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Monday, February 4, 2019

Wing Commander Subrata Das and P K Sen resumed their duties after the decision of the Tribunal. Wing Commander P K Sen has been promoted as Group Captain. Wing Commanders Subrata Das and Group Captain P K Sen are due to superannuate on 31 January 2019 and 31 January 2020 respectively. Having regard to the fact that both these officers are presently in service, we direct, in the exercise of our jurisdiction under Article 142 of the Constitution, that their services in the Air Force for the remaining tenure will not be affected by the present judgment. This will, however, be subject to all the applicable norms, rules and regulations governing discipline and efficiency governing the service. As regards Group Captain Rajeev Moitra, we set aside the judgment and order of the Tribunal and in consequence, the original application filed before the Tribunal shall stand dismissed. We affirm the judgment of the Tribunal in the case of Wing Commander Rachit Bhatnagar, though for the reasons which we have indicated above.


Hon'ble Dr. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
1
 REPORTABLE
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CIVIL APPEAL No. 10953 OF 2014
UNION OF INDIA
THROUGH ITS SECRETARY,
MINISTRY OF DEFENCE DHQPO,
NEW DELHI & ORS. .....APPELLANTS

Versus
WG. CDR. SUBRATA DAS (19942-H) .....RESPONDENT
WITH
CIVIL APPEAL (D) No. 4575 OF 2017
WITH
CIVIL APPEAL No. 2821 OF 2015
AND WITH
DAIRY No. 26814 OF 2018
2
J U D G M E N T
Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, J.

1 Delay condoned.
2 Leave granted.
3 This batch of appeals arises from proceedings initiated before the Armed
Forces Tribunal1
. Each of the four officers of the Indian Air Force - Wing
Commanders Subrata Das, P K Sen, Rachit Bhatnagar and Group Captain
Rajeev Moitra sought a premature separation from service under the Human
Resource Policy2
 notified on 5 August 2011 by the Air Headquarters. Their
requests for a Premature Separation from Service3
 were allowed. Before the date
stipulated for their separation from the Indian Air Force4
, the officers withdrew
their requests and sought to continue in service. The rejection of their plea to
continue by the Air Headquarters led them to institute proceedings before the
Tribunal.
4 The officers succeeded before the Tribunal in three of those proceedings, 5
while the decision of the Air Headquarters was upheld in the fourth proceeding.6
The Union of India is in appeal against the three decisions of the Tribunal
allowing the requests made by the officers to withdraw from their applications for
1 The Tribunal
2 The Human Resource Policy, Air HQ/988321/1/PO-5
3 PSS
4 “IAF”
5 O.A. No. 425 of 2013, O.A. No. 467 of 2013 and O.A. No. 134 of 2015
6 O.A. No. 1265 of 2017
3
PSS and continue in service. Wing Commander Rachit Bhatnagar was
unsuccessful in pursuing his remedy before the Tribunal and has filed a Civil
Appeal questioning the decision.
5 The facts follow a similar trajectory. The facts relevant to each of the
appeals are set out below :
(i) Civil Appeal 10953 of 2014 : Wing Commander Subrata Das:
The officer was commissioned on 14 June 1989 as Pilot Officer and was
promoted to the rank of Wing Commander on 16 December 2004. On 6 May
2013, he applied for PSS with 2 December 2013 as the proposed date of
severance. The ground on which he sought PSS was that he was Permanently
Passed Over7
 by the Promotion Board. The request was accepted and
communicated on 3 June 2013. The officer commenced a pre-release course at
the International College of Financial Planning, New Delhi. At around the tenth
week of the twelve-week course, he withdrew from the course and submitted an
application to withdraw his request for PSS on 16 September 2013. The ground
pleaded for withdrawing the application for PSS was acute domestic problems.
The request was rejected on 15 October 2013. The officer is due to superannuate
from the Air Force on 31 January 2019. He did not complete the pre-release
course.
(ii) Civil Appeal 2821 of 2015 : Wing Commander P K Sen:
7PPO
4
The officer was commissioned on 4 September 1989 and was promoted to the
rank of Wing Commander on 16 December 2004. On 1 October 2012, he applied
for PSS with 30 October 2013 as the proposed date of severance. He sought
PSS on compassionate grounds and since he was Permanently Passed Over.
The request for PSS was approved and communicated on 30 April 2013. The
officer commenced a pre-release course at Amity Institute of Education and
Training, Noida. The officer sought a change in the PSS date from 30 October
2013 to 3 January 2014. The request was rejected and he was informed on 18
October 2013. On 8 October 2013, he submitted an application to withdraw his
request for PSS which was received on 24 October 2013. The officer sought to
withdraw his application for PSS on the ground that he had not been able to
obtain private placement in a volatile market and that he faced personal
difficulties. Before a decision could be taken, the officer instituted proceedings
before the Tribunal on 25 October 2013. The officer is due to superannuate from
the Air Force on 31 January 2020. He completed the pre-release course.
(iii) Civil Appeal (D) No. 4575 of 2017 : Group Captain Rajeev Moitra:
The officer was commissioned on 17 December 1988 and was promoted to the
rank of Group Captain on 17 December 2014. On 25 April 2014, he applied for
PSS with 31 December 2014 as the proposed date of severance. He sought PSS
on compassionate grounds and since he was Permanently Passed Over. The
request for PSS was approved on 12 July 2014 and was communicated on 15
July 2014. Upon a request by him for a change in the date of severance, the date
of PSS was postponed from 31 December 2014 to 7 March 2015. On 19 January
5
2015, he submitted an application to withdraw his request for PSS which was
rejected on 5 March 2015. The request for withdrawal was on the ground that the
age of superannuation had been altered from 54 to 57 years and that he faced
personal family difficulties. The officer was due to superannuate from the Air
Force on 31 December 2020. He completed the pre-release course.
(iv) Civil Appeal Dairy No. 26814 of 2018 : Wing Commander Rachit Bhatnagar :
The officer was commissioned on 28 November 1994 and was promoted to the
rank of Wing Commander. The application for PSS was submitted on 3
November 2016 with a proposed date of severance as 31 July 2017. The ground
for PSS was that the officer had been Permanently Passed Over (PPO). The
request for PSS was accepted on 1 February 2017. On 26 May 2017, the officer
made a request for a change in the PSS date which was rejected on 20 July
2017. On 28 July 2017, the officer submitted an application for withdrawing his
request for PSS, citing family constraints and unfavourable market conditions.
Before a decision could be taken, the officer instituted proceedings before the
Tribunal. The Tribunal did not grant the officer relief and he retired on 31 July
2017. The officer was due to superannuate from the Air Force on 31 October
2025. The officer completed the pre-release course.
6 Wing Commanders Subrata Das, P K Sen and Group Captain Rajeev
Moitra succeeded before the Tribunal and the rejection of their applications to
withdraw the request for PSS was set aside. Following the decision of the
Tribunal, Wing Commanders Subrata Das and P K Sen have been taken back
into service and continue to work as officers of the IAF. In the case of Group
6
Captain Rajeev Moitra, the order of the Tribunal was stayed during the pendency
of the Civil Appeal and he has not been taken back on duty. Wing Commander
Rachit Bhatnagar was not successful before the Tribunal and he is in appeal
before this Court.
7 The Tribunal at its Principal Bench, while rendering its decision on 27
March 2014 in the case of Wing Commander Subrata Das, held that officers have
a substantive right to continue in service until they attain the age of
superannuation and that an application for premature retirement can be
withdrawn at anytime before the actual date of retirement. The Human Resource
Policy of the Air Force permits the withdrawal of the request for PSS on “extreme
compassionate grounds”. The Air Force, according to the Tribunal, did not take
into consideration the grounds indicated in the application, and proceeded to
reject it on the ground that the officer had already undergone the pre-release
course. In the view of the Tribunal, the pre-release course is an option which is
given to an employee to improve career prospects and is not a condition of
service. The Tribunal held that the officer has a substantive right to continue in
service and that this right cannot be whittled down by a policy which has no
statutory flavour. In taking this view, the Tribunal has relied upon the decision of
this Court in Union of India v Wing Commander T Parthasarathy8
. The
Tribunal held that severance from service which takes effect on a prospective
date can be withdrawn at any time before it becomes effective. Hence, the order
passed by the Air Headquarters was quashed with a direction to take the officer
back in service with consequential benefits.
8 “Parthasarathy” : (2001) 1 SCC 158
7
8 In the case of Wing Commander P K Sen, the Tribunal at its Principal
Bench relied on the decision of this Court in Parthasarathy (supra) and its earlier
decision in the case of Wing Commander Subrata Das while granting relief in
similar terms in its order dated 3 September 2014. In the case of Group Captain
Rajeev Moitra, the Tribunal at its Regional Bench at Lucknow relied on the
decisions of this Court in Balram Gupta v Union of India9
, Shambhu Murari
Sinha v Project & Development India Ltd.10 and Parthasarathy (supra). The
Tribunal by its order dated 15 September 2016 held that an officer has an
absolute right to withdraw an application for PSS before the effective date of
retirement. The Tribunal placed reliance on its earlier decision in the case of Wing
Commander P K Sen to hold that a substantive right which enures to the benefit
of the officer cannot be denied merely on the basis of a policy of the Government.
9 In the case of Wing Commander Rachit Bhatnagar, the Tribunal at its
Principal Bench has ruled against the officer by its decision dated 7 February
2018. The Tribunal, while taking a view contrary to its earlier decisions held that
officers are commissioned into the Armed Forces on a commission by the
President of India. The commission is associated with privileges, duties and
distinct liabilities. In the view of the Tribunal, separation from service of a
commissioned officer is not a vested right but is at the will and pleasure of the
President. A request for premature retirement has to be approved by the Central
government. Premature retirement is not a matter of right. The need for a highly
disciplined force distinguishes the Armed Forces from civil services. In other
words, under the legislation which governs the Armed Forces, it is the right of the
9 “Balram Gupta” : 1987 Supp SCC 228
10 (2002) 3 SCC 437
8
authorities and of the government to retain or retire an officer and there is no
vested right for premature retirement.
10 The questions of law which have been urged in the appeals from the
above decisions of the Tribunal are similar. The appeals were consolidated and
have been heard together.
11 Mr Rana Mukherjee, learned Senior Counsel appearing on behalf of the
Union of India has urged the following submissions:
(i) Service in the Indian Air Force is on the grant of a commission by the
President of India. The tenure of every member of the service is subject to the
Air Force Act 1950 and is at the pleasure of the President;
(ii) Rule 13 of the Air Force Rules 1969 provides for the release of a member,
subject to the Air Force Act 1950 and in accordance with the rules, orders or
instructions made in that behalf by or under the authority of the Central
government;
(iii)Premature Separation from Service is governed by the Human Resource
Policy formulated by the Air Headquarters under powers delegated to it by the
Ministry of Defence on 14 August 2001;
(iv) The policy seeks to achieve a convergence of individual aspirations and
interests of the service;
(v) The number of officers granted PSS in a year is restricted, based on the
exigencies of the service including inductions, superannuation and other exits.
Manpower deployment is a scientific process based on data collected every
year and the data is collated and divided into two Boards of Officers
scheduled to be held in the months of March and September;
9
(vi) Under the terms of the Human Resource Policy, officers with more than 24
years of service or those Permanently Passed Over may apply for PSS within
nine months from the proposed date of severance and retire with full benefits.
During this period, an officer has the opportunity to adjust to post retirement
life;
(vii) Discipline is the backbone of the Armed Forces and the policy has been
amended to permit one extension of the date of severance when it falls within
the prescribed jurisdiction of the Board of Officers;
(viii) The withdrawal of an application for PSS is governed by paragraph 18 of
the Human Resource Policy. The policy stipulates that an officer who has
undergone a pre-release course is not entitled to withdraw the application.
60% of the cost of the resettlement/pre-release course is paid by the Union
government for the benefit of personnel proceeding on PSS;
(ix) Exits from the Air Force are carefully planned in accordance with manpower
requirements which bear on the operational efficiency of the organisation;
(x) The officer who is granted PSS takes away an exit vacancy which could have
been availed by another officer; and
(xi) If an officer who is in a sensitive appointment applies for PSS, the individual
is posted to a non-sensitive appointment and is considered for the grant of
PSS. Frequent withdrawal of an approved PSS may lead to officers using PSS
as a modality to escape a transfer to a sensitive appointment and to later
withdraw the request for PSS.
In the above background, it has been submitted that: (a) grant of PSS and
permission for its withdrawal is not an absolute and unconditional right; (b) while
10
an employee may seek to withdraw the application for PSS, the government has
the discretionary power to accept or reject the application depending on the
reasons advanced in the application; (c) in deciding whether to accept or reject
an application, the government is entitled to have due regard to the exigencies of
service; (d) the Human Resource Policy has been framed under powers
delegated by the Ministry of Defence and is referable to the provisions of Rule 13
of the Air Force Rules 1969; and (e) the Tribunal erred in equating the withdrawal
of an application for PSS from the IAF with the rules which govern employment in
the civil services without bearing in mind the essential differences between
service in the civilian wing and in the Armed Forces.
12 On the other hand, learned Counsel representing the officers of the Air
Force in the present case urged the following submissions:
(i) Under Section 189(2)(a), the rule making power governs removal, retirement
release or discharge of persons subject to the Air Force Act 1950;
(ii) Under Section 190, regulations can be framed by the Central government for
the purposes of the Act, other than those specified in Section 189. The
regulations framed under Section 190 cannot govern the field covered by
Section 189(2)(a);
(iii) Unless a law is enacted by Parliament, fundamental rights of members of the
Armed Forces cannot be abrogated. In the absence of a statutory provision
restricting the right of an officer to withdraw a request for premature
separation, the same principle which governs civilian employment must apply
to severance from the Air Force;
11
(iv) Paragraph 18 of the Human Resource Policy dated 5 August 2011 does not
abrogate the right of an officer to withdraw a request for premature separation
prior to the date on which it is to become effective;
(v) Administrative instructions contained in the Human Resource Policy cannot
restrict the right of the employee to withdraw from a request from premature
separation; and
(vi) The latest Human Resource Policy dated 23 February 2018 has liberalised
the provisions pertaining to the withdrawal of a request for PSS.
In the above background, it has been submitted that the Tribunal justifiably held
that the three officers were entitled to resume their duties in the Air Force. Wing
Commanders Subrata Das and P K Sen are stated to have joined back active
service. In the case of Group Captain Rajeev Moitra, it has been submitted that
as a result of the stay order passed by this Court on 24 March 2017 on the
operation of the decision by the Tribunal, he was unable to resume service. The
decision of the Tribunal in the case of Wing Commander Rachit Bhatnagar has
been assailed on the ground that it runs contrary to the law laid down by this
Court in Parthasarathy (supra).
13 These submissions fall for our consideration.
14 At the outset, it is necessary to clarify that we are considering the terms of
the Human Resource Policy dated 5 August 2011. We have not had the occasion
to evaluate the provisions of any later policy. We must, while commencing the
analysis, advert to the salient provisions of the Air Force Act 1950 which have a
12
bearing on the present case. Section 2 defines the ambit of the Act by stipulating
the persons who are subject to it. Section 2 provides thus:
“Persons subject to this Act.- The following persons
shall be subject to this Act wherever they may be,
namely:-
(a) officers and warrant officers of the Air Force;
(b) persons enrolled under this Act;
(c) persons belonging to the Regular Air Force Reserve
or the Air Defence Reserve or the Auxiliary Air Force, in
the circumstances specified in section 26 of the Reserve
and Auxiliary Air Forces Act, 1952 (62 of 1952);
(d) persons not otherwise subject to Air Force law, who,
on active service, in camp, on the march, or at any
frontier post specified by the Central Government by
notification in this behalf, are employed by, or are in the
service of, or are followers of, or accompany any portion
of the Air Force.”
Section 3 provides thus:
“Termination of application of the Act.- Every person
subject to this Act under clauses (a) to (c) of section 2
shall remain so subject until duly, retired, discharged,
released, removed, dismissed or cashiered from the
service.”
A person who has been made subject to the Act by virtue of the provisions of
clauses (a) to (c) of Section 2 continues to remain subject to it unless ‘duly’
retired, discharged, released, removed, dismissed or cashiered from service.
Chapter IV spells out the conditions of service. Section 18 which falls in that
Chapter provides that tenure of service is at the pleasure of the President :
“Tenure of service under the Act.- Every person subject
to this Act shall hold office during the pleasure of the
President.”
13
15 Section 19 empowers the Central government to dismiss or remove from
service any person who is subject to the Act in accordance with its provisions and
the rules and regulations made under it. Section 22 contains the following
provisions in matters of retirement, release or discharge:
“Retirement, release or discharge.- Any person subject
to this Act may be retired, released or discharged from the
service by such authority and in such manner as may be
prescribed.”
The expression ‘prescribed’ is defined in Section 4 (xxiv) to mean prescribed by
rules made under the Act.
16 Rule 13 of the Air Force Rules 1969 contains the following provisions in
regard to release:
“13. Release.- A person subject to the Act may be
released from the air force in accordance with these rules,
or in accordance with any orders or instructions made in
that behalf by or under the authority of the Central
Government.”
17 Section 189 empowers the Central government to make rules for carrying
into effect the provisions of the Act. Under clause (a) of Section 2 of sub-section
189, the rules may provide for the removal, retirement, release or discharge from
service of persons subject to the Act. Section 189(2)(a) provides thus:
“189. Power to make rules.-
(1) …
(2)Without prejudice to the generality of the power
conferred by sub-section (1), the rules made thereunder
may provide for-
(a) The removal, retirement, release or discharge
from the service of persons subject to this Act.”
14
18 The Air Force Headquarters’ Human Resource Policy was notified on 5
August 2011. The policy has been issued in pursuance of powers delegated to it
by the Ministry of Defence on 14 August 2001. The policy seeks to lay down
comprehensive guidelines for premature separation from service by officers of
the Air Force, other than those from the medical and dental branches. The object
of the policy is to bring about a balance between requests made by officers of the
Air Force to leave service and the interests of the Air Force. The policy, in
paragraph 1, provides thus:
“Officers on active service may wish to leave the Air Force
for varied personal reasons. It is the endeavour of the
Personnel Branch and Air HQ to give due consideration to
all such requests, on the merits of each case and seek
convergence of individual aspirations and service
interests. This Human Resources Policy (HRP) on
Premature Separation from Service (PSS) aims to provide
more clarity in the PSS policy. For the purpose of HRP,
total service, whether mentioned, would imply
commissioned service in the IAF excluding ante-date or
any previous service.”
19 Paragraph 3 of the policy requires that PSS applications from officers be
“considered on the merits of the case and requirements of service”. The grounds
on which requests for PSS can be considered are, inter alia, (i) cases where
officers have been Permanently Passed Over (PPO) or superseded; (ii) extreme
compassionate grounds; (iii) better employment in civil life; and (iv) lack of career
prospects. These grounds have been explained as follows in paragraph 3:
(a) “Permanently Passed Over (PPO)/Supersession.
Officers who submit an application for PSS on
grounds of being PPO will be considered for release
from service. Officer superseded in the select ranks
may also be considered for release. In such cases,
decision by Air HQ would be based on the officer’s
15
record of service, future promotability prospects and
service exigencies.
(b) Extreme Compassionate Grounds. Requests on
extreme compassionate grounds would be considered
after the facts presented by the officer are verified, to
the extent possible, by this Headquarter. Such
verification is necessary to ensure that the grounds
are genuine. Domestic problems such as the need to
look after ailing parents, inheritance problems, need to
look after business, serious illness of wife/children’s
ailments requiring officer’s presence at home,
possibility of break-up of conjugal life if the officer
continues in service, etc., would be treated as
compassionate grounds depending on the
circumstances of each case. Applications with medical
issues will be routed through the Dte of Medical
Services and interviews/counselling conducted by
them.
(c) Better Employment in Civil Life. If a service officer
applies for PSS within a period of one year before the
due date of superannuation for obtaining employment
in private sector, the request would normally be
acceded to. For employment under Public Sector,
Government controlled Corporation, Municipal
Corporations etc. requests within a period of two
years from superannuation would be considered as a
measure of rehabilitation assistance to the officers. All
applications for employment outside will, however, be
submitted through proper channels so that Service
HQ has sufficient notice of the intentions of the
officers in this regard (Refer HRP 04/09). Officers who
have been permitted to apply for civil/commercial
employment as per HRP 04/09, will be required to put
up an application for PSS. Officers are to carefully
consider these aspects before applying for
civil/commercial employment.
(d) …
(e) Lack of Career Prospects (LCP). A person seeking a
career in the Air Force is expected to be aware of his
career progression at every stage of his career.
During his career, if an officer feels that he has no
prospects for advancement in service, he may apply
for PSS. However, the lack of career prospects of an
officer will be ascertained by the ‘P’ branch.”
16
Where officers are trained in specialised courses, requests for PSS can be
considered only upon the expiry of the minimum period indicated in the policy.
20 Paragraph 4 of the policy provides for eligibility criteria and the
categorisation of officers seeking PSS. Paragraph 4 provides thus:
“4. The organization requires a dedicated pool of officers, who
are motivated and willing to work towards organizational
goals and at the same time fulfil their personal aspirations,
which may be dynamic and may be influenced by external
factors. In an attempt to address both, its goals and the
individual’s aspirations, the organization needs to fine-tune its
policies. The thought processes, which have gone into
formulating the eligibility criteria, which are enumerated in the
subsequent paragraphs, are as follows:-
(a) There is a large shortfall of officers in the junior ranks (up
to that of Sqn Ldr) in all branches.
(b) Below ten years of commissioned service, an officer
should be discouraged as far as possible as even the cost
of training would not have been recovered in full.
(c) Beyond 24 years of commissioned service, PSS cases
would be favourably considered subject to service
exigencies.
(d) Therefore, in the critical seniority group of up to about 21
years of commissioned service, the organisation has to
be circumspect of the number of departures that can be
permitted, in order not to upset the manning levels or its
operational efficiency. At the same time one cannot deny
a genuine case.
(e) With the implementation of the AVSC II proposals, an
officer would have a fairly clear picture of his career
prospects by about 20-22 years of commissioned service,
as select grade would eventually start at 17.5/19.5 years
for flying / ground duty branches respectively. Therefore,
allowing superseded officers of separate from service
beyond about 21 years would allow for better promotion
ratios and at the same time allow superseded officers to
seeks avenues in the civil sector at a relatively young
age.”
17
Paragraph 5 classifies officers seeking PSS into four categories:
(i) Officers with more than 24 years of commissioned service and those
who have been Permanently Passed Over (PPO);
(ii) Officers between 21 and 24 years of commissioned service;
(iii) Officers between 10 and 21 years of commissioned service; and
(iv) Officers with less than 10 years of commissioned service.
21 Paragraph 6 envisages the constitution of the Board of Officers in March
and September. The ‘jurisdiction period’ has been planned to provide officers
proceeding on PSS adequate time to complete their formalities. Paragraph 8
provides for submission of applications for PSS, paragraph 9 for the procedure
for officers on deputation and paragraphs 10 to 13 for the processing of
applications. Paragraph 15 provides that applications for separation from service
by officers with less than 21 years of service for reconsideration of an earlier
request will not be considered before a lapse of one year from the nonacceptance of the previous application by the Board of Officers unless the
grounds have changed substantially. Paragraph 17 contemplates that one
change of the effective date of PSS may be permitted. Paragraph 18 provides for
the withdrawal of a request for PSS. Paragraph 18 is in the following terms:
“18. Withdrawal - A request for withdrawal of approved PSS
application would be permitted only as an exception under
extreme compassionate grounds (except in case the officer
has undergone a Pre Release Course, in which he / she
would not be permitted to withdraw). The officer would be
debarred from submitting a fresh application for one year from
his proposed date of PSS.”
18
Paragraph 18 of the policy indicates that:
(i) A request for withdrawal of a PSS application which has been approved can be
permitted only by way of an exception;
(ii) A request for withdrawal can be permitted only under “extreme compassionate
grounds”;
(iii) An officer who has undergone a pre-release course will not be permitted to
withdraw the request; and
(iv) A fresh application cannot be submitted for a period of one year from the
proposed date of PSS.
One of the grounds for submitting an application for PSS is “extreme
compassionate grounds”. The policy, in paragraph 18, uses the same expression.
The grounds in paragraph 18 would evidently be based on events which have
taken place after the submission of an application for PSS and its approval. The
expression “undergone” would mean completed or finished. Under paragraph 18,
no withdrawal from PSS is permitted where an officer has undergone the prerelease course. However, even if an officer has not ‘undergone’ the pre-release
course, there is no unqualified or absolute right to withdraw an application for
PSS. Paragraph 18 permits an officer to submit a request for the withdrawal of a
PSS application and the grant of such a request is subject to the approval of the
competent authority. There is no unilateral right to withdraw from a request for
PSS once it has been approved.
19
Para 20 stipulates that while individual aspirations are borne in mind to the extent
feasible, the requirements and interests of the service are paramount. Paragraph
20 is in the following terms:
“20. Seeking PSS is an important decision in the career of an
officer. At the Personnel Branch, no efforts are spared to
ensure that individual aspirations are favourably considered.
However, service requirements/interests remain paramount
and cannot be overlooked. The intent of this HRP is to
provide on all related aspects regarding PSS to an officer at a
critical juncture of his service.”
22 The provisions of the Air Force Act 1950 govern the persons who are
subject to it. Clauses (a) to (d) of Section 2 define the categories to whom the Act
applies. Once a person is subject to the Act, its provisions continue to govern
them until the individual is duly retired, discharged, released, removed, dismissed
or cashiered from the service under the provisions of the Act. Induction into the
service under Section 10 is upon the grant of commission as an officer by the
President or by appointment as a warrant officer of the Air Force. The tenure of
service of every person subject to the Act is during the pleasure of the President.
Matters of retirement, release or discharge from service are governed by the
prescriptions contained in the Rules.
23 The provisions of the Air Force Act 1950 are a necessary concomitant of
the intent of Parliament to establish the Air Force as an armed force of the Union.
As members of an Armed Force, those who are subject to the provisions of the
Act are governed by the rigour and discipline of the Force. Indeed, that is the
rationale which underlies Article 33 of the Constitution which empowers
Parliament by law to restrict or abrogate the provisions of Part III in their
20
application inter alia to the members of the Armed Forces. The purpose of these
restrictions is to ensure the proper discharge of duties and the proper
maintenance of discipline.11
24 Entry into and departure from the service of the Air Force is in terms of the
above provisions and is not a matter which lies at the sweet will of a member of
the Air Force. The provisions contained in the Act for commissioning, tenure and
cessation of service reflect the need to maintain the discipline and efficiency of
the Air Force. The organisational efficiency of the Armed Forces of the Union is of
paramount importance. It is in this background that the provisions which are
contained in the Human Resource Policy must be evaluated.
25 The policy has been formulated in pursuance of the powers delegated to
the Air Headquarters by the Ministry of Defence. As we have noticed earlier, Rule
13 of the Air Force Rules 1969 stipulates that a person subject to the Act may be
released from the Air Force in accordance with the rules, orders or instructions
made by or under the authority of the Central Government. The Human Resource
Policy which was notified on 2 August 2011 seeks to bring about a convergence
of individual aspirations and the interests of the service.
26 The policy has enunciated comprehensive guidelines for premature
separation. It defines the grounds on which premature separation can be
contemplated. It lays down a categorisation of officers based on the length of
11 “33. Parliament may, by law, determine to what extent any of the rights conferred by this Part shall, in their
application to— (a) the members of the Armed Forces; or (b) the members of the Forces charged with the
maintenance of public order; or (c) persons employed in any bureau or other organisation established by the
State for purposes of intelligence or counter intelligence; or (d) person employed in, or in connection with, the
telecommunication systems set up for the purposes of any Force, bureau or organisation referred to in clauses
(a) to (c), be restricted or abrogated so as to ensure the proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of
discipline among them.”
21
years of service for considering applications for PSS. It enunciates the manner in
which their proposals would be evaluated. The policy contemplates a Board of
Officers to consider requests for PSS in the months of March and September
every year. The policy enunciates a time schedule for the submission of
applications and of the modalities to be followed in the issuance of release
orders. The policy defines the manner in which PSS applications are processed.
Significant among them is the need to counsel individual officers after
ascertaining the full details of each case, while keeping current manning
constraints in mind. Details of the interview and recommendations of the
Command Headquarters have to be annotated while forwarding the case for
consideration to the Air Headquarters.
27 The number of officers who are granted PSS in a year is restricted in order
not to upset the manning levels and the operational efficiency of the Air Force.
Hence, while attempting to balance the genuine aspirations of the members of
the Air Force and their personal difficulties, the number of officers to be granted
PSS is computed on the basis of various factors such as induction,
superannuation and other exits from the Air Force. This exercise requires the
collection and gathering of data relating to inductions, rank wise surplus and
deficiencies in each branch and stream from the Directorate of Personnel and
Planning. The data is utilised to compute the number of officers to be granted
PSS in a year. This is distributed between two Boards of Officers scheduled for
being convened in the months of March and September of each year. In each
Board, the figure is further divided into two categories - officers with less than 21
years of service and officers with 21 to 24 years of service. The timeline which is
22
embodied in the policy contemplates that an officer would be given a sufficient
period of approximately nine months to apply for PSS and to retire with full
benefits. During this period, the officer can prepare for the future.
28 Consistent with the need to maintain efficiency and discipline, the policy
restricts the right to seek an extension of PSS. During the period which leads up
to a severance from service, an officer may undergo a pre-release course or a
resettlement course, for which 60 per cent of the cost is borne by the
Government of India. In interpreting the provisions of the policy, including the
withdrawal of a request for premature separation, it is necessary to emphasise
that an officer who is granted PSS takes away an exit vacancy which could have
been provided to another officer of the Air Force.
29 In the submissions before this Court, the rationale for restricting the right of
withdrawal from a PSS has been explained in the above terms. It has also been
emphasised that an officer who is tenanting a sensitive appointment would be
posted to a non-sensitive appointment upon applying for PSS and would be
considered for the grant of PSS on completing a desensitising period of one year.
Permitting an absolute right to withdraw from an approved PSS may, it is
apprehended, lead to the use of the PSS as a tool to escape transfers to
sensitive appointments.
30 It is in this background that it has been submitted, and in our view with
justification, that the right to withdraw a request for PSS from an armed force is
not absolute or unconditional. Paragraph 18 of the Human Resource Policy
23
conditions the withdrawal of an approved PSS application by a stipulation that
such a request can be permitted only as an exception and under “extreme
compassionate grounds”. Paragraph 18 contemplates that a request for
withdrawal of a PSS application, in order to be effective, needs to be permitted.
The use of the term 'permitted’ is indicative of the fact that a withdrawal of a
request is not a matter of right. A withdrawal can be permitted by the competent
authority only by way of “exception” and on “extreme compassionate grounds”.
Moreover, officers who have undergone a pre-release course are not permitted to
request for a withdrawal.
31 Paragraph 18 clearly indicates that the general principle of service law
which has been applied to the civil services, does not apply in the situation of the
Air Force. In matters relating to civilian employment, particularly in the civil
services, voluntary severance of service may either be in the form of a unilateral
or bilateral act. Where severance follows on the basis of a unilateral act by an
employee, no acceptance of the request for severance is required. On the other
hand, where the severance contemplated is bilateral in nature, the request of an
employee for severance becomes effective only upon its acceptance by the
employer. In the context of service jurisprudence, the principle of law which has
been enunciated in the decisions of this Court is that where an employee tenders
a resignation from service with effect from a future date, it is open to the
employee to withdraw from the resignation until it takes effect on the future date
so stipulated.
24
32 The governing principles were enunciated in the decision of a Constitution
Bench of this Court in Union of India v Shri Gopal Chandra Misra12 (“Gopal
Chandra Misra”). The Constitution Bench noted that unlike in the case of a
government servant whose severance from service requires acceptance (and is
hence not a unilateral act), in the case of a judge of the High Court, the
Constitution in the proviso to Article 217(1) has recognised a unilateral right or
privilege to resign office. In the latter case, the resignation would lead to a
termination of the tenure forthwith and cannot be withdrawn thereafter. But it is
open to a judge who tenders a resignation with effect from a future date to
withdraw the resignation before it becomes effective on the prospective date. The
Constitution Bench held thus:
“50. It will bear repetition that the general principle is that in
the absence of a legal contractual or constitutional bar, a
‘prospective’ resignation can be withdrawn at any time before
it becomes effective, and it becomes effective when it
operates to terminate the employment or the office tenure of
the resigner. This general rule is equally applicable to
government servants and constitutional functionaries. In the
case of a government servant/or functionary/who cannot,
under the conditions of his service/or office, by his own
unilateral act of tendering resignation, give up his service/or
office, normally, the tender of resignation becomes effective
and his service/or office tenure terminated, when it is
accepted by the competent authority. In the case of a Judge
of a High Court, who is a constitutional functionary and under
proviso (a) to Article 217(1) has a unilateral right or privilege
to resign his office, his resignation becomes effective and
tenure terminated on the date from which he, of his own
volition, chooses to quit office. If in terms of the writing under
his hand addressed to the President, he resigns in praesenti,
the resignation terminates his office tenure forthwith, and
cannot therefore, be withdrawn or revoked thereafter. But, if
he by such writing, chooses to resign from a future date, the
act of resigning office is not complete because it does not
terminate his tenure before such date and the Judge can at
any time before the arrival of that prospective date on which it
12 (1978) 2 SCC 301
25
was intended to be effective, withdraw it, because the
Constitution does not bar such withdrawal.”
This principle was reiterated in a decision of this Court in Balram Gupta (supra)
where it was held that:
“12. In this case the guidelines are that ordinarily permission
should not be granted unless the officer concerned is in a
position to show that there has been a material change in the
circumstances in consideration of which the notice was
originally given. In the facts of the instant case such indication
has been given. The appellant has stated that on the
persistent and personal requests of the staff members he had
dropped the idea of seeking voluntary retirement. We do not
see how this could not be a good and valid reason. It is true
that he was resigning and in the notice for resignation he had
not given any reason except to state that he sought voluntary
retirement. We see nothing wrong in this. In the modern age
we should not put embargo upon people's choice or freedom.
If, however, the administration had made arrangements
acting on his resignation or letter of retirement to make
other employee available for his job, that would be
another matter but the appellant's offer to retire and
withdrawal of the same happened in such quick succession
that it cannot be said that any administrative set-up or
arrangement was affected...” (Emphasis supplied)
The above observations indicate that the unrestrained choice of an employee to
withdraw a resignation may yet be constrained if the employee had made
arrangements acting on the resignation or letter to make another employee
available for the job.
33 It is in this background that it is necessary to advert to the judgment of a
two judge Bench of this Court in Parthasarathy (supra). The judgment merits a
close analysis. In that case, the respondent was a Wing Commander in the
Indian Air Force and submitted an application on 21 July 1985 for premature
26
retirement from service with the proposed date of severance from service as 31
August 1986. When the application was being processed, he moved an
amendment to his earlier application stating that the actual date of release could
be decided taking into account the pensionary recommendations of the Fourth
Pay Commission report which was expected in November 1985. On 19 February
1986, the respondent submitted an application seeking to withdraw his earlier
request for premature retirement. It was thereafter on 7 March 1986 that he was
served with a communication that on 20 February 1986, the Air Headquarters had
accepted his application to withdraw from service and that he would retire
prematurely at his own request from 31 August 1986.
34 The judgment in Parthasarathy (supra) therefore dealt with a situation
where the officer had stipulated a future date with effect from which his premature
retirement would become effective. However, before the application for retirement
was accepted, he withdrew his request and it was only thereafter that Air
Headquarters accepted his original application and communicated the decision to
retire him from service. It was in this background that a two judge Bench of this
Court held that:
“8…On the other hand, not only the acceptance of the
request by the headquarters, the appropriate authority, was
said to have been made only on 20-2-1986, a day after the
respondent withdrew his request for premature retirement but
even such acceptance in this case was to be effective from a
future date namely 31-8-1986. Consequently, it could not be
legitimately contended by the appellants that there was any
cessation of the relationship of master and servant between
the Department and the respondent at any rate before 31-8-
1986. While that be the position inevitably the respondent had
a right and was entitled to withdraw or revoke his request
earlier made before it ever really and effectively became
effective.”
27
The facts of the case and the above extract clearly make the judgment of this
court in Parthasarathy (supra) distinguishable. In Parthasarathy, the officer
withdrew his request for premature retirement before the effective future date had
arrived. He was sought to be retired prematurely thereafter by the government
despite the request having been withdrawn before it was accepted. The next
aspect of the judgment which merits emphasis is the observation that nothing in
the form of any statutory provision or rule had been brought to the notice of the
court which would impede or deny the right of the employee to withdraw a
resignation before the date on which the resignation could have become
effective. Evidently, the two judge Bench was not dealing with a provision akin to
Paragraph 18 of the Human Resource Policy dated 5 August 2011 which is
involved in the present case. It was in that background that the court held that
there was nothing to impede or deny the right of the employee to withdraw from
the resignation. The judgment of this Court in Parthasarathy (supra) is therefore
distinguishable.
35 The decision of a three judge Bench of this Court in Bank of India v O P
Swarnakar13 dealt with the voluntary retirement scheme of nationalised banks.
Clauses 10.5 and 10.6 of the scheme provided thus:
"10.5. It will not be open for an employee to withdraw the
request made for voluntary retirement under the Scheme
after having exercised such option.
10.6. The competent authority shall have absolute
discretion either to accept or reject the request of an
employee seeking voluntary retirement under the Scheme
depending upon the requirement of the Bank. The
reasons for rejection of request of an employee seeking
13 (2003) 2 SCC 721
28
voluntary retirement shall be recorded in writing by the
competent authority. Acceptance or otherwise of the
request of an employee seeking voluntary retirement will
be communicated to him in writing.”
This Court adverted to the judgment of the Constitution Bench in Gopal Chandra
Misra (supra) as well as to the decisions in Balram Gupta (supra) and in
Parthasarathy (supra) and held thus:
“113. The submission of the learned Attorney-General that
as soon as an offer is made by an employee, the same
would amount to resignation in praesenti cannot be
accepted. The Scheme was in force for a fixed period. A
decision by the authority was required to be taken and till
a decision was taken, the jural relationship of employer
and employee continued and the employees concerned
would have been entitled to payment of all salaries and
allowances etc. Thus it cannot be said to be a case where
the offer was given in praesenti but the same would be
prospective in nature keeping in view of the fact that it
was come into force at a later date and that too subject to
acceptance thereof by the employer. We, therefore, are of
the opinion that the decisions of this Court, as referred to
hereinbefore, shall apply to the facts of the present case
also.”
The Court held that where a group of employees had accepted an ex gratia
payment, they could not be permitted to approbate or reprobate or resile from
their earlier stand. Similarly, the judgment in J N Srivastava v Union of India14 is
an authority for the proposition that even if a notice of voluntary retirement which
is moved by an employee is accepted by the authority within the time fixed, the
employee has a locus poenitentiae to withdraw the proposal for voluntary
retirement before the date of retirement is reached.
14 (1998) 9 SCC 559.
29
36 The above principles are of general application. However, the present case
stands on a different footing and is clearly distinguishable. All the officers in the
present case submitted an application under the terms of the Human Resource
Policy which governed them. Availing the benefit of the policy, they proceeded to
opt for a pre-release course. The policy under which they sought the benefit of a
premature severance of service conditioned the right of withdrawal to the
stipulations contained in paragraph 18. Paragraph 18 of the Human Resource
Policy makes it abundantly clear that there is no unilateral right to withdraw from
a request for PSS once it has been approved. There is, as we have seen, a clear
rationale for such a restriction. The officers involved in this batch of cases applied
under the terms of the policy, seeking PSS. It is not open to them to approbate or
reprobate. They cannot rely on the policy and seek to repudiate Para 18
conditioning the right to withdraw.
37 The determination of the number of PSS applications that should be
granted is based on a careful exercise of assessing the manpower requirements
of the Air Force. The approval of a request of an officer for PSS has
consequences both for the service and for the officer individually until the
eventual severance of service takes place. During the period between the
approval of the application and the date of severance, arrangements are made to
meet the operational requirements of the Air Force. As for the officer, they have
the option to proceed on a pre-release course. The operational requirements of
the Air Force and the need to carefully structure exits under the Human Resource
Policy clearly distinguishes the present case from the judgments relied on by the
30
respondents. In the reply filed by the Union of India in the Civil Appeal involving
Wing Commander Subrata Das, it has been stated :
“That in the current year (2013), 143 officers have applied for
PSS and 89 officers were granted PSS under the provisions
of this HRP. 25 officers had applied for a change of date due
to various reasons and requests of 20 officers has been
acceded to for various reasons. 13 officers have requested
for withdrawal of approved PSS and requests of 11 officers
have been acceded to. Request of only two officers were not
acceded to.”
38 The Tribunal has, in its decisions in the cases involving Wing Commander
Subrata Das, P K Sen and Group Captain Rajeev Moitra, clearly erred in failing to
notice the critical difference in the operational requirements of the service of an
Armed Force of the Nation. The Tribunal has also failed to collectively appreciate
the terms of the policy, its rationale and the basis on which paragraph 18 restricts
the right to withdraw from an approved PSS application. Paragraph 18 is founded
on the principle that even though a severance from service will take place at a
future date, an application for PSS which has been approved cannot be
withdrawn except on the grounds contemplated in that paragraph. Whether a
request to withdraw an approved PSS application meets the criterion of “extreme
compassionate grounds” has to be considered by the competent authority. So
long as the assessment is fair and bona fide, the decision, in our view, ought not
to be faulted.
39 The right to withdraw from an approved PSS application is neither absolute
nor unqualified. We are firmly of the view that the decisions to reject the
applications to withdraw from PSS in the present cases were made bona fide.
The authorities had applied their minds to the question of whether the grounds
31
which were urged fulfilled the “extreme compassionate grounds” criterion. The
authorities were also entitled to make a final determination based on the needs
and exigencies of service. The Tribunal has erroneously interfered with the
exercise of the administrative judgment by the authorities of the Air Force. We
therefore disapprove of the view which has been taken by the Tribunal in the
cases involving Wing Commanders Subrata Das, P K Sen and Group Captain
Rajeev Moitra. The decision of the Tribunal in the case of Wing Commander
Rachit Bhatnagar does not merit our interference for the reasons which we have
indicated earlier.
40 The situation as it stands, is that Wing Commander Subrata Das and P K
Sen resumed their duties after the decision of the Tribunal. Wing Commander P
K Sen has been promoted as Group Captain. Wing Commanders Subrata Das
and Group Captain P K Sen are due to superannuate on 31 January 2019 and 31
January 2020 respectively. Having regard to the fact that both these officers are
presently in service, we direct, in the exercise of our jurisdiction under Article 142
of the Constitution, that their services in the Air Force for the remaining tenure will
not be affected by the present judgment. This will, however, be subject to all the
applicable norms, rules and regulations governing discipline and efficiency
governing the service. As regards Group Captain Rajeev Moitra, we set aside the
judgment and order of the Tribunal and in consequence, the original application
filed before the Tribunal shall stand dismissed. We affirm the judgment of the
Tribunal in the case of Wing Commander Rachit Bhatnagar, though for the
reasons which we have indicated above.
32
41 The civil appeals shall stand disposed of in the above terms. There shall
be no order as to costs.

 ………...…....................................................J
 [Dr DHANANJAYA Y CHANDRACHUD]
.…..........……...............................................J
 [HEMANT GUPTA]
New Delhi;
January 29, 2019.

A claimant seeking a decree of khatedari rights is barred from filing a suit in the civil court prior to their khatedari right being decreed by a revenue court when the relief sought for by the civil court includes a determination of khatedari rights.


Hon'ble Dr. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
REPORTABLE
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CIVIL APPEAL Nos.1269-1270 OF 2019
SPECIAL LEAVE PETITION (CIVIL) Nos. 21402-21403 OF 2015
PYARELAL .... APPELLANT

Versus
SHUBHENDRA PILANIA (MINOR)
THROUGH NATURAL GUARDIAN (FATHER)
SHRI PRADEEP KUMAR PILANIA & ORS. ....RESPONDENTS
J U D G M E N T
DR DHANANJAYA Y CHANDRACHUD, J.
1 Leave granted.
2 The appeals in the present case arise from two orders dated 13
November 2014 and 2 March 2015 of the Rajasthan High Court in exercise of
its revisional jurisdiction. By an order dated 13 November 2014, the learned
Single Judge of the High Court allowed the revision petition filed by the
respondents. The challenge was to an order dated 26 August 2013 of the
1
Additional Civil Judge (Junior Division), Sikar rejecting the objection to the
jurisdiction of the civil court to try the suit filed by the appellant. The appellant
filed a petition for review before the High Court. The learned single Judge
dismissed the petition on 2 March 2015.
3 The family tree of the appellant is depicted below:
Bholu (deceased)
Mangalram (deceased) Rukma Devi (wife, deceased)
Bhagwan Singh (R3) Kushali Devi
Pradeep Kumar (R2)
Shubhendra (R1)
Pyarelal (Appellant) Amrita (R7) Shanti (R8) Kamla (R9) Santosh (R10)
The Sub-Registrar and Tehsildar are respondent Nos. 4 and 5 respectively.
4 The appellant alleged that on the death of Mangalram and Rukma Devi,
the agricultural land in question devolved upon respondent No. 3 and his
sister Kushali Devi (mother of the Plaintiff) in equal shares. Kushali Devi died
intestate and her share devolved upon her children – the appellant and
respondent Nos. 7 to 10 in equal measure. The appellant and respondent
Nos. 7 to 10 claim to be in possession of their share in the suit property. The
appellant alleged that respondent Nos. 2 and 3 colluded with the Sarpanch of
the village and got the name of respondent No. 3 recorded as the owner of
the land belonging to the appellant and respondent Nos. 7 to 10. Thereafter,
respondent Nos. 2 and 3 registered a gift deed dated 10 February 2011 in
favour of respondent No. 1.
5 On 13 March 2012, the appellant filed a civil suit1
 against the
respondents praying that the gift deed dated 10 February 2011 be declared
void to the extent of the share claimed by the appellant and that respondent
1 62/2012
2
Nos. 1 to 5 be restrained from alienating the suit property. Respondent Nos. 1
to 3 filed an application under Order VII Rule 11 read with Section 151 of the
Code of Civil Procedure 19082
 contending that the appellant, who is not a
recorded khatedar of the suit land, had filed a suit before the revenue court for
the declaration of his khatedari right and the suit preferred by the appellant
before the Trial court was liable to be dismissed. In reply, the appellant
admitted that a suit had been filed before the revenue court for the declaration
of his khatedari right but contended that the civil court had jurisdiction to grant
the relief sought.
6 On 26 August, 2013, the Trial court dismissed the application, taking
the view that any conclusion on the question of jurisdiction can only be drawn
after framing preliminary issues and recording evidence of the parties. The
objections were dismissed by Trial court with the following observations:
“6. So far as present application is concerned, in the said
application, the first ground taken by the defendants is that
the plaintiff and the defendant Nos. 7 to 10 are not recorded
kashtkar of the disputed land and they have already filed suit
in the revenue court for getting their khatedari right declared.
Therefore, civil courts have no jurisdiction to try the present
suit.
7. In this context, the defendants cited Rukmani v Bhola and
others (SB Civil Misc. Appeal No. 553/1993) dated
20.12.2011, while plaintiff cited DNJ 2013(1) Rajasthan 358.
In the citation of the defendants, though the Hon’ble High
Court has set this principle that if the relief of declaring any
document ineffective and void is sought for and in pith and
substance, the suit is related with khatedari rights, then
revenue court would have jurisdiction to try the suit because
until and unless revenue court has not declared khatedari
rights, the civil court cannot declare the document void.
Though in the citation cited by the defendants as stated
above, the suit must be related for the declaration of basic
khatedari rights, then only the jurisdiction is vested unto the
revenue court, but if we carefully peruse the said citation then
in that case the trial court has framed issues on the basis of
pleadings of the plaint and written statement of the parties
and thereafter recording evidence of the parties on the
2 “The Code”
3
preliminary issue, the suit has been returned back for filing in
the concerned court in view of Order VII Rule 11 CPC. In the
present case, issues are yet to be framed. The plaintiff has
pleaded in the plaint that his mother has one half share in the
suit land hence on this point any conclusion can be drawn
only after framing a preliminary issue and recording evidence
of the parties.”
7 Respondent Nos. 1 to 3 challenged the order of the Trial court in
revision under Section 115 of the Code. The Rajasthan High Court allowed
the revision by its judgement dated 13 November 2014. Relying on the
averments in the plaint, the High Court held that the suit was barred by the
provisions of the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955.3
 The High Court observed
thus:
“Apparently and looking to the prayer of the plaintiff in the
Trial court, it can easily be said that the suit was triable only
by the revenue court under the provisions of Section 88 and
Section 207 of the Act of 1955 and hence it can further be
said that the suit from the averment in the plaint appears to
be barred under the provisions of the Act of 1955 and the suit
should have been rejected on that count alone under the
provisions of Order VII Rule 11(d) of Code of Civil Procedure
and hence the order dated 26.8.2013 passed by Additional
Civil Judge (Jr. Div.) No.2, Sikar in Civil Suit No.62/2012 B.T.
No.20/12 deserves to be quashed and set aside which is
hereby quashed and set aside.”
The review petition preferred by appellant was dismissed.
8 Assailing the decision of the High Court, learned counsel for the
appellant urged the following submissions:
(i) The relief claimed in the suit is not covered under Section 207 and the
Third Schedule of the Tenancy Act and a civil court has jurisdiction to
decide the existing dispute; and
(ii) A suit before a civil court is maintainable even though a suit for declaring
khatedari rights has been filed before the revenue court.
3 Tenancy Act
4
9 On the other hand, learned counsel for the respondents has urged the
following submissions:
i) The jurisdiction of a civil court is barred in respect of suits and applications
of the nature specified in the Third Schedule of the Tenancy Act;
ii) A civil court has no jurisdiction to entertain a suit or proceeding with
respect to any matter arising under the Tenancy Act or the Rules made
under it, provided that a remedy by way of a suit, application or appeal or
otherwise is provided in the Act; and
iii) The issue of jurisdiction travels to the root of or to the inherent lack of
jurisdiction.
10 These submissions fall for our consideration.
11 Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure provides thus:
“9. Courts to try all civil suits unless barred - The Courts
shall (subject to the provisions herein contained) have
jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of
which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred.
Explanation I - A suit in which the right to property or to an
office is contested is a suit of a civil nature, notwithstanding
that such right may depend entirely on the decision of
questions as to religious rites or ceremonies.
Explanation ll - For the purposes of this section, it is
immaterial whether or not any fees are attached to the office
referred to in Explanation I or whether or not such office is
attached to a particular place.”
5
Section 9 empowers civil courts to try all suits of a civil nature unless
expressly or impliedly barred by any statute.
12 Section 256 of the Tenancy Act provides thus:
“256. Bar to jurisdiction of civil courts — (i) Save as
otherwise provided specifically by or under this Act, no suit or
proceeding shall lie in any civil court with respect to any
matter arising under this Act or the rules made thereunder, for
which a remedy by way of suit, application, appeal or
otherwise is provided therein.
(2) Save as aforesaid no order passed by the State
Government or by any revenue court or officer in exercise of
the powers conferred by this Act or the rules made
thereunder, shall be liable to be questioned in any civil court.”
Section 256 bars the jurisdiction of civil courts, save as otherwise provided
under the Tenancy Act. Civil courts are expressly barred from trying a suit or
proceeding with respect to matters arising under the Tenancy Act or rules
made under it for which a remedy by way of a suit, application, appeal or
otherwise is provided in the Tenancy Act.
13 Section 207 of the Tenancy Act provides thus:
“207. Suits and applications cognizable by revenue court
only—
(1) All suits and applications of the nature specified in the
Third Schedule shall be heard and determined by a revenue
court.
(2) No court other than a revenue court shall take cognizance
of any such suit or application or of any suit or application
based on a cause of action in respect of which any relief
could be obtained by means of any such suit or application.
Explanation.— If the cause of action is one in respect of
which relief might be granted by the revenue court, it is
immaterial that the relief asked for from the civil court is
greater than, or additional to, or is not identical with, that
which the revenue court could have granted.”
6
Section 207 of the Tenancy Act states that no court other than a revenue court
shall take cognizance of suits and applications of the nature specified in the
Third Schedule. Such suits can be heard and determined by a revenue court
which has exclusive jurisdiction. The explanation clarifies that if the cause of
action is one in respect of which relief may be granted by the revenue court,
then it is immaterial that a relief sought from the civil court is greater than, in
addition to or not identical to the relief sought from the revenue court. Where a
suit is of a nature specified in any of the provisions of the Third Schedule, the
bar under Section 256 is attracted and the revenue courts have exclusive
jurisdiction to try the suit.
14 In Bank of Baroda v Moti Bhai4
, a two judge Bench of this Court dealt
with the question of jurisdiction under Sections 207 and 256 of the Tenancy
Act. A bank had sanctioned a demand loan facility to the respondent for which
the respondent executed a promissory note and a simple mortgage in favour
of the bank. On his failure to repay the loan, the Bank instituted a suit in the
civil court for recovery. The respondent raised a preliminary objection that the
suit was essentially one for enforcing the mortgage and that the revenue court
had the exclusive jurisdiction to entertain the suit by reason of the provisions
contained in the Tenancy Act. The Trial court dismissed the objection. Allowing
the revision filed by the respondent, the High Court held that that the
mortgage deed in respect of agricultural lands formed an essential part of the
cause of action. Upon an analysis of Sections 207 and 256 of the Tenancy
4 (1985) 1 SCC 475
7
Act, a two judge Bench of this Court set aside the judgment of the High Court
with the following reasons:
“5. A combined reading of these two sections would
show that the jurisdiction of civil courts is barred only in
respect of suits and applications of the nature specified
in the Third Schedule to the Act and in respect of suits or
applications based on a cause of action in respect of
which any relief could be obtained by means of a suit or
application of the nature specified in the Third Schedule.
The civil court has no jurisdiction to entertain a suit or
proceeding with respect to any matter arising under the
Act or the Rules made thereunder, provided that a
remedy by way of a suit, application or appeal or
otherwise is provided in the Act.
A loan given by a Bank to an agriculturist, which is in the
nature of a commercial transaction, is outside the
contemplation of the Act and can, by no stretch of
imagination, be said to be in respect of any matter arising
under the Act… The business of the Bank, in so far as lending
transactions are concerned, is not to lend moneys on
mortgages but the business is to lend moneys.
8. On the question of jurisdiction, one must always have
regard to the substance of the matter and not to the form
of the suit. If the matter is approached from that point of
view, it would be clear that, primarily and basically, the suit
filed by the Bank is one for recovering the amount which is
due to it from the respondents on the basis of the promissory
note executed by respondent 1 and the guarantee given by
respondents 2 and 3.”
(Emphasis supplied)
Section 207 read with Section 256 of the Tenancy Act bars the jurisdiction of
the civil courts in respect of suits and applications of the nature specified in
the Third Schedule to the Act. The question before us is whether the relief
claimed by the appellant can be granted exclusively by a revenue court under
the provisions of the Tenancy Act.
15 Section 88 of the Tenancy Act provides thus:
“88. Suits for declaration of right:-
8
(1) Any person claiming to be a tenant or a co-tenant may sue
for a declaration that he is a tenant or for a declaration of his
share in such joint tenancy.
(2) A tenant of Khudkasht may sue for a declaration that he is
such a tenant.
(3) A sub-tenant may sue the person from whom he holds for
declaration that he is a sub-tenant.
(4) A landholder other than a State Government may sue a
person claiming to be a tenant or co-tenant of a holding or a
tenant of Khudkasht or a sub-tenant for a declaration of the
right of such person.”
Sl. No. 5 of the Third Schedule provides thus:
“THE THIRD SCHEDULE
Suits, Applications and Appeals under the Act
(See Sections 207, 214, 215 & 217)
S.
No.
Section
of Act
Description of suit, application or
appeal
Period of
limitation
Time
from
which
period
begins to
run
Proper
Court Fees
Court/
Officer
competent
to dispose
of
5. 88 Suit for declaration of the plaintiffs
right :-
(i) as a tenant, or
(ii) as a tenant of
khudkasht, or
(iii) as a sub-tenant, or
(iv) for a share in a joint
tenancy
None One rupee
Assistant
Collector


Sl. No. 5 in the Third Schedule read with Section 207 of the Tenancy Act
stipulates that a suit for the declaration of a right provided in Section 88 would
lie before a revenue court. In a suit where the relief sought for is the
declaration of the right stipulated in Section 88, Sections 207 and 256 read
with the Third Schedule bar the jurisdiction of civil courts and vest jurisdiction
exclusively with a revenue court.
9
16 It is admitted that the suit property is agricultural property and the
appellant has filed a suit before the revenue court for the declaration of his
khatedari rights.
17 Order VII Rule 11(d) of the Code provides thus:
“11. Rejection of plaint. – The plaint shall be rejected in the
following cases:-
(a) …
(b) …
(c) …
(d) Where the suit appears from the statement in the
plaint to be barred by any law;”
A plaint shall be rejected where the suit appears from the averments made in
the plaint to be barred by any law. To determine whether the relief sought by
the appellant before the Trial court is a relief that may be granted by a
revenue court and is consequently barred under the provisions of the Tenancy
Act, the prayer in the plaint before the Trial court may be examined. The
prayer reads thus:
“a) That the suit may be decreed in favour of the plaintiff and
against defendants No. 1 to 3 and the gift deed executed and
registered on 10.2.2011 at Book No. 1 Volume No. 737, Page
No. 53, Sr. No. 2011001797 in the Office of Sub Registrar
Sikar may kindly be declared as exhibitory, illegal, ab-initio,
void and ineffective and may be cancelled to the extent of ½
share of the defendant and plaintiff Nos. 7 to 10 in the
agricultural land comprised Khasra No. 395 Rakba 0.24
Hectare, Khasra No 395 Rakba 0.24 Hectare, Khasra No. 410
Rakba 0.87 Hectare situated in Village Ajeetpura, Tehsil and
District Sikar and for putting a note to this effect on the gift
deed; a copy of the judgment and decree may kindly be
forwarded to the Sub Registrar, Sikar;
(b) That defendant Nos. 1 to 5 may kindly be restrained not to
transfer, mortgage, damage, sale or transfer the ½ share of
the agricultural land which is in possession and cultivation of
the plaintiff and defendant Nos. 7 to 10 out of the land of
Khasra No. 395 Rakba 0.24 Hectare and Khasra No. 410
Rakba 0.87 Hectare situated in village Ajeetpura, Tehsil and
10
District Sikar described in the said gift deed and not to disturb
their cultivatory possession and not to raise any construction
thereon and not to mortgage, gift, transfer or create any
charge and not to transfer the same and not to register any
mortgage deed and not to change the revenue records on the
basis of the gift deed in question and further not to do such
acts through his agents, servants and representatives etc. in
any manner;
(c) That cost of the suit may be granted in favour of the
plaintiff and against the defendant Nos. 2 and 3;
(d) Any other relief which this Hon’ble Court may deem fit and
proper be also passed in favour of the plaintiff.”
18 The appellant has prayed that the gift deed dated 10 February, 2011 be
declared void to the extent of the share claimed by the appellant and that
respondent Nos. 1 to 5 be restrained from alienating the share of the
appellant. The civil court may decree the relief prayed only if it is first
determined that the appellant is entitled to khatedari rights in the suit property.
Under the provisions of the Tenancy Act, the jurisdiction to declare khatedari
rights vests exclusively with the revenue courts. Only after such determination
may the civil court proceed to decree the relief as prayed. The explanation to
Section 207 clarifies that if the cause of action in respect of which relief is
sought can be granted only by the revenue court, then it is immaterial that the
relief asked from the civil court is greater than, or in addition to or not identical
with the relief which the revenue court would have granted. In view of this
matter, the civil court may not grant relief until the khatedari rights of the
appellant have been decreed by a revenue court.
19 A claimant whose khatedari rights have been decreed by a revenue
court is however on a different footing from a claimant whose khatedari rights
are pending adjudication by a revenue court. Where the khatedari rights are
yet to be decreed, a claimant must first approach the revenue courts. The
11
relief to declare the gift deed void and to restrain respondents Nos. 1 to 5 from
interfering with or alienating the property vesting in a civil court may be sought
for in a suit by a claimant in whom khatedari rights have been decreed by a
revenue court.
20 In Shri Ram v A D J5
, a suit was filed before the civil court for the
cancellation of a sale deed of an agricultural land on the grounds of fraud and
impersonation. The defendant contended that the suit is barred by Section
331 of the Uttar Pradesh Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950
which reads thus:
“331. Cognizance of suits etc. under this Act. – (1) Except
as provided by or under this Act, no Court other than a Court
mentioned in Column 4 of Schedule II shall, notwithstanding
anything contained in the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 (V of
1908), take cognizance of any suit, application, or
proceedings mentioned in Column 3 thereof or of a suit,
application or proceedings based on a cause of action in
respect of which any relief could be obtained by means of any
such suit or application;

Explanation.- If the cause of action is one in respect of which
relief may be granted by the revenue Court, it is immaterial
that the relief asked for from the civil Court may not be
incidental to that which the revenue Court would have
granted.”
The question before this court was whether a recorded tenure-holder having
prima facie title in his favour and in possession was required to file a suit in
the revenue court, or where the civil court had jurisdiction to entertain and
decide the suit seeking relief of cancellation of a void document. Upholding
the jurisdiction of civil court to try the suit, a two judge Bench of this Court
differentiated between a recorded tenure holder, and an unrecorded tenure
holder with the following observations:
5 (2001) 3 SCC 24
12
“7. …we are of the opinion that where a recorded tenure
holder having a prima facie title and in possession files suit in
the civil court for cancellation of sale deed having obtained on
the ground of fraud or impersonation cannot be directed to file
a suit for declaration in the revenue court - reason being that
in such a case, prima facie, the title of the recorded tenure
holder is not under cloud. He does not require declaration of
his title to the land. The position would be different where a
person not being a recorded tenure holder seeks cancellation
of sale deed by filing a suit in the civil court on the ground of
fraud or impersonation. There necessarily the plaintiff is
required to seek a declaration of his title and, therefore, he
may be directed to approach the revenue court, as the sale
deed being void has to be ignored for giving him relief for
declaration and possession.”
21 Though the above principles emerge in the context of the bar under
Section 331 of the Uttar Pradesh Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act,
1950, the logic of the judgment extends to the bar under Section 207 read
with Section 256 of the of the Tenancy Act. A recorded khatedar stands on a
different footing compared to a claimant seeking a decree of their khatedari
rights. A claimant seeking a decree of khatedari rights is barred from filing a
suit in the civil court prior to their khatedari right being decreed by a revenue
court when the relief sought for by the civil court includes a determination of
khatedari rights.
22 In the present case, the High Court has proceeded on the basis that the
suit seeking a declaration of the gift deed relating to disputed agricultural land
situated in Sikar as void and restraining Respondent Nos. 1 to 5 from transfer
or sale of the agricultural land before the civil court is squarely covered by the
bar to the jurisdiction of the civil court under the provisions of the Tenancy Act.
The claim of the appellant to khatedari rights is pending adjudication by a
revenue court which has the exclusive jurisdiction to adjudicate upon such a
13
claim. The appellant has no right to seek relief before the civil court without
first getting his khatedari rights decreed by the revenue court.
23 For the above reasons, we find that there is no merit in the challenge
preferred by the appellant to the impugned judgment and order of the High
Court. The appeals shall, accordingly stand dismissed. There shall be no
order as to costs.
…..…….....……………………..........................J.
 [UDAY UMESH LALIT]
 ……..........……………………..........................J.
 [Dr DHANANJAYA Y CHANDRACHUD]
NEW DELHI;
JANUARY 29, 2019.
14

in a local train one Dasarath Yadav had peeped his head out of the compartment door and his head collided with a post by the side of the railway track resulting in an accident where he lost his life = Therefore, if the liability had arisen before the amendment was brought in, the basic figure would be as per the Schedule as was in existence before the amendment and on such basic figure reasonable rate of interest would be calculated. If there be any difference between the amount so calculated and the amount prescribed in the Schedule as on the date of the award, the higher of two figures would be the measure of compensation. For instance, in case of a death in an accident which occurred before amendment, the basic figure would be Rs.4,00,000/-. If, after applying reasonable rate of interest, the final figure were to be less than Rs.8,00,000/-, which was brought in by way of amendment, the claimant would be entitled to Rs.8,00,000/-. If, however, the amount of original compensation with rate of interest were to exceed the sum of Rs.8,00,000/- the compensation would be in terms of figure in excess of Rs.8,00,000/-. The idea is to afford the benefit of the amendment, to the extent possible. Thus, according to us, the matter is crystal clear. The issue does not need any further clarification or elaboration. we must hold that the High Court was in error in awarding interest on the sum of Rs.8 lakhs in the instant case. Where the accident had occurred before the amendment, it ought to have considered the matter in the light of the principle laid down in Rani Devi1 . We, therefore, set aside the impugned judgment and allow the appeals. However, the respondent, in any case, would not be affected in any manner and will be entitled to the sum awarded by the High Court.

 
Hon'ble Mr. Justice Uday Umesh Lalit 
Civil Appeal Nos.1265-1266/2019 @ SLP(C)Nos.28032-33/2018
 Union of India vs. Radha Yadav
 1
Reportable
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CIVIL APPEAL NOS. 1265-1266 OF 2019
(Arising out of Special Leave Petition (Civil)Nos.28032-28033 of 2018)
UNION OF INDIA ……Appellant
VERSUS
RADHA YADAV ..…. Respondent
WITH
Civil Appeal Nos.1267-1268 of 2019 @
Special leave Petition (Civil) Nos.2993-2994 of 2019
(D.No.33760)
JUDGMENT
Uday Umesh Lalit, J.
1. Leave granted.
2. While travelling from Burdwan Railway Station to Howrah Railway
Station on 02.10.2003 in a local train one Dasarath Yadav had peeped his head
out of the compartment door and his head collided with a post by the side of
the railway track resulting in an accident where he lost his life. The Railway
Claims Tribunal, Kolkata by its judgment and order dated 27.09.2007 found
 Civil Appeal Nos.1265-1266/2019 @ SLP(C)Nos.28032-33/2018
 Union of India vs. Radha Yadav
 2
that the deceased was a bona fide railway passenger and that the incident was
an “untoward incident” in terms of the provisions of Section 123 of the
Railways Act, 1989 (hereinafter referred to as “the Act”). The Tribunal,
however, found that the deceased was victim of his own act and as such no
compensation was payable.
3. The dismissal of the Claim Petition was challenged by the respondent
i.e. widow of the deceased by filing FMA No.858 of 2012 in the High Court
at Calcutta.
4. The Railway Accidents and Untoward Incidents (Compensation)
Rules, 1990 (hereinafter referred to as “the Rules) provide for a Schedule
prescribing the amount of compensation payable in respect of death and
injuries. During the pendency of the matter by way of amendment, the
amount of compensation which was earlier at the level of Rs.4,00,000/- in
case of death was raised to Rs.8,00,000/-.
5. It was found by the High Court that in terms of Section 124-A of the
Act the ‘Principle of Strict Liability’ would arise and as such the Tribunal was
not right in denying compensation to the respondent. While allowing the
appeal, the High Court held the respondent to be entitled to compensation of
Rs.8,00,000/- with interest @ 9% per annum. The judgment of the High
 Civil Appeal Nos.1265-1266/2019 @ SLP(C)Nos.28032-33/2018
 Union of India vs. Radha Yadav
 3
Court in the present case was delivered on 03.03.2017. The challenge raised
by way of review petition was also rejected on 30.11.2017.
6. On 09.05.2018 in the case of Union of India v. Rina Devi1
 this
Court considered the following questions:
i) Whether the quantum of compensation should be as per
the prescribed rate of compensation as on the date of
application/incident or on the date of order awarding
compensation;
ii) Whether principle of strict liability applies;
iii) Whether presence of a body near the railway track is
enough to maintain a claim;
iv) Rate of interest.
As regards the first question this Court ruled as under:-
“18. ……. We are of the view that law in the present context
should be taken to be that the liability will accrue on the date
of the accident and the amount applicable as on that date will
be the amount recoverable but the claimant will get interest
from the date of accident till the payment at such rate as may
be considered just and fair from time to time. In this context,
rate of interest applicable in motor accident claim cases can
be held to be reasonable and fair. Once concept of interest has
been introduced, principles of Workmen Compensation Act
can certainly be applied and judgment of 4-Judge Bench in
Pratap Narain Singh Deo2
 will fully apply. Wherever it is
found that the revised amount of applicable compensation as
on the date of award of the Tribunal is less than the
1 2018 SCC OnLine SC 507 =2018 AIR 2362 = 2018 SCR 417 = 2018 (7) SCALE 274
2
 (1976) 1 SCC 289
 Civil Appeal Nos.1265-1266/2019 @ SLP(C)Nos.28032-33/2018
 Union of India vs. Radha Yadav
 4
prescribed amount of compensation as on the date of accident
with interest, higher of the two amounts ought to be awarded
on the principle of beneficial legislation. Present legislation is
certainly a piece of beneficent legislation.
19. Accordingly, we conclude that compensation will be
payable as applicable on the date of the accident with interest
as may be considered reasonable from time to time on the
same pattern as in accident claim cases. If the amount so
calculated is less than the amount prescribed as on the date of
the award of the Tribunal, the claimant will be entitled to
higher of the two amounts. This order will not affect the
awards which have already become final and where
limitation for challenging such awards has expired, this order
will not by itself be a ground for condonation of delay.
Seeming conflict in Rathi Menon3
 and Kalandi Charan
Sahoo4
 stands explained accordingly. The 4-Judge Bench
judgment in Pratap Narain Singh Deo2
 holds the field on the
subject and squarely applies to the present situation.
Compensation as applicable on the date of the accident has to
be given with reasonable interest and to give effect to the
mandate of beneficial legislation, if compensation as
provided on the date of award of the Tribunal is higher than
unrevised amount with interest, the higher of the two
amounts has to be given.”
7. This Special Leave Petition was filed in the month of September,
2018 i.e. after the aforesaid decision of this Court in Rina Devi1
.
3
(2001) 3 SCC 714
4
 2018 (7) SCJ 159 = (2017) SCC Online SC 1638
 Civil Appeal Nos.1265-1266/2019 @ SLP(C)Nos.28032-33/2018
 Union of India vs. Radha Yadav
 5
8. When the matter was taken up, it was submitted on behalf of the
appellant that grant of interest on the sum of Rs.8,00,000/- was not
consistent with the law laid down by this Court in the case of Rina Devi1
. It
was contended that despite said decision, in number of cases interest was
being awarded on the revised amount of Rs.8,00,000/-. In the peculiar facts
and circumstances, this Court did not find it appropriate to issue notice to the
respondent but appointed Mr. Brijender Chahar, learned Senior Advocate as
amicus curiae to assist the Court. It was made clear that the respondent
shall be entitled to the benefit ordered by the High Court irrespective of the
decision as regards question of law raised in the matter.
9. We heard Mr. Vikramjit Banerjee, learned Additional Solicitor
General for the appellant and Mr. Brijender Chahar, learned amicus curiae.
10. The issue raised in the matter does not really require any elaboration
as in our view, the judgment of this Court in the case of Rina Devi1
 is very
clear. What this Court has laid down is that the amount of compensation
payable on the date of accident with reasonable rate of interest shall first be
calculated. If the amount so calculated is less than the amount prescribed as
on the date of the award, the claimant would be entitled to higher of these
 Civil Appeal Nos.1265-1266/2019 @ SLP(C)Nos.28032-33/2018
 Union of India vs. Radha Yadav
 6
two amounts. Therefore, if the liability had arisen before the amendment
was brought in, the basic figure would be as per the Schedule as was in
existence before the amendment and on such basic figure reasonable rate of
interest would be calculated. If there be any difference between the amount
so calculated and the amount prescribed in the Schedule as on the date of the
award, the higher of two figures would be the measure of compensation.
For instance, in case of a death in an accident which occurred before
amendment, the basic figure would be Rs.4,00,000/-. If, after applying
reasonable rate of interest, the final figure were to be less than Rs.8,00,000/-,
which was brought in by way of amendment, the claimant would be entitled
to Rs.8,00,000/-. If, however, the amount of original compensation with rate
of interest were to exceed the sum of Rs.8,00,000/- the compensation would
be in terms of figure in excess of Rs.8,00,000/-. The idea is to afford the
benefit of the amendment, to the extent possible. Thus, according to us, the
matter is crystal clear. The issue does not need any further clarification or
elaboration.
11. Consequently, we must hold that the High Court was in error in
awarding interest on the sum of Rs.8 lakhs in the instant case. Where the
accident had occurred before the amendment, it ought to have considered the
 Civil Appeal Nos.1265-1266/2019 @ SLP(C)Nos.28032-33/2018
 Union of India vs. Radha Yadav
 7
matter in the light of the principle laid down in Rani Devi1
. We, therefore,
set aside the impugned judgment and allow the appeals. However, the
respondent, in any case, would not be affected in any manner and will be
entitled to the sum awarded by the High Court.
12. We must also note an important aspect which was brought to our
notice by the learned amicus curiae. He placed summary of four Reports
regarding safety in Indian Railways. Those Reports are:-
1. Anil Kakodkar High Level Safety Review Committee,
17.02.2012;
2. Twelfth Report of 16th Lok Sabha on safety and security in
Railways;
3. Report No.14 of 2016 of the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India on Suburban Train Services in Indian
Railways; and
4. Twenty-Third Report of Standing Committee on Railways
(2013-14) Fifteenth Lok Sabha, Ministry of Railways Report
on Suburban Train Services of Indian Railways, with particular
emphasis on Security of Women Passengers.
13. The learned Additional Solicitor General readily agreed to the
suggestion that the Railways must consider the matter in right earnest and
see that the concerns regarding safety are immediately addressed. On the
 Civil Appeal Nos.1265-1266/2019 @ SLP(C)Nos.28032-33/2018
 Union of India vs. Radha Yadav
 8
request of the learned Additional Solicitor General, we, therefore, adjourn
the matter for eight weeks only to consider the issues regarding the safety as
highlighted by the learned amicus curiae.
14. Ordered accordingly.
15. In view of the order passed in the lead matter, namely, Civil Appeals
arising out of Union of India v. Radha Yadav, Civil Appeal Nos 1267-1268
of 2019 @ SLP(C) Nos.2993-2994 of 2019 (D.No.33760 of 2018) are
disposed of in the same terms.
……..…..……..……J.
 (Uday Umesh Lalit)
.……….……………J.
 (Indira Banerjee)
New Delhi;
January 29, 2019. 

The peculiar factual position is that the Act of 2006 had been notified on 03.04.2006 but came into force on 01.10.2007 and the NOC was issued on 27.03.2006, after the Government of Rajasthan had invited open bids on 19.11.2005 for laying of City Gas Distribution network in the cities of Udaipur and Jaipur, in which the appellant had been selected. Besides depositing the sum of Rs. 2 Crores immediately towards commitment fee, the appellant had thereafter incurred mammoth expenditure after it was successful in the bids, which aspect has not been considered by the Board while deciding the application of the appellant. In our considered view, the same should not have normally been over looked. Besides the same, in the factual circumstances of the present case, the provision of ‘deemed authorisation’ contained in Proviso (ii) to Section 16 had also been enforced on 12.07.2010 and it was necessary for the Board to have considered whether it was a case where only certain safeguards were required to be observed in view of the ‘deemed authorisation’ = the decision of the State Government to revoke the NOC vide order dated 18.05.2011 was also highly unfair and unjust in as much as the reply of the petitioner dated 16.03.2011 in response to the notice dated 26.02.2011 has not been dealt with by the Government of Rajasthan while passing the said impugned order dated 18.05.2011. As such, the same does not stand to reason, which also deserves to be quashed.


Hon'ble Mr. Justice Arun Mishra
1
NON­REPORTABLE
IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
CIVIL APPEAL NO.    1261   OF 2019
[@ SPECIAL LEAVE PETITION [C] NO. 21986 OF 2015]
ADANI GAS LIMITED & ANR.       …..APPELLANTS
VERSUS
UNION OF INDIA & ORS.     ……RESPONDENTS
J U D G M E N T
Leave granted.
2. The appellant company is registered under the Companies Act,
1956 and is involved in the business of setting up of Natural Gas
Distribution Networks within India. The dispute in this petition is with
regard to the Gas Distribution Network (for short ‘GDN’) in the cities of
Udaipur and Jaipur in the State of Rajasthan. Challenging the order
dated   18.05.2011   of   the   Government   of   Rajasthan   whereby   No
Objection Certificate (for short ‘NOC’) for laying down of Gas Network
pipelines   granted   in   favour   of   the   appellant   had   been   withdrawn
(including forfeiture of the commitment fees of Rs. 2 Crore deposited
by the appellant), and also the order dated 19.05.2011 of the Board
2
rejecting   the   application   of   the   appellant   for   authorisation   of   its
projects in Udaipur and Jaipur, as well as challenging the validity of
the Regulation 18 of the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board
(Authorizing Entities to Lay, Build, Operate or Expand City or Local
Natural   Gas   Distribution   Networks)   Regulations,   2008   (for   short
‘Regulations of 2008’), the appellant had filed Writ Petition No. 10028
of 2011 before the Rajasthan High Court, which has been dismissed
on 29.04.2015.  Aggrieved by the same, this Special Leave Petition has
been filed.
3. Brief facts of this case are that on 19.11.2005 the Government of
Rajasthan   invited   parties   to   submit   their   bids   for   laying   of   Gas
Distribution Network in certain cities of Rajasthan, including the said
two   cities   of   Udaipur   and   Jaipur.     In   response   to   the   same,   the
appellant submitted its Expression of Interest for the cities of Udaipur
and Jaipur. On 20.03.2006, the Government of Rajasthan informed
the   appellant   that   it   intended   to   grant   NOC   to   the   appellant   for
undertaking Gas Distribution in the cities of Udaipur and Jaipur,
which was to be subject to certain conditions as mentioned in the
aforesaid communication dated 20.03.2006.   Immediately thereafter
on 22.03.2006, the appellant company informed that it agreed to all
3
the terms and conditions laid down by the Government of Rajasthan
in its communication dated 20.03.2006 whereby it intended to grant
NOC to the appellant.  Then, on 24.03.2006, the appellant deposited
the commitment fees of Rs. 2 Crore.  On 27.03.2006, the Government
of   Rajasthan   granted   the   NOC   to   the   appellant   company   for   Gas
Distribution in the cities of Udaipur and Jaipur.  The appellant then
started its work of laying down the City Gas Development Network in
the said two cities.
4. The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Regulations
Act, 2006 (for short ‘Act of 2006) was notified on 03.04.2006, except
for   the   provisions   of   Section   16   of   the   said   Act   relating   to
authorisation.  On 21.07.2007, the appellant company made a request
for authorisation of its City Gas Distribution Project under Act of 2006
to the Chairman of Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (for
short ‘the Board’).  In the said communication, the appellant had also
provided the details of its existing projects in the country, namely at
Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Faridabad, Noida, Khurja, Lucknow, Udaipur
and   Jaipur.     The   appellant   had   also   submitted   that   in   terms   of
Sections 15 and 16 of Chapter IV of the Act of 2006, there was a
provision   of   ‘deemed   authorisation’   of   the   existing   City   Gas
4
Distribution Projects and in terms of the Act of 2006, a brief dealing of
all the projects under its implementation was also enclosed.
5. Then,   on   24.07.2007,   the   appellant   wrote   to   the   Ministry   of
Petroleum and Natural Gas requesting for authorisation of its City Gas
Distribution Projects under the Act of 2006 for all its gas projects,
including the ones of Udaipur and Jaipur.   The Act of 2006 was
although notified on 03.04.2006, but came into force with effect from
01.10.2007, which was its appointed date.  However, Section 16 of the
said Act, relating to ‘Authorisation’, was brought into force only with
effect from 15.07.2010. 
6. On 30.10.2007 the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board
issued a press note, calling upon all the concerned entities involved in
or proposed to the laying, building, operating or expanding of a City or
Local   Gas   Distribution   Network   prior   to   the   appointed   date,   i.e.
01.10.2007, to furnish the particulars of such activities to the Board
within six months from the appointed date.  It was further provided
that in cases where no authorisation was granted to the entities that
initiated the specified activities before the appointed date, then such
entities were to apply for authorisation under Section 17 of the Act of
5
2006.  The Government of Rajasthan, then on 05.12.2007, intimated
the appellant of the press note dated 30.10.2007 and required the
appellant to submit the details, as were prescribed in terms of the said
press   note.     Two   days   thereafter,   on   07.12.2007,   the   appellant
submitted the requisite details for the City Gas Distribution Projects of
Udaipur   and   Jaipur.     Then,   on   11.12.2007,   the   Government   of
Rajasthan called upon the appellant to further submit the details to
the Board in terms of the press note dated 30.10.2007.  In response to
the same, the appellant informed the Government of Rajasthan that
the said details had already been furnished on 07.12.2007. 
7. On 19.03.2008, the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board
Regulations, 2008 were notified. Pursuant thereto, on 31.03.2008 the
Board issued a notice to the appellant stating that the appellant did
not have the requisite authorisation by the Central Government in
terms   of   the   proviso   to   Section   17(2)   of   the   Act   of   2006.     The
Regulation 18 of the Regulations of 2008 has been challenged by the
appellant on the ground of being ultra vires the Act of 2006.
8. The appellant, however, on 28.08.2008 filed an application under
Regulation 18 of the Regulations of 2008 for grant of authorisation of
6
city Gas Distribution Network at Udaipur and Jaipur.  In response to
the same, the Board issued a notice dated 19.11.2008 to the appellant
for oral hearing on 05.12.2008 and in the same meeting, the appellant
presented the status report as well as the investment made by the
appellant, and expressed its commitment to the Board to develop the
project and requested the Board to grant authorisation for the two
cities   of   Udaipur   and   Jaipur.     The   appellant,   in   the   meantime,
continued  its development  work of  laying down  the  gas  pipelines.
Then, on 12.07.2010, by a notification of the Government, Section 16
of the Act of 2006 was brought into force.  After coming into force of
Section 16, the Board, on 29.07.2010, issued notice to the appellant
to once again appear before the Board on 04.08.2010 to show cause
as to why the application under Regulation 18(1) of the Regulations of
2008 should not be rejected.
9. In the meantime, though no formal orders were passed by the
Board, on 28.02.2011, the Government of Rajasthan issued a notice to
the   appellant   stating   that   the   appellant   has   failed   to   fulfil   the
conditions laid down in the communications dated 20.03.2006 and
27.03.2006 issued by the Government of Rajasthan and  thus the
NOCs were liable to be withdrawn and the commitment amount also
7
liable to be forfeited.  To the said notice, the appellant submitted its
reply to the Government of Rajasthan on 16.03.2011. Then, by an
Order dated 18.05.2011, the Government of Rajasthan withdrew the
NOCs granted to the appellant and forfeited the commitment fees of
Rs. 2 Crore deposited by the appellant on 24.03.2006.  On the very
next date i.e. 19.05.2011, by two separate letters, the Board rejected
the   applications   of   the   appellant   for   authorisation   of   projects   at
Udaipur and Jaipur, on the ground that the physical and financial
progress   achieved   by   the   appellant   did   not   satisfy   the   proviso   of
Regulation   18(2)(d)   of   the   ‘Regulations   of   2008’   and   even   after
instructions   had   been   given   by   the   Board   vide   press   note   dated
30.10.2007,   the   appellant   had   allegedly   continued   with   laying   of
pipelines, in violation of such directions given by the Board in the said
press note. 
10. The appellant, then on 01.07.2011, wrote to the Board to bring to
its notice that the appellant has deemed authorisation in terms of
proviso to Section 16 of the Act of 2006 and the letters of rejection
dated 19.05.2011 of the Board to the appellant should be withdrawn.
To the said communication, there was no response received by the
appellant from the Board. Challenging the order dated 18.05.2011
8
issued   by   the   Government   of   Rajasthan   and   the   orders   dated
19.05.2011 issued by the Board as well as the challenging the vires of
Regulation 18 of the ‘Regulations of 2008’, the appellant had filed Writ
Petition before the Rajasthan High Court, which was dismissed on
29.04.2015. The same is under challenge in this appeal.
11. For proper appreciation of the issues involved in this case the
relevant provisions of the Act of 2006 and the Regulations of 2008 are
reproduced hereunder:
The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006
2.   Definitions.  –   In   this   Act,   unless   the
context otherwise requires, ­
(a)…………;
(b)…………;
(c)…………;
(d) “authorised entity” means an entity –
(A) registered by the Board under Section
15—
(i)   to   market   any   notified   petroleum,
petroleum products or natural gas, or
(ii)   to   establish   and   operate   liquefied
natural gas terminals, or
(B) authorised by the Board under section
16—
(i)   to   lay,   build,   operate   or   expand   a
common carrier or contract carrier, or
(ii) to lay, build, operate or expand a city or
local natural gas distribution network;
(e)…………;
9
(f)………….;
(g)…………;
(h)…………;
(i)  “city  or   local  natural  gas  distribution
network”  means an inter­connected network
of gas pipelines and the associated equipment
used for transporting natural gas from a bulk
supply high pressure transmission main to the
medium   pressure   distribution   grid   and
subsequently   to   the   service   pipes   supplying
natural   gas   to   domestic,   industrial   or
commercial   premises   and   CNG   stations
situated in a specified geographical area.
16. Authorisation. — No, entity shall —
(a) lay, build, operate or expand any pipeline
as a common carrier or contract carrier,
(b) lay, build, operate or expand any city or
local natural gas distribution network, without
obtaining authorisation under this Act:
Provided that an entity, ­­
(i) laying,   building,   operating   or   expanding
any   pipeline   as   common   carrier   or   contract
carrier; or
(ii) laying,   building,   operating   or   expanding
any   city   or   local   natural   gas   distribution
network,
immediately before the appointed day shall be
deemed to have such authorisation subject to
the provisions of this Chapter, but any change
in the purpose or usage shall require separate
authorisation granted by the Board.
17. Application for authorisation. –
(1)   An   entity   which   is   laying,   building,
operating or expanding, or which proposes to
lay, build, operate or expand, a pipeline as a
common carrier or contract carrier shall apply
in   writing   to   the   Board   for   obtaining   an
10
authorisation under this Act:
Provided   that   an   entity   laying,   building,
operating   or   expanding   any   pipeline   as
common carrier or contract carrier authorised
by the Central Government at any time before
the   appointed   day   shall   furnish   the
particulars   of   such   activities   to   the   Board
within Six months from the appointed day.
(2)   An   entity   which   is   laying,   building,
operating or expanding, or which proposes to
lay, build, operate or expand, a city or local
natural gas distribution network shall apply in
writing   for   obtaining   an   authorisation   under
this Act:
Provided   that   an   entity   laying,   building,
operating   or   expanding   any   city   or   local
natural gas distribution network authorised by
the Central Government at any time before the
appointed day shall furnish the particulars of
such activities to the Board within six months
from the appointed day.
(3) Every application under sub­section (1) or
sub­section (2) shall be made in such form and
in   such   manner   and   shall   be   accompanied
with   such   fee   as   the   Board   may,   by
regulations, specify.
(4) subject to  the  provisions  of this  Act  and
consistent   with   the   norms   and   policy
guidelines   laid   down   by   the   Central
Government,   the   Board   may   either   reject   or
accept and application made to it, subject to
such amendments or conditions, if any, as it
may think fit.
(5)  In   the   case   of   refusal   or   conditional
acceptance of an application, the Board shall
11
record in writing the grounds for such rejection
or conditional acceptance, as the case may be.
The   Petroleum   and   Natural   Gas   Regulatory   Board   Regulations,
2008:
“18.   Entity not authorized by the Central
Government for laying, building, operating or
expanding CGD network before the appointed
day. –
(1)   An   entity   laying,   building,   operating   or
expanding a CGD network at any time before
the appointed day but not duly authorized to
do so by the Central Government shall apply
immediately for obtaining an authorization in
the form as at Schedule I.
(2) The Board may take into consideration the
following   criteria   while   considering   the
application for grant of authorization, namely :­
(a) the   entity   meets   the   minimum   eligibility
criteria as 16[***] specified in clauses (a) to (e)
and   (i)   of   sub­regulation   (6)   of   regulation   5
before the appointed date and is possessing
all   necessary   statutory   clearances,
permissions, no objection certificates from the
Central   and   State   Governments   and   other
statutory authorities:
(b) an entity which is not registered under the
Companies Act, 1956 at the time of submitting
the application for grant of authorization shall
undertake   to   become   a   company   registered
under the Companies Act, 1956:
Provided that the Board may exempt an entity
to register under the Companies Act, 1956 on
such conditions as it may deem appropriate;
(c) a   satisfactory   assessment   of   the   actual
12
physical   progress   made   and   the   financial
commitment thereof till immediately before the
appointed day in comparison with the entity’s
DFR   appraised   by   the   financial   institution
funding the project. In case the project has not
been funded by any financial institution, the
Board may appraise the DFR.  The DFR of the
entity   should   clearly   indicate   the   specified
geographical   area   of   the   project   and   also
specify   the   coverage   proposed   for   CNG   and
PNG.   In case upon scrutiny area, customer
segments,   infrastructure   requirements,   etc.
proposed by the entity, the DFR is found to be
sub­optimal and unacceptable, the Board may
not consider the case of the entity for issuing
the authorization;
(d) in respect of the actual physical progress
made   and   the   financial   commitment   thereof
referred to in clause (c), a physical progress of
at  least  twenty five  percent  and  a financial
commitment of at least twenty five percent of
the capital expenditure identified for the CGD
project as per the DFR immediately before the
appointed   day   may   be   considered   as
adequate;
(e) the entity should have arranged, by way of
acquisition   or   lease,   land   for   CGS   and
procured the necessary equipment for erecting
the CGS before the appointed day;
(f) the   Board   reserves   the   right   to   get   the
actual   physical   progress   and   the   financial
commitment certified and depending upon the
progress   achieved,   the   Board   may   consider
authorizing the entity for the authorized area—
(i) as per the geographical area in its DFR,
(ii) as   per   the   geographical   area   actually
covered   under   implementation   till   the
appointed day; or
(iii) the geographical area as specified by the
Board;
13
(g) in relation to laying, building, operating or
expanding the CGD network, it is for the entity
to satisfy the Board on the adequacy of its
ability   to   meet   the   applicable   technical
standards, specification and safety standards
as   specified   in   the   relevant   regulations   for
technical   standards   and   specifications,
including safety standards and the quality of
service   standards   as   specified   in   regulation
15:
(h)  assessment of the financial position of the
entity in  timely and  adequately meeting the
financial commitments in developing the CGD
network project  as  appraised  by a financial
institution and an examination of the audited
books of accounts of the entity;
(i) firm arrangement for supply of natural gas
to meet the demand in the authorized area to
be covered by the CGD network;
(j) any other criteria considered as relevant by
the   Board   based   on   the   examination   of   the
application.
(3) The evaluation of the application in terms of
the clauses (a) to (j) shall be done in totality
considering the composite nature and the interlinkages of the criteria.
(4) The Board, after examining the application
in terms of the criteria under sub­regulation (2)
and also taking into account the requirements
in   other   regulations   may   form   a   prima­facie
view   as   to   whether   the   case   should   be
considered for authorization.
(5)   In   case   of   prima­facie   consideration,   the
Board   shall   issue   a   public   notice   in   one
national and one vernacular daily newspaper
(including   webhosting)   giving   brief   details   of
the project and seek comments and objections,
14
if any, within thirty days from any person on
the proposal.
(6)  The Board, after examining the comments
and objections, if any under sub­regulation (5),
may either consider or reject the case for grant
of authorization for the CGD network.
(7) In case it is decided to grant authorization,
the same shall be in the form at Schedule D;
(8)  In case of rejection of the application, the
Board shall pass a speaking order after giving
a   reasonable   opportunity   to   the   concerned
party to explain its case and proceed to select
an appropriate entity for the project in terms of
regulation 6.
(9) In case the entity is selected for grant of
authorization for CGD network, ­­
(a) the   network   tariff   and   the   compression
charge for CNG shall be determined under the
Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board
(Determination   of   Network   Tariff   for   city   or
Local Natural Gas Distribution Networks and
Compression   Charge   for   CNG),   Regulations
2008;
(b) the Board may consider grant of exclusivity
on such terms and conditions as specified in
the   Petroleum   and   Natural   Gas   Regulatory
Board   (Exclusivity   for   City   or   Local   Natural
Gas Distribution Networks) Regulations, 2008;
(c) the   entity   shall   abide   by   the   technical
standards,   specifications   including   safety
standards   as   specified   under   relevant
regulations   for   technical   standards   and
specifications, including safety standards;
(d) the provisions under regulations 9, 13, 14,
58 [***] and 16 shall apply to the entity.”
(emphasis supplied)
15
12. We have heard the learned Counsel for the parties and have
perused the material on record.
13.  The main issue for consideration in this appeal is whether the
Board was justified in rejecting the application filed by the appellant
under Section 17 of the Act of 2006 read with Regulation 18 of the
Regulations of 2008, after the provisions contained in Section 16 of
the   Act   of   2006   came   into   force   on   12.07.2010   granting   deemed
authorisation to those entities which had inter alia started laying and
building local Natural Gas Distribution Network prior to the appointed
date, i.e. 01.10.2007.
14.  It   is   not   disputed   that   in   pursuance   to   the   Government   of
Rajasthan   having,   on   19.11.2005,   invited   bids   for   laying   of   Gas
Distribution Network, the appellant had applied for the two cities of
Udaipur   and   Jaipur   and   after   acceptance   of   its   application,   the
appellant   was   granted   NOC   by   the   Government   of   Rajasthan   on
27.03.2006.   It   is   also   not   disputed   that   pursuant   thereto,   the
appellant has laid approximately 75 kms of pipeline in both the cities
16
of Udaipur and Jaipur, and in the process, spent a huge amount of
money relying on the NOC granted in its favour for such purpose. The
appellant asserts that is has completed the following activities in the
two projects of Udaipur and Jaipur:
“Udaipur:
a) Received permission to cut roads vide letter
dated   4.6.2007,   made   payment   of
Rs.14,28,900 towards road cutting bill and
provided Bank Guarantee to the Municipal
Council of Udaipur in this respect;
b) Purchase of material and  services for the
project, amounting to Rs.452.99 lacs;
c) The Petitioners appointed M/s. International
Certification Services (Asia) Pvt. Ltd., for the
independent   verification,   inspection,
certification   of   the   work   done   of   the   gas
distribution   pipeline.   This   agency   was
subsequently also authorised by the Board
vide communication dated 6.4.2010.
d) The   Petitioner   had   achieved   mechanical
completion on various phases of the project
and   accordingly   has   received   Mechanical
Completion Certificated in this respect.
e) The Petitioner has successfully laid 30093
mtrs. of gas distribution pipeline in Udaipur.
“Jaipur”:
a) The   Petitioner   has   received   provisional
permission vide letter dated 7.3.2008 from
RIICO   for   laying   41.1   KM   of   the   gas
distribution pipeline in Jaipur;
b) Towards the provisional permission received
from   RIICO   the   Petitioner   has   deposited
Rs.54,95,500.00 with RIICO; and
c) Purchase of material and  services for the
17
project, amounting to Rs.393.22 lacs:
d) The Petitioner has successfully laid 22610
mtrs. of gas distribution pipeline in Jaipur.”
15. Section   17   of   the   Act   of   2006,   which   Act   was   notified   on
03.04.2006 (except Section 16) and came into force on 01.04.2007,
provides   that   an   entity   which   is   laying,   building,   operating   or
expanding City or Local Natural Gas Distribution Network, or which
proposes to do so, has to apply in writing to the Board for obtaining an
authorisation under the Act of 2006.  However, the entity authorised
by the Central Government for such activities would be required to
furnish the particulars of such activities to the Board within 6 months
from the appointed date. Sub Section 4 of Section 17 empowers the
Board either to reject or accept such application, which power has to
be exercised consistent with the norms and policy guidelines.   Sub
Section 5 provides that in case of refusal or conditional acceptance of
an application, the Board shall record reasons in writing for such
rejection or conditional acceptance.
16.  Section   16   of   the   Act   of   2006,   which   came   into   force   on
12.07.2010, relates to ‘Authorisation’. It puts an embargo to lay, build,
operate or expand in City or Local Natural Gas Distribution Network
18
without obtaining authorisation under the Act.  The Proviso (ii) of the
said section 16 provides for ‘deemed authorisation’ in case an entity
had been laying, building, operating or expanding any City or Local
Gas   Distribution   Network,   immediately   before   the   appointed   date,
which shall be deemed to have such authorisation.   In the present
case, the appointed date is 01.10.2007 when the Act of 2006 was
brought into force, except the provision contained in the Section 16 of
the Act of 2006, which came into force on 12.07.2010.
17. The Regulations of 2008 were framed before Section 16 of the Act
of 2006 came into force. Regulation 18 of the Regulations of 2008
provides that an entity, not authorised by the Central Government for
laying,   building,   operating   or   expanding   CGD   network   before   the
appointed date, shall apply for obtaining an authorisation in the form
as   in   Schedule   I   and   the   Board   may   take   into   consideration   the
criteria for considering the application for grant of authorisation in
terms specified in clauses (a) to (j) of Regulation 18(2).
18.  Regulation   18(2)(a)   requires   the   entity   to   meet   the   minimum
eligibility   criteria   and   other   necessary   clearances,   as   well   as   the
requisite NOCs. Clause (b) provides that the entity, if not registered
19
under Companies Act, 1956, shall undertake to become a company
registered   under   the   Companies   Act,   1956.     The   other   factors   in
clauses (c) and (d) as enumerated, relate to actual physical progress
made and the financial commitment thereon, and requires a physical
progress   of   at   least   25   percent   of   capital   expenditure   before   the
appointed date, which may be considered as adequate.   Clauses (e)
and (f) provide that the entity should have arranged and procured the
necessary equipment for erecting the City Gas Distribution network
before the appointed date. Clause (g) provides for the entity to satisfy
the   Board   on   the   adequacy   of   its   ability   to   meet   the   applicable
technical standards, specifications and safety standards as specified
in the relevant Regulations. Clause (h) provides for assessment of
financial position of the entity and Clause (i) provides for supply of
natural gas to meet the demand in the authorised area to be covered
by City Gas Distribution network. The last clause (j) provides for the
Board to consider any other relevant criteria based on the examination
of the application.  All the aforesaid clauses are relevant factors and
the one which is put for consideration in the present case is Clause
(d), on which ground, the Central Government has primarily rejected
the application of the appellant.
20
19. It is noteworthy that the language used in Regulation 18(2) is
that “the Board  may  take into consideration…………”. As such, the
language in which the Regulation has been couched does not make
the   consideration   in   the   said  clauses,   including   Clause   (d),   to   be
mandatory, but no doubt the same would be relevant considerations.
On a careful perusal of the order passed by the Board, we find that the
application of the appellant has been rejected for reasons mentioned
in   para   5   of   the   impugned   order   dated   19.05.2011,   which   are
extracted hereunder:
“5.     The   committee   found   that   you   do   not
satisfy   the   conditions   laid   down   under   the
Regulation 18(1) of the Petroleum and Natural
Gas Regulatory Board (Authorizing Entities to
Lay, Build, Operate or Expand City or Local
Natural   Gas   Distribution   Networks)
Regulations 2008 on account of the following:
a) Physical and financial progress achieved
by   M/s.   Adani   Gas   Limited   before   the
appointed day in the GA of Jaipur does
not   satisfy   the   proviso   18(2)(d)   of   the
Regulation 18(1) of Petroleum and Natural
Gas   Regulatory   Board   (Authorizing
Entities to Lay, Build, Operate or Expand
City   or   Local   Natural   Gas   Distribution
Networks) Regulations 2008;
b) Even   After   clear   instructions   of   PNGRB
vide Press Note Dated 30th October, 2007
to stop all incremental activity M/s. Adani
energy Limited had continued with laying
21
of MDPE Pipeline and thus violating the
directions of the Board.”
20. From the above, it is clear that the application of the appellant
has been rejected primarily on the ground of non­compliance of clause
(d) of Regulation 18(2) of the Regulations of 2008.  It was incumbent
on the Board to take into consideration various factors as specified in
clauses (a) to (j) of Regulation 18(2) of the Regulations of 2008, and the
same has to be considered in the back drop of the fact that the press
note was issued on 30.10.2007 to stop all incremental activities and
as such it was necessary to consider whether the appellant could have
been faulted for non­compliance of clause (d) of Regulation 18(2), and
whether it was a mandatory requirement or merely one of the factors
to be considered along with all the other factors.   Other relevant
aspects as contained in the other clauses have not been adverted to by
the Board while deciding the application of the appellant, which were
also   equally   significant.   It   was   necessary   to   consider   whether   the
appellant is compliant of various other factors as provided in clauses
(a) to (j) of Regulation 18(2) of the Regulations of 2008.   The noncompliance, if any, of clause (d) ought to have been considered in the
light of the press note dated 30.10.2007 which required stopping of all
incremental activities. 
22
21. The peculiar factual position is that the Act of 2006 had been
notified on 03.04.2006 but came into force on 01.10.2007 and the
NOC was issued on 27.03.2006, after the Government of Rajasthan
had   invited   open   bids   on   19.11.2005   for   laying   of   City   Gas
Distribution network in the cities of Udaipur and Jaipur, in which the
appellant had been selected.   Besides depositing the sum of Rs. 2
Crores   immediately   towards   commitment   fee,   the   appellant   had
thereafter incurred mammoth expenditure after it was successful in
the bids, which aspect has not been considered by the Board while
deciding the application of the appellant. In our considered view, the
same should not have normally been over looked. Besides the same, in
the factual circumstances of the present case, the provision of ‘deemed
authorisation’ contained in Proviso (ii) to Section 16 had also been
enforced on 12.07.2010 and it was necessary for the Board to have
considered whether it was a case where only certain safeguards were
required to be observed in view of the ‘deemed authorisation’.
22.  We are of the firm view that it was also necessary for the Board to
have considered all these aspects and thereafter to have decided the
application relating to authorisation/conditions to be imposed under
23
the Act, if any, required.   Besides this, detailed replies had been
submitted by the appellant before the Board, which also ought to have
been considered. Further, the requirement under the Act/Regulations
is for grant of personal hearing to the appellant before deciding its
application and if personal hearing was given, to have discussed the
same in the order, which aspect has also been ignored by the Board. 
23.  In view of the aforesaid discussion, we are of the opinion that
there was illegality committed by the Board in deciding the application
of the appellant while passing the order dated 19.05.2011, and as
such the same deserves to be quashed. We also hold that in the
aforesaid factual background, the decision of the State Government to
revoke the NOC vide order dated 18.05.2011 was also highly unfair
and unjust in as much as the reply of the petitioner dated 16.03.2011
in response to the notice dated 26.02.2011 has not been dealt with by
the Government of Rajasthan while passing the said impugned order
dated 18.05.2011. As such, the same does not stand to reason, which
also deserves to be quashed.
24. Accordingly, we allow this appeal to the extent that the order
dated 18.05.2011 passed by the Government of Rajasthan and the
24
order dated 19.05.2011 passed by the Board are quashed.  The Board
is directed to take a fresh decision in the matter within 4 weeks from
today, in the light of the provision of ‘deemed authorisation’ and other
observations made hereinabove, after giving opportunity of hearing to
the   appellant.    The  appellant   is   given   liberty   to   file   fresh   written
submissions before the Board within 10 days from today.
No orders as to cost.
………………………..J.
[ARUN MISHRA]
………………….…….J.
[VINEET SARAN]
New Delhi
29th January, 2019
25
ITEM NO.1501 COURT NO.5 SECTION XV
 S U P R E M E C O U R T O F I N D I A
 RECORD OF PROCEEDINGS
Petition for Special Leave to Appeal (C) No. 21986 of 2015
ADANI GAS LIMITED & ANR. Appellant(s)
 VERSUS
UNION OF INDIA & ORS. Respondent(s)
Date : 29-01-2019 This matter was called on for Judgment today.
Counsel for the
parties Mr. Gaurav Juneja, Adv.
Mr. Divyansu, Adv.
Mr. Aayush Jain, Adv.
for Khaitan & Co.
Mr. Munawwar Naseem, Adv.
Mr. Palak Mishra, Adv.
Mr. Utsav Trivedi, Adv.
for M/S. Karanjawala & Co.
Mr. Amit Sharma, Adv.
Mr. Ankit Raj, Adv.
Ms. Ruchi Kohli, Adv.
Ms. Iti Agarwal, Adv.
Ms. Nikita Choukse, Adv.
Ms. Rinali Batra, Adv.
for DSK Legal
 Ms. Ruchi Kohli, AOR
 Mr. Senthil Jagadeesan, AOR
 Mrs. Anil Katiyar, AOR

Hon’ble Mr. Justice Vineet Saran pronounced the non-reportable
Judgment of the Bench comprising Hon’ble Mr. Justice Arun Mishra
and His Lordship.
Leave granted.
The application(s) for intervention is/are dismissed.
26
The appeal is allowed to the extent indicated in the signed
non-reportable Judgment.
Pending interlocutory application(s), if any, is/are disposed
of.
(JAYANT KUMAR ARORA) (JAGDISH CHANDER)
 COURT MASTER BRANCH OFFICER
(Signed non-reportable Judgment is placed on the file)