High Court2

 reversed the acquittal,

and convicted the petitioner by its judgment dated 06.01.1998 for

the offences punishable under Section 302, 376 and 392 IPC. The

High Court sentenced him to life imprisonment for the offence under

Section 302, and rigorous imprisonment of 7 years on each count

of Section 376 and 392 IPC, which were to run concurrently. This

court3

, however, on 27.04.2000 set aside the conviction under Section

376 IPC and confirmed the conviction and sentence under Sections

302 and 392 IPC only.

4. Pursuant to an order of this court, the respondent-state filed an affidavit

indicating the computation of his period of sentence undergone, the

status of his plea for remission to be granted, as well as filed the

state’s various remission policies (as amended from time to time).

The petitioner completed 1 year 5 months and 10 days of custody

as an undertrial, before his acquittal by the trial court. After his

conviction by the High Court, he surrendered to the sentence on

28.01.1998, and remained in custody thereafter. On 13.08.2010,

he completed 14 years of actual imprisonment (including the time

spent as an undertrial). And on 13.08.2016, he completed 20 years

of actual imprisonment. The custody certificate produced in his

writ petition, confirms that he completed actual imprisonment of 25

years 9 months and 26 days on 07.06.2022, (i.e., he completed 25

years actual imprisonment on 13.08.2021). However, in terms of the

state’s counter affidavit, as on 31.01.2023, he completed 25 years

10 months 3 days of actual imprisonment and has earned 8 years

4 months and 16 days in remission. Regardless of the arithmetical

inconsistencies, it is not contested that he has completed over 26

years of actual imprisonment.

5. In the course of hearing, it was pointed out that the petitioner’s case

had been considered by the Advisory Committee/Jail Advisory Board

1 By judgment dated 23.03.1996 passed by the Sessions Court, Thrissur in S.C. No. 73/1995.

2 By judgment dated 06.01.1998 passed by the Kerala High Court in Crl. A. No. 511/1996.

3 By judgment dated 27.04.2000 passed by this Court in Crl. A. No. 656/1998. 

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 509

JOSEPH v. THE STATE OF KERALA & ORS.

under prevailing Rules4

 on nine occasions of which three times,

the Board had recommended his premature release. However, the

state government had rejected his request on all three occasions.

Pursuant to a direction by this court, the State has placed on record

each of the Minutes of the Meeting/Reports of the Advisory Boards,

containing recommendations (positive and negative) relating to the

petitioner, and the rejection orders passed by the State on the three

occasions wherein the Board recommended release. These are

summarized below:

ADVISORY COMMITTEE/JAIL ADVISORY BOARD

Date & Statutory

provisions/

Rules applied

Consideration of petitioner’s case and reasoning

10.08.2011

[1958 Rules]

Petitioner’s case unanimously rejected as it was a case

of premediated murder.

27.08.2013

[1958 Rules]

Based on the police report and manner of commission

of offence, the three official members opposed

recommendation, while the three non-official members

recommended release. Committee rejected proposal.

30.06.2014

[Both 1958 and

2014 Rules]

Listed under separate heading ‘cases of prisoners who

have been convicted for offences against women but

are not premediated and thus coming under purview of

government directions’. The District Probation officer

recommended release, while the police opposed.

Recorded that he is hard working, disciplined, and

reformed and hence, Petitioner’s case was deferred to

the next meeting given that he had completed over 17

years of imprisonment.

29.09.2015

[2014 Rules]

Same observations/conclusions as last date of

consideration; petitioner’s case was unanimously

directed to be considered afresh after receiving detailed

reports from the probation officer and police and the

case was deferred for consideration till November 2015.

4 Kerala Prison Rules, 1958 (hereafter ‘1958 Rules’) and Kerala Prisons and Correctional Services

(Management) Rules, 2014 (hereafter ‘2014 Rules’). 

510 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

08.01.2016

[2014 Rules]

Petitioner’s case rejected on the ground that the police

report did not recommend release.

10.01.2017

[2014 Rules]

Police report did not recommend release, while the

reports of the probation officer and jail superintendent

respectively, supported release. After a detailed

discussion of the police report, charges levelled, and

his life inside and outside prison – probation officer and

non-official members supported release. Thereafter, the

Board unanimously recommended the petitioner’s case

for premature release.

13.08.2019

[2014 Rules]

District Probation officer recommended premature

release, while the police report again recommended

against release. Considering his life on parole, character

in prison, and period undergone, case was deferred for

consideration in next meeting.

26.02.2020

[2014 Rules]

Considering the long term imprisonment undergone, age

of convict, character in prison, family background and

situation, Petitioner’s case unanimously recommended

for release.

07.03.2022

[2014 Rules]

Petitioner’s case was discussed in detail. District Judge

on the Board, pointed out that the Supreme Court had

directed that persons who had committed murder of

women and children and those convicted under NDPS

need not be considered for release. The Chairman

also opined that those convicted for murder of women

and children, and murder with rape, ought not to be

recommended. However, a non-official member pointed

out that he had undergone over 24 years of actual

imprisonment, had been considered by the Board 5 times

and 2 times been recommended for release, and may be

given special consideration for release on humanitarian

grounds. Given his age and long incarceration,

the Petitioner’s case was thereafter recommended

unanimously for premature release.

STATE GOVERNMENT DECISION

Date of decision Government’s decision relating to the petitioner

06.07.2019 Pursuant to Advisory Board’s recommendation dated

10.01.2017, Petitioner’s case (along with the other three

convicts) was rejected without assigning any reasons.

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 511

JOSEPH v. THE STATE OF KERALA & ORS.

22.04.2021 Pursuant to Advisory Board’s recommendation dated

26.02.2020, file relating to all 20 persons recommended

for release, returned for further action.

01.09.2022 Pursuant to Advisory Board’s recommendation dated

07.03.2022, petitioner’s case (along with 7 others) was

rejected without assigning any reasons.

6. The State in its counter affidavit explained its position - that while

the petitioner has been considered for premature release 9 times,

his case has been rejected repeatedly because:

“while considering proposal for premature release of prisoners, the

consistent stand now being adopted by the Government is that

persons involved in the murder of women and children and persons

convicted in offences relating to POCSO cases shall not be granted

premature release. Since the petitioner involved in the murder of

a woman his premature release was rejected by Government in

accordance with the above stand.”

(emphasis supplied)

Further, that in 2020, general guidelines were to be framed by a specially

constituted committee5

 for determining the eligibility of prisoners with

regards to grant of premature release. This committee finally proposed

premature release of 67 convicts (from those who had earlier been rejected

for whatever reason) after assessing their individual cases. The state

government by its proceeding dated 20.04.2022, approved the proposal

excluding certain convicts who had been involved in: most cruel murder,

committed murder of woman and children, or murder with rape, and those

undergoing treatment for mental illness, whose relatives were reluctant to

receive them. These restrictions, along with other more detailed guidelines,

have been incorporated in a government order6

 dated 04.06.2022 issued

by the Home Department of the State of Kerala.

7. On 01.09.2022, the state government rejected for the third time, the

Advisory Board’s recommendation to release the petitioner. Aggrieved,

the petitioner has preferred the present writ petition.

5 This committee consisted of Additional Chief Secretary Home & Vigilance Department as Chairman, Law Secretary, and Director General of Prions and Correctional Services as Members.

6 G.O.(Ms.) NO. 116/2022/HOME dated 14.06.2022. 

512 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

Contentions of parties

8. Mr. Adolf Mathew, learned counsel appearing on behalf of the

petitioner, challenged the state government’s repeated rejection of

his plea for premature release. It was pointed out that the remission

policy prevailing on the date of the conviction would have to apply.

Attention was drawn to Rule 545A of the 1958 Rules which stipulates

release can be considered after 14 years; Rule 216(1), 244(2) and

299(c) of the 1958 Rules which state that the inmate shall be released

after completion of 20 years of sentence; and the recommendations

of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) which prescribes

mandatory release after 25 years of sentence. Furthermore, even

in terms of Rule 377 of the new Prison Rules, 2014, the petitioner

is entitled to release after 20 years. It was argued that since the

petitioner has not only completed 14 years or 20 years, but even 25

years of actual imprisonment, at this juncture - regardless of which

rules are applied, it was manifestly illegal to keep him incarcerated

in perpetuity.

9. Mr. Mathew strongly opposed the state’s policy dated 14.06.2022 (and

executive instruction dated 20.04.2022 cited in the state’s counter

affidavit) which listed certain crimes, the commission of which put

the convict beyond the scope for grant of remission. The executive

instruction (which explicitly prohibits the release of a prisoner involved

in the “murder of a woman”), it was argued – not only came after

his completion of 25 years of incarceration, but in any case could

not override the statutory provisions. Counsel submitted that the

petitioner had a legal right to be considered for remission given the

safeguards of a convict under Articles 20 and 21 of the Constitution

of India; this legal right was guaranteed by the Prison Act, and the

Rules framed under it.

10. Relying on replies received (under the Right to Information Act, 2005)

from the respective jails in which the petitioner has been lodged –

counsel demonstrated that from 2000-2016, a total of 28 convicts

sentenced to life imprisonment, who were involved in the murder of

a woman, had been granted premature release. However, despite

being recommended three times by the Advisory Board with detailed 

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 513

JOSEPH v. THE STATE OF KERALA & ORS.

remarks on his reformation, the State government had rejected his

case for premature release without assigning any reasoning, in its

orders. This, it was argued, was grounds for setting aside these orders.

11. Lastly, counsel pointed to material produced by the respondent state

itself, to demonstrate that the Jail Advisory Board had found the

petitioner, who is aged 67 years old, to be hardworking, disciplined,

and reformed, and prayed for his premature release.

12. To supplement his submissions, counsel placed reliance on various

judgments of this court, including – State of Haryana v. Jagdish7

,

Maru Ram, v. Union of India8

, General Officer Commanding-in-Chief

v. Subhash Chandra Yadav9

, State of Haryana v. Mahender Singh10,

and State v. H. Nilofer Nisha11.

13. Mr. Jaideep Gupta, learned senior counsel, appearing on behalf of

the state, submitted that the petitioner cannot claim a fundamental

right to be released on remission, and that the prayer sought in the

writ petition – for this court’s direction to the government to release

him – was simply not maintainable.

14. Counsel argued that grant of remission, is solely at the executive’s

discretion, and an act of mercy, granted on account of good conduct

and term of imprisonment. It is not an indefeasible right; rather the

convict only has a right to be considered for remission, which he

had been, in the present case. The decision, however, of whether

to be granted remission, was an act of exercising discretion which

solely fell within the domain of the executive.

15. Mr. Gupta drew attention to the nature of the crime – that it was

premediated and cold-blooded murder, with robbery. The assault

of an innocent young woman by someone she reposed trust in,

her brother-in-law no less, who proceeded to rob her belongings

and lay her to her death in such a horrific manner, it was argued

7 [2010] 3 SCR 716

8 [1981] 1 SCR 1196

9 [1988] 3 SCR 62

10 [2007] 11 SCR 932

11 (2020) 14 SCC 161

514 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

was one which shocked the collective conscience of society. Mr.

Gupta submitted that these factors, which no doubt weighed on the

sentencing court (which did not grant the death penalty), must also

weigh on the state authority granting remission, to guide its exercise

of discretion.

16. Counsel for the State, relied on the following judgments to persuade

this court – Ramdas Athawale v. Union of India12, Union of India v.

V. Sriharan13, State of Haryana v. Mahender Singh (supra), Swamy

Shraddananda (2) @ Mural Manohar Mishra v. State of Karnataka14,

State of Madhya Pradesh v. Ratan Singh15 and Rajan v. The Home

Secretary, Home Department of Tamil Nadu16.

Analysis and conclusion

A. Applicable statutory provisions, rules, etc.

17. The Travancore-Cochin Prison Act came into force on 06.06.1950.

By virtue of Sections 3(5) and 59(4), the state government enacted

the 1958 Rules on 26.07.1958. The Kerala Prisons and Correctional

Services (Management) Act, 2010 [hereafter ‘2010 Act’] came into force

on 12/14.05.2010. By virtue of Section 102(2) of this Act (the savings

clause) the 1958 Rules were to continue till the commencement of the

new rules (i.e., the 2014 Rules), on 06/23.05.2014. On 14.06.2022,

a government order was issued containing general guidelines on

premature release, classifying prisoners such that those who had

committed certain offences could not be released prematurely, while

others, could only be considered after 25 years. This government

order also, incorporated an executive instruction dated 20.04.2022

which excluded those involved in “murder of a woman” among other

crimes, from the grant of premature release. Section 433-A of the

CrPC, is also applicable to the extent that it forecloses the option

of statutory remission until the convict who has been convicted for

12 [2010] 3 SCR 1059

13 [2015] 14 SCR 613

14 [2008] 11 SCR 93

15 [1976] Supp. 1 SCR 552

16 [2019] 6 SCR 1035

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 515

JOSEPH v. THE STATE OF KERALA & ORS.

an offence punishable by life imprisonment (or commuted death

sentence) has served 14 years of actual imprisonment.

18. Section 7717 of the 2010 Act empowers the state government to,

either suo moto or on recommendation of an Advisory Committee,

prematurely release well-behaved, long term convicted prisoners

with the objective of their better reformation and rehabilitation, as

per prescribed rules. Rule 462 to 468 of the 2014 Rules, detail the

procedure to be followed by the Advisory Committee while considering

convicts for premature release. Whenever a prisoner completes 14

years actual imprisonment, they become eligible for consideration

for premature release [ref: Rule 464(iv)18]. The Advisory Committee/

Board considers their case in detail, and make recommendations to

the state government, which is empowered under Rule 468 of the

2014 Rules, to admit or reject the said recommendations.

19. A reading of the observations of this court in State of Haryana v.

Jagdish19, which was followed in State of Haryana v. Raj Kumar20,

makes the position of law clear: the remission policy prevailing on

the date of conviction, is to be applied in a given case, and if a more

liberal policy exists on the day of consideration, then the latter would

apply. This approach was recently followed by this court in Rajo v.

State of Bihar21 as well.

20. A five-judge bench of this court, in Maru Ram, v. Union of India22,

when considering application of Section 433-A CrPC, when the trial

court had acquitted an accused prior to its insertion, but convicted

by the appellate court subsequent to Section 433-A coming into

force, held:

17 “77. Premature release. – (1) Well behaved, long term convicted prisoners may be prematurely

released with the objective of their reformation and rehabilitation, by the Government, either suo moto or on

the recommendations of an Advisory Committee as may be prescribed.

(2) The Advisory Committee constituted as per sub-section (1) shall have the powers and duties, as may be

prescribed”.

18 As per sub-clause (iv) to Rule 464 of the 2014 Rules, the Advisory Board is to consider life convicts

on completion of 10 years imprisonment (with remission), unless excluded by Section 433-A CrPC, in which

case they are to be considered after completion of 14 years actual imprisonment.

19 [2010] 3 SCR 716 [paras 35, 43].

20 (2021) 9 SCC 292 [para 16].

21 Judgment dated 25.08.2023 in Writ Petition (Crl.) No. 252/2023 [para 23].

22 [1981] 1 SCR 1196 [para 20]. 

516 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

“[…] When a person is convicted in appeal, it follows that the appellate

Court has exercised its power in the place of the original court and

the guilt, conviction and sentence must be substituted for and shall

have retroactive effect from the date of judgment of the trial Court.

The appellate conviction must relate back to the date of the trial

Court’s verdict and substitute it. In this view, even if the appellate

Court reverses an earlier acquittal rendered before Section 433-A

came into force but allows the appeal and convicts the accused, after

Section 433-A came into force, such persons will also be entitled to

the benefit of the remission system prevailing prior to Section 433-

A on the basis we have explained. An appeal is a continuation of

an appellate judgment as a replacement of the original judgment.”

21. Therefore, applying the principles laid down in the decisions discussed

above, the date of conviction, though actually on 06.01.1998 – i.e.,

the day of the High Court judgment, is deemed to relate back to the

date of the trial court judgment, which was delivered on 23.03.1996.

On this date (as was the case even in 1998 when the High Court

passed its judgment), the 1958 Rules were in force.

22. Much like the 2014 Rules [see Rule 464(iv)], the 1958 Rules similarly

entitle convicts who have completed 14 years, to be considered for

premature release. Rule 545A is extracted below:

“545A. ‘14-Year Rule’.– The cases of ** prisoners whose aggregate

sentence is more than 20 years shall be committed together with the

records specified under Rule 545 for special orders of Government

as to their premature release or completion of 14 years of sentence

including remission in each case.

** “Provided that where a sentence of imprisonment for life is

imposed on conviction of a person for an offence for which death

is one of the punishments provided by law, or where a sentence of

death imposed on a person has been committed under section 433

of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 such persons shall not be

considered for release from prison unless he has served at least 14

years of imprisonment.”

23. When it comes to date of release, the 1958 Rules also in various

provisions, fix 20 years, to be the deemed sentence for a convict

sentenced to life imprisonment: 

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 517

JOSEPH v. THE STATE OF KERALA & ORS.

“216. Date of release when two or more sentences run

consecutively.– (1) The sentence of all prisoners sentenced to

imprisonment for life or to more than 20 years imprisonment in the

aggregate, or to imprisonment, for terms exceeding in the aggregate

or to imprisonment, for terms exceeding in the aggregate 20 years

shall, for the administrative purpose of calculation of the normal date

of release be deemed to be sentence of imprisonment of 20 years….

244. Tickets to be worn by convicts. – […]

(2)(b) No other particulars, such as stars denoting health or the life

shall be entered thereon, and nothing shall be entered on the back

of the ticket. For convictions under sentence for life date of release

shall be taken as 20 years from the date of sentence. In the case of

a convict having a term of alternative imprisonment, the alternative

date of release should also be shown.

299. Definitions in these rules. – […]

(c) The sentence of all prisoners sentenced to imprisonment for life

or to more than twenty years imprisonment in the aggregate or to

imprisonment for terms exceeding in the aggregate twenty years

shall for the purpose of these rules, be deemed to be sentence of

imprisonment for twenty years.”

The analogous provision, in relation to ‘deemed’ life imprisonment sentence,

can be found in Rule 37723 of the 2014 Rules.

B. Analysing the law in the present factual matrix

24. Section 99 of the 2010 Act, empowers the state government to make

rules consistent with the Act, and sub-clause (xxxii) pertains specifically

to the authority which may recommend premature release of prisoners

under Section 77. The State government has painstakingly framed

these rules. As per Rule 462 of the 2014 Rules, Jail Advisory Boards

23 “377. Fixation of Conviction Period – (1) The sentence of all prisoners sentenced to imprisonment

for life or to more than twenty years imprisonment in the aggregate or to imprisonment for terms exceeding in

the aggregate twenty years shall for the purpose of remission rules, be deemed to be sentence of imprisonment for 20 years.

(2) A committee shall constituted under Section 72 and sub-section (1) of the Act for the computation of

remission.”

518 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

were constituted in each prison, to make recommendations for the

premature release of prisoners. The composition of these Boards

includes – Director General of Prisons and Correctional Services

as Chairman, Superintendent of Prisons as Member Secretary, and

the District Collector, District & Sessions Judge, Commissioner of

Police or District Police Chief, District Probation Officer, and three

non-official members appointed by the government – as members.

25. This diverse Board consisting of relevant stakeholders, after having

taken a holistic view of the petitioner’s case, recommended his

premature release on three different occasions – 10.01.2017,

26.02.2020, and 07.03.2022. Yet, the state government, has without

assigning any reasons – which could have perhaps demonstrated

individual consideration of each case recommended - simply rejected

the same all three times (06.07.2019, 22.04.2021, and 01.09.2022).

This is patently unsustainable and warrants intervention of this court.

26. That the execution of a sentence, is the sole prerogative of the State/

Executive, which may exercise its discretion as granted constitutionally

(Art. 161 and 72 of the Indian Constitution) and statutorily (Section

432 CrPC, and state enactments), is one that is not in question.

However, like all power – it must be exercised fairly, reasonably

and not arbitrarily.24

27. While the government order dated 04.06.2022 issued by the State of

Kerala is not directly challenged, it is this court’s considered opinion,

that it merits comment, and a note of caution. The relevant part of

the government order, is extracted below:

“I. Category of prisoners who are not be eligible for premature release.

1. Persons who are sentenced for life imprisonment for offences

against the security of the State.

2. Person who are sentenced for life for murder along with rape of

a child below 16 years of age charged with or without POCSO

Act 2012.

24 In the context of remission and sentencing, see: State of Haryana v. Mohinder Singh [2000] 1 SCR

698; Sangeet v. State of Haryana [2012] 13 SCR 85; Union of India v. V. Sriharan [2015] 14 SCR 613; Rajan

v. The Home Secretary, Home Department of Tamil Nadu [2019] 6 SCR 1035; Ram Chander v. State of

Chhattisgarh [2022] 4 SCR 1103.

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 519

JOSEPH v. THE STATE OF KERALA & ORS.

3. Persons convicted under Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic

Substances Act.

4. Persons involved in cases in which the Court expressly declares

that the prisoner shall not be granted special remission or

amnesty.

5. Persons convicted and sentenced by the courts of other States

or UTs.

II. Category of prisoners eligible only after completing 25 years of

sentence including all kinds of remission.

1. Convicts who have been imprisoned for life for murder with rape,

murder with dacoity, murder involving any offence under the

protection of Civil Rights Act 1955, murder for dowry, murder of a

child below 14 years of age, multiple murder, murder committed

after conviction while inside jail, murder during parole, murder

in terrorist incident, murder in smuggling operation. Murder of

a public servant on duty, murder with robbery and rape of child

below 14 years of age.

2. Gangsters, contract killers, smugglers, drug traffickers awarded

life imprisonment for murders.

3. Convicts whose death sentence has been commuted to life

imprisonment by Hon’ble President of India or Hon’ble Governor.

The prisoners with the following age group and completed sentence

and favourable reports from the Probation Officers are eligible under

this category:-

(a) Prisoners who have attained the age of 55 and completed

sentence of 25 years including remission; OR

(b) Prisoners who have completed 23 years of actual sentence.

III. Category of prisoners eligible after 20 years of sentence including

remission

All prisoners who do not come under category I and II shall be

eligible for premature release after 20 years of sentence including

remission irrespective of their age, but on the following conditions.

[…]”

520 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

Further, while considering the premature release of certain other

convicts recommended by the Committee, the state government

“decided to approve the proposal, excluding the following category

of prisoners:

1. Persons involved in most cruel murder.

2. Persons who committed murder of women and children, persons

who committed murder with rape.

3. Among the prisoners who are undergoing treatment for mental

illness, the prisoners whose relatives are reluctant to receive

them”.

Thus, incorporating in the general guidelines, the three excluded categories

as they appeared in the earlier executive instruction dated 20.04.2022.

28. To issue a policy directive, or guidelines, over and above the Act and

Rules framed (where the latter forms part and parcel of the former),

and undermine what they encapsulate, cannot be countenanced.

Blanket exclusion of certain offences, from the scope of grant of

remission, especially by way of an executive policy, is not only

arbitrary, but turns the ideals of reformation that run through our

criminal justice system, on its head. Numerous judgments of this

court, have elaborated on the penological goal of reformation and

rehabilitation, being the cornerstone of our criminal justice system,

rather than retribution. The impact of applying such an executive

instruction/guideline to guide the executive’s discretion would be

that routinely, any progress made by a long-term convict would be

rendered naught, leaving them feeling hopeless, and condemned

to an indefinite period of incarceration. While the sentencing courts

may, in light of this court’s majority judgment in Sriharan (supra),

now impose term sentences (in excess of 14 or 20 years) for crimes

that are specially heinous, but not reaching the level of ‘rarest of

rare’ (warranting the death penalty), the state government cannot –

especially by way of executive instruction, take on such a role, for

crimes as it deems fit. 

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 521

JOSEPH v. THE STATE OF KERALA & ORS.

29. It is a well-recognized proposition of administrative law that discretion,

conferred widely by plenary statute or statutory rules, cannot be lightly

fettered. This principle has been articulated by this court many a

time. In U.P. State Road Transport Corporation & Anr v. Mohd. Ismail

& Ors.25, this court observed:

“It may be stated that the statutory discretion cannot be fettered by

self-created rules or policy. Although it is open to an authority to

which discretion has been entrusted to lay down the norms or rules

to regulate exercise of discretion it cannot, however, deny itself the

discretion which the statute requires it to exercise in individual cases.”

30. Likewise, in Chairman, All India Railway Rec. Board & Ors. v. K.

Shyam Kumar & Ors.26 this court explained the issue, in the following

manner:

“Illegality as a ground of judicial review means that the decision

maker must understand correctly the law that regulates his decision

making powers and must give effect to it. Grounds such as acting

ultra vires, errors of law and/or fact, onerous conditions, improper

purpose, relevant and irrelevant factors, acting in bad faith, fettering

discretion, unauthorized delegation, failure to act etc., fall under the

heading “illegality”. Procedural impropriety may be due to the failure

to comply with the mandatory procedures such as breach of natural

justice, such as audi alteram partem, absence of bias, the duty to

act fairly, legitimate expectations, failure to give reasons etc.”

31. The latitude the Constitution gives to the executive, under Articles

72 and 162, in regard to matters such as remission, commutation,

etc, therefore, cannot be caged or boxed in the form of guidelines,

which are inflexible.

32. This court’s observations in State of Haryana v. Mahender Singh27

are also relevant here:

25 [1991] 2 SCR 274

26 [2010] 6 SCR 291

27 (2007) 13 SCC 606

522 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

“38. A right to be considered for remission keeping in view the

constitutional safeguards under Articles 20 and 21 of the Constitution

of India, must be held to be a legal one. Such a legal right emanates

from not only the Prisons Act but also from the Rules framed

thereunder.

39. It is now well-settled that any guidelines which do not have any

statutory flavour are merely advisory in nature. They cannot have

the force of a statute. They are subservient to the legislative act and

the statutory rules.”

(emphasis supplied)

33. Classifying - to use a better word, typecasting convicts, through

guidelines which are inflexible, based on their crime committed

in the distant past can result in the real danger of overlooking the

reformative potential of each individual convict. Grouping types of

convicts, based on the offences they were found to have committed,

as a starting point, may be justified. However, the prison laws in India

– read with Articles 72 and 161 - encapsulate a strong underlying

reformative purpose. The practical impact of a guideline, which bars

consideration of a premature release request by a convict who has

served over 20 or 25 years, based entirely on the nature of crime

committed in the distant past, would be to crush the life force out of

such individual, altogether. Thus, for instance, a 19 or 20 year old

individual convicted for a crime, which finds place in the list which bars

premature release, altogether, would mean that such person would

never see freedom, and would die within the prison walls. There is

a peculiarity of continuing to imprison one who committed a crime

years earlier who might well have changed totally since that time.

This is the condition of many people serving very long sentences.

They may have killed someone (or done something much less serious,

such as commit a narcotic drug related offences or be serving a

life sentence for other non-violent crimes) as young individuals

and remain incarcerated 20 or more years later. Regardless of the

morality of continued punishment, one may question its rationality.

The question is, what is achieved by continuing to punish a person

who recognises the wrongness of what they have done, who no 

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 523

JOSEPH v. THE STATE OF KERALA & ORS.

longer identifies with it, and who bears little resemblance to the

person they were years earlier? It is tempting to say that they are no

longer the same person. Yet, the insistence of guidelines, obdurately,

to not look beyond the red lines drawn by it and continue in denial to

consider the real impact of prison good behavior, and other relevant

factors (to ensure that such individual has been rid of the likelihood

of causing harm to society) results in violation of Article 14 of the

Constitution. Excluding the relief of premature release to prisoners

who have served extremely long periods of incarceration, not only

crushes their spirit, and instils despair, but signifies society’s resolve

to be harsh and unforgiving. The idea of rewarding, a prisoner for

good conduct is entirely negated.

34. In the petitioner’s case, the 1958 Rules are clear – a life sentence,

is deemed to be 20 years of incarceration. After this, the prisoner

is entitled to premature release.28 The guidelines issued by the

NHRC pointed out to us by the counsel for the petitioner, are also

relevant to consider – that of mandating release, after serving

25 years as sentence (even in heinous crimes). At this juncture,

redirecting the petitioner who has already undergone over 26 years

of incarceration (and over 35 years of punishment with remission),

before us to undergo, yet again, consideration before the Advisory

Board, and thereafter, the state government for premature release

– would be a cruel outcome, like being granted only a salve to

fight a raging fire, in the name of procedure. The grand vision

of the rule of law and the idea of fairness is then swept away, at

the altar of procedure - which this court has repeatedly held to

be a “handmaiden of justice”.

35. Rule 376 of the 2014 Rules prescribes that prisoners shall be

granted remission for keeping peace and good behaviour in jail. As

per the records produced by the State, the petitioner has earned

over 8 years of remission, thus demonstrating his good conduct

in jail. The discussions in the minutes of the meetings of the Jail

28 See also this court’s order dated 11.10.2018 in Criminal Appeal No. 276-278/2010. 

524 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

Advisory Board are also positive and find that he is hardworking,

disciplined, and a reformed inmate. Therefore, in the interest of

justice, this court is of the opinion, that it would be appropriate

to direct the release of the petitioner, with immediate effect. It is

ordered accordingly.

36. The writ petition, thus, stands allowed in the above terms. Pending

applications, if any, are disposed of.

Headnotes prepared by: Nidhi Jain Result of the case: Writ petition allowed.

Whether in the absence of affording adequate opportunity of hearing to the parties on addressing the framed substantial questions of law, the High Court could have proceeded to decide the same in an appeal u/s.100, CPC particularly, when the findings of fact rendered by two Courts, were sought to be reversed; and further, whether without summoning and perusing the trial record, findings of fact could have been reversed by High Court in exercise of its appellate jurisdiction u/s.100, CPC.

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 488 : 2023 INSC 846

SURESH LATARUJI RAMTEKE

v.

SAU. SUMANBAI PANDURANG PETKAR & ORS.

(Civil Appeal No. 6070 of 2023)

SEPTEMBER 21, 2023

[B. R. GAVAI AND SANJAY KAROL*, JJ.]

Issue for consideration: Whether in the absence of affording

adequate opportunity of hearing to the parties on addressing

the framed substantial questions of law, the High Court could

have proceeded to decide the same in an appeal u/s.100, CPC

particularly, when the findings of fact rendered by two Courts, were

sought to be reversed; and further, whether without summoning and

perusing the trial record, findings of fact could have been reversed

by High Court in exercise of its appellate jurisdiction u/s.100, CPC.

Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 – s.100 – Scope:

Held: A Court sitting in second appellate jurisdiction is to frame

substantial question of law at the time of admission, save and except

in exceptional circumstances – Post such framing of questions,

the Court shall proceed to hear the parties on such questions

after giving them adequate time to meet and address them – It is

only after such hearing subsequent to the framing that a second

appeal shall come to be decided – Further, in ordinary course,

the High Court in such jurisdiction does not interfere with finding

of fact, however, if it does find any compelling reason to do so

as regard in law, it can do but only after perusing the records of

the Trial Court, on analysis of which the conclusion arrived at by

such a Court is sought to be upturned – s.100(5) suggests that

there is a gap between framing of the questions at admission and

hearing, as the proviso thereto gives an opportunity to the Court

to frame additional questions at the time of hearing, on which the

parties would have to be heard as well – Meaning thereby, that

the questions framed at the time of admission, at such point of

subsequent framing of questions are already known to the parties

and they have had time to prepare to address arguments on the

same – It is during the arguments that a further important issue

is discovered and a question in that regard is framed, with the

parties then being granted time to meet that question as well – In

* Author

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 489

SURESH LATARUJI RAMTEKE v. SAU. SUMANBAI PANDURANG

PETKAR & ORS.

the present case, the parties were not given the requisite time to

meet the questions framed by the Court – Questions of law were

framed on the second date of hearing, the parties were heard right

then and there, and the second appeal was disposed of with the

judgment being dictated and findings of fact reversed – Further,

impugned judgment overturned concurrent findings of fact in respect

of readiness and willingness on the part of plaintiff to perform the

contract, without pointing out the exceptional circumstance or

the perversity in the findings which were returned by the Courts

below – For the Court to have done so, the actual evidence which

was before the Courts below had to be called for – Impugned

Judgement set aside – Matter remanded to High Court. [Paras

21, 23-25, 27, 28]

Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 – s.100 – Second appeal –

Principles reiterated.

Panchugopal Barua v. Umesh Chandra Goswami and

Ors. (1997) 4 SCC 713:[1997] 2 SCR 12; Gurdev

Kaur v. Kaki (2007) 1 SCC 546:[2006] 1 Suppl. SCR

27; Randhir Kaur v. Prithvi Pal Singh & Ors. (2019)

17 SCC 71:[2019] 9 SCR 776; Santosh Hazari v.

Purushottam Tiwari (2001) 3 SCC 179:[2001] 1 SCR

948; Government of Kerala v. Joseph 2023 SCC

OnLine SC 961; Chandrabhan v. Saraswati 2022 SCC

OnLine SC 1273; Umerkhan v. Bimillabi (2011) 9 SCC

684:[2011] 9 SCR 551; Shiv Cotex v. Tirgun Auto Plast

Pvt Ltd. & Ors. (2011) 9 SCC 678:[2011] 10 SCR 787;

Gajaraba Bhikhubha Vadher v. Sumara Umar Amad

(2020) 11 SCC 114; Kichha Sugar Co. Ltd. v. Roofrite

(P) Ltd (2009) 16 SCC 280; U.R. Virupakshappa v.

Sarvamangala (2009) 2 SCC 177:[2008] 17 SCR 877;

Mehboob-Ur-Rehman v. Ahsanul Ghani (2019) 19 SCC

415; B.C. Shivashankara v. B.R. Nagaraj (2007) 15

SCC 387:[2007] 3 SCR 389; Govindbhai Chhotabhai

Patel v. Patel Ramanbhai Mathurbhai (2020) 16 SCC

255:[2019] 13 SCR 152; Kondiba Dagadu Kadam v.

Savitribai Sopan Gujar (1999) 3 SCC 722:[1999] 2

SCR 728; Dinesh Kumar v. Yusuf Ali (2010) 12 SCC

740:[2010] 7 SCR 222; Hamida v. Mohd. Khalil (2001)

5 SCC 30; Avtar Singh & Ors. v. Bimla Devi & Ors.

(2021) 13 SCC 816; Nazir Mohamed v. J. Kamala (2020) 

490 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

19 SCC 57; Amar Singh v. Dalip Singh (2012) 13

SCC 405 – relied on.

Ravi Setia v. Madan Lal (2019) 9 SCC 381; Sukhbir

Singh v. Brij Pal Singh (1997) 2 SCC 200:[1996] 2

Suppl. SCR 863 – referred to.

CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION : Civil Appeal No.6070 of 2023

From the Judgment and Order dated 30.09.2022 of the High Court of

Judicature at Bombay at Nagpur in SA No.324 of 2021.

Prafulla S. Kubalkar, Satyajit A Desai, Siddharth Gautam, Abhinav K.

Mutyalwar, Gajanan N Tirthkar, Vijay Raj Singh Chouhan, Yougant

Dhillon, Ms. Aishwarya Shinde, Ms. Anagha S. Desai, Advs. for the

Appellant.

Rajat Joseph, Hrishikesh Chitaley, Vijay Kari Singh, Advs. for the

Respondents.

The Judgment of the Court was delivered by

SANJAY KAROL J.

1. Leave granted.

2. The following questions arise for consideration of this Court:

2.1 Whether in the absence of affording adequate opportunity of

hearing to the parties on addressing the framed substantial

questions of law, the High Court could have proceeded to decide

the same in an appeal preferred under section 100 Code of Civil

Procedure (hereinafter “CPC”), particularly, when the findings

of fact rendered by two Courts, were sought to be reversed?

2.2 Whether in the absence of any trial record or without summoning

and perusing the trial record, findings of fact on the issue of

plaintiff’s readiness and willingness to execute the sale deed,

could have been reversed by the High Court in exercise of its

appellate jurisdiction under section 100 CPC?

3. Though, initially in the defendants’ appeal, which was listed firstly

on 26th April 2022, the High Court fixed the matter for preliminary

hearing on 29th September 2022, but adjourned it for the next day, i.e.,

30th September, 2022 when, after framing the substantial questions 

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 491

SURESH LATARUJI RAMTEKE v. SAU. SUMANBAI PANDURANG

PETKAR & ORS.

of law, proceeded to hear the appeal and reversed the findings of

fact concurrently recorded by the two Courts in the plaintiff’s favour.

4. Hence, this appeal by special leave, seeks to assail a judgement

and order dated 30th September 2022 passed in Second Appeal

No.324/2021 by the High Court of Judicature at Bombay (Nagpur

Bench)1

 whereby concurrent findings returned by the Courts below

vide judgement dated 3rd September, 20142

 by the Civil Judge Senior

Division, Gadchiroli and vide judgement dated 1st October, 20213

 by

the Principal District Judge, Gadchiroli, were overturned.

THE FACTUAL MATRIX

5. The respondent namely, Sumanbai Pandurang Petkar (defendant

in the original suit)4

 had agreed to sell, for a consideration of ₹

6,60,000/- the property subject matter of dispute, i.e., 3 acres of land

to the appellant herein (plaintiff in the original suit)5

.

6. For transfer, the Divisional Commissioner, Nagpur Division, Nagpur,

accorded necessary permissions. Despite various attempts at

execution, the same did not take place, and as such the plaintiff

issued notices to that effect, which were served on the respondents

requiring them to be present at the office of the concerned authority

on 16th December, 2009 at 11:30 AM to get the deed executed. Such

notices remained not complied with as the defendants allegedly,

tried to evade coming to the office of the authority for such purpose.

7. It is as such that the case, subject matter of the present lis came to

be filed by the Plaintiff.

TRIAL COURT AND FIRST APPELLATE COURT

8. The Trial Court framed 5 issues. A tabular representation of the

issues, the corresponding findings and the reasons therefor, in short,

is as below: -

1 For Brevity, “Impugned Judgement”

2 Hereafter Referred to as “The Trial Court”

3 Hereinafter, “First Appellate Court”

4 Hereafter referred to as “the Defendants”

5 Hereafter, “the Plaintiff”

492 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

S.

No.

Issues Findings Reasons

1. Does plaintiff prove

that defendant no. 1

has entered into an

agreement of sale

s u i t l a n d S u r v e y

No. 236/2 area 1.19

HR of Navegaon in

favor of plaintiff for

c o n s i d e r a t i o n o f

Rs.6,60,00/-?

YES PW-1 Suresh and PW-2

Sudhakar have deposed

that an agreement was

entered into in respect

of the land and their

testimonies remain

unshaken. Even though

Ulhas Shriniwas Athaale

(PW-3) has not positively

identified the thumb

impression as that being

the same one affixed by

defendant no. 1, namely

Sumanbai that does not

establish that she had

not affixed her thumb

impressions.

2 Does plaintiff prove

that that on 29.03.2004

defendant no. 1has

executed the agreement

to sell in favour of the

plaintiff and the earnest

money of Rs.60,000/-

was paid by the plaintiff

to the defendant on the

same day?

YES It is clear that, as per

the answer to issue

one, the agreement was

entered into, and it stating

that Rs.60,000/- stands

received by the defendant.

Conclusively, said amount

was paid. 

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 493

SURESH LATARUJI RAMTEKE v. SAU. SUMANBAI PANDURANG

PETKAR & ORS.

2A Whether the plaintiff

proves that he paid

R s . 1 , 0 0 , 0 0 0 o n

17.01.2005, another

Rs.1,00,000/- o n

07.05.2005, Rs.2,000/-

on 12.06.2008 and

Rs.8,000/- on 12.06.2008

to defendant no. 1

through her husband

defendant no. 2? If yes,

what is the legal effect

of this payment on the

rights of the parties?

NO

No document is placed on

record to show wherefrom

the said amounts were

withdrawn, nor was

the same paid in the

presence of any one of the

witnesses. The amount

paid on 07.05.2005 was

apparently paid by cheque

but the cheque number is

absent from the receipt.

No passbook or statement

is placed on record to

show the payment of such

amount. The handwriting

in which the endorsement

on the last page of the

agreement was made in

respect of receipt of such

amount is unclear.

3. Does the plaintiff prove

that he is ready and

willing to perform his

part of the contract?

YES Suresh’s (PW 1) testimony

that after receiving

requisite permission from

the authority the plaintiff

had asked the defendant

to execute the deed by

way of serving notice and

also the fact that he has

placed on record cheque

for Rs.3,90,000/-, leads

to the conclusion that he

has always been ready

and willing to perform his

part of the contract.

4. Is the plaintiff entitled

for specific relief as

sought for?

YES Consequent to the

findings in the affirmative

in question Nos.1, 2 and

3, the question No.4 is

also in the affirmative.

494 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

5. What order and decree? Suit is partly

decreed with

proportionate

costs. -----

9. The Plaintiff was, in view of the above, directed to deposit ₹ 6 lakh

with the Court within 15 days and upon such deposit, the defendant

was to necessarily execute the sale deed to be entitled to withdraw

the said amount.

10. The First Appellate Court in addition to the questions framed by the

Trial Court, further added two issues, i.e., (a) Whether the suit is

within limitation?; and (b) Whether the impugned judgement required

interference? While not disturbing the findings arrived at by the Trial

court, resultantly answering the second issue in the negative, also

held the suit filed to be within the period of limitation. The appeal

was, therefore, dismissed.

IMPUGNED JUDGMENT

11. In the Second Appeal, the Court framed four questions, substantial

in nature, and held that the concurrent findings as returned by the

trial courts were based on “complete misapplication of law” and

“erroneous consideration” and appreciation of the evidence led by

the parties. Reliance was placed on Ravi Setia v. Madan Lal6

 to

state that in cases of perverse findings/complete misappropriation/

erroneous consideration of the evidence, or failure to consider

relevant evidence, a Court in Second Appeal could re-appreciate

the evidence. In view of the above, the judgement rendered by both

the Courts below was set aside and the plaintiff’s suit for specific

performance dismissed.

12. It has been urged before us, amongst other grounds, that the

judgement of the High Court is contrary to the law settled by various

judgments of this court as the substantial questions were framed

on the second date of hearing thereby contravening the provisions

of Section 100 CPC; the High Court ought not to ordinarily reverse

findings of fact, more so concurrent, returned by the trial court until

6 (2019) 9 SCC 381 Two Judge Bench

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 495

SURESH LATARUJI RAMTEKE v. SAU. SUMANBAI PANDURANG

PETKAR & ORS.

and unless findings returned are perverse, which clearly was not the

case; on the aspect of readiness and willingness, reliance was placed

on Sukhbir Singh v. Brij Pal Singh7 to submit that compliance with

those two factors of specific relief does not entail the carrying of

hard cash and instead it is the presence of the financial capacity to

do so. A cheque for ₹ 3,90,000/-8

 has been placed on record which

was for the meeting which was slated to take place in the office of

the Sub-Registrar but in fact it was the Respondents who did not

attend; The High Court erred severely in overturning the findings of

fact, particularly in the absence of the record of the trial court.

OPINION OF THE COURT

13. The jurisprudence on Section 100, CPC is rich and varied. Time and

again this Court in numerous judgments has laid down, distilled and

further clarified the requirements that must necessarily be met in order

for a Second Appeal as laid down therein, to be maintainable, and

thereafter be adjudicated upon. Considering the fact that numerous

cases are filed before this Court which hinge on the application of

this provision, we find it necessary to reiterate the principles.

13.1 The requirement, most fundamental under this section is the

presence and framing of a “substantial question of law”. In

other words, the existence of such a question is sine qua non

for exercise of this jurisdiction.9

13.2 The jurisdiction under this section has been described by

this Court in Gurdev Kaur v. Kaki10 (Two-Judge Bench)

stating that post 1976 amendment, the scope of Section 100

CPC stands drastically curtailed and narrowed down to be

restrictive in nature. The High Court’s jurisdiction of interfering

under Section 100 CPC is only in a case where substantial

questions of law are involved, also clearly formulated/set out

in the memorandum of appeal. It has been observed that:

7 (1997) 2 SCC 200 Two Judge Bench

8 Exhibit 73, as recorded by the Trial Court in issue No.3 of its judgment.

9 Panchugopal Barua v. Umesh Chandra Goswami and Ors. (1997) 4 SCC 713 Two Judge Bench

10 (2007) 1 SCC 546 Two Judge Bench

496 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

“At the time of admission of the second appeal, it is the bounden

duty and obligation of the High Court to formulate substantial

questions of law and then only the High Court is permitted to

proceed with the case to decide those questions of law. The

language used in the amended section specifically incorporates

the words as “substantial question of law” which is indicative

of the legislative intention. It must be clearly understood that

the legislative intention was very clear that legislature never

wanted second appeal to become “third trial on facts” or “one

more dice in the gamble”. The effect of the amendment mainly,

according to the amended section, was:

(i) The High Court would be justified in admitting the second

appeal only when a substantial question of law is involved;

(ii) The substantial question of law to precisely state such

question;

(iii) A duty has been cast on the High Court to formulate

substantial question of law before hearing the appeal;

(iv) Another part of the section is that the appeal shall be

heard only on that question.”

Gurdev Kaur (supra) was referred to and relied upon in Randhir

Kaur v. Prithvi Pal Singh & Ors.11

13.3 In Santosh Hazari v. Purushottam Tiwari12 a Bench of

three Judges, held as under in regard to what constitutes a

substantial question of law:-

a) Not previously settled by law of land or a binding precedent.

b) Material bearing on the decision of case; and (c) New

point raised for the first time before the High Court is

not a question involved in the case unless it goes to

the root of the matter. Therefore, it will depend on facts

of each case.

11 (2019) 17 SCC 71; Two Judge Bench

12 (2001) 3 SCC 179 Three Judge Bench

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 497

SURESH LATARUJI RAMTEKE v. SAU. SUMANBAI PANDURANG

PETKAR & ORS.

Such principles stand followed in Government of Kerala v. Joseph13

and Chandrabhan v. Saraswati14.

13.4 Non-formulation of substantial question(s) of law renders

proceedings “patently illegal”. This Court’s decisions in

Umerkhan v. Bimillabi15 and Shiv Cotex v. Tirgun Auto

Plast Pvt Ltd. & Ors.16 indicate this position.

14. Substantial questions of law, as framed by the High Court must be

answered in light of the contentions raised therein.

14.1 If the Court is of the view that a question framed is to be

altered, deleted or a new question is to be added, then the

Court must hear the parties.

14.2 For both the above principles, reference may be made to

Gajaraba Bhikhubha Vadher v. Sumara Umar Amad17 where

the following principles were observed: -

a) The substantial question of law framed by the High Court

must be answered, with reasons. Disposing off the appeal

without answering the same cannot be justified.

b) If a need is felt to modify, alter or delete a question, a

hearing must be provided to the parties in respect thereof.

14.3 When the case is admitted, but upon hearing when it is found

that no substantial question of law arises for consideration,

reasons should be recorded in such dismissal.

15. In Kichha Sugar Co. Ltd. v. Roofrite (P) Ltd18 it was observed:

“4. Our attention is drawn by the learned counsel for the respondents

to the provisions of Section 100(5) of the Civil Procedure Code where

the respondent to a second appeal is permitted “to argue that the

case does not involve such question” i.e. the questions formulated

13 2023 SCC OnLine SC 961 Two Judge Bench

14 2022 SCC OnLine SC 1273 Two Judge Bench

15 (2011) 9 SCC 684 Two Judge Bench

16 (2011) 9 SCC 678 Two Judge Bench

17 (2020) 11 SCC 114 (Three Judge Bench)

18 (2009) 16 SCC 280 Three Judge Bench 

498 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

earlier. No doubt, but then the order on the second appeal should

indicate, howsoever briefly, why the questions formulated at the

earlier stage had, at the stage of final hearing, been found to be no

questions of law.”

16. Substantial questions should ordinarily, not be framed at a later

stage. If done so, then parties must be given an opportunity to meet

them. This Court in U.R. Virupakshappa v. Sarvamangala19 held :

“15.  … It, furthermore, should not ordinarily frame a substantial

question of law at a subsequent stage without assigning any reason

therefor and without giving a reasonable opportunity of hearing to the

respondents. [See Nune Prasad v. Nune Ramakrishna [(2008) 8 SCC

258 : (2008) 10 Scale 523] ; Panchugopal Barua v. Umesh Chandra

Goswami [(1997) 4 SCC 713] (SCC paras 8 and 9); and Kshitish

Chandra Purkait v. Santosh Kumar Purkait [(1997) 5 SCC 438] (SCC

paras 10 and 12)].

16. The High Court, in this case, however, formulated a substantial

question of law while dictating the judgment in open court. Before

such a substantial question of law could be formulated, the parties

should have been put to notice. They should have been given an

opportunity to meet the same. Although the Court has the requisite

jurisdiction to formulate a substantial question of law at a subsequent

stage which was not formulated at the time of admission of the second

appeal but the requirements laid down in the proviso appended to

Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure were required to be met.”

16.1 This Court in Mehboob-Ur-Rehman v. Ahsanul Ghani20,

observed in respect of application of Section 100(5) CPC as

under: -

a) It is not rule under proviso to sub-section (5) to hear

any other substantial question of law irrespective of the

question(s) formulated, so as to annul other requirements

of S. 100, CPC.

b) Proviso to come in operation in exceptional cases where

reasons are to be recorded by High Court.

19 (2009) 2 SCC 177 Two Judge Bench

20 (2019) 19 SCC 415 Two Judge Bench

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 499

SURESH LATARUJI RAMTEKE v. SAU. SUMANBAI PANDURANG

PETKAR & ORS.

16.2 It has further been held that the application of this section is

only when some questions, substantial in law, already stand

framed. (B.C. Shivashankara v. B.R. Nagaraj21).

16.3 Wrong application of law laid down by the Privy Council, Federal

Court or the Supreme Court, will not qualify for substantial

question of law and neither wrong application of facts.

16.4 If on an issue, the trial court discusses the evidence but

does not return a finding thereon, High Court in jurisdiction

under Section 100, CPC may do so. Reference be made

to Govindbhai Chhotabhai Patel v. Patel Ramanbhai

Mathurbhai.22

This Court in Kondiba Dagadu Kadam v. Savitribai Sopan

Gujar23, observed-

“6. If the question of law termed as a substantial question stands

already decided by a larger Bench of the High Court concerned or by

the Privy Council or by the Federal Court or by the Supreme Court,

its merely wrong application on the facts of the case would not be

termed to be a substantial question of law. Where a point of law has

not been pleaded or is found to be arising between the parties in

the absence of any factual format, a litigant should not be allowed to

raise that question as a substantial question of law in second appeal.

The mere appreciation of the facts, the documentary evidence or

the meaning of entries and the contents of the document cannot be

held to be raising a substantial question of law…”

16.5 Interference on findings of fact permitted in exceptional cases,

i.e., when finding is based on either inadmissible or, no

evidence. This Court in Dinesh Kumar v. Yusuf Ali24 referring

to various other cases held:-

a) It is not permissible for High Court to reappreciate evidence

as if it was the first appellate court unless findings were

perverse.

21 (2007) 15 SCC 387 Two Judge Bench

22 (2020) 16 SCC 255 Two Judge Bench

23 (1999) 3 SCC 722 Two Judge Bench

24 (2010) 12 SCC 740 Two Judge Bench

500 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

b) Finding of fact can be interfered in exceptional circumstances

as rarity, rather than a regularity.

c) Scrutiny of evidence in second appeal is not prohibited but

has to be exercised upon proper circumspection.

17. Jurisdiction under second appeal not to be exercised merely because

an alternate view is possible. It was observed in Hamida v. Mohd.

Khalil25

7. …The High Court, it is well settled, while exercising jurisdiction

under Section 100 CPC, cannot reverse the findings of the lower

appellate court on facts merely on the ground that on the facts found

by the lower appellate court another view was possible.”

This position was reiterated by Avtar Singh & Ors. v. Bimla Devi

& Ors.26

17.1 In aid of such a restricted application, an essential aspect in

ensuring that it does not acquire the nature of a “third appeal”

is the limited possibility of appreciation of evidence and

connectedly, the restriction on upturning concurrent findings

of fact. However, there are certain exceptions to the rule as

pointed out by this Court in Nazir Mohamed v. J. Kamala27,

as under:

“33.4.  The general rule is, that the High Court will not interfere

with the concurrent findings of the courts below. But it is not an

absolute rule. Some of the well-recognised exceptions are where:

(i) the courts below have ignored material evidence or acted on no

evidence; (ii) the courts have drawn wrong inferences from proved

facts by applying the law erroneously; or (iii) the courts have wrongly

cast the burden of proof. A decision based on no evidence, does

not refer only to cases where there is a total dearth of evidence, but

also refers to case, where the evidence, taken as a whole, is not

reasonably capable of supporting the finding.”

25 (2001) 5 SCC 30 Two Judge Bench

26 (2021) 13 SCC 816 Two Judge Bench

27 (2020) 19 SCC 57 Two Judge Bench

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 501

SURESH LATARUJI RAMTEKE v. SAU. SUMANBAI PANDURANG

PETKAR & ORS.

17.2 The extent of the same may be underscored by the observation

that:

“32.  In a second appeal, the jurisdiction of the High Court being

confined to substantial question of law, a finding of fact is not open

to challenge in second appeal, even if the appreciation of evidence

is palpably erroneous and the finding of fact incorrect as held in V.

Ramachandra Ayyar  v. Ramalingam Chettiar [V. Ramachandra Ayyar 

v. Ramalingam Chettiar, AIR 1963 SC 302] . An entirely new point,

raised for the first time, before the High Court, is not a question

involved in the case, unless it goes to the root of the matter.”

(Emphasis Supplied)

18. It is apparent from the above extracted principles and a perusal of

the respective judgments that the second appeal is envisioned, much

like any other process of the Court to be a step-by-step process,

each step further being a consequence of the previous one. Framing

of substantial questions at the stage of admission, the appeal then

being admitted for hearing, hearing thereon, and then a reasoned

judgment.

19. However, as a reading of the impugned judgment reveals, these

steps came to be followed, only partially, more so, ignoring the time

element, inherent therein.

20. As Sumara Umar Ahmad (supra), Kichha Sugar (supra) and

Virupakshappa (supra) and also the ingredients identified by Gurdev

Kaur (supra) show, hearing the parties, on all questions, framed at

the time of admission as also the one framed, added or altered, is

absolutely essential.

21. In the present case, the parties were not given the requisite time

to meet the questions framed by the Court. Section 100(5) CPC

suggests that there is a gap between framing of the questions at

admission and hearing, as the proviso thereto gives an opportunity

to the Court to frame additional questions at the time of hearing, on

which the parties would have to be heard as well. Meaning thereby,

that the questions framed at the time of admission, at such point of

subsequent framing of questions are already known to the parties

and they have had time to prepare to address arguments on the 

502 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

same. It is during the arguments that a further important issue is

discovered and a question in that regard is framed, with the parties

then being granted time to meet that question as well.

22. Our view finds support in Amar Singh v. Dalip Singh28 wherein

this Court held: -

a) The purpose of framing of substantial question of law is to give

the parties an opportunity to come prepared on that particular

question.

b) When a substantial question of law is formulated by the Court

then the same must be made known to parties and thereafter

they have to be given an opportunity to advance arguments

thereon.

c) If any additional questions were framed at the time of hearing,

the Court must hear the parties on that question as well.

23. Here, the questions of law, were framed on the second date of

hearing, the parties were heard right then and there, and the second

appeal was disposed of with the judgment being dictated and findings

of fact reversed. That, as the above discussion points out, is not in

consonance with the manner set out for the disposal of a second

appeal.

24. The impugned judgment overturns concurrent findings of fact in

respect of readiness and willingness on the part of the plaintiff to

perform the contract, without pointing out the exceptional circumstance

or the perversity in the findings which were returned by the Courts

below.

25. For the Court to have done so, in accordance with law, the actual

evidence, which was before the Courts below, in our view, had to

be called for. This is so because, if the findings returned are to be

upturned on perversity, the same should unmistakably be reflected

from record. If this is not so done, the Court of first appeal being

the “final Court of fact”, would be reduced to a mere saying, of no

actual effect. After all, a second appeal is not a “third trial on facts”,

28 (2012) 13 SCC 405 Two Judge Bench

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 503

SURESH LATARUJI RAMTEKE v. SAU. SUMANBAI PANDURANG

PETKAR & ORS.

and so, for reappreciation of evidence to be justified, and for the

same to be required - as well as being demonstrably, at a different

threshold from merely, a “possible different view”, perversity or the

other conditions of “no evidence” or “inadmissible evidence” ought

to be urged, and subsequently, with the Court being satisfied on

the arguments advanced, of such a possibility, the Court would

then, proceed to call for the record. That is to say that accepting

the argument of perversity merely on the submissions made and

not having appreciated the record, would be unfair to the Court of

first appeal.

26. The haste with which the Court proceeded to dispose of the appeal

without proper and adequate opportunity to address arguments cannot

be appreciated. The governing statute lays considerable emphasis

on hearing the parties on all questions- and the same is reflected in

various pronouncements of this Court. The approach adopted by a

Court in disposing of such appeals must abide by the same.

27. The questions of law raised in the instant appeal are answered as

under :

27.1 A Court sitting in second appellate jurisdiction is to frame

substantial question of law at the time of admission, save

and except in exceptional circumstances. Post such framing

of questions the Court shall proceed to hear the parties on

such questions, i.e., after giving them adequate time to meet

and address them. It is only after such hearing subsequent

to the framing that a second appeal shall come to be decided.

27.2 In ordinary course, the High Court in such jurisdiction does

not interfere with finding of fact, however, if it does find any

compelling reason to do so as regard in law, it can do but

only after perusing the records of the Trial Court, on analysis

of which the conclusion arrived at by such a Court is sought

to be upturned. In other words, when overturning findings of

fact, the Court will be required to call for the records of the

Trial Court or if placed on record, peruse the same and only

then question the veracity of the conclusions drawn by the

Court below.

504 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

28. In view of the foregoing discussion we find it fit to remand the matter

to the High Court for consideration afresh in accordance with law.

Judgment and Order dated 30th September 2022 passed in Second

Appeal No.324/2021 by the High Court of Judicature at Bombay

(Nagpur Bench) is set aside and the case is restored to the file of

the High Court. Accordingly, the appeal is accepted and allowed

in such terms.

29. Pending application(s), if any, shall stand disposed of.

30. No costs.

Headnotes prepared by: Divya Pandey Result of the case : Appeal allowed.

Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 – s.100 – Second Appeal – Substantial question of law not framed – Impropriety: Held: First appellate court is the final Court insofar as the question of facts are concerned and it is only when substantial questions of law would arise in a case that the High Court can entertain a Regular Second Appeal – If at the stage of admission such substantial questions of law are discerned by the High Court the same would have to be framed and the appeal(s) would have to be admitted – It is only thereafter that the parties have to be heard on the substantial questions of law framed by the High Court at the stage of admission – However, the CPC gives power to the High Court to frame additional substantial questions of law or to mould the substantial questions of law already framed on hearing the parties at the time of final hearing of a Second Appeal – In the event the respondents before the High Court are on record even at the stage of admission of a Regular Second Appeal and the same is to be disposed of finally even at this stage substantial questions of law must be framed and answered before the Regular Second Appeal is admitted and disposed – In the present case, the same was not framed – Said error is compounded by the Judge stating in the order passed in the review petition that no such substantial question of law arose in the appeal(s) – If no substantial question of law arose in the case then the appeal could not have been entertained and ought to have been dismissed at the stage of admission – But on the other hand, in the absence of framing any substantial question of law the appeal was allowed,

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 477 : 2023 INSC 848

HEMAVATHI AND ORS.

v.

V. HOMBEGOWDA AND ANR.

(Civil Appeal Nos. 5780-5781 of 2023)

SEPTEMBER 11, 2023

[B.V. NAGARATHNA* AND UJJAL BHUYAN, JJ.]

Issue for consideration: High Court whether justified in allowing

Regular Second Appeal filed u/s.100, Code of Civil Procedure,

1908 without framing the substantial question of law.

Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 – s.100 – Second Appeal –

Substantial question of law not framed – Impropriety:

Held: First appellate court is the final Court insofar as the question

of facts are concerned and it is only when substantial questions

of law would arise in a case that the High Court can entertain

a Regular Second Appeal – If at the stage of admission such

substantial questions of law are discerned by the High Court the

same would have to be framed and the appeal(s) would have to

be admitted – It is only thereafter that the parties have to be heard

on the substantial questions of law framed by the High Court at

the stage of admission – However, the CPC gives power to the

High Court to frame additional substantial questions of law or to

mould the substantial questions of law already framed on hearing

the parties at the time of final hearing of a Second Appeal – In

the event the respondents before the High Court are on record

even at the stage of admission of a Regular Second Appeal and

the same is to be disposed of finally even at this stage substantial

questions of law must be framed and answered before the Regular

Second Appeal is admitted and disposed – In the present case,

the same was not framed – Said error is compounded by the

Judge stating in the order passed in the review petition that no

such substantial question of law arose in the appeal(s) – If no

substantial question of law arose in the case then the appeal could

not have been entertained and ought to have been dismissed at

the stage of admission – But on the other hand, in the absence of

framing any substantial question of law the appeal was allowed,

* Author

478 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

that too, at the stage of admission, without issuance of notice to

the other respondents Nos.1, 3 and 4 and by hearing only counsel

for respondent No.2 before the High Court who was on caveat –

Impugned judgment and order passed in Regular Second Appeal

as well as Review Petition set aside – Matters remanded to High

Court. [Paras 13-16, 18]

Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 – s.100 – Regular second appeal,

practice to be followed – Law – Discussed.

Practice and Procedure – First appellate court had not

considered the Regular Appeal on merits, matter was remanded

to trial court for fresh consideration – Legality:

Held: If the High Court thought it fit to condone the delay in filing

the Regular Appeal then the matter had to be remanded to the

first appellate court to consider the Regular Appeal on merits and

not just set aside the trial court decree and remand the case to

the trial court for a fresh adjudication – Code of Civil Procedure,

1908. [Para 12]

Bhagyashree Anant Gaonkar vs. Narendra @ Nagesh

Bharma Holkar and Anr. Judgment dated 07.08.2023

in C.A. No. 4935 of 2023; Roop Singh v. Ram Singh

(2000) 3 SCC 708: [2000] 2 SCR 605; C.A. Sulaiman

vs. State Bank of Travancore, Alwayee (2006) 6 SCC

392: [2006] 4 Suppl. SCR 152; State Bank of India vs.

S.N. Goyal (2008) 8 SCC 9215; Municipal Committee,

Hoshiarpur v. Punjab SEB (2010) 13 SCC 216: [2010]

13 SCR 658; Umerkhan v. Bismillabi (2011) 9 SCC 684:

[2011] 9 SCR 551; Raghavendra Swamy Mutt v. Uttaradi

Mutt (2016) 11 SCC 235: [2016] 3 SCR 11 – relied on.

CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION : Civil Appeal Nos.5780-5781 of

2023.

From the Judgment and Order dated 23.06.2022 and dated 13.04.2022

in RP No.536 of 2022 and RSA No.291 of 2022 respectively of the

High Court of Karnataka at Bengaluru.

M/s Nuli & Nuli, Anand Sanjay M Nuli, Agam Sharma, Dharm Singh,

Shiva Swaroop, Advs. for the Appellants.

Ms. V. Mohana, Sr. Adv., Shanthakumar V. Mahale, Harisha S. R.,

Rajesh Mahale, Advs. for the Respondents.

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 479

HEMAVATHI AND ORS. v.

V. HOMBEGOWDA AND ANR.

The Judgment of the Court was delivered by

NAGARATHNA, J.

Leave granted.

These are two more appeals which arise from the High Court of

Karnataka within a short period of time wherein, without framing the

substantial question of law, Regular Second Appeal filed under Section

100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (For short the “CPC”) is

allowed. Additionally notice to respondent Nos. 1, 3 and 4 may not

have been issued and served as the Second Appeal was allowed

at the stage of admission and if notice had been issued and served

no counsel for the said respondents had been heard. It is on the

basis of the aforesaid two grounds alone, the appeals would have to

be allowed and the impugned order(s) of the High Court passed in

RSA No.291/2022 disposed of on 13.04.2022 and in Review Petition

No.536/2022 disposed on 23.06.2022 would have to be set aside.

Briefly stated the facts are that the appellants herein had filed

Original Suit No.552/2003 before the Court of II Additional Senior

Civil Judge, Bengaluru Rural District, Bengaluru, Karnataka seeking

the relief of partition and separate possession of their respective

shares in the suit schedule property. By judgment and decree dated

07.02.2012, the suit was decreed granting ¼ share to each of the

plaintiffs (appellants herein).

Being aggrieved, the defendants in the said suit preferred Regular

Appeal No. 1/2021 before the II Additional Senior Civil Judge,

Bengaluru Rural District at Bengaluru seeking condonation of delay

of 2945 days in filing the appeal. By order dated 07.02.2022,

the application seeking condonation of delay was dismissed and

consequently the appeal also stood dismissed and as a result the

judgment and decree of the Trial Court was not interfered with.

Being aggrieved by the dismissal of the Regular Appeal, the

defendants preferred the RSA No.291/2022. By the impugned

judgment dated 13.04.2022, the appeal filed by the defendant

No.1 has been allowed by condoning the delay of 2945 days

in filing the Regular Appeal but the matter has been remanded

to the Trial Court for a fresh adjudication reserving liberty to

file additional written statement and directing the Trial Court to 

480 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

frame additional issues, if necessary, and to take on record the

evidence of plaintiffs well as the defendant No.1 within a period

of six months and to dispose of the suit within a period of six

months thereafter. Further during the pendency of the suit, the

parties were directed to maintain status-quo in respect of the suit

property as regards possession and alienation while reserving all

contentions to be kept open to be urged before the Trial Court.

At this stage itself, it may be pointed out that the learned Judge

of the High Court also lost sight of the fact that the first appellate

court had not considered the Regular Appeal on merits but the

matter has been remanded to the trial court by passing the first

appellate court.

Being aggrieved by the judgment dated 13.04.2022 the appellants

herein, who were plaintiffs in the suit which had been decreed,

preferred Review Petition No.536/2022. By order dated 23.06.2022,

the review petition has been dismissed. Hence, these appeals.

We have heard learned counsel for the appellants and learned senior

counsel for the contesting respondent No.1.

Learned counsel for respondent No.2 submitted that respondent

No.2 Venkataramanappa died during the pendency of the matter(s)

before this Court on 12.01.2023 and his legal representatives have

not been brought on record. He further submitted that the said

Venkataramanappa had preferred R.A. No.62/2012 but had withdrawn

the same and the said appeal(s) was dismissed as withdrawn on

10.08.2018.

In the circumstances, in view of our proposed judgment, we do not

think at this stage the matter(s) would require the legal representatives

of the deceased-respondent No.2 to be brought on record.

Learned counsel for the appellants submitted that there are two main

serious errors in the impugned judgment: firstly, the Regular Second

Appeal has been allowed at the stage of admission without framing a

substantial question of law which is contrary to the mandate of Section

100 of the CPC; Secondly, it was submitted that all respondents

before the High Court were not heard in the matter(s) and this is

evident on a reading of the cause title of the impugned judgment

wherein only respondent No.2 was represented by a counsel as a 

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 481

HEMAVATHI AND ORS. v.

V. HOMBEGOWDA AND ANR.

caveator. Therefore, in the absence of hearing respondent Nos.1,

3 and 4 before the High Court, the Second Appeal could not have

been allowed. Thirdly, it was contended that the High Court was not

right in condoning the delay of 2945 days in filing Regular Appeal

No.1/2021 inasmuch as the first appellate court by a detailed order

had dismissed the said appeal on the ground of delay and laches.

Therefore, the impugned order/judgment of the High Court dated

13.04.2022 as well as the order passed in the Review Petition dated

23.06.2022 may be set aside.

Per contra, learned senior counsel appearing for the first respondent

who is the contesting respondent and appellant in R.A. No.1/2021

supported the impugned order and submitted that since the matter(s)

was being remanded to the Trial Court reserving all contentions to

be left open and by giving additional opportunity to all parties the

non-framing of the substantial question of law and non-hearing of

some of the respondents before the High Court, is immaterial. She

further submitted that ultimately pursuant to the remand made by the

High Court full opportunity will be given to all parties and therefore,

the impugned judgment and impugned order of the High Court may

not be interfered with.

Learned counsel appearing for deceased-respondent No.2 submitted

that in the event this Court is to remand these matters to the High

Court for fresh consideration then an opportunity may be given to

the legal representatives of deceased Respondent No.2 to come on

record so as to contest the appeals in accordance with law.

The aforesaid narration of facts and contentions would not require

reiteration. Learned counsel for the appellants has brought to our

notice the following three serious lacunae in the impugned judgment

as well as the order passed in the review petition by the High Court:

(i) In the absence of framing any substantial questions of law, the

Regular Second Appeal has been allowed. This is in breach of

the mandate under Section 100 of the CPC;

(ii) That the impugned judgment does not indicate that respondent

Nos.1, 3 and 4 were heard by the High Court inasmuch as the

cause title indicates that only the second respondent as caveator

was heard and in the absence of the said respondents being 

482 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

heard, the order and judgment passed by the first appellate

court in their favour has been set aside.

(iii) That a delay of 2945 days has been condoned which has

compounded the aforesaid serious infirmity in the impugned

judgment of the High Court.

(iv) We may also add that the matter has been remanded to the trial

court for a fresh consideration when the first appellate court had

not considered the Regular Appeal on merits. If the High Court

thought it fit to condone the delay in filing the Regular Appeal

then the matter had to be remanded to the first appellate court

to consider the Regular Appeal on merits and not just set aside

the trial court decree and remand the case to the trial court for

a fresh adjudication.

The jurisdiction of the High Court to entertain a Second Appeal is

well-known. It is a unique jurisdiction of the High Court where the

High Court can entertain a Regular Second Appeal purely on a

“substantial” question of law not even a question of law or a question

of fact. It is a settled law that the first appellate court is the final

Court insofar as the question of facts are concerned and it is only

when substantial questions of law would arise in a case that the High

Court can entertain a Regular Second Appeal and if at the stage of

admission such substantial questions of law are discerned by the

High Court the same would have to be framed and the appeal(s)

would have to be admitted. It is only thereafter that the parties have

to be heard on the substantial questions of law that are framed by

the High Court at the stage of admission.

However, the CPC gives power to the High Court to frame additional

substantial questions of law or to mould the substantial questions of

law already framed on hearing the parties at the time of final hearing

of a Second Appeal. In the event the respondents before the High

Court are on record even at the stage of admission of a Regular

Second Appeal and the same is to be disposed of finally even at this

stage substantial questions of law must be framed and answered

before the Regular Second Appeal is admitted and disposed.

On a perusal of the impugned order, we find that the same has

not been framed. The said error is compounded by the learned 

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 483

HEMAVATHI AND ORS. v.

V. HOMBEGOWDA AND ANR.

Judge stating in the order passed in the review petition that no

such substantial question of law arose in the appeal(s). In fact, it

is necessary to highlight this aspect by quoting the learned judge

by what he has stated in paragraph ‘3’ of the order passed in the

review petition as under:

“3. A perusal of the Judgment dated 13.04.2022 in RSA No.291/2022

shows that the respondent No.2 had entered Caveat. When the

appeal was listed for admission, this Court held that the explanation

offered by the appellant in not filing the written statement was not

completely acceptable but was probable. This Court also found that

the appeal filed by the appellant before the First Appellate Court was

dismissed as barred by time. Hence this Court felt that the appellant

was deprived of an opportunity to defend the action brought by the

respondents therein. Hence cost of Rs.50,000/- was imposed and

the case was remitted for disposal within six months. This Court

did not express any opinion on the merits of the case. This Court

was aware of the requirement to frame the substantial question of

law before disposing a second appeal, as declared by the Hon’ble

Apex Court in the decisions cited by the learned counsel. However,

this was not a case where any substantial question was involved,

as the Trial Court did not adjudicate question was involved, as the

Trial Court did not adjudicate the dispute on merits.”

The aforesaid paragraph would speak for itself vis-a-vis the infirmities

in the impugned judgment and order of the High Court. If no substantial

question of law arose in the case then the appeal could not have

been entertained and ought to have been dismissed at the stage

of admission. But on the other hand, in the absence of framing any

substantial question of law the appeal has been allowed, that too,

at the stage of admission, without issuance of notice to the other

respondents Nos.1, 3 and 4 and by hearing only learned counsel

for the respondent No.2 before the High Court who was on caveat.

The aforesaid errors are compounded by the fact that a sum of

Rs.50,000/-(Rupees fifty thousand only) cost was awarded to the

successful plaintiffs who were respondents before the High Court

in lieu of any notice being issued to them! The aforesaid infirmities

cannot be overlooked and compensated by ordering a sum of

Rs.50,000/- to be paid by the first respondent herein (appellant in the 

484 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

Second Appeal before the High Court) to the respondent-plaintiff(s).

In this context, the law on the practice to be followed while considering

a regular second appeal, has been re-iterated by this Court in C.A.

No. 4935 of 2023 in Bhagyashree Anant Gaonkar vs. Narendra @

Nagesh Bharma Holkar and Anr. dated 07.08.2023, and the relevant

extracts in this regard are exposited as under:

a) Roop Singh v. Ram Singh, (2000) 3 SCC 708, as relied upon

in C.A. Sulaiman vs. State Bank of Travancore, Alwayee (2006)

6 SCC 392:

“7. It is to be reiterated that under Section 100 CPC jurisdiction

of the High Court to entertain a second appeal is confined only

to such appeals which involve a substantial question of law and

it does not confer any jurisdiction on the High Court to interfere

with pure questions of fact while exercising its jurisdiction under

Section 100 CPC.”

b) State Bank of India vs. S.N. Goyal (2008) 8 SCC 9215:

“15. It is a matter of concern that the scope of second appeals

and as also the procedural aspects of second appeals are often

ignored by the High Courts. Some of the oft-repeated errors are:

(a) Admitting a second appeal when it does not give rise to

a substantial question of law.

(b) Admitting second appeals without formulating substantial

question of law.

(c) Admitting second appeals by formulating a standard or

mechanical question such as “whether on the facts and

circumstances the judgment of the first appellate court

calls for interference” as the substantial question of law.

(d) Failing to consider and formulate relevant and appropriate

substantial question(s) of law involved in the second

appeal.

(e) Rejecting second appeals on the ground that the case

does not involve any substantial question of law, when the

case in fact involves substantial questions of law.

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 485

HEMAVATHI AND ORS. v.

V. HOMBEGOWDA AND ANR.

(f) Reformulating the substantial question of law after the

conclusion of the hearing, while preparing the judgment,

thereby denying an opportunity to the parties to make

submissions on the reformulated substantial question of

law.

(g) Deciding second appeals by reappreciating evidence and

interfering with findings of fact, ignoring the questions of law.

These lapses or technical errors lead to injustice and

also give rise to avoidable further appeals to this Court

and remands by this Court, thereby prolonging the

period of litigation. Care should be taken to ensure that

the cases not involving substantial questions of law are

not entertained, and at the same time ensure that cases

involving substantial questions of law are not rejected as

not involving substantial questions of law.”

c) Municipal Committee, Hoshiarpur v. Punjab SEB, (2010) 13

SCC 216:

“16 A second appeal cannot be decided merely on equitable

grounds as it lies only on a substantial question of law, which is

something distinct from a substantial question of fact. The court

cannot entertain a second appeal unless a substantial question

of law is involved, as the second appeal does not lie on the

ground of erroneous findings of fact based on an appreciation of

the relevant evidence. The existence of a substantial question of

law is a condition precedent for entertaining the second appeal;

on failure to do so, the judgment cannot be maintained. The

existence of a substantial question of law is a sine qua non for

the exercise of jurisdiction under the provisions of Section 100

CPC. It is the obligation on the court to further clear the intent

of the legislature and not to frustrate it by ignoring the same.” 

d) Umerkhan v. Bismillabi, (2011) 9 SCC 684:

“11. In our view, the very jurisdiction of the High Court in hearing

a second appeal is founded on the formulation of a substantial

question of law. The judgment of the High Court is rendered

patently illegal, if a second appeal is heard and judgment and 

486 [2023] 12 S.C.R.

SUPREME COURT REPORT: DIGITAL

decree appealed against is reversed without formulating a

substantial question of law. The second appellate jurisdiction of

the High Court under Section 100 is not akin to the appellate

jurisdiction under Section 96 of the Code; it is restricted to such

substantial question or questions of law that may arise from

the judgment and decree appealed against. As a matter of law,

a second appeal is entertainable by the High Court only upon

its satisfaction that a substantial question of law is involved in

the matter and its formulation thereof. Section 100 of the Code

provides that the second appeal shall be heard on the question

so formulated. It is, however, open to the High Court to reframe

substantial question of law or frame substantial question of law

afresh or hold that no substantial question of law is involved

at the time of hearing the second appeal but reversal of the

judgment and decree passed in appeal by a court subordinate

to it in exercise of jurisdiction under Section 100 of the Code

is impermissible without formulating substantial question of law

and a decision on such question.”

e) Raghavendra Swamy Mutt v. Uttaradi Mutt, (2016) 11 SCC 235

“18. In the instant case, the High Court has not yet admitted

the matter. It is not in dispute that no substantial question of

law has been formulated as it could not have been when the

appeal has not been admitted. We say so, as appeal under

Section 100 CPC is required to be admitted only on substantial

question/questions of law. It cannot be formal admission like

an appeal under Section 96 CPC. That is the fundamental

imperative. It is peremptory in character, and that makes the

principle absolutely cardinal.”

In the circumstances, the impugned judgment dated 13.04.2022 and

impugned order dated 23.06.2022 passed in the Regular Second

Appeal as well as the Review Petition are set aside. The matters

are remanded to the High Court to consider the same in accordance

with law and by being mindful of the aforementioned flaws in the

impugned judgment and order.

Since the parties are before the High Court, it is necessary to ensure

that the legal representatives of the deceased-Respondent No.2 

[2023] 12 S.C.R. 487

HEMAVATHI AND ORS. v.

V. HOMBEGOWDA AND ANR.

herein are brought on record (R-4 before the High court) by the first

respondent herein who was the appellant in the High court by filing

the necessary applications so as to bring his legal repres entatives

on record and thereafter to dispose of the Regular Second Appeal

in accordance with law.

Appeals are allowed and disposed of in the aforesaid terms.

No costs.

It is needless to observe that with the cooperation of the learned

counsel for respective parties, the Regular Second Appeal shall be

disposed of expeditiously.

Pending application(s), if any, shall stand disposed of.

Headnotes prepared by: Divya Pandey Result of the case : Appeals allowed.