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Thursday, February 14, 2019

Rule 24(i-eeee) of the Haryana Liquor License Rules 1970 (as amended by the Haryana Liquor License (Amendment) Rules 2017), (hereinafter referred to as ‘the Rules’) as being ultra vires the Punjab Excise Act, 1914 = the exclusive licensee is under the condition required to keep sufficient stock of all brands as are demanded by the procuring licensees and all such brands as were registered with the department in 2016-17. Thus at least two restrictions exist as in built safeguards which operate against the exclusive licensee. The licensee is obliged to keep sufficient number of stock of all brands which are demanded by the procuring licensees. In this case, the members of the appellant would fall within the expression 33 ‘procuring licensees’. Secondly, there is a regulation of the maximum price which the exclusive licensee can demand as the price is to be fixed by the State itself. where there is a conflict of interest and by suppressing the sale of certain brands and permitting the sale of other brands the exclusive licensee is placed in a more advantageous position, and therefore, he prefers it. I must remind myself that the complaint of the individual company would be that brand which it wishes to import and deal in is not made available.Quite clearly if there is any such concrete incident which is pointed out, it would be an infraction of the condition of the licence. Certainly it would give rise to power with the authorities to take suitable action as available in law including in appropriate cases, cancellation of the licence. If such provisions are not already there I would observe that the State may devise suitable provisions so that an individual who acts as the licensee of the state would not do what the State itself would be forbidden from doing under the Constitution. I must also remind myself that at the same time, the State has apparently gained by way of enhanced collection of revenue by the new regime put in place. The State’s power to experiment in economic matters shall not suffer invalidation at the hands of the Court. Such power must be premised solely on State action falling foul of the Constitution and the laws. State would however do well to provide for a suitable mechanism by which it can provide appropriate safeguards so that there is fair dealing by the exclusive licensee. Subject to the above observations I would dismiss the appeal with no order as to costs


Hon'ble Mr. Justice Navin Sinha
1
REPORTABLE
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CIVIL APPEAL NO. 9533 OF 2018
INTERNATIONAL SPIRITS AND WINES
ASSOCIATION OF INDIA ....APPELLANT(S)
VERSUS
STATE OF HARYANA AND OTHERS ...RESPONDENT(S)
JUDGMENT
NAVIN SINHA, J.
The appellant having been unsuccessful in its challenge to
Rule 24(i-eeee) of the Haryana Liquor License Rules 1970 (as
amended by the Haryana Liquor License (Amendment) Rules
2017), (hereinafter referred to as ‘the Rules’) as being ultra vires the
Punjab Excise Act, 1914 (hereinafter referred to as ‘the Act’), is in
appeal before this Court. The amended Rule provides for a single
L-1BF license for the entire State to deal in imported foreign liquor,
bottled outside India and imported into the country in a bottled
form (i.e. bottled in original). Under challenge is also clause 9.5.1.2
of the State Excise Policy for the year 2017-2018 to that extent,
2
carried forward to the year 2018-2019 also. The procedure for
grant of the single license under the amended Rule is through
tender by e-bidding, with a reserve price of Rs. 50 crores.
2. Sri Gopal Subramanium, learned senior counsel for the
appellant, submitted that the creation of a monopoly by the State
in favour of a private entity, to trade in liquor, is contrary to Article
19(6) of the Constitution of India. The impugned order
acknowledges that it would lead to serious distortions in the
market, yet erroneously declines interference holding that once the
matter moves from State control into the hands of private
enterprise, the restrictions applicable to the State cease to apply.
Reliance was placed on Akadasi Padhan vs. State of Orissa, AIR
1963 SC 1047, to contend that if a monopoly is created by the State
in its favour, the same cannot be constitutionally permitted if the
private agents appointed pursuant thereto, act as independent
entities. Sri Subramanium also relied on Khoday Distilleries Ltd.
vs. State of Karnataka (I), (1995)1 SCC 574, to submit that once
the State parts with its privilege to trade in liquor, in favour of
private individuals, the rigours of Article 14 will continue to apply
to provide equal opportunity to all desirous to do so. Alternatively,
it was submitted that the absence of sufficient checks and balances
3
gives untrammeled and uncanalised powers to the sole licensee
which again is constitutionally impermissible. Sri Subramanium
further relied on Khoday Distilleries Ltd. vs. State of
Karnataka (II) (1996) 10 SCC 304, to submit that the
interpretation of Section 58 (2)(e) and 59(a) of the Act by the High
Court was flawed. Rule 24 (i-eeee) was ultra vires the Act. The
interpretation put by the High Court grants wider powers to the
Financial Commissioner, than the State Government itself. The
single monopolistic L-1BF license was also discriminatory and
violative of Article 14 of the Constitution in so far as no such
requirement was stipulated for wholesale trade in Indian made
foreign liquor or country liquor in the State. There was no rational
or reasonable classification for this distinction between licensees,
having any rationale or nexus with any object to be achieved.
3. Ms. Pinky Anand, learned Additional Solicitor General,
submitted that the appellant never participated in the bidding
process for the L-1BF license. A mere apprehension that a single
L-1BF license for the entire State may affect market dynamics,
when the reality was otherwise, resulting in rise of revenue, negates
the challenge laid out by the appellant. The issue of monopoly in
the hands of a private entity is devoid of merit as the process is
4
through public auction, open to participation by all, and not
tailored to suit any particular person or activated by malafides,
relying on Association of Registration Plates vs. Union of India,
(2005) 1 SCC 679. Trade in original bottled foreign liquor was only
a fraction of the entire liquor trade in the State, ranging between
0.64 percent to 1.98 per cent. The aim and object of the
amendment was to increase revenue, curb pilferage, control illicit
trade in the State of Indian made foreign liquor and bottled in
original bottled foreign liquor. The Financial Commissioner was
competent under Section 59(a) read with Section 13 to amend Rule
24 by incorporation of Rule 24 (i-eeee) providing for a single L-1BF
license for the entire State, as the competence of the State for
issuance of license under Section 58(2)(e) was limited to a local
area only.
4. Sri M.K. Dutta, learned counsel for the sole L-1BF licensee for
2017-2018, submitted that the appellant was not even a bidder.
The question of any apprehension on its part simply does not arise.
There are sufficient checks and balances in the excise license
providing for cancellation also if the conditions of the license were
not followed. The grant of a monopolistic license as the agent of
the State Government was permissible in the law for trade in liquor.
5
5. We have considered the submissions on behalf of parties. The
appellant assails the amended Rule 24(i-eeee) as ultra vires the
provisions of the Act. Integral to the issue is whether the state
government is competent to issue licences for a local area alone
under Section 58(2)(e) of the Act, while the Excise Commissioner,
a sub-delegate of the Financial Commissioner is competent under
Section 13(b) read with Section 59(a) to issue L-1BF licence for the
entire state under the amended rule, notwithstanding the
prohibition in Section 13(a) to the delegation of powers under
Section 58 by the State Government. The amended Rule 24(i-eeee)
relevant to the controversy reads as follows:
“ (xiv) for clause (i-eeee), the following clause
shall be substituted, namely: -
(i-eeee) For a license in form L-1BF –
(a)Reserve price shall be Rs.50,00,00,000/-.
(b)The license in form L-1BF shall be allotted
through e-bidding to the highest bidder.
(c) There shall be only one L-1BF license in the
State.”
6. Under Section 8 of the Act, the State government exercises
general superintendence and control of Excise Administration and
Excise Officers. Section 9 provides for vesting powers of the
6
Financial Commissioner in the Excise Commissioner by the State
Government. Section 13 dealing with delegation of powers
provides:
“Delegation:
(a) The State Government may by notification
delegate to the Financial Commissioner or
Commissioners all or any of its powers under
this Act, except the powers conferred by sections
14, 21,22, 31, 56 and 58 of this Act.
(b) The State Government may by notification
permit the delegation by the Financial
Commissioner, Commissioner or Collector to
any person or class of persons specified in such
notification of any powers conferred by this Act
or exercised in respect of excise revenue under
any Act for the time being in force.”
The Financial Commissioner is therefore competent to delegate
only such powers to the Excise Commissioner which the State
Government can delegate to the former under the Act, in view of
the prohibition contained in Section 13(a) of the Act.
7. Section 58 of the Act, in its relevant extract reads as follows:
“Power of State Government to make Rules:
(1) The State Government may by notification
make rules for the purpose of carrying out the
provisions of this Act or any other law for the
time being in force relating to excise revenue.
(2) In particular and without prejudice to the
generality of the foregoing provisions, the State
Government may make rules:
……
7
(e) Regulating the period and localities for which,
and, the persons or classes of persons, to whom
licenses, permits and passes for the vend by
wholesale or by retail of any intoxicant may be
granted and regulating the number of such
licenses which may be granted in any local area;
(3) Previous publication of rules: - The power
conferred by this section of making rules is
subject to the condition that the rules be made
after previous publication;
Provided that any such rules may be made
without previous publication if State
Government consider that they should be
brought into force at once.”
Under Section 58(2)(e) of the Act, the State Government alone has
the power to regulate the number of licenses which may be granted
in any local area for wholesale or retail sale.
8. Relevant to the discussion are also Rules 3 and 4 which
provide as follows :
“3. The authority given by these rules to grant
and renew licenses is, in each case, subject to
the restrictions contained in the Punjab
Intoxicants License and Sale Order as to the
localities in which licenses may be granted and
the number of licenses which may be granted in
any local area, and to such reservations from the
general superintendence of the Financial
Commissioner as the State Government may
notify under Section 8 of the Punjab Excise Act,
1914.
8
4. Every license shall be granted to a particular
licensee in respect of particular premises/area.”
9. Chapter D of the Punjab Intoxicants License and Sales
Orders, 1956 (hereinafter referred to as ‘the Order’) provides for the
number of licences and reads as under :
“6. The number of liquor vends except vends
licenced in form L-2 for the wholesale and retail
sale of foreign liquor to the public only and drug
shops, which may be licenced in any local area,
shall be the number which the Financial
Commissioner, subject to the control of the
State government considers necessary. The
number of L-2 vends, which may be licenced in
any local area, shall be the number of such
licences granted by the Collector under the
rules.”
10. In the scheme of the Act, the Rules and the Order read
together it is apparent that a liquor license is to be granted for a
local area only. The power to determine the number of licences
that may be granted in any category in a local area is exclusively
vested in the State Government under Section 58(2)(e) of the Act.
The delegation of this power by the State Government to the
Financial Commissioner is prohibited by Section 13(a). This is only
in consonance with the general power of superintendence vested in
the State Government under Section 8.
9
11. In Khoday Distilleries vs. State of Karnataka (II) (supra),
a similar provision under the Karnataka Excise Act 1965 fell for
consideration therein:
“71(1): The State Government may, by
notification and after previous publication,
make Rules to carry out the purposes of this Act.
(2) In particular and without prejudice to the
generality of the foregoing provision, the State
Government may make Rules –
…..
(e) regulating the periods and localities in
which and the persons or classes of persons to
whom, licenses for the wholesale or retail sale of
any intoxicant may be granted and regulating
the number of such licenses which may be
granted in any local area:
(f) ……
(g) ……
(h) prescribing the authority by which, the
form in which and the terms and conditions on
and subject to which any license or permit shall
be granted, and may, by such Rules, among
other matters.”
This Court held as follows :-
“11. ….The Act itself provides that the number
of licenses can be regulated by the State. If the
State chooses to regulate licenses by providing
that the license shall be granted only to a
company owned by the State, it cannot be said
that such a license is something which is outside
the purview of the Act or the rule-making
authority of the State under the Act.”
10
12. The Act maintains a clear distinction between a local area as
the unit for grant of licence, and the entire State for other purposes.
The State government is the sole repository of these other powers
with regard to the entire State evident from Sections 5 and 6 which
read:
“5. Power of State Government to declare
limit of sale by retail and by wholesale- The
State Government may by notification declare
with respect either to the whole of Punjab or to
any local area comprised therein, and as regards
purchasers generally or any specified class of
purchasers, and generally or for any specified
occasion, the maximum or minimum quantity or
both of any intoxicant which for the purposes of
this Act may be sold by retail and by wholesale.
6. Power to limit application of
notifications, permits, etc., made under this
Act.- Where under this Act any notification is
made, any power conferred, any appointment
made or any license, pass or permit granted, it
shall be lawful to direct –
(a)That it shall apply to the whole of Punjab or
to any specified local area or areas;
 xxxxx"
The power to declare by notification that a licence granted shall be
applicable to the entire State is exclusively vested in the State
Government under Section 6(a) of the Act.
11
13. The High Court has held that in contradistinction to Section
58(2)(e) of the Act, which limits the powers of the State Government
to grant of licence for a local area, the Excise Commissioner, as the
delegatee of the Financial Commissioner, was competent under
Section 59(a) to grant a single L-1BF licence for the entire State.
“59. Powers of Financial Commissioner to
make rules:-
The Financial Commissioner may, by notification,
make rules,-
(a) regulating the manufacture, supply, storage or
sale of any intoxicant, including-
(i) the character, erection, alteration, repair,
inspection, supervision, management and
control of any place for the manufacture,
supply, storage or sale of such article and
the fittings, implements, apparatus and
registers to be maintained therein;
(ii) the cultivation of the hemp plant and the
collection of spontaneous growth of such
plant and the preparation of any
intoxicating drug;
(iii) the tapping or drawing of tari from any tari
producting tree;
(b) regulating the bottling of liquor for purposes of
sale;
(c) regulating the deposit of any intoxicant in a
warehouse and the removal of any intoxicant
from any warehouse or from any distillery or
brewery;
(d) prescribing the scale of fees or the manner of
fixing the fees payable in respect of any license,
permit or pass or in respect of the storing of any
intoxicant;
12
(e) regulating the time, place and manner of
payment of any duty or fee;
(f) prescribing the authority by, the restrictions
under, and the conditions on, which any license,
permit or pass may be granted, including
provisions for the following matters-
(i) the prohibition of the admixture with any
intoxicant of any substance deemed to be
noxious or objectionable;
(ii) the regulation or prohibition of the
reduction of liquor by a licensed
manufacturer or licensed vendor from a
higher to a lower strength;
(iii) the strength at which intoxicant shall be
sold, supplied or possessed;
(iii-a) the fixing of the price below and above which
any intoxicant shall not be sold or supplied
by the licenced vendor.
(iv) the prohibition of sale of any intoxicant
except for cash;
(v) the fixing of the days and hours during
which any licensed premises may or may not
be kept open, and the closure of such
premises on special occasions;
(vi) the specification of the nature of the
premises in which any intoxicant may be
sold, and the notice to be exposed at such
premises;
(vii) the form of the accounts to be maintained
and the returns to be submitted by licenseholders; and
(viii) the prohibition or regulation of the transfer
of licenses;
(g) (i) declaring the process by which spirit shall
be denatured;
(ii) for causing spirit to be denatured through
the agency or under the supervision of its
own officers;
13
(iii) for ascertaining whether such spirit has
been denatured;
(h) providing for the destruction or other disposal of
any intoxicant deemed to be unfit for use;
(i) regulating the disposal of confiscated articles;
(j) prescribing the amount of security to be
deposited by holders of leases, licenses, permits
or passes for the performance of the conditions of
the same.”
14. The nature of powers conferred under Section 59 of the Act,
make it manifest that it is but a regulatory power available only
after a license is granted to the licensee for a local area, to ensure
supply, storage, sale or otherwise that the conditions of the license
are adhered to and necessary directions can also be given for the
purpose.
15. The Excise Commissioner, a sub-delegate of the Financial
Commissioner, in exercise of the powers conferred under section
59 of the Act by virtue of the Haryana Government Excise and
Taxation notification dated 01.04.2016, made the impugned
amendment to the Haryana Liquor License Rules, 1970. The same
were notified on 29.03.2017. These rules were called the Haryana
Liquor License (Amendment) Rules, 2017. Rule 1(2) stated that
they shall come into force with effect from 01.04.2017. Rule 3 of
14
the amendment substituted Rule 24 (i-eeee) which provided that
there shall be only one L-1BF license in the State. The amendment
with regard to the number of licenses that could be issued for the
entire State is in teeth of Sections 6 and 58(2)(e), delegation of
which by the State Government is expressly prohibited by Section
13(a).
16. The distinction sought to be drawn by the High Court with
regard to the term ‘local area’ under Section 58(2)(e) of the Act as
being confined to small compact area only and that the Financial
Commissioner by virtue of the power to regulate supply, storage
or sale of any intoxicant had the power to determine the number
of licenses to be granted for the entire State in a particular
category, in our view, is not only unreasonable but also in teeth of
the statutory Scheme and its provisions. To hold that the power of
Financial Commissioner under Section 59(a) of the Act to regulate
sale of liquor, and that sale could be regulated through grant of
licence, the Financial Commissioner was vested with the power to
determine the number of licences, to our mind is not only
unreasonable but also unsustainable. Such an interpretation
amounts to reading words into the statute which the legislature
itself never intended. The amendment notified by the Excise
15
Commissioner as a delegate of the Financial Commissioner was
per se ultra vires the powers of the latter under Section 6 and 13(a)
read with Section 58(2)(e) of the Act. The unreasonableness and
incongruity in the reasoning by the High Court would vest wider
powers in the Excise Commissioner than the State Government
itself. While the State Government would have the power to
determine the number of licences and to issue licence for a local
area only, the Excise Commissioner would have a superior power
to determine the number of licences and issue licences for the
entire State.
17. The meaning and scope of a regulatory power fell for
consideration in Deepak Theatre vs. State of Punjab, 1992 Supp
(1) SCC 684,
“4. The power to regulate includes the power
to restrain, which embraces limitations and
restrictions on all incidental matters
connected with the right to trade or business
under the existing licence. Rule 12(3)
regulated entry to different classes to the
cinema hall and it was within the rule making
power of the State Government to frame such
rule. The court further held that fixing limit of
rate of admission was an absolute necessity
in the interest of the general public and the
restriction so placed was reasonable and in
public interest….”
16
18. The Financial Commissioner was therefore not competent to
amend the Rules with regard to grant of number of licences for the
entire state, and which power was exclusive to the State
Government under Section 6 read with Section 13(a) and 58(2)(e)
of the Act. In conclusion, we hold that Rule 24(i-eeee) as amended
by the Financial Commissioner in exercise of powers under Section
59(a) of the Act is ultra vires the powers of the Financial
Commissioner under the Act and is therefore struck down. In view
of Rule 24(i-eeee) itself having been struck down, it is not
considered necessary to discuss or consider the other grounds of
challenge raised.
19. The appeal is allowed.
………............................CJI.
[RANJAN GOGOI]
…………............................J.
[NAVIN SINHA]
NEW DELHI
FEBRUARY 12, 2019.
1
 Reportable
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CIVIL APPEAL NO.9533 OF 2018
INTERNATIONAL SPIRITS AND WINES
ASSOCIATION OF INDIA ..APPELLANT(S)
VERSUS
STATE OF HARYANA AND ORS. ..RESPONDENT(S)
JUDGMENT
K.M. JOSEPH,J.
1. Having perused the judgment authored by
brother Justice Navin Sinha notwithstanding the
highest respect that I maintain for him, I express my
inability to accept the reasoning given in support of
the conclusion on the point which has been dealt with
by him and the consequent verdict.
2. The appellant is the writ petitioner before
the High Court in writ petition No.6870 of 2017 which
came to be decided along with another writ petition.
Appellant is a company registered under Section 25 of
the Companies Act. It claims to be a representative
body of International spirits and wines companies
2
doing business in India. On 06.03.2017, the excise
policy for the State of Haryana came to be announced
for the period 01.04.2017 to 31.03.2018. Under clause
9.5.1.1, a wholesale licence in the form of L-1BF for
imported foreign liquor (BIO) was prescribed. The
licensee was authorized to import IFL (BIO) including
beer from other countries and supply it to L-1s, L-4
and L-5s, L-12Cs and L-12Gs of the State. Clause
9.5.12, however, provided that there will be only one
wholesale licence in the form of L-1BF in the State.
It was contemplated that licence was to be settled by
e-tenders through the Departmental Portal in a
completely secure and transparent manner. The reserve
price was fixed at Rs.50 crores. Under the general
conditions provisions for L-1BF it was provided as
follows:
“(vi) The licensee will have to submit pricing
of each brands at the time of approval of the
brand and department will approve his maximum
sale price factoring in the landing price,
expenses, profit margin, prevalent rates of
same or equivalent brands in the neighboring
States and the Government levies. The licensee
shall do this preferably in the first quarter
of the financial year.”
3
3. Originally Clause 9.5.1.2 was challenged.
The third respondent had been appointed as exclusive
licensee and declaration was sought that the
appointment was invalid. While the Writ Petition was
pending, the Haryana Liquor License (Amendment) Rules,
2017 was introduced. The rules came into effect on
01.4.2017. Thereupon the appellant challenged Rule
24 (i-eeee) of the 1970 Rules introduced by the
amending Rules. The said Rule reads as follows:
“3. In the said rules, in rule 24, -
…....
(xiv) for clause (i-eeee), the following
clause shall be substituted, namely:-
“(i-eeee) For a license in form L-1BF -
(a) Reserve price shall be Rs. 50,00,00,000/-
(b) The license in form L-1BF shall be
allotted through e-bidding to the highest
bidder
(b) There shall be only one L-1BF license in
the State.
(d) In case no eligible bid equal to or above
the reserve price is received for the lone L1BF license, the same shall be allotted
exclusively to a Government owned entity on
the terms and conditions as decided by the
Government. The permit and brand label fee
shall be levied as under to procure Stock of
liquor by the L-1BF licensee.”
4. The ground which failed to persuade the
Division Bench of the High Court but which has found
acceptance at the hands of my learned Brother Sinha J.
4
is that the impugned rule is ultra vires, the power
of the Finance Commissioner under Section 59 of the
Punjab Excise Act, 1914 (hereinafter referred to as
“the Act”). The argument of the appellant is that the
power to make a rule regarding number of licenses is
with the State Government and it is said power which
has been usurped by the Financial Commissioner in
purported exercise of the power under Section 59 of
the Act. To put it differently, the question would be
whether the power is vested with the State Government
under Section 58 or with the Financial Commissioner
under Section 59 of the Act. It is but natural that
I set out the provisions of Section 58 and 59 of the
Act.
“58. Power of State Government to make Rules
– (1) The State Government may by notification
make rules for the purpose of carrying out the
provisions of this Act or any other law for the
time being in force relating to excise revenue.
(2)In particular and without prejudice to the
generally of the foregoing provisions, the
State Government may make rules: -
(a) prescribing the duties of excise officers;
(b) regulating the delegation of any power by
the Financial Commissioner, Commissioner or
Collector, under Section 13, Clause (b);
(c) prescribing the time and manner of
presenting and the procedure for dealing
5
with appeals from orders of excise
officers;
(d) regulating the import, export, transport or
possession of any intoxicant or Excise bottle
and the transfer, price or use of any type of
description of such bottle.
(e) regulating the period and localities for
which, and, the persons or classes of persons,
to whom licenses, permits and passes for the
vend by wholesale or by retail of any
intoxicants may be granted and regulating the
number of such licenses which may be granted in
any local area;
(f) prescribing the procedure to be followed
and the matters to be ascertained before any
license is granted for the retail vend of liquor
for consumption on the premises;
(g) for the prohibition of the sale of any
intoxicant to any person or class of persons;
(h) regulating the power of excise officers to
summon witnesses form a distance;
(I) regulating the grant of expenses to
witnesses and compensation to persons charged
with offences under this Act and subsequently
released, discharged or acquitted.
(j) for the prohibition of the employment by a
license holder of any person or class of persons
to assist in his business in any capacity what
so ever;
(k) for the prevention of drunkness, gambling
and disorderly conduct in or near any licensed
premises and the meeting or remaining of
persons of bad character in such premises;
(l) prohibiting the printing, publishing or
otherwise displaying or distributing any
advertisement or other matter commending or
soliciting the use of, or offering any
intoxicant calculated to encourage or incite
any individual or class of individuals or the
public generally to commit an offence under
this Act, or to commit a breach or evade the
provisions of any rule or order made there under,
6
or the conditions of any license, permit or pass
obtained there under:-
(m) prohibiting within the State the
circulation, distribution or sale of any
newspaper, book, leaflet, booklet, or other
publication printed and published outside the
State which contains any advertisement or
matter of the nature described in clause (1);
(n) declaring any newspaper, book, leaflet,
booklet or other publication, wherever printed
or published, containing any advertisement or
matter [of the nature described in clause (1)]
to be forefeited to the State Government; and
(o) implementing generally the policy of
prohibition.
(3) Previous publication of rules – The power
conferred by this section of making rules is
subject to the condition that the rules be made
after previous publication.
Provided that any such rules may be made
without previous publication if State
Government consider that they should be brought
into force at once.
59. Powers of Financial Commissioner to make
rules – The Financial Commission may, by
notification, make rules.
(a) regulating the manufacture, supply, storage
or sale of any intoxicant, including:-
(i) the character, erection, alteration,
repair, inspection, supervision, management
and control of any place for the manufacture,
supply storage or sale of such article and
the fittings, implements apparatus and
registers to be maintained therein;
(ii) the cultivation of the hemp plant and
the collection of spontaneous growth of such
plant and the preparation of any intoxicating
drug.
(iii) the tapping of drawing of tari from any
tari producting tree.
7
(b) regulating the bottling of liquor for
purposes of sale.
(d) regulating the deposit of any intoxicant in
a warehouse and the removal of any
intoxicant from any warehouse or from any
distillery or brewery.
(e) prescribing the scale of fees or the manner
of fixing the fees payable in respect of any
license, permit or pass or in respect of the
storing of any intoxicant;
(f) regulating the time, place and manner of
payment of any duty or fee;
(g) prescribing the authority by, the
restrictions under, and the conditions on
which any license, permit or pass may be
granted including provision for the
following matters: -
(i)The prohibition of the admixture with any
intoxicant of any substance deemed to be
noxious or objectionable;
(ii) The regulation or prohibition of the
reduction of liquor by a licensed manufacture
or licensed vendor from a higher to a lower
strength;
(iii) [the strength at which intoxicant shall
be sold], supplied or possessed;
(iii-a) the fixing of the price below and
above which any intoxicant shall not be sold
or supplied by the licensed vendors;
(iv) The prohibition of sale of any
intoxicant except for cash;
(v) The fixing of the days and hours during
which any licensed premises may or may not be
kept open, and the closure of such premises
on special occasions;
(vi) The specification of the nature of the
premises in which any intoxicant may be sole,
and the notice to be exposed at such premises;
8
(vii)The form of the accounts to be
maintained and the return to be submitted by
license holders; and
(viii) The prohibition or regulation of the
transfer of licenses;
(g-i) declaring the process by which spirit
shall be denatured;
(ii) for causing spirits to be denatured
through the agency or under the supervision of
its own officers;
(iii) for causing spirits to be denatured
through the agency or under the supervision of
its own officers;
(h) providing for the destruction or other
disposal of any intoxicant deemed to be
unfit for use;
(i) regulating the disposal of confiscated
articles;
(j) prescribing the amount of security to be
deposited by holders of leases, licenses,
permits or passes for the performance of the
conditions of the same.”
5. The case of the appellant is built around the
provisions contained in Section 58(2)(e) of the Act.
6. The Punjab Excise Act, 1914 as extended to
the State of Haryana contains the following provisions
inter alia:
Section 5 of the said Act reads as follows:
“5. Power of State Government to declare limit of
sale by retail and by wholesale. –
The [State] Government may by notification declare
with respect either to the whole of [Haryana] or
to any local area comprised therein, and as regards
9
purchasers generally or any specified class of
purchasers, and generally or for any specified
occasion, the maximum or minimum quantity or both
of any [intoxicant] which for the purposes of this
Act may be sold by retail and by wholesale.”
(emphasis supplied)
The expression “any local area” stands out in the said
statutory provision as distinct from the whole of
Haryana. It is to be noted that Section 5 does not
deal with the rule making power of the State. In
fact, it relates to the maximum and minimum quantity
or both of any intoxicants which may be sold by retail
and by wholesale. Similarly, Section 6(a) reads as
follows:
“6. Power to limit application of
notifications, permits, etc., made under this Act.-
Where under this Act any notification is made, any
power conferred, any appointment made or any
license, pass or permit granted, it shall be lawful
to direct –
(a) that it shall apply to the whole of [Haryana] or to any specified local area or
areas;
(b) …..
(c) …..
(d) …..”
(emphasis supplied)
Equally Section 6 also does not deal with the power
to make rules.
7. It is apparent that the legislature has
maintained a distinction between the whole and a part
10
and the part is what is captured in the expression
“local area”. Further Section 8 of the said Act reads
as follows:
“8. Superintendence and control of excise
administration and excise officers. -
(a) Subject to the control of the [State] Government and unless the [State] Government
shall by notification otherwise direct,
the general superintendence and administration of all matters relating to excise shall vest in the Financial Commissioner.”
(b) ….
(c) ….”
 (emphasis supplied)
8. Section 9 of the said Act provides for
appointment of an Excise commissioner and it reads as
follows:
“9. Excise Commissioner. - The State Government
may by notification appoint an Excise Commissioner,
and, subject to such conditions and restrictions
as it may deem fit, may invest him with all or any
of the powers conferred on the Financial
Commissioner by this Act.”
9. In terms of the notification vesting powers
of the finance Commissioner apparently under Section
59 it is that the Excise Commissioner has made the
rules “Haryana Liquor Licence Rules 1970. It is
undoubtedly true that Section 13 forbids delegation
11
of power under Section 58 inter alia on the Financial
Commissioner or Commissioner. Section 34 comes under
Chapter VI and is relevant. It reads as follows:
“34.Fee for terms, conditions and form of, and
duration of licenses, permits and passes. –
(1) Every licence, permit or pass granted under
this Act shall be granted, -
(a) On payment of such fees, if any;
(b) Subject to such restrictions and on such
conditions;
(c) In such form and containing such particulars;
(d) For such period;
as the Financial Commissioner may direct.
(2) …..
(3) …..”
10. Section 35 speaks about grant of licences for
sale. Sub-section (1) of the said provision reads as
follows:
“35. (1) Grant of lincenses for sale. - Subject to
the rules made by the Financial Commissioner under
the powers conferred by this Act, the Collector may
grant licenses for the sale of any [intoxicant]
within his district.”
(emphasis supplied)
12
11. Coming to Section 58 undoubtedly what is
pressed before us by the appellant is a specific
provision contained in Section 58(2)(e). Breaking down
the said sub-section, in my view produces the
following inevitable result. The State Government has
the power to frame rules.
1)To regulate the periods of licences, permits and
passes either wholesale or retail;
2)To regulate the localities for which wholesale or
retail licences, permits or passes may be granted.
3)To regulate the persons or classes of persons to
whom the licences, permits or passes may be
granted either by way of a wholesale or retail
licence;
12. The latter part of Section 58(2)(e) on the
other hand also permits the Government to regulate by
rules, the number of such licences which may be
granted in any local area. Therefore, it is clear
that it is in respect of the licences which are
referred, be it wholesale or retail mentioned earlier
13
in the provision which can be regulated but however
limited to any local area. As against this and
immediately following Section 58 in Section 59,
legislature has also empowered the financial
Commissioner to make rules inter alia to regulate the
manufacture, supply, storage or sale or any
intoxicant.
13. It is relevant to notice that the High Court
in the impugned judgment has specifically dealt with
the expression “local area” by adverting to a judgment
of this Court reported in 1995 (1) SCC 351. The
expression “local area” has been designedly employed
and it has to be given full play. It certainly cannot
mean the whole of the State. Any other interpretation
would render the word ‘local area’ in Section 58(2)(e)
meaningless and, in fact, it would involve doing
complete violence to the plain meaning of the words
“local area”. It may be true that the whole may
include the part (see in this regard the maxim in
Brooms Legal Maxims Omne Majus Continet in Se Minus)
but I do not think that the converse namely the part
would include the whole could hold good. Thus, the
14
expression “local area” as used in Section 58(2)(e)
would appear to convey the impression that the
legislature intended to confer power on the State to
place restrictions on the number of licences which are
to be given qua any local area. In fact, in the written
submission given by the State of Haryana, a definite
case is set up that the State in its wisdom can
conclude that a particular local area owing to the
special conditions should be protected from the
harmful effects of alcohol consumption. An example of
tribal sub plan area is enlisted where the State may
be carrying on a special programme. I would think that
this view finds support also from another circumstance
in the form of Rule 3 of Haryana Liquor Licence Rules,
1970. The said Rule reads as under:
“3. The authority given by these rules to
grant and renew licenses is, in each case,
subject to the restrictions contained in the
Punjab Intoxicants License and Sale Order as
to the localities in which licenses may be
granted and the number of licenses which may
be granted in any local area, and to such
reservations from the general superintendence
of the financial commissioner as the State
government may notify under Section 8 of the
Punjab Excise Act, 1914.
 (emphasis supplied)
15
14. Thus, the said rule reinforces the view that
the expression “number of licences” which may be
granted in the local area is within the exclusive
domain of the State Government and reliance placed by
the appellant on the number of licences which may be
granted in Section 58(2)(e) to strike at the impugned
rule which is otherwise sourced under Section 59 is
without any basis. In other words going through both
the Act and the Rules, a distinction is made between
the whole of the State and the local area. In regard
to rule making power, undoubtedly, the legislature has
specifically conferred rule making power qua the
number of licences in any local area upon the State.
Unless it can be reasoned that the powers to regulate
sale of liquor within the meaning of Section 59 which
is undoubtedly placed on the shoulders of the
financial Commissioner would not include the power to
make rules in regard to the number of licences for the
State as a whole, the argument of the appellant must
fail.
16
15. The word `regulate’ in fact came to be
considered by the decision of this Court in D.K.
Trivedi and Sons v. State of Gujarat 1986 (Suppl.)
SCC 20. The matter arose under Section 13 inter alia
of the Mines and Minerals (Regulation & Development)
Act, 1957. This Court went on to hold inter alia as
follows :
“30. Bearing this in mind, we now turn to
examine the nature of the rule-making power
conferred upon the State Governments by Section
15(1). Although under Section 14, Section 13 is one
of the sections which does not apply to minor
minerals, the language of Section 13(1) is in
pari materia with the language of Section 15(1).
Each of these provisions confers the power
to make rules for "regulating". The Shorter
Oxford English Dictionary, Third Edition,
defines the word "regulate" as meaning "to
control, govern, or direct by rule or
regulations; to subject to guidance or
restrictions; to adapt to circumstances or
surroundings". Thus, the power to regulate
by rules given by Sections 13(1) and 15(1) is a
power to control, govern and direct by rules
the grant of prospecting licences and mining
leases in respect of minerals other than
minor minerals and for purposes connected
therewith in the case of Section 13(1) and the
grant of quarry leases, mining leases and
other mineral concessions in respect of minor
minerals and for purposes connected
therewith in the case of Section 15(1) and to
subject such grant to restrictions and to
adapt them to the circumstances of the case
and the surroundings with reference to which
such power is exercised. It is pertinent to
bear in mind that the power to regulate
17
conferred by Sections 13(1) and 15(1) is not only
with respect to the grant of licences and
leases mentioned in those sub-sections but
is also with respect to "purposes connected
therewith", that is, purposes connected with
such grant.”

16. No doubt it is true that Section 13 of the
Mines and Minerals (Regulation & Development) Act,
1957 which was considered by the Court inter alia read
as follows:
"13. Power of Central Government to make
rules in respect of minerals. -
(1) The Central Government may, by
notification in the Official Gazette, make
rules for regulation the grant of prospecting
licences and mining leases in respect of
minerals and for purposes connected
therewith.
(2) In particular, and without prejudice to
the generality of the foregoing power, such
rules may provide for all or any of the
following matters, namely :-
* * * *
(i) the fixing and collection of dead rent
fines, fees or other charges and the
collection of royalties in respect of -
(i) prospecting licences,
(ii) mining leases,
(iii) minerals mined, quarried, excavated or
collected;
* * * *
(r) any other matter which is to be, or may
be, prescribed under this Act."
18
17. However, having regard to the connotation of
the word ‘regulate’ it would include power to control
the sale of liquor under the Act. Control of sale is
possible by providing for licences as it is through
licencing that the authority can provide for
conditions under which the sale could be best
controlled. If the power to regulate include the
power to stipulate licences it undoubtedly also would
include power to provide for number of licences qua
the State as a whole a matter which I have reasoned
does not fall under Section 58(2)(e) of the Act.
18. In the judgment of this court in Khoday
Distilleries Ltd. and Others v. State of Karnataka and
Others reported in 1996 (10) SCC 304, the issue arose
under the Karnataka Excise Act, 1965. Undoubtedly,
there is a provision therein which is pari materia
with Section 58(2)(e) of the Punjab Excise Act in the
Karnataka Excise Act, 1965 which has been extracted
at para 8 of the said judgment. The case in fact
related to a distributor licence and not wholesale or
retail licence which is what the provision speaks of.
19
19. The Court was not dealing with the specific
question which is posed before us as is clear from the
judgement. I have in fact, gone through the Karnataka
Excise Act and I find that while Section 71 confers
power on the State Government to make rules there is
no provision akin to Section 59 of the Punjab Excise
Act which confers power on any other authority in
which case it could not possibly be contended that
sub-section (2) of Section 71 would in any manner cut
down the width of the general power of Section 71(1)
for the State Government to make rules for the purpose
of the Act.
20. In such circumstances, I would respectfully
disagree with the majority view as expressed in the
judgment of my learned Brother Justice Navin Sinha.
I would confirm the finding by the learned Division
Bench of the High Court that the Financial
Commissioner has power to decide upon the number of
licenses.
21. Having expressed my disagreement with regard
to the finding of the sole issue which has been dealt
with in the majority judgment I must necessarily
20
proceed to consider the two other contentions which
has been raised by the appellant. The appellant has
contended that the rule leads to the creation of a
monopoly and what is really objectionable, in favour
of a private party and it is contrary to the guarantee
embedded under Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution.
The High Court has repelled this argument also. It
relied upon the judgment of this Court reported in
Khoday Distilleries Ltd. and Others Vs. State of
Karnataka and Others; 1995(1) SCC 574 wherein this
Court in paragraph 22 held as follows :
“22. In Cooverjee B. Bharucha v. Excise
Commissioner and the Chief Commissioner AIR 1954
SC 220, where the vires of Excise Regulation I
of 1915 was under challenge on the ground of
violation of Article 19(1)(g), the Constitution
Bench of five learned Judges, among other things,
held that:
(a)In order to determine the reasonableness of
restrictions, envisaged by Article 19(6), regard
must be had to the nature of the business and
the conditions prevailing in that trade. These
factors would differ from trade to trade and no
hard and fast rule concerning all trades can be
laid down. It cannot also be denied that the
State has the power to prohibit trades which are
illegal or immoral or injurious to the health
and welfare of the public. Laws prohibiting
trades in noxious or dangerous goods or
trafficking in women cannot be held to be illegal
as enacting a prohibition and not a mere
regulation. The nature of the business is,
therefore, an important element in deciding the
reasonableness of the restrictions. The right of
every citizen to pursue any lawful trade or
21
business is obviously subject to such reasonable
conditions as may be deemed by the governing
authority of the country essential to the safety,
health, peace, order and morals of the community.
Some occupations by the noise made in their
pursuit, some by the odours they engender, and
some by the dangers accompanying them require
regulation as to the locality in which they may
be conducted. Some, by the dangerous character
of the articles used, manufactured or sold,
require also special qualification in the
parties permitted to use them, manufacture or
sell them. The Court in this connection referred
to the observations of Field, J. in P. Crowley
v. Henry Christensen; 34 L ED 620 : 137 US 86
(1890) a part of which is as follows:
"The sale of such liquors in this way has,
therefore been, at all times, by the courts
of every State, considered as the proper
subject of legislative regulation. ... Their
sale in that form may be absolutely
prohibited. It is a question of public
expediency and public morality and not of
federal law. The police power of the State
is fully competent to regulate the business
to mitigate its evils or to suppress it
entirely. There is no inherent right in a
citizen to thus sell intoxicating liquors by
retail; it is not a privilege of a citizen
of the State or of a citizen of the United
States. As it is a business attended with
danger to the community, it may, as already
said, be entirely prohibited, or be
permitted under such conditions as will
limit to the utmost its evils. ... It is a
matter of legislative will only."
(b)The elimination and exclusion from business
is inherent in the nature of liquor business and
it will hardly be proper to apply to such a
business principles applicable to trade which
all could carry on. The provisions of the law
cannot be attacked merely on the ground that they
create a monopoly. Properly speaking, there can
be a monopoly only when a trade which could be
carried on by all persons is entrusted by law to
one or more persons to the exclusion of the
general public. Such, however, is not the case
with the business of liquor. The Court for this
purpose relied upon the following observations
of Lord Porter in Commonwealth of Australia v.
22
Bank of New South Wales; 1950 AC 235 : (1949) 2
AII ER 755:
"Yet about this, as about every other
proposition in this field, a reservation
must be made, for their Lordships do not
intend to lay it down that in no
circumstances could the exclusion of
competition so as to create a monopoly either
in a State or Commonwealth agency, or in some
other body, be justified. Every case must be
judged on its own facts and its own setting
of time."
(c)When the contract is thrown open to public
auction, it cannot be said that there is
exclusion of competition and thereby monopoly is
created.
(Emphasis supplied)

22. I may also refer to the judgment of this Court
in Maninderjit Singh Bitta v. Union of India and
others reported in 2005(1)SCC 679. In this case
undoubtedly the rule provided that there will be only
one license of the nature concerned. However, the
right to the license was settled by way of e-tender.
It was open to any person who is otherwise eligible
to participate in the e-tender. Undoubtedly the
guarantee of fairness of the State action and the
taboo against arbitrariness must inform the State
action once it decides to permit trade in liquor. It
is to be noticed that the introduction of the rule was
23
primarily to earn maximum profits. The case of the
state is that introduction of the rule has enabled
collection of greater amounts by way of revenue. This
cannot be said to be entirely an irrelevant
consideration. Going too far in these matters may
involve the court making a foray into the ordinarily
forbidden territory of policy.
23. No doubt, the appellant draws our attention
to the recent decision of this Court in The Kerala
Bar Hotels Association & Another v. State of Kerala
& Others AIR 2016 SC 163. In fact, one the
contentions of the appellants was that the state
had 3 options. The first is prohibition, the second
is State monopoly in manufacture or trade and the
third was to allow private players into the business
in which everyone has a right to partake in the
business. The court went on to hold inter alia as
follows:
“24. We disagree with the submissions of the
Respondents that there is no right to trade in
liquor because it is res extra commercium. The
interpretation of Khoday put forward by Mr.
Sundaram is, in our opinion, more acceptable. A
right under Article 19(1)(g) to trade in liquor
24
does exist provided the State permits any person
to undertake this business. It is further
qualified by Article 19(6) and Article 47. The
question, then, is whether the restrictions
imposed on the Appellants are reasonable.”
The Court found support from the judgment of this
Court in the Constitution Bench in Krishna Kumar
Narula v. State of Jammu & Kashmir AIR 1957 SC 1368
which took the view that dealing in liquor is a
legitimate business although the State could impose
reasonable restriction. The court however noted
that in Khoday’s case (supra), the concept of res
extra commercius came to be applied on the business
of manufacture and trade of potable liquor.
I may also notice paragraph 27 of The Kerala
Bar Hotels Association case (supra) which reads as
below:
“27. We now move to the arguments predicated
on Article 19 of the Constitution. We have already
noted that the business in potable liquor is in the
nature of res extra commercium and would therefore
be subject to more stringent restrictions than any
other trade or business. Thus while the ground
of Article 19(1)(g) can be raised, in light of the
arguments discussed with regard to Article 14, it
cannot be said that the qualification on that right
is unreasonable.”
(Emphasis supplied)
25
24. I would not lose sight of in the facts of this
case one dimension in this regard. The appellant is
an association of companies. Article 19 provides for
various fundamental freedoms. However, unlike Article
14 and 21, these freedoms are not conferred on noncitizens. In other words, Article 19 is confined to
citizens. It is well settled that a company though a
juristic person but not being a natural person is not
a citizen within the meaning of Article 19. The writ
petition is filed without joining any shareholder who
is a citizen. I would also take the view that
therefore reliance placed on Article 19 may not hold
good.
25. Judicial review of policy is justified
only if the policy is arbitrary or unfair or
violative of fundamental rights. Courts must be
loathe to venture into an evaluation of State
policy. I have noticed the principles enunciated
in paragraph 25 and also noted the view taken by
this Court in paragraph 27 of the Kerala Bar Hotel
Cases Supra. I may also notice that the question
26
which actually fell for consideration was in a
different factual matrix. I do not think that the
earlier view taken by this Court both in Cooverjee
B. Bharucha Vs. Excise Commissioner and the Chief
Commissioner, Ajmer and Others AIR 1954 SC 220 and
Khodays’ case (supra) in relation to the effect of
throwing open the right to obtain an exclusive
privilege not flowering into a monopoly has not been
overridden.
26. The third complaint of the appellant is
this. The assumption of the monopolistic position
by the licensee would lead to arbitrary and unfair
practices which would leave the members of the
appellant without redress. The High Court, it is
pointed out has rejected the contention by
essentially reasoning that the licensee as long as
it confirms to the conditions and law is a free
agent and shut out the prospect of judicial review.
This is what the High Court finds:-
“32. There may be some safeguards within the
policy which protect the rights of the upstream
licenses such as manufacturers as well as the
downstream licenses i.e. the purchasers, such as,
retailers and holders of licences for bars, clubs
and restaurants. There is no doubt, however,
that a sole wholesaler can pick and choose the
27
parties that he wishes to deal with and, in
effect, refuse to deal with those he does not
wish to deal with including by devising various
strategies. In doing so, the sole wholesaler can
also effectively promote and encourage a
particular brand or brands in preference to
others. For instance, he may grant a particular
dealer or a dealer in particular brands different
payment facilities and not grant the same to
others or others who deal in certain other
brands. There is nothing that stops him from
doing so. The question is whether that would
render the appointment of a sole wholesaler
illegal.
33. The State, we will presume, even in the
trade and business of liquor must act fairly and
impartially and not arbitrarily. We will presume
that in granting liquor licences and permits the
State cannot adopt a pick and choose policy and
must throw the field open to all those who are
otherwise eligible. In the present excise
policy, the State has permitted every eligible
party to bid. It has not discriminated against
or in favour of any party. The essential
criteria for the appointment of the wholesaler
is the value of the bid.
34. The challenge to the policy and to the
rule on the ground that the appointment of a sole
wholesaler in respect of an L-1BF Licence would
adversely affect the commercial interests of
those who he deals with or those who must deal
with him, such as, the petitioners is not well
founded. As we noted earlier, theoretically it
is possible that the commercial interests of
certain dealers and manufacturers will be
affected, in as much as, the sole wholesaler will
have the choice of who it would deal with. The
sole wholesaler would also be entitled to grant
better facilities to some of the dealers. That,
however, would not render the policy illegal. A
private party is entitled to deal with any person
or enterprise. The State, absent special
circumstances, cannot do so. We will presume it
cannot do so, even in so far as the trade and
business of liquor is concerned. However, once
a matter moves from the control of the State or
the instrumentalities of the State into the
hands of private enterprises, the restrictions
applicable to the State and its
instrumentalities cease to be applicable. This
28
is invariably the case in auctions and tenders.
Take for instance, a case where the State decides
to construct a building or a group of buildings.
It can do so itself to the exclusion of all
others. It is also entitled to engage private
parties to do so. The State cannot pick and
choose who to deal with. Absent any special
circumstances, the State would be bound to
consider the claim of every party that is
otherwise eligible to undertake the work.
However, once the State parts with its rights to
construct a building and hands it over to a
private enterprise, the matter ends there so far
as it concerns the work that it has contracted
to the private party. The contractor is not
bound to call for tenders in respect of every
item involved in the construction. The
contractor is not bound to consider the
application of every party for the supply of
material required for the construction of the
buildings. The contractor is entitled to obtain
the material from such parties as it desires and
on such terms and conditions that the contractor
desires. The suppliers of the material would
not be entitled to compel the contractor to
afford them an opportunity of supplying the
material. The rules of the game that apply to
a State or an instrumentality of the State do
not apply to such contractors.”
27. In this case, in fact, Mr. Gopal Subramanium,
learned senior counsel for the appellant drew our
attention to the fact that the figures would show that
the licensee has indeed being acting unfairly. It is
the case of the appellant that the sole licensee can
misuse his position in at least three ways. It is
contended that it is possible that the licensee
prefers certain brands to others inasmuch as it
concerns negotiation, longer credit period and other
29
terms and conditions. BIO suppliers would be at the
mercy of the licensee and they would have no option
but to reconcile with the terms and conditions which
would be laid down by the licensee. Secondly, it is
contended that failure to adhere with the terms and
conditions set out may result in a situation where a
particular brand would not be made available in the
State of Haryana. It is further contended that in
view of the monopolistic position enjoyed by the
licensee it may choose to promote certain brands over
others on account of unfair negotiating position made
available to it by the license. There are no checks
and balances to ensure that interest of other stake
holders is taken care of. Though the conditions
provide that the licensee will have to supply goods
demanded there are no means by which the actual demand
can be ascertained. It is further pointed out that
it is open to the licensee to offer discounts to the
retailers it seeks to favour. This results in
neutralizing the condition relating to the maximum
sale price being fixed by the excise authority.
Onerous conditions can be placed upon purchasers as
30
well as suppliers by the sole licensee and the lack
of checks and balances renders the same violative of
Article 14.
28. The guarantee of Article 14 against the State
undoubtedly embraces all spheres of its activities.
If the action falls foul of the mandate of Article 14
it is vulnerable, though different yardsticks may
operate. Undoubtedly the expression ‘state’ would
also include within its sweep an instrumentality of
the State as it would fall under the expression “other
authorities” in Article 12 of the Constitution. The
matter relating to which authorities fall under
Article 12 has been the subject matter of a catena of
decisions of this Court. The principles have been
culled out with sufficient clarity and I do not see
any occasion or any reason to dwell more upon the same
as the appellant even does not have a case that the
licensee would be an instrumentality of the state
within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution.
It is a trite law that an effort at bringing a body
within Article 12 must originate specifically in the
pleadings.
31
29. Pleadings in this case on this point is
conspicuous by its absence.
30. The appellant would point out that in fact,
after the new regime has been put in place, 5 star
hotels were not being provided sufficient stocks of
BIO products being supplied by the members of the
appellant. Further it is pointed out that immediately
upon grant of the licence in 2017, there has been a
sudden decline in the sales of BIO prod8ucts supplied
by the members of the appellant. The reason for this
decline is sought to be placed at the door step of
the sole licensee. The appellant has pointed out that
there has been sudden decline of 25% in the supply of
BIO brands of United Spirits Ltd.. There is a
reference of 30% decline of BIO products of Pernod
Ricard as well. There has been significant rise of
the product of Pernod Ricard in the neighboring states
of Rajasthan and Delhi, it is pointed out.
31. I would notice that many of the contentions
of the appellant are in the form of apprehensions
about what may happen in future. In fact, there is
a case for the respondents that no complaint as such
32
was moved against the licensee during the period.
The licensee is duty bound under the terms and
conditions of licence to submit pricing of each
brand at the time of approval of the brand. The
department is bound to approve the maximum sales
price factoring in various elements. The licensee
must indicate among other things, the landing price,
expenses, profit margin. The price is also
determined based on the prevalent rates of the same
and equivalent rate at the neighboring states and
the Government levies.
32. Furthermore, the exclusive licensee is
under the condition required to keep sufficient
stock of all brands as are demanded by the procuring
licensees and all such brands as were registered
with the department in 2016-17. Thus at least two
restrictions exist as in built safeguards which
operate against the exclusive licensee. The licensee
is obliged to keep sufficient number of stock of
all brands which are demanded by the procuring
licensees. In this case, the members of the
appellant would fall within the expression
33
‘procuring licensees’. Secondly, there is a
regulation of the maximum price which the exclusive
licensee can demand as the price is to be fixed by
the State itself. A question however, no doubt,
arises as to what would happen if the exclusive
licensee himself also operates retail outlets and
he promotes certain brands and/ or dampens the trade
in others. In the first place I would think that
ordinarily on the principle that a person would act
in his own self interest there would be no reason
for the licensee to deny himself the proceeds of
the higher turnover based on more sales as by
seeking to dampen the sale of certain brands it is
the licensee who would suffer a loss. Let me assume
however that he is placed in a situation where there
is a conflict of interest and by suppressing the
sale of certain brands and permitting the sale of
other brands the exclusive licensee is placed in a
more advantageous position, and therefore, he
prefers it. I must remind myself that the complaint
of the individual company would be that brand which
it wishes to import and deal in is not made
34
available. Quite clearly if there is any such
concrete incident which is pointed out, it would be
an infraction of the condition of the licence.
Certainly it would give rise to power with the
authorities to take suitable action as available in
law including in appropriate cases, cancellation of
the licence. If such provisions are not already
there I would observe that the State may devise
suitable provisions so that an individual who acts
as the licensee of the state would not do what the
State itself would be forbidden from doing under
the Constitution. I must also remind myself that
at the same time, the State has apparently gained
by way of enhanced collection of revenue by the new
regime put in place. The State’s power to
experiment in economic matters shall not suffer
invalidation at the hands of the Court. Such power
must be premised solely on State action falling foul
of the Constitution and the laws. State would
however do well to provide for a suitable mechanism
by which it can provide appropriate safeguards so
that there is fair dealing by the exclusive
35
licensee. Subject to the above observations I would
dismiss the appeal with no order as to costs.
………………………………….J.
 (K.M. Joseph)
New Delhi;
February 12, 2019

We are thus of the view that applicant was entitled for retiral benefits immediately after the date of retirement. We direct Respondent Nos.1 to 4 in Writ Petition (C)No.653 of 2015 to determine and pay the retirement benefits to the applicant, if not already paid, within a period of 02 months from today. We further direct that applicant should be paid interest @ 8% p.a. on retirement benefits after one month of retirement i.e. w.e.f. 01.07.2015, till the payment is made of the retiral benefits.


Hon'ble Mr. Justice Ashok Bhushan

REPORTABLE
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CIVIL APPEAL NO. 1577 Of 2019
UNION OF INDIA & ORS. ...APPELLANT(S)
VERSUS
C. GIRIJA & ORS. ...RESPONDENT(S)
WITH
CIVIL APPEAL NO. 1578 Of 2019
MEENA BHASKAR ...APPELLANT(S)
 VERSUS
C. GIRIJA & ORS. ...RESPONDENT(S)
AND
WRIT PETITION (CIVIL) NO. 653 Of 2015
C. GIRIJA ...APPELLANT(S)
 VERSUS
UNION OF INDIA & ORS. ...RESPONDENT(S)
J U D G M E N T
ASHOK BHUSHAN, J.
Two appeals, one by Union of India and one by
Meena Bhaskar, have been filed against the Division
Bench judgment of the Kerala High Court dated
1
06.02.2015. The writ petition under Article 32 has
been filed by C. Girija seeking direction to
implement the order passed by the Division Bench of
the High Court and the order of the Central
Administrative Tribunal in her favour.
2. Brief facts necessary to be noted for deciding
these appeals and writ petition are:
The Southern Railway, Divisional Office,
Personnel Branch issued a notification dated
14.10.1999 for selection of group ‘C’ employee to
Group ‘B’ within 30% quota by LDCE in Personnel
Department. The notification intimated total 5
vacancies (4 unreserved and 1 SC) to be filled up by
limited competitive Departmental examination under
30% quota. Smt. C.Girija working as Office
Superintendent Grade I, Personal Branch, Southern
Railway submitted her candidature as unreserved
category candidate. Smt. Meena Bhaskar also submitted
her candidature as reserved (SC) candidate. On
09.01.2001 after written test and viva voce a select
panel was issued which did not include name of
C.Girija against 4 unreserved posts. Name of Meena
2
Bhaskar was shown as selected candidate against one
SC post. According to her marks C.Girija was placed
at the panel as fifth candidate in unreserved
category. Promotion orders were issued on 09.01.2001,
candidates those included in the panel were promoted
as Assistant Personal Officer. Panel for 70% quota
was subsequently prepared and was also issued on
10.04.2001. Under 70% quota there were 13 vacancies
(10 unreserved, 2 SC, 1 ST) for selection to the post
of Assistant Personal Officer. The vacancies relate
to period from 01.10.1996 to 30.09.1998. Thus, total
vacancies, 18 were bifurcated into 30% and 70% quota.
The panel issued for 70% quota was revised on
20.06.2007, by including additional 2 SC employees
and excluding two junior unreserved employees.
Subsequently, on 05.09.2007 panel dated 20.06.2007
was again revised adjusting two unreserved employees.
The applicant C.Girija submitted a representation to
the General Manager, Southern Railway, Chennai dated
25.09.2007 requesting for her inclusion and promotion
against the post of APO against 30% quota in the
panel drawn on 09.01.2001. In her representation the
3
applicant referred to revision of the panel of 70%
quota by order dated 20.06.2007 and 05.09.2007. The
applicant in her representation also stated that
reserving one post for SC, against 30% quota was
against the norms. The representation submitted by
the applicant dated 25.09.2007 was replied by the
General Manager vide letter dated 27.12.2007. The
General Manager in his reply stated that the orders
issued by the Railways on 20.06.2007 and 05.09.2007
were relating to 70% quota with which applicant has
no concern. With regard to 5 posts under 30% quota it
was stated that selection was finalised on 09.01.2001
as per the reservation rules prevalent at the
relevant time. The appellant aggrieved by the
communication dated 27.12.2007 filed O.A. No.466 of
2009 before the Central Administrative Tribunal,
Ernakulam in which the applicant Smt. Meena Bhaskar,
the selected candidate was impleaded as respondent
No.9. Before the Tribunal the respondents filed their
reply. The Tribunal after considering the material on
record disposed of the matter vide its judgment and
order dated 09.11.2011. There was a delay of 560 days
4
in filing the O.A., the Tribunal condoned the delay
and decided the O.A. by passing the following order
in paragraphs 11 & 12:
“11. Annexure A-I dated 27.12.2007 is
quashed. The respondents are directed to
include the applicant in Annexure A-2 panel
on the basis of her qualifying marks and to
promote her notionally with effect from the
date the 9th respondent has been promoted to
the post of Assistant Personnel Officer.
The applicant should be placed above the 9th
respondent in the seniority list of APO for
the year 2001. The applicant should be
given regular posting as APO within a
period of 60 days from the date of receipt
of a copy of this order. The 9th respondent
who will be displaced from the Annexure A-2
panel should be adjusted against any
vacancy that arose subsequent to Annexure
A-2. The period from the date of promotion
of the respondent No.9 in 2001 to the date
her adjustment on a regular vacancy should
be regularised and appropriate orders in
this regard also should be issued within
the time stipulated above.
12. No order as to costs.”
3. Against the order of the Tribunal, 9th Respondent,
Meena Bhaskar filed Original Petition before the High
Court of Kerala being O.P. (CAT) No.82 of 2012. The
Union of India also filed O.P.(CAT) No.925 of 2012
before the High Court. The High Court vide its
judgment dated 03.04.2012 remanded the matter to the
5
Tribunal for fresh consideration of the relevant
issues. Against the judgment of the High Court, the
applicant C.Girija filed C.A.Nos.7181-82 of 2014 in
this Court. This Court set aside the judgment of the
High Court and remanded the matter to the High Court
for determination of the controversy on merits in
accordance with law. In pursuance of the judgment of
this Court dated 04.08.2014, the High Court heard the
parties and by judgment dated 06.02.2015 upheld the
order of the Tribunal and dismissed the Original
Petitions filed by the Union of India as well as
Meena Bhaskar, the 9th Respondent. Aggrieved by the
judgment of the High Court dated 06.02.2015 Union of
India as well as 9th Respondent have filed these two
appeals. The parties shall be referred to as
described before the Tribunal.
4. Writ Petition No.653 of 2015 has been filed by
the applicant C. Girija under Article 32 praying for
direction to the respondent to fix the pay of the
petitioner as per the direction of the Tribunal dated
09.11.2014 as upheld by the High Court. The applicant
in writ petition has also claimed for a direction
6
directing the respondent to pay her full retiral
benefits along with interest since she retired on
31st May, 2015.
5. Shri K.M. Nataraj, learned ASG appearing for
Union of India submitted that the claim of applicant
of inclusion in the Panel declared on 09.01.2001 was
barred by laches and delay. The Tribunal and High
Court committed error in entertaining the claim of
the applicant and issuing direction for inclusion in
panel. It is submitted that cause of action arose to
applicant when the notification dated 14.10.1999 was
issued earmarking 05 vacancies under 30% LDCE quota,
out of which 04 were unreserved and 01 was reserved.
The applicant participated in the selection without
raising any objection and it was only after more than
06 years, she filed a representation on 25.09.2007.
By filing of the representation after more than 06
years, delay and laches cannot be condoned. The mere
fact that the representation was replied on
27.12.2007 shall not give any fresh cause of action
to the applicant.
7
6. Learned ASG submits that the applicant having
participated without raising any objection regarding
allocation of 01 vacancy to SC candidate, it was not
open for her to challenge the same after such long
delay. Learned ASG further submitted that even on
merits, the case of the applicant has no legs to
stand. It is submitted that the cadre strength being
total 37, the total of existing vacancies, vacancies
likely to arise within two years as well as 30% as
construction reserve, total vacancies were calculated
as 18 and out of 18, 13 were allocated to 70%
selection and 05 were allocated to 30% Limited
Departmental Competitive Examination (LDCE). Out of
05, although initially under calculation 05 were
shown to be allocated to general category but after
objection by Nodal Officer, who was entrusted to
implement the reservation, the 05 vacancies were
bifurcated into 04 unreserved and 01 reserved, which
was approved by General Manager. Consequently, the
notification was issued on 14.10.1999 providing for
01 SC and 04 unreserved category vacancies.
7. Learned counsel appearing for the applicant
8
refuting the submission of the learned ASG submits
that there was no delay and laches on the part of the
applicant. Applicant’s husband has sent several
representations right from 2002. The applicant came
to know about several facts regarding irregularities
in selection when the matter was being investigated
by CBI. The applicant when came to know about
relevant facts, she filed representation on
25.09.2007. The Tribunal had condoned the delay of
560 days and allowed the O.A. on merits, hence
question of delay cannot be pressed in service. It
is further submitted that under 30% LDCE quota, two
SC category candidates were already in place namely,
Shri A. Balachander and Shri J. Senguttuvan, hence no
vacancy should have been allocated to SC quota under
30% selection notified on 14.10.1999. He submits that
there was ample material before the Tribunal that
above two SC category candidates being already
working under 30% under SC quota, no vacancy should
have been allocated to 30% LDCE. He submits that in
spite of direction of the Tribunal and High Court,
applicant never got promotion nor benefit of any pay
9
fixation. Applicant retired on 31.05.2015.
Consequently, she had to file a Writ Petition No. 653
of 2015 seeking a direction to compute all her
benefits of promotion and all retiral benefits on the
promoted post.
8. Learned counsel appearing for the 9th respondent
adopts the submission made by learned ASG. Refuting
the submission of the learned counsel appearing for
the applicant it is submitted that the case of the
applicant was highly delayed. Cause of action arose
to the applicant on 14.10.1999 and 09.01.2001 and the
representation was submitted by her after more than
06 years and by mere reply of the representation will
not give fresh cause of action to the applicant to
rake up the matter before the Tribunal. In the
Tribunal and the High Court, the plea of delay and
laches was pressed but both ignored the laches on the
part of the applicant. On account of the promotion
granted to the 9th respondent on 09.01.2001, the 9th
respondent was entitled to sit back. The promotion
having not been challenged within reasonable time,
the promotion granted to the 9
th respondent cannot be
10
adversely affected after such a long delay. The
findings recorded by the Tribunal and High Court on
the question of allocation of vacancies were also
perverse.
9. Learned counsel for the parties in support of
their respective submissions have relied on various
judgments of this Court, which shall be referred to
while considering the submissions in detail.
10. From the submissions of the learned counsel of
the parties and materials on record, following two
issues arise for consideration:-
(i) Whether the claim of the applicant to be
included in the Panel dated 09.01.2001 for
promotion as APO was barred by delay and
laches?
(ii) Whether under 30% quota of LDCE, all the 05
vacancies ought to have been made
unreserved and notification dated
14.10.1999 making 04 vacancies unreserved
and 01 vacancy reserved for SC was illegal?
11
Issue No.1
11. There is no dispute between the parties that in
the notification dated 14.10.1999 inviting
applications for filling up of 05 posts under 30%
LDCE quota, 04 vacancies were shown as unreserved and
01 as reserved for SC. The applicant submitted an
application for participation in the selection but
she could not be included against 04 unreserved
vacancies, she being a general category candidate.
There were certain complaints with regard to
selection under 70% quota, with regard to which
certain investigations were going on, which could be
finalized in 2007. Applicant for the first time
submitted representation to General Manager, Southern
Railways on 25.09.2007 praying for inclusion of her
name in the panel dated 09.01.2001. Copy of the
representation filed by the applicant has been
brought on the record, which indicate that applicant
has in her representation relied on certain orders
issued on 20.06.2007 and 05.09.2007 with regard to
revision of the panel under 70% selection quota.
With regard to 30% quota to be filled through LDCE,
12
she stated that reserving 01 post for SC was totally
against all norms. Representation was replied by
Railways on 27.12.2007 stating that with regard to
revision of the panel under 70% promotion quota, the
applicant is not a party in any way. With regard to
vacancy under 30% LDCE selection, it was indicated
that the same was done as per the Rules prevalent at
that time. O.A. No. 466 of 2009 was filed thereafter
by the applicant, which has been decided by the
Tribunal. Tribunal condoned the delay of 560 days in
filing the O.A. The applicant has challenged the
communication dated 27.12.2007 of the Railways which
was given in reply to the representation of the
applicant. The condonation of delay, thus, only
meant that against the letter dated 27.12.2007, her
O.A. was held to be within time. The Tribunal and
High Court has not adverted to the delay, which
accrued from the declaration of panel on 09.01.2001
and submitting her representation on 25.09.2007, i.e.
after more than 06 years and 09 months.
12. This Court had occasion to consider the question
of cause of action in reference to grievances
13
pertaining to service matters. This Court in C.Jacob
Vs. Director of Geology and Mining and Another,
(2008) 10 SCC 115 had occasion to consider the case
where an employee was terminated and after decades,
he filed a representation, which was decided. After
decision of the representation, he filed an O.A. in
the Tribunal, which was entertained and order was
passed. In the above context, in paragraph No.9,
following has been held:-
“9. The courts/tribunals proceed on the
assumption, that every citizen deserves a
reply to his representation. Secondly, they
assume that a mere direction to consider
and dispose of the representation does not
involve any “decision” on rights and
obligations of parties. Little do they
realise the consequences of such a
direction to “consider”. If the
representation is considered and accepted,
the ex-employee gets a relief, which he
would not have got on account of the long
delay, all by reason of the direction to
“consider”. If the representation is
considered and rejected, the ex-employee
files an application/writ petition, not
with reference to the original cause of
action of 1982, but by treating the
rejection of the representation given in
2000, as the cause of action. A prayer is
made for quashing the rejection of
representation and for grant of the relief
claimed in the representation. The
tribunals/High Courts routinely entertain
such applications/petitions ignoring the
huge delay preceding the representation,
14
and proceed to examine the claim on merits
and grant relief. In this manner, the bar
of limitation or the laches gets
obliterated or ignored.”
13. This Court again in the case of Union of India
and Others Vs. M.K. Sarkar, (2010) 2 SCC 59 on
belated representation laid down following, which is
extracted below:-
“15. When a belated representation in
regard to a “stale” or “dead” issue/dispute
is considered and decided, in compliance
with a direction by the court/tribunal to
do so, the date of such decision cannot be
considered as furnishing a fresh cause of
action for reviving the “dead” issue or
time-barred dispute. The issue of
limitation or delay and laches should be
considered with reference to the original
cause of action and not with reference to
the date on which an order is passed in
compliance with a court’s direction.
Neither a court’s direction to consider a
representation issued without examining the
merits, nor a decision given in compliance
with such direction, will extend the
limitation, or erase the delay and laches.”
14. Again, this Court in State of Uttaranchal and
Another Vs. Shiv Charan Singh Bhandari and Others,
(2013) 12 SCC 179 had occasion to consider question
of delay in challenging the promotion. The Court
further held that representations relating to a stale
15
claim or dead grievance does not give rise to a fresh
cause of action. In Paragraph Nos. 19 and 23
following was laid down:-
“19. From the aforesaid authorities it is
clear as crystal that even if the court or
tribunal directs for consideration of
representations relating to a stale claim
or dead grievance it does not give rise to
a fresh cause of action. The dead cause of
action cannot rise like a phoenix.
Similarly, a mere submission of
representation to the competent authority
does not arrest time.
23. In State of T.N. v. Seshachalam, (2007)
10 SCC 137, this Court, testing the
equality clause on the bedrock of delay and
laches pertaining to grant of service
benefit, has ruled thus: (SCC p. 145, para
16)
“16. … filing of representations
alone would not save the period of
limitation. Delay or laches is a
relevant factor for a court of law to
determine the question as to whether
the claim made by an applicant
deserves consideration. Delay and/or
laches on the part of a government
servant may deprive him of the
benefit which had been given to
others. Article 14 of the
Constitution of India would not, in a
situation of that nature, be
attracted as it is well known that
law leans in favour of those who are
alert and vigilant.”
15. This Court referring to an earlier judgment in
16
P.S. Sadasivaswamy Vs. State of Tamil Nadu, (1975) 1
SCC 152 noticed that a person aggrieved by an order
of promoting a junior over his head should approach
the Court at least within six months or at the most a
year of such promotion. In Paragraph No. 26 and 28,
following was laid down:-
“26. Presently, sitting in a time machine,
we may refer to a two-Judge Bench decision
in P.S. Sadasivaswamy v. State of T.N.,
(1975) 1 SCC 152, wherein it has been laid
down that: (SCC p. 154, para 2)
“2. … A person aggrieved by an order
of promoting a junior over his head
should approach the Court at least
within six months or at the most a
year of such promotion. It is not
that there is any period of
limitation for the courts to exercise
their powers under Article 226 nor is
it that there can never be a case
where the courts cannot interfere in
a matter after the passage of a
certain length of time. But it would
be a sound and wise exercise of
discretion for the courts to refuse
to exercise their extraordinary
powers under Article 226 in the case
of persons who do not approach it
expeditiously for relief and who
stand by and allow things to happen
and then approach the Court to put
forward stale claims and try to
unsettle settled matters.”
28. Remaining oblivious to the factum of
delay and laches and granting relief is
contrary to all settled principles and even
17
would not remotely attract the concept of
discretion. We may hasten to add that the
same may not be applicable in all
circumstances where certain categories of
fundamental rights are infringed. But, a
stale claim of getting promotional benefits
definitely should not have been entertained
by the Tribunal and accepted by the High
Court.”
16. On the preposition as noticed above, it is clear
that the claim of the applicant for inclusion of her
name in the panel, which was issued on 09.01.2001 and
for the first time was raked up by her, by filing
representation on 25.09.2007, i.e., after more than
06 and half years. The claim of inclusion in the
panel had become stale by that time and filing of
representation will not give any fresh cause of
action. Thus, mere fact that representation was
replied by Railways on 27.12.2007, a stale claim
shall not become a live claim. Both Tribunal and
High Court did not advert to this important aspect of
the matter. It is further to be noted from the
material on record that after declaration of panel on
09.01.2001, there were further selection under 30%
promotion by LDCE quota, in which the applicant
participated. In selection held in 2005 she
18
participated and was declared unsuccessful. With
regard to her non-inclusion in panel in 2005
selection, she also filed O.A. No. 629 of 2006 before
the Tribunal, which was dismissed. After
participating in subsequent selections under 30%
quota and being declared unsuccessful, by mere filing
representation on 27.09.2007 with regard to selection
made in 2001, the delay and laches shall not be wiped
out.
17. There is one more aspect of the matter, which
need to be noted. The applicant was well aware that
under 30% LDCE quota, out of 05 vacancies, 04 are
unreserved and 01 is reserved, which was circulated
by notification dated 14.10.1999. She applied against
the said bifurcated vacancies and was interviewed on
08.01.2001, panel of which was declared on 09.01.2001
and promotion was made on the same day. She having
participated in the selection for promotion under 30%
LDCE quota and the bifurcation of the vacancies being
part of the process of selection, it was not open for
her to challenge the bifurcation of vacancies into
general and reserved after taking a chance to get
19
selected. In this context, reference is made to
judgment of this Court in Ashok Kumar and Another Vs.
State of Bihar and Others, (2017) 4 SCC 357. This
Court after referring to several earlier judgments
have laid down following in Paragraph Nos. 13 to 18:-
“13. The law on the subject has been
crystallised in several decisions of this
Court. In Chandra Prakash Tiwari v.
Shakuntala Shukla, (2002) 6 SCC 127, this
Court laid down the principle that when a
candidate appears at an examination without
objection and is subsequently found to be
not successful, a challenge to the process
is precluded. The question of entertaining
a petition challenging an examination would
not arise where a candidate has appeared
and participated. He or she cannot
subsequently turn around and contend that
the process was unfair or that there was a
lacuna therein, merely because the result
is not palatable. In Union of India v. S.
Vinodh Kumar, (2007) 8 SCC 100, this Court
held that: (SCC p. 107, para 18)
“18. It is also well settled that
those candidates who had taken part
in the selection process knowing
fully well the procedure laid down
therein were not entitled to question
the same. (See Munindra Kumar v.
Rajiv Govil, (1991) 3 SCC 368 and
Rashmi Mishra v. M.P. Public Service
Commission, (2006) 12 SCC 724.)”
14. The same view was reiterated in Amlan
Jyoti Borooah, (2009) 3 SCC 227, wherein it
was held to be well settled that the
candidates who have taken part in a
selection process knowing fully well the
20
procedure laid down therein are not
entitled to question it upon being declared
to be unsuccessful.
15. In Manish Kumar Shahi v. State of
Bihar, (2010) 12 SCC 576, the same
principle was reiterated in the following
observations: (SCC p. 584, para 16)
“16. We also agree with the High
Court that after having taken part in
the process of selection knowing
fully well that more than 19% marks
have been earmarked for viva voce
test, the petitioner is not entitled
to challenge the criteria or process
of selection. Surely, if the
petitioner’s name had appeared in the
merit list, he would not have even
dreamed of challenging the selection.
The petitioner invoked jurisdiction
of the High Court under Article 226
of the Constitution of India only
after he found that his name does not
figure in the merit list prepared by
the Commission. This conduct of the
petitioner clearly disentitles him
from questioning the selection and
the High Court did not commit any
error by refusing to entertain the
writ petition. Reference in this
connection may be made to the
judgments in Madan Lal v. State of
J&K, (1995) 3 SCC 486, Marripati
Nagaraja v. State of A.P., (2007) 11
SCC 522, Dhananjay Malik v. State of
Uttaranchal, (2008) 4 SCC 171, Amlan
Jyoti Borooah v. State of Assam,
(2009) 3 SCC 327 and K.A. Nagamani v.
Indian Airlines, (2009) 5 SCC 515.”
16. In Vijendra Kumar Verma v. Public
Service Commission, (2011) 1 SCC 150,
21
candidates who had participated in the
selection process were aware that they were
required to possess certain specific
qualifications in computer operations. The
appellants had appeared in the selection
process and after participating in the
interview sought to challenge the selection
process as being without jurisdiction. This
was held to be impermissible.
17. In Ramesh Chandra Shah v. Anil Joshi,
(2013) 11 SCC 309, candidates who were
competing for the post of Physiotherapist
in the State of Uttarakhand participated in
a written examination held in pursuance of
an advertisement. This Court held that if
they had cleared the test, the respondents
would not have raised any objection to the
selection process or to the methodology
adopted. Having taken a chance of
selection, it was held that the respondents
were disentitled to seek relief under
Article 226 and would be deemed to have
waived their right to challenge the
advertisement or the procedure of
selection. This Court held that: (SCC p.
318, para 18)
“18. It is settled law that a person
who consciously takes part in the
process of selection cannot,
thereafter, turn around and question
the method of selection and its
outcome.”
18. In Chandigarh Admn. v. Jasmine Kaur,
(2014) 10 SCC 521, it was held that a
candidate who takes a calculated risk or
chance by subjecting himself or herself to
the selection process cannot turn around
and complain that the process of selection
was unfair after knowing of his or her nonselection. In Pradeep Kumar Rai v. Dinesh
Kumar Pandey, (2015) 11 SCC 493, this Court
held that: (SCC p. 500, para 17)
22
“17. Moreover, we would concur with
the Division Bench on one more point
that the appellants had participated
in the process of interview and not
challenged it till the results were
declared. There was a gap of almost
four months between the interview and
declaration of result. However, the
appellants did not challenge it at
that time. This, it appears that only
when the appellants found themselves
to be unsuccessful, they challenged
the interview. This cannot be
allowed. The candidates cannot
approbate and reprobate at the same
time. Either the candidates should
not have participated in the
interview and challenged the
procedure or they should have
challenged immediately after the
interviews were conducted.”
This principle has been reiterated in a
recent judgment in Madras Institute of
Development Studies v. K. Sivasubramaniyan,
(2016) 1 SCC 454”.
18. We, thus, due to the above both the reasons, are
of the view that the Tribunal and the High Court
ought not to have entertained the stale claim of the
applicant.
Issue No.2
19. Issue No.2 pertains to calculation of the
vacancies. Before the Tribunal, an affidavit was
23
filed by Deputy Chief Personnel Officer, Southern
Railway explaining the determination of vacancies for
selection. The affidavit is on the record. The
affidavit indicates that in selection for the period
01.10.1996 to 30.09.1998, total vacancies calculated
were 18, out of which 13 was allocated to 70% regular
selection and 05 vacancies to 30% LDCE quota.
Initially, the calculation sheet with regard to 30%
LDCE quota shown all 05 vacancies as unreserved but
when Nodal Officer examined the same, he was of the
view that vacancies to be consumed under 30% LDCE
quota should be from point No.10 to 14 and Point No.
14 is reserved for SC. The calculation further
indicates that two SC candidates Shri A. Balachander
and Shri J. Senguttuvan were already working. Thus,
05 vacancies were to be reserved for SC candidates
out of cadre of 37. Two SC candidates being already
working there was shortfall of 03, for which 02
vacancies were earmarked under 70% and 01 under 30%.
In this context, reference to Paragraph No. 8 to 12
of the affidavit is relevant, which are as follows:-
“8. However, the above distribution was made
as if the roster point accrues from point
24
number 9 to 13 of the roster (all these
roster points are UR) for 30% selection.
Whereas the 9th point has already been
consumed by Shri Srinivasa Raghavan who was
selected and empaneled during 1996-97.
Therefore, the actual point to be consumed
should be from Point No.10 to 14 of which
point No. 10 to 13 are UR, and 14th point
reserved for SC.
9. I submit that as per procedure involved
in the second stage this proposal was put
up to Senior Personnel Officer/Reservation
for his verification on the application of
reservation rules. Senior Personnel
Officer/Reservation noticed that the
accrual of points should be 10 to 14 (14th
point reserved for SC) and not as Point
No.9 to 13 and he amended the proposal
(Annexure-R.10) as under:-
TOTAL UR SC ST
for 70% Regular
Selection 18X70
 100
13@ 10 2 1
@ as per 40 point roster, the point to be
consumed was No.12 to 24 which includes 25C
(Point No.14 & 22) and 1 ST point (Point
No.17) (Annexure-A.6-page No.34 of the OA)
TOTAL UR SC ST
for 30% LDCE 18X30
 100
5$ 4 1 --
$ as per 40 point roster, the point to be
consumed was No.10 to 14 which includes 1
SC (Point No.14)(Annexure-A.6-page No.32 of
the OA)
The amended proposal was submitted to
the General Manager through the Chief
Liaison Officer viz. Chief Personnel
Officer.
25
10. I submit that as per the 3rd stage the
vetted figure as shown below was approved
by the competent authority viz. General
Manager on 24.10.1996 and notified
accordingly:
TOTAL UR SC ST
for 70% Regular
Selection 18X70
 100
13@ 10 2 1
for 30% LDCE 18X30
 100
5$ 4 1 --
11. I submit that the requirement of
reservation in APO cadre was as under:
Cadre
Strength
Required
Reservation
Available Cadre
Shortfall
SC
(15%)
ST
(7.5%)
SC ST SC ST
37 5 3 2 1 3 2
(Annexure-A.5-page No.31 of the OA)
Accordingly, as per requirement of
reservation in the cadre the distribution
of 18 vacancies among UR/SC/ST would be as
follows:-
UR SC ST TOTAL
13 3 2 18
Further, the shortfall of SC was
distributed among 70% and 30% selections as
under by following roster:
UR SC ST TOTAL
For 70% Regular
selection
10 2 1 13
For 30% LDCE 4 1 -- 5
Total 14 3 1 18
12. I submit that the selection for the post
of Assistant Personnel Officer through 30%
26
Limited Departmental Competitive
Examination is a part of 70% regular
selection. Therefore, the assessment of
vacancies of the 70% regular selection and
Limited Departmental Competitive
Examination 30% has to be taken for the
period from 01.10.1996 to 30.09.1998 and
there is no provision for taking vacancies
accrued after 01.10.1998. Though the
selection for the post of Assistant
Personnel Officer through Limited
Departmental Competitive Examination held
during 2001, while regular 70% selection
held during 1998, the assessment of
vacancies is limited up to 30.09.1998 and
vacancies accrued after 01.10.1998 were
taken only for subsequent selection.”
20. The Tribunal took the view that there being 02 SC
candidates already available under 30% LDCE quota, no
further vacancy ought to have been allocated under
30% quota for SC.
21. The Tribunal and the High Court both have
observed that any vacancy coming after the relevant
period ought not to have been taken. Those
observations were in context of vacancy, which arose
due to promotion of A. Balchandar on 03.01.2001. In
the affidavit, in Paragraph No. 12, it was clearly
mentioned that assessment of vacancies is limited up
to 30.09.1998 and vacancies accrued after 01.10.1998
27
were taken only for subsequent selection. Thus, it
is clear that in computation for vacancies under 30%,
no vacancy, which had arisen out of relevant period
was taken. Learned counsel for the applicant has
much emphasized that under 30% both, i.e., Shri A.
Balachander and Shri J. Senguttuvan being available,
there could not have been 01 further vacancy reserved
for Sc. In this context, Paragraph No. 8 of the
affidavit as noticed above is relevant, where it is
mentioned that the roster point from point number 9
to 13 of the roster was for 30% selection. But 9th
point having already been consumed by Shri Srinivas
Raghavan, who was selected and empaneled during 1996-
97, therefore, the actual point to be consumed should
be from point No. 10 to 14. Point No. 14 being
reserved for SC, 05 vacancies but 30% quota were
distributed accordingly and out of which 01 vacancy
was allocated to SC. Thus, there was plausible
explanation for determination of vacancies given by
the Railways. The explanation with regard to roster
point as given by the Railways has not been adverted
to by High Court or Tribunal. We, thus, are of the
28
view that explanation by the Railway was a plausible
explanation, which was not such as to give a cause
for interference by the Tribunal and the High Court.
Thus, we are of the view that the above ground for
interference as given by the Tribunal and the High
Court is unsustainable.
22. At last, the learned counsel for the applicant
has submitted that although applicant has retired on
31.05.2015 but due to pendency of these litigations,
her retirement benefits have not been finalized. The
applicant having retired on 31.05.2015 there was no
impediment to compute and pay her retirement benefits
without prejudice to the claim of Railways. The delay
in payment of retiral benefits has to be compensated
by directing payment of interest.
23. We are thus of the view that applicant was
entitled for retiral benefits immediately after the
date of retirement. We direct Respondent Nos.1 to 4
in Writ Petition (C)No.653 of 2015 to determine and
pay the retirement benefits to the applicant, if not
already paid, within a period of 02 months from
today. We further direct that applicant should be
29
paid interest @ 8% p.a. on retirement benefits after
one month of retirement i.e. w.e.f. 01.07.2015, till
the payment is made of the retiral benefits. In
result, the Civil Appeal No. 1577 of 2019 and Civil
Appeal No. 1578 of 2019 are allowed and the Writ
Petition (C) No. 653 of 2015 is disposed of with the
aforesaid directions.

......................J.
 (ASHOK BHUSHAN )
......................J.
 (K.M. JOSEPH )
New Delhi,
February 13, 2019.
30

The respondents/detenues claimed default bail in view of the failure of the appellant/State to file a charge-sheet within ninety (90) days, under the provisions of Section 43D of The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (hereinafter referred to as the ‘said Act’) and also for seeking extension for completion of investigation, for a period of ninety (90) further days, in a manner that did not meet with the requirements of the proviso to sub-section (2)(b) of Section 43D of the said Act. = We are, thus, not able to persuade ourselves to agree with the conclusions of the learned single Judge of the Bombay High Court in the impugned order and hold that the respondents would not be entitled to the benefit of default bail and consequently the impugned order is set aside. We may, however, clarify that since the charge-sheet has been filed, any observations made by us herein, would not, in any manner, affect the right of the respondents to seek regular bail from the trial court, if so advised, which would be decided on its own merits by the trial court.


Hon'ble Mr. Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul
 REPORTABLE
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CRIMINAL APPEAL No.264 of 2019
[Arising out of SLP (CRL.) No.9199 of 2018]
THE STATE OF MAHARASHTRA ….Appellant
versus
SURENDRA PUNDLIK GADLING & ORS. ….Respondents
J U D G M E N T
SANJAY KISHAN KAUL, J.
1. Leave granted.
2. The respondents/detenues claimed default bail in view of the
failure of the appellant/State to file a charge-sheet within ninety (90)
days, under the provisions of Section 43D of The Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act, 1967 (hereinafter referred to as the ‘said Act’) and also
1
for seeking extension for completion of investigation, for a period of
ninety (90) further days, in a manner that did not meet with the
requirements of the proviso to sub-section (2)(b) of Section 43D of the
said Act. The latter has become an issue of contention inasmuch as it has
been argued that the endeavour of the State Government cannot be said
to indicate the submission of a ‘report of the Public Prosecutor’,
specifying reasons for detention beyond the period of ninety (90) days.
3. An F.I.R. was lodged by one Tushar Ramesh Damgude on
8.1.2018 at Vishrambaug Police Station, Pune under Sections 153-A,
505(1)(b), 117, & 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, seeking to report an
incident that occurred at Shaniwarwada, Pune on 31.12.2017. It has been
alleged that between 2:00 p.m. and 10:00 p.m., on 31.12.2017, at
Shaniwarwada, Pune, members of the ‘Kabir Kala Manch’, under the
head ‘Bhima Koregaon Shouryadin Prerna Abhiyan’, held a meeting of
the Elgar Parishad, where active members of CPI (Maoist) supposedly
raised inflammatory slogans and engaged in certain other allied activities,
with the intention to conspire, incite and abet the commission of terrorist
acts and other unlawful activities by using violent means, thus,
promoting enmity between different groups, which ultimately culminated
2
in the break-out of violent riots on 1.1.2018, at a place popularly known
as Bhima Koregaon, where a large population of people was said to have
gathered to celebrate the 200th anniversary of the battle at Bhima
Koregaon. In the process of investigation, the police alleged that the
accused persons, along with other accused are active members of the
banned organisation, CPI (Maoist), and that it was under the connivance,
guidance and directions of this banned organisation that the event of the
nature, as occurred on 31.12.2017, was organised through a frontal
organisation going by the name of ‘Kabir Kala Manch’. In the search
and seizure operations conducted, respondents were found to be in
possession of Naxalite literature, pamphlets, letters, correspondence,
audio-video electronic devices and other material, which were alleged to
be used for inciting people, to create violence and cause public disorder.
Some of the respondents were also stated to be financiers of the illegal
activity and it was also alleged that students from an eminent educational
institution were taken to the forest area, occupied by Maoist Guerrilla, to
meet underground Naxalites and indoctrinate and train them. The entire
endeavour was alleged to be an attempt to create an atmosphere that
would motivate minority groups against the Union of India and the State
3
of Maharashtra and create public disorder, aimed at vilifying the
sovereignty, security and integrity of the nation and striking terror in the
heart of peaceful citizens. It is in pursuance of such investigation and
material found that offences under Section 120B of the IPC along with
Sections 13, 16, 17, 18, 18B, 20, 38, 39 & 40 of the said Act came to be
added to the charges.
4. After the initial police custody, judicial custody of the respondents
was sought, for a period of 90 days, for completion of investigation,
which period came to an end on 3.9.2018. The proviso to Section 43D(2)
(b) of the said Act was pressed into service for seeking an extension of
custody by another 90 days. The relevant provision reads as under:
“43D. Modified application of certain provisions of the Code.—
xxxx xxxx xxxx xxxx xxxx
(2) Section 167 of the Code shall apply in relation to a case involving
an offence punishable under this Act subject to the modification that
in sub-section (2),—
xxxx xxxx xxxx xxxx xxxx
(b) after the proviso, the following provisos shall be inserted, namely:

“Provided further that if it is not possible to complete the
investigation within the said period of ninety days, the Court may if it
is satisfied with the report of the Public Prosecutor indicating the
4
progress of the investigation and the specific reasons for the detention
of the accused beyond the said period of ninety days, extend the said
period up to one hundred and eighty days:”
5. An application was purportedly preferred by the Investigating
Officer (herein referred to as the ‘IO’), Dr. Shivaji Panditrao Pawar, on
30.8.2018, which was submitted through the District Government
Pleader, Shivajinagar. Reasons for extension of time were set out, i.e.,
non-receipt of some mirror images from the FSL in respect of electronic
devices, large-scale data collected requiring more time for analysis, bank
details of the accused and some other details not being received, further
inquiry required about objectionable contents of documents and
correspondence seized, further time required for investigation about
funds, further time also required to investigate whether there were some
other accused, etc. It appears that there was a realisation that the
application may not meet the legal requirements for seeking an extension
of time for investigation and thus, on the same day itself, another
application was submitted. The title of the application suggests that it
was submitted by the State of Maharashtra (through the Assistant
Commissioner of Police, Swargate Division, Pune City). A perusal of the
document suggests that it is an application under Section 43D of the said
5
Act, for an extension of a period of 90 days, for further investigation and
filing of charge-sheet in the said crime. The grounds have been set out in
detail from sub-para (a) to (l). At the end of the application, it has been
stated that it is filed by the applicant, and on the left side it is written
“Smt. Ujwala S. Pawar, District Govt. Pleader & Public Prosecutor,
Pune”, who has appended her signature thereto.
6. An order regarding this application was passed by the Special
Judge and the Additional Sessions Judge on 2.9.2018, acceding to the
request made in the application. The order records that all the accused
persons and their counsel, the IO and the DGP were present in the Court
and that arguments were submitted on behalf of the prosecution. The
following was recorded with respect to the accused, “However, the
accused persons and their counsels submitted that they are not willing to
submit anything.” The case diary was perused and prima facie it is stated
to have revealed a collection of voluminous data in electronic form, some
of which showed the involvement of the respondents in the alleged
commission of the offence. Such record, it was observed, had been sent
to the FSL and reports were awaited. Some of the papers collected by the
IO also showed that students from Tata Institute of Social Science were
6
taken by accused Mahesh Rao to a forest area of Maoist Guerilla, to meet
underground Naxalite and to train them. Since the investigation was in
progress and at a crucial stage, and there had been certain progress in the
investigation, the period for investigation was extended beyond 90 days,
upto 180 days.
7. The aforesaid order was challenged in the writ petition, before the
Bombay High Court. Vide impugned order dated 24.10.2018, the pleas
of the respondents found favour with the learned single Judge of the
Bombay High Court inasmuch as on the basis of the records, a finding
was reached that the Public Prosecutor could not be said to have applied
his mind and, thus, the mandatory requirement of the proviso of clause
(b) of sub-section (2) of Section 43D of the said Act was not met.
8. Aggrieved by the said order, the State of Maharashtra preferred
two SLPs before this Court, in which notice was issued and operation of
the order was stayed on 29.10.2018.
9. In the conspectus of the aforesaid facts, the sole question which
arises for consideration is whether the application presented on
30.8.2018, under the proviso to Section 43D(2)(b) of the said Act,
conforms to the norms laid down by that provision, as enunciated in the
7
judgments of this Court.
10. Mr. Mukul Rohatgi, learned Senior Counsel advanced submission
on behalf of the State Government/appellant while Dr. A.M. Singhvi, Ms.
Indira Jaising and Mr. Anand Grover, Senior Advocates advanced the
case of the respondents.
11. We are setting forth the scope of the controversy under different
heads:
Respondents had never argued their case before the trial court:
12. Learned senior counsel for the State of Maharashtra sought to
contend that the order sheet of the trial court itself shows that the counsel
for the respondents and the respondents present refused to make
submissions before the trial court. It was submitted that in such a
scenario, a writ petition filed by these respondents ought not to have been
entertained.
13. On the other hand, learned senior counsel for the respondents
contended that the matter was not as simple as was sought to be made out
by learned senior counsel for the appellant. In a nutshell, it was pleaded
that there was no sufficient opportunity given to present the case, as the
case of the respondents was called for on the very next day after the
8
application was submitted before the Special Court, on 31.8.2018. The
respondents were produced on 1.9.2018, when they were given copies of
the application. The lawyers were stated to not have been initially
available on 1.9.2018, since it was a Saturday. A request was made for
adjournment till 3.9.2018 (Monday), which undisputedly was the last
day, but that request was declined and the matter was listed on 2.9.2018.
Certain other allegations have also been made.
14. We are of the view that nothing much turns on the aforesaid plea
as the High Court, in its wisdom, decided to consider the merits of the
controversy. The appellant/State having approached the Special Court at
the last minute did create a scenario before the Court where an endeavour
was made to complete the proceedings, in respect of the matter in issue,
within the next two days. At this stage, the respondents cannot be denied
the benefit of advancing their case, the High Court having considered
their case on merits.
Whether the necessary ingredients of the proviso to Section 43D(2)(b) of
the said Act were set out in the application submitted:
15. A perusal of the proviso to Section 43D(2)(b) of the said Act
shows that there are certain requirements that need to be fulfilled, for its
9
proper application. These are as under:
a. It has not been possible to complete the investigation within the
period of 90 days.
b. A report to be submitted by the Public Prosecutor.
c. Said report indicating the progress of investigation and the
specific reasons for detention of the accused beyond the period
of 90 days.
d. Satisfaction of the Court in respect of the report of the Public
Prosecutor.
16. The document which purports to be the report of the Public
Prosecutor is, in the case before us, in the form of an application under
Section 43D of the said Act. A perusal of the contents of the document
shows that the development and progress in the investigation have been
set out. The developments leading to the incident have also been so set
forth. A perusal of the grounds shows that the allegation is that all the
respondents are active members of the banned organisation, CPI
(Maoist). In the course of investigation, documents, pen drives, CD,
DVD, etc. were seized and the electronic records were sent to FSL,
Mumbai, for its report, which was still awaited. The data was stated to
be voluminous and further investigation was also required into the
funding of the accused persons. The criminal conspiracy was stated to be
10
spread over a number of cities, which needed further investigation, and
financial details of the respondents were still being ascertained. Further,
investigation into the telephonic interconnection between the respondents
and other ‘absconding and underground accused persons’ and also into
the attempt to train young students were also set out as grounds for
seeking the extension. It was also set out that, upon completion of the
investigation, permission under Section 45 of the said Act is sought for
sanction of prosecution for filing the charge-sheet.
17. We are unable to accept the plea advanced on behalf of the
respondents that the material set out in the document does not meet with
the requirements of the proviso, insofar as the reasons for seeking
extension for the period of investigation are concerned.
18. The troublesome aspect, however, in the present case, to be dealt
with by us, is the issue whether the document submitted, itself, can be
said to be one which is really a report of the Public Prosecutor, meeting
the requirements of what the Public Prosecutor is required to do as per
the proviso to Section 43D(2)(b) of the said Act.
Analysis of the document purporting to be the report of the Public
Prosecutor:
11
19. The facts in respect of the controversy are broadly not in dispute.
It has been mentioned earlier that initially, on 30.8.2018, an application
was submitted by the IO through the Public Prosecutor, setting out the
reasons for seeking extension of ninety (90) days, to complete the
investigation under the said Act. The submission of Mr. Mukul Rohatgi,
learned Senior Counsel for the appellant is that on the issue being visited
in greater depth on the same day, by the Public Prosecutor, a second
document was filed, which is, in fact, the report of the Public Prosecutor,
in terms of the provisions of Section 43D of the said Act. A closer look
at this document does indicate that the State of Maharashtra is
represented through the Assistant Commissioner of Police, Swargate
Division, Pune City, but according to the learned senior counsel it is only
a description of the representation. The document also purports to be an
“application” under Section 43D of the said Act for extension of a period
of ninety (90) days for further investigation and the word “application” is
again repeated before the recital of facts. The third factual aspect is
mentioned in para 10 of the application, which reads as under:
“10. That according to the provisions of Section 43(D) (sic) of
UAPA Act, 1967, if the investigation pertaining to the said Act is
not completed within the period of 90 days, then, after filing the
12
application/report by the investigation officer, the said period of
90 days can be extended up to the period of 180 days. It is
submitted that the investigation of the said crime is in progress.
That the investigation has not yet completed and, therefore, the
investigation authority approached this Hon’ble Court for
extension of further period of 90 days on the following grounds:
GROUNDS
a. That all the accused are the active members of banned
organisation, i.e., C.P.I. (Maoist) and are having direct nexus of
unlawful activities of the said organisation, viz., CPI (Maoist).
b. That, during the investigation, seized devised, document, pen
drives, CD, DVD, hard disk, sim cards and other electronic
records were sent to FSL Mumbai for its report and for mirror
image of the data contained in the said electronic devices. That
the report from FSL is awaiting (sic).
c. That there is a voluminous data in the said electronic record
which requires to investigate in order to ascertain the
implementation of these unlawful activities not only in the State
of Maharashtra, but in other States also and all over India.
d. That it is also necessary to investigate from where the funds are
available to the accused persons which is utilised by the said
accused for promoting the unlawful activities of the banned
organisation.
e. That during the investigation, it is also revealed that the
accused in pursuance of their criminal conspiracy engaged in
the unlawful activities of banned organisation at Delhi,
Mumbai, Nagpur, Gadchiroli and Chhattisgarh. That further
investigation in this context has yet to complete.
f. That it is necessary to ascertain the details of Bank Account of
all the accused persons as well as their transactions in their
respective accounts.
13
g. That it is revealed during the investigation through seized CDR
reports of mobile phones of the accused persons that they are in
communication with each other as well as with the absconded
and underground accused persons. That investigate (sic)
pertaining to the said communication is yet to be completed.
h. That during the investigation, it is revealed and (sic.) the
students from Tata Institute of Social Science Mumbai were
taken by accused Mahesh Rao safely and secretly to forest
areas of Maoist Guerilla to meet absconding underground
Naxalite and to train them. The investigation in this respect is
in progress.
i. That the accused persons are having their own Facebook
accounts and e-mails. That investigation regarding the said
Facebook account as well as e-mail communications are in
progress.
j. That after the arrest of accused P. Vara Vara Rao, Vernon
Gonsalves & Arum Thomas Parera as well as Sudha Bhardwaj
& Gautam Naulakha on 28.8.2018 the Naxalite material in the
form of electronic record seized from these accused persons
and investigation is pertaining to the said seizure of the
documents and electronic records is going on at FSL.
k. That all the accused persons are the masterminds of banned
organisation of CPI (Maoist) and were found involved in
commission of illegal act with the intention to commit or
advocate, abate (sic.) and incite people to take violence and
create public disorder with intent to threaten the unity, integrity,
security and sovereignty of India. That investigation in respect
of the same is yet to be completed.
l. After completion of the investigating (sic.) permission u/s 45 of
Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 sanction for
prosecution is required to be obtained for filing the charge sheet
against all the accused persons.”
14
(emphasis supplied by us)
20. The averment in the aforesaid paragraph, thus, is that the
application/report was filed by the IO that the IO had approached the
Court for an extension of a period of further ninety (90) days to complete
the investigation.
21. Once again, in para 13 of the aforementioned document, a similar
averment is made about the IO approaching the Court.
22. Learned senior counsel for the appellant, however, contended that
this was more a question of format, rather than of substance. His
contention was that in view of the limited period of time left, the
application was moved on an urgent basis and considering the
seriousness of the matter, it should not be looked at technically but as a
matter of substance. The fact that the Public Prosecutor had duly
appended her signatures at the end of the application, and the very fact
that there were changes in the second application, from the earlier
application would show, as contended, that there has been application of
mind of the Public Prosecutor, which is the real sine qua non of the
report to be made by the Public Prosecutor.
15
23. It could not, however, be seriously disputed that the report of the
Public Prosecutor could have been worded better or that if the appellant
had approached the Court some time earlier, it would have been more
appropriate. The alleged infirmities are, however, sought to be explained
away by learned senior counsel for the appellant by referring to certain
other facts, i.e., the mention of the progress of the investigation in the
report/application and the fact that investigation papers were indeed
submitted to the Public Prosecutor, the factum of filing of two separate
documents referred to aforesaid, indicating application of mind by the
Public Prosecutor, the mention of additional grounds in the subsequent
document submitted by the Public Prosecutor, etc. It is the case of the
appellant that it was only after scrutinising the earlier application of the
even date that the Public Prosecutor filed the report, albeit in the form of
an application.
24. The crucial judgment relied upon, by both the sets of counsel for
the parties, is Hitendra Vishnu Thakur & Ors. v. State of Maharashtra
& Ors.1
. The accused had been detained under the Terrorist and
Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act, 1987 (hereinafter referred to as
the ‘TADA’). The TADA was amended by the Amendment Act No.43 of
1 (1994) 4 SCC 602
16
1993, which inter alia reduced the time for filing of a charge sheet from
one year to 180 days and also introduced a new clause (bb) in Section
20(4), providing for grant of extension of time for completion of
investigation and filing of challan on a report of the Public Prosecutor,
indicating the progress of the investigation and the specific reasons for
detention by the designated court, subject, however, to maximum
compulsory detention of one year. Thus, the difference between this case
and the case before us is only in the periods insofar as in this case and the
said Act, the corresponding period for judicial custody for the purpose of
completion of investigation is 90 + 90 days. In the case of Hitendra
Vishnu Thakur2
, this Court had faulted the report submitted by the
Public Prosecutor, to hold that the parameters contemplated by clause
(bb) had not been met.
25. Mr. Mukul Rohatgi, learned senior counsel contended that the facts
relating to what was the report of the Public Prosecutor in that case and
the present case are different. In this behalf, he invited our attention to
para 73 of the judgment, where the application had been reproduced.
The application was in the form of an affidavit of the IO. At the bottom
of the application, it showed the same being signed by the IO, but with an
2 (supra)
17
endorsement by the Public Prosecutor that it was identified before him.
It was found that the designated court had erred in treating the
application of the IO as a report of the Public Prosecutor, where the
Public Prosecutor had merely identified the deponent of the affidavit (the
IO) and such identification, alone could not justify the application to be
treated as a report of the Public Prosecutor. It was sought to be contended
by Mr. Rohatgi that on the other hand, in the case before us, there had
been an actual application of mind of the Public Prosecutor, as witnessed
by the submission of two different applications before the Special Court,
and other reasons as aforementioned.
26. On the other hand, Dr. A.M. Singhvi, sought to rely upon the same
facts as mentioned above, that the mere appending of the signatures by
the Public Prosecutor would not suffice and in fact the earlier document,
which was submitted by the IO was also signed by the Public Prosecutor.
The submission, thus, was that the Public Prosecutor was merely
endorsing what the IO had set forth in the application, without any
independent application of mind. Not only that, learned senior counsel
drew our attention to the order passed by the trial court to contend that
the designated court also appears to have treated the document in
18
question as an application for extension of period of investigation that
had been submitted by the IO. Moreover, it was also argued that reasons
provided by the IO for an extension in the period of investigation did not
appears to be genuine.
27. Learned senior counsel sought to emphasise that the appellant
cannot get away from the requirements stipulated in the judgement of
Hitendra Vishnu Thakur,3
 for a document to be treated as a report of the
Public Prosecutor and the mandatory requirements stipulated in this
context, in Section 20(4)(bb) of TADA. In this behalf he referred to para
23 of the aforementioned judgement.
28. A perusal of the aforesaid paragraph shows that the emphasis laid
by this Court was on the legislature, in its wisdom, not leaving it to the
IO to make an application for seeking an extension of time from the
Court and, thus, requiring the investigating agency to submit itself to the
scrutiny of the Public Prosecutor, in the first instance, and satisfying him
about the progress of the investigation and furnishing reasons for seeking
further custody of an accused. Otherwise, an accused could be kept in
continued detention, during unnecessarily prolonged investigation, at the
whims of the police. This Court also emphasised that the Public
3 (supra)
19
Prosecutor is not a part of the investigating agency, but is an independent
statutory authority and, thus, is expected to independently apply his mind
to the request of the investigating agency, before submitting a report to
the Court for extension of time with a view to enable the investigating
agency to complete its investigation. Thus, “He is not merely a post
office or a forwarding agency. A Public Prosecutor may or may not agree
with the reasons given by the investigating officer for seeking extension
of time and may find that the investigation had not progressed in the
proper manner or that there has been unnecessary, deliberate or avoidable
delay in completing the investigation. In that event, he may not submit
any report to the Court under clause (bb) to seek extension of time.”
29. The observations in para 23 also then go on to state that the Public
Prosecutor may attach the request of the IO along with his request or
application or report, but his report must disclose, on the face of it, that
he has applied his mind and has been satisfied with the progress of the
investigation and considered a grant of further time, to complete the
investigation, as necessary. This report is not merely a formality, but is a
very vital report as it affects the liberty of an accused. The request of an
IO for extension of time is no substitute for the report of the Public
20
Prosecutor. We may notice that it has been very clearly set out that it is
not merely a question of the form in which the request for extension is to
be made, but one of substance, as it is to assist the designated court to
independently decide whether or not to grant such extension. It cannot
be a mere presentation and forwarding of the request of the IO to the
Court. The mere labelling of the document as a report or an application
was stated to be not of much consequence, but what was held to be of
consequence was that there could not be a mere reproduction of the
application or request of the IO by the Public Prosecutor in his report,
without demonstration of the application of his mind and a recording of
his own satisfaction.
30. The aforesaid line of argument was supported by Mr. Anand
Grover and Ms. Indira Jaising, learned senior counsels. A reference was
also made to the judgment in Sanjay Kumar Kedia alias Sanjay Kedia v.
Intelligence Officer, Narcotics Control Bureau & Anr.4
31. Insofar as the facts are concerned, the accused was arrested under
the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 and was kept
in detention for the initial period of 180 days. The complaint was filed
4 (2009) 17 SCC 631
21
just before the expiry of the statutorily stipulated one year period. The
endeavour of the accused to seek bail post filing of the complaint did not
succeed and it is thereafter that an endeavour was made to assail the
initial extension of detention on the ground that the report of the Public
Prosecutor did not meet the relevant test. At that stage also, ultimately
the Supreme Court held in favour of the accused by opining that he
would be entitled to “default bail” relying on the judgment in Hitendra
Vishnu Thakur5
.
32. A further plea sought to be advanced, on reliance upon the Sanjay
Kedia6
judgment, was that “compelling reasons” are required to be
disclosed for extension of time beyond 180 days and that no such
compelling reasons have been disclosed in the present case.
33. In order to complete the recital of facts, we may note at this stage
that the charge sheet in the present case was filed on 15.11.2018, within
the extended period of 90 days and, thus, it is open to the respondents to
seek bail from the competent court; but then the contention of the counsel
for the respondents was based on the facts that if the respondents are
entitled to default bail, they should not be compelled to go through the
5 (supra)
6 (supra)
22
rigours of applying for a regular bail, post filing of the charge sheet.
34. We have given our deep thought to the controversy in question.
35. There is no doubt that the report/application of the public
prosecutor, setting out the reasons for extension of ninety (90) days of
custody to complete investigation leaves something to be desired. The
first document placed before the trial court was an application/report
filed by the IO, though that is also stated to contain the signature of the
public prosecutor. The second document, which purports to be the report
of the public prosecutor, has also been filed in the form of an application.
There is repetition of averments that the IO is approaching the court.
Para 10 of the second document again mentions that the investigating
authority had approached the court for an extension of a further period of
ninety (90) days on the grounds set out therein and the trial court also
appears to have treated the document in question as an application filed
by the IO. A clarity in the form of a proper endorsement by the public
prosecutor that he had perused the grounds in the earlier document
submitted by the IO and, thus, was satisfied that a case had been made
out for extension of time to complete the investigation would have
obviated such a controversy. But that is not to be.
23
36. We may, however, notice that insofar as the existence of reasons
for such extension, we have found that the same exist in the detailed
grounds extracted aforesaid. The first document, purporting to be the
application of the IO, contains the reasons for such extended period of
investigation but the second document details out the grounds in extenso
and cannot be said to be only a mere reproduction of what is stated in the
first document. It cannot, thus, be said that there has been complete
absence of application of mind by the public prosecutor.
37. There is merit in the contention of the learned senior counsel for
the appellant/State that the question is more of substance than form, an
aspect even emphasised in Hitendra Vishnu Thakur7
 case, which has
been relied upon by learned counsel for both the parties. The second
document in the form of an application has been filed on the same day. It
is not as if the first document, which is an application of the IO was
withdrawn to file the second document, which purports to be the report
of the public prosecutor. It is on the analysis of the first document that
the second document has been filed, albeit both containing the
endorsement of the public prosecutor. There are averments in the second
7 (supra)
24
application referring to the progress of the investigation and the rejoinder
before us elucidates that the public prosecutor had the benefit of
scrutinising these papers. There are additional and expanded grounds set
out in the second document.
38. Mr. Mukul Rohatgi, learned senior counsel appearing for the
appellant/State has rightly contended that there is a material difference in
the facts of the present case and those of Hitendra Vishnu Thakur8
 case,
inasmuch as the application in that case was in the form of an affidavit of
the IO, whose signatures were identified by an endorsement of the public
prosecutor. It is in those circumstances it was held that mere
identification by the public prosecutor, of the deponent of the affidavit
could not justify the application to be treated as a report of the public
prosecutor. In the present case, the second document contains a clear
endorsement of the public prosecutor in support of the averments made
therein.
39. No doubt, in para 23 of Hitendra Vishnu Thakur9
case, this Court
laid emphasis on the importance of the scrutiny by a public prosecutor so
as to not leave the detenu in the hands of the IO alone, being the police
8 (supra)
9 (supra)
25
authority. The public prosecutor, thus, has the option to agree or disagree
with the reasons given by the IO for seeking extension of time but in the
facts of the present case, the second document in the form of an
application shows scrutiny of the first document and thereafter details
grounds and expanded reasons for the requirement of further time to
complete the investigation.
40. Undoubtedly the request of an IO for extension of time is not a
substitute for the report of the public prosecutor but since we find that
there has been, as per the comparison of the two documents, an
application of mind by the public prosecutor as well as an endorsement
by him, the infirmities in the form should not entitle the respondents to
the benefit of a default bail when in substance there has been an
application of mind. The detailed grounds certainly fall within the
category of “compelling reasons” as enunciated in Sanjay Kedia10 case.
41. We are, thus, not able to persuade ourselves to agree with the
conclusions of the learned single Judge of the Bombay High Court in the
impugned order and hold that the respondents would not be entitled to
the benefit of default bail and consequently the impugned order is set
aside.
10 (supra)
26
42. We may, however, clarify that since the charge-sheet has been
filed, any observations made by us herein, would not, in any manner,
affect the right of the respondents to seek regular bail from the trial court,
if so advised, which would be decided on its own merits by the trial
court.
43. The appeal is allowed leaving the parties to bear their own costs.
..….….…………………….CJI.
[Ranjan Gogoi]
...……………………………J.
[L. Nageswara Rao]
...……………………………J.
[Sanjay Kishan Kaul]
New Delhi.
February 13, 2019.
27