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Tuesday, June 14, 2016

A show cause notice No. V(Ch.54)15-6/OA/2000 dated 16th May, 2001 was issued by the Commissioner of Central Excise, Surat – II requiring the appellant to explain why central excise duty of Rs.32,92,854/-should not be recovered on the texturised yarn allegedly removed by the appellants without payment of duty. The said show cause notice also required the appellants to explain why penalty should not be imposed under Section 11AC of the Central Excise Act, 1944 (for short, ‘the Act’). That apart, the show cause notice also sought to confiscate the nylon covered yarn valued at Rs.1,72,186/-and further to recover duty thereon of Rs.55,202.96. = The decision in NCC Blue Water Products Ltd. (supra) was bound to be followed and the tribunal could not have stated that 2004 circular was not taken note of. The tribunal should have appropriately appreciated that this Court was interpreting the statutory provision and it is also worthy to note that after the judgment delivered in SIV Industries Ltd. (supra) an amendment was brought into the provision. Therefore, the transaction prior to the date of amendment would be governed by SIV Industries Ltd. (supra) which has been followed in NCC Blue Water Products Ltd. (supra). Be it clarified that we are not concerned with the amended provision in this case.In view of the aforesaid analysis, the appeals are allowed. The judgment and order passed by the tribunal and that of the adjudicating authority are set aside. The assessee shall be liable to pay the excise duty as per Section 3(1) of the Act. The competent authority is directed to compute the duty accordingly and proceed thereafter as per law. In the facts and circumstances of the case, there shall be no order as to costs.

                                                                  REPORTABLE

                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

                        CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

                    CIVIL APPEAL NOS. 3555-3560  OF 2012

Sarla Performance Fibers Limited           ...  Appellant(s)
Etc.

                                Versus
Commissioner of Central Excise,            ...     Respondent(s)
Surat-II



                               J U D G M E N T

Dipak Misra, J.


      The appellant is a company registered under the  Companies  Act,  1956
and is engaged, inter alia, in the manufacture of excisable  goods,  namely,
synthetic yarn and for that purpose it has a factory at Unit-I,  Survey  No.
59/1/14, Amli, Piparia Industrial Estate, Silvassa (U.T.  of  D.N.&H).   The
said factory is a 100% Export Oriented Unit (EOU).  Prior to  6th  November,
2006, Sarla Performance Fibers Limited was known as  Sarla  Polyesters  Ltd.
Shri Madhusudan Jhunjhunwala and Shri Satish Kumar Sharma were the  Chairman
and the excise in-charge respectively of Sarla Performance  Fibers  Limited.
Shri Dineshchandra Pandey was  the  dispatch  in-charge  of  M/s.  Hindustan
Cotton  Company, a partnership firm,  engaged  inter  alia,  in  trading  of
Polyester Textured/Twisted Dyed Yarn since 1988.   Sh.  Gopal  Bhagwan  Dutt
Sharma was the Manager of Sarla Performance Fibers Limited at  the  relevant
time.  The reference to appellants herein will  mean  and  include  all  the
appellants.

2.    The appellants had procured partial oriented yarn (POY) falling  under
Chapter 54 without payment of duty for the manufacture of various  types  of
yarn, namely, polyester texturised yarn, nylon covered  yarn  and  polyester
covered yarn.  A show cause notice No. V(Ch.54)15-6/OA/2000 dated 16th  May,
2001 was issued by the Commissioner of Central Excise, Surat – II  requiring
the appellant to explain why central  excise  duty  of  Rs.32,92,854/-should
not be recovered on the texturised yarn allegedly removed by the  appellants
 without payment of duty.  The said show  cause  notice  also  required  the
appellants to explain why penalty should not be imposed under  Section  11AC
of the Central Excise Act, 1944 (for short, ‘the  Act’).   That  apart,  the
show cause notice also sought to confiscate the nylon  covered  yarn  valued
at Rs.1,72,186/-and further to recover duty thereon of Rs.55,202.96.

3.    After the show cause notice was issued, the  appellants  made  payment
aggregating to Rs.14,89,349.00 as against the  duty  payable  under  Section
3(1) of the Act  (after  taking  into  account  the  cum-duty  benefit)  and
Rs.11,19,775.00 payable in the event the benefit of  Notification  No.  2/05
was allowed.

4.    After the reply to the show cause notice was filed,  the  Commissioner
of Central Excise, Surat-II, by his order-in-original no.  11/MP/2002  dated
21st March, 2002 (i) confiscated the  seized  nylon  covered  yarn  weighing
245.980 kgs. valued at Rs.1,72,186/- and appropriated a sum  of  Rs.86,093/-
which  was  given  as  bank  guarantee;  (ii)   demanded   Rs.55,202.96   as
differential  duty  on   the   confiscated   goods   which   were   released
provisionally before the  adjudication;  and  (iii)  confirmed  the  central
excise duty amounting to Rs.32,92,854/- and  ordered  recovery  of  interest
under  Section  11AB  and  imposed  a  penalty  of  Rs.33,48,060/-  on   the
appellants. The adjudicating authority also  imposed  penalties  on  various
persons set out in the impugned order.

5.    Being aggrieved  by  the  aforesaid  order,  the  appellant  preferred
appeals before the  Customs,  Excise  and  Service  Tax  Appellate  Tribunal
(CESTAT) (for short, ‘the tribunal’) under Section 35B of  the  Act  to  the
extent the said order was adverse to it.   The  revenue  also  preferred  an
appeal before the tribunal as certain  aspects  were  adverse  to  it.   The
tribunal referred the  issue  to  the  Larger  Bench  of  the  tribunal  for
consideration  whether the goods cleared by the appellant were eligible  for
exemption under Notification No. 125/84 dated 26.05.1984.  The Larger  Bench
vide order dated 03.08.2007 held that in case the goods cleared by the  100%
EOU and sold in India whether with or  without  permission,  the  assessment
shall be made under proviso to Section 3(1) of the  Act  and  the  exemption
under Notification No. 125/84 shall not be  applicable.   After  the  matter
was placed before the Division Bench of the tribunal vide  its  order  dated
15.11.2007 referred to the Larger Bench decision and reiterated the view  of
the Full Bench by opining that the goods cleared by the 100%  EOU  and  sold
in  India  whether  with  or   without   permission   of   the   Development
Commissioner, the assessment shall be made under proviso to Section 3(1)  of
the Act and exemption under Notification No. 125/84 shall not be  applicable
but granted some relief as regards the imposition of penalty.   Resultantly,
the tribunal vide order dated 15.11.2007  disposed  of  the  appeal  of  the
appellants and dismissed the appeal of the revenue.

6.    As the facts would unfold, the appellants filed an application  before
the tribunal for recall of order dated 15.11.2007 in terms  of  judgment  in
J.K. Synthetics Ltd. v. Collector of Central Excise[1], which was  dismissed
on the ground that appeals were decided  on  merits  and  a  detailed  order
considering all aspects was passed by the tribunal and as such it could  not
be said that the Bench defaulted in considering the merits of the case.

7.    The aforesaid orders were assailed  before  the  High  Court  in  Writ
Petition No. 4758 of 2008 and the Division Bench of the High  Court   taking
note of the submissions of the learned counsel for the parties, directed  as
follows:-

“3. There were certain Appeals filed by the Petitioners and also there  were
certain Appeals filed by the  Department.  Mr.  Desai,  the  learned  Senior
Counsel for the Respondents, has no objection if all the Appeals  are  heard
together denovo including the Appeals filed  by  the  Department  since  the
Petitioners were not heard in the Appeals.   The  learned  Counsel  for  the
Petitioners also has no objection for the same.

4. Under the aforesaid facts and circumstances,  both  the  impugned  orders
dated 21st April, 2008 and 15th November, 2007 passed by the CESTAT  in  the
aforesaid Appeals are hereby quashed and set aside, and  all  the  aforesaid
Appeals stand restored to file.  The CESTAT is  directed  to  hear  all  the
Appeals mentioned hereinabove afresh  denovo  without  being  influenced  by
their earlier orders in any manner.”



8.    After the remit,  it  was  contended  before  the  tribunal  that  the
allegation of clandestine removal was based  on  a  computer  sheet  and  no
other records had been recovered; that the reliance  by  the  department  to
establish clandestine removal were the invoices issued by  Hindustan  Cotton
Company; and that the appellant SPL is a 100% EOU and when case  goods  were
cleared without permission of the Development Commissioner according to  the
department duty was payable under Section 3(1) of the Act and exemption  was
available under notification no. 125/84 CE.  To sustain the stand,  reliance
was placed on SIV Industries Ltd. v. CCE & Customs[2].  Be  it  stated  that
the reliance was  placed  on  Larger  bench  decision  of  the  tribunal  in
Shrichakra Tyres Ltd. v. CCE Madras[3]  and on that base  it  was  contended
that the   amount utilized by the assessee was to be treated as  duty  price
and no penalty could have been imposed on individuals since no evidence  had
been brought on record to show that they were aware of the transactions.

9.      The stand of the assessee was resisted by  the  revenue  contending,
inter alia,  that  the  benefit  of  exemption  notification  could  not  be
extended since  the  notification  incorporated  several  conditions  to  be
fulfilled and unless these conditions were fulfilled,  exemption  could  not
be allowed; that the benefit of cum-duty price could  not  be  extended  and
invocation of a wrong section or rule in the show cause notice would not  be
a bar for imposition of penalty under the correct rule or section, and  that
appellant was not eligible for treatment of clearances  under  Section  3(1)
of the Act.  On behalf of  the  revenue  reliance  was  placed  on  Sterlite
Optical Technologies Ltd. v. CC&CE Aurangabad[4].

10.   At this juncture, it is relevant to state that Member, Technical  came
to hold that all the sales to DTA were clandestinely done  in  contravention
of the provisions of the EXIM  policy  and  the  appellant-company  did  not
raise any contention that  the  price  charged  included  the  component  of
excise  duty.  On  the  contrary  the  appellants  claimed  exemption  under
notification  no.  125/84  and,  therefore,  the  question  of  SPL   having
recovered any cum-duty price from  the  customers  in  DTA  did  not  arise.
Further it was evident that the transactions had been made  by  SPL  in  the
name of Hindustan Cotton Company and M.M. Sanghavi and the demands had  been
raised on the invoices raised.  The transaction itself  was  artificial  and
no justification had been shown to treat the same  as  cum-duty  price  and,
therefore, the decision of the Commissioner not to treat the price  as  cum-
duty price deserved to be upheld. As regards penalty  on  the  company,  the
learned member held that it had been rightly imposed under Section  11AC  of
the Act read with Rule 173Q of the Central Excise  Rules.   As  far  as  the
individuals were concerned, the learned Member opined  that  the  imposition
on some  was  justified  and  imposition  on  certain  individuals  was  not
warranted.  He, however, dismissed the appeal preferred by  the  department.


11.   The Member, Judicial concurred with the view of the Member,  Technical
as regards the clandestine removal and consequent confirmation of demand  of
duty and imposition of penalty on various appellants but,  however,  as  far
as the present appellant was concerned, the learned Member opined  that  the
entire realization  made by M/s. Sarla Polyester Ltd. were  required  to  be
treated as cum-duty and as such, the benefit  had  to  be  extended  to  the
appellant on the above count.   She further observed that:-

“Admittedly no duty has been recovered by them from their buyers.  When  the
duty is being subsequently demanded from them on the  same  realization,  it
is, in my view, required to be treated as cum duty and the assessable  value
has to be arrived at by deduction of the duty now  being  confirmed  against
the assessee.  This has been the declaration of law  in  all  the  judgments
relied upon by the learned Advocate.  The fact as to  whether  the  duty  is
being demanded on clandestine removal or on  any  other  issue,  should  not
make a difference”.



12.   The learned Member placed reliance on CCE Delhi v. M/s.  Maruti  Udyog
Ltd.[5], reproduced a passage from the  same  and  opined  that  the  entire
realization was required to be considered as cum-duty-price and the  benefit
of the same had to be extended to the assessee and  for  the  said  purpose,
the matter needed to be remanded for recalculation of the quantum  of  duty.
As far as penalty is concerned, she concurred with  the  Member,  Technical,
but also opined that  it  required  to  be  remanded  for  imposing  penalty
equivalent to the duty calculated on the determination of the quantum.
13.   The two Members noted three points as  difference  of   opinion.   For
the sake of completeness, we think it appropriate to reproduce the same:-
“a.   Whether the entire sales value of the goods removed  clandestinely  is
required to be considered as cum-duty and benefit  of  the  same  is  to  be
extended to M/s. Sarla Polyester Ltd. (Appellant no.1 herein) or not?

b.    Whether the ratio of law declared by this Hon’ble Court  in  the  case
of CCE Delhi vs. M/s. Maruti Udyog Ltd. reported in 2002(141) ELT 3  applies
to the facts of the present case or not and as to  whether  the  benefit  of
the same is to be extended to the said assessee or not?

c.    Whether the matter is required to be remanded  for  quantification  of
the duty by treating entire realization as cum-duty price, as  held  by  the
Member (Judicial) or the appellant’s plea on the above issue is required  to
be rejected by upholding the decision of the Commissioner not to  treat  the
price as cum-duty price, as observed by learned Member (Technical)?

d.    Consequent to the re-quantification of duty on the above  ground,  the
penalty imposed upon M/s. Sarla Polyester Ltd.  would  get  reduced  to  the
quantum of duty reconfirmed against the said appellant?


14.   It is necessary to state here that before the pronouncement  of  Order
on 13.10.2010, counsel on behalf of the present assesee mentioned  that  the
controversy was no more res integra in view of the decision rendered in  CCE
v. NCC Blue Water Products Ltd.[6]   Thereafter  the  matter  was  heard  on
another day and on behalf  of  the  Bench,  the  learned  Member,  Technical
passed the order. He took note of the stand of the  revenue  that  ratio  of
the said decision was not applicable  as  it  was  based  on  the  principle
stated in earlier decision i.e. SIV Industries Ltd.  (supra).   The  learned
Member also took note of the fact that the Larger Bench of the tribunal  had
distinguished the decision in SIV Industries Ltd. (supra) which  was  relied
upon in NCC Blue Water products Ltd. (supra).  At this  juncture,  we  think
it appropriate to reproduce a passage from the order passed by  the  Member,
Technical on behalf of the Bench:-
“It is quite clear that as submitted by learned  SDR,  the  Hon’ble  Supreme
Court followed the decision in case of SIV Industries and also took note  of
the Board’s circular issued in 2002 and it is quite apparent  that  circular
issued in 2004 was not brought to the  notice  of  learned  SDR  in  Supreme
Court.  Further, we also note as submitted by the decision  of  the  present
case, the Larger Bench had considered the Hon’ble Supreme Court in  case  of
SIV  Industries  Ltd.  and  had  distinguished  the  same  and  reached  the
conclusion that in case of goods sold by 100% EOU  in  DTA,  the  assessment
shall be made under proviso to Section 3(1) of the Act.”


15.   After so stating, the learned Member quoted copiously from the  Larger
Bench.  We think it appropriate to reproduce the relevant part:-

“14. We have considered the submissions.   We  find  that  the  wordings  of
proviso to Section 3(1) of the Central Excise Act  and  Notification  125/84
which we have been called upon  to  interpret  are  similar  and  the  basic
dispute is as to how the words “allowed to be  sold  in  India”  are  to  be
interpreted.  After going through  the  various  submissions  made  by  both
sides, we find that 100% EOUs were allowed to be established with  the  sole
purchase of exporting 100% of their production as is evident from the  words
100% EOUs.  However, on account of certain hardship faced in getting  export
order, sales in DTA up to 25% were permitted from the year  1984  but  there
was a clear intention to distinguish between such  sales  by  the  100%  EOU
from the sales by domestic units other than 100% EOU and  it  was  for  this
purpose  that  proviso  to  Section  3(1)  and   Notification   125/84   was
introduced.  Since there were only two modes of clearance in which the  100%
EOUs could have cleared the goods i.e.  one  by  export  and  the  other  by
domestic  sale  after  obtaining   the   permission   of   the   Development
Commissioner, in respect of domestic sales the words “allowed to be sold  in
India” were incorporated in both the provisos.”


16.   Thereafter, the learned Member  proceeded  to  state  certain  aspects
which are not necessary and then reproduced the following passage:-
“We also agree with the observation of the Larger Bench  that  the  decision
of the Supreme court in SIV  Industries  case  is  distinguishable  for  the
reason stated therein, as in that case the main thrust was that  whether  on
the date of removal the 100% EOU ceased to be 100%  EOU  and  therefore  the
provisions relating to 100% EOU could not have been applied  to  them.   For
the same purpose we hold that exemption under Notification 125/84 shall  not
be applicable in respect of goods manufactured  by  100%  EOU  but  sold  in
India.”


17.   After reproducing number  of  passages  from  the  Larger  Bench,  the
learned Member observed thus:-
“7.   It may be seen that  Larger  Bench  had  considered  the  decision  of
Hon’ble Supreme Court in case of SIV Industries Ltd., and  has  agreed  with
another decision of the Larger Bench in the case of Himalaya  International,
wherein  also  the  decision  of  Hon’ble  Supreme  Court  in  case  of  SIV
Industries Ltd had been considered; and distinguished.

8.    To sum up,  two  decisions  of  Larger  Bench  of  the  Tribunal  have
considered the issue and distinguished the  decision  in  the  case  of  SIV
Industries Ltd. and the decision of Larger Bench in the present  case  on  a
reference made in the appellant’s case itself had  considered,  all  aspects
and the history of 100% EOU, statutory provisions  and  precedent  decisions
to reach conclusion that duty is chargeable under proviso  to  Section  3(1)
of Central Excise Act, 1944.”


18.   Being of this view, the Bench reiterated  the  difference  of  opinion
and the questions framed thereunder.  After the judgment  was  delivered  by
the tribunal, the appellant preferred W.P. No. 714 of 2011. The  High  Court
noted the submissions of the learned counsel for the  writ  petitioners  and
opined  that  keeping  in  view  the  concept  of  self-restraint  and   the
requirement of judicial propriety, it was  desirable  for  the  assessee  to
prefer an appeal before this Court. Being  of  this  view,  the  High  Court
declined to interfere. Hence, the present appeals have been preferred  under
Section 35L(b) of the Act.

19.   It is not in dispute that the unit  of  the  assessee-appellant  is  a
100% EOU and under the EOU scheme  it  was  required  to  export  the  goods
manufactured by it.  The stand of the assessee is that it  was  eligible  to
clear goods up to a certain specified limit after obtaining  due  permission
from the Development Commissioner in terms of Export  Import  (EXIM)  Policy
read with Handbook of Procedure (HBP).  It  is  the  submission  of  Mr.  V.
Lakshmi Kumaran, learned counsel for the appellant that even if it  is  held
that  finished  goods  were  removed  by  the  assessee  without   requisite
permission  from  the  Development  Commissioner,  central  excise  duty  is
leviable in terms of Section 3(1) of the Act.  It is contended by  him  that
the tribunal has erroneously followed  the  Larger  Bench  decision  of  the
tribunal  in  Himalaya  International  Ltd.   v.   Commissioner   of   C.Ex.
Chandigarh[7].  Learned counsel would submit that if the submission  of  the
assessee is accepted, he will be entitled to refund  as  it  has  paid  more
than the amount than the duty liability determinable under Section  3(1)  of
the Act.

20.   Mr.  K.  Radhakrishnan,  learned  senior  counsel  appearing  for  the
revenue, per contra, would contend that the appellant which is a  continuing
EOU, was bound  to  export  finished  goods  and  as  there  has  been  non-
fulfilment of the  obligation  and  the  goods  have  been  cleared  without
permission of the competent authority, the appellants are liable to pay  the
duty as determined by the tribunal.  It is his  further  argument  that  the
assessee cannot be assessed under Section 3(1) of  the  Act  but  under  the
proviso as held by the tribunal.  Learned senior counsel would  submit  that
the decision in SIV Industries Ltd. (supra)  and  NCC  Blue  Water  Products
Ltd. (supra) when seemly applied, the 100% EOU  which  was  cleared  in  DTA
without permission cannot be allowed to pay duty under Section 3(1)  of  the
Act.

21.   To understand the controversy,  it  is  necessary  to  scrutinize  the
relevant provisions, circulars in the field and the  interpretations  placed
by this Court on the pertinent provisions.  The contentious part of  Section
3 of the Act, prior to amendment w.e.f. 11.05.2001 read as follows:-

“Section 3. Duties specified in the First Schedule and the  Second  Schedule
to the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985 to be levied –  (1)  There  shall  be
levied and collected in such manner as may be prescribed,-

(a)   a duty of  excise  on  all  excisable  goods  which  are  produced  or
manufactured in India as, and at the rates, set forth in the First  Schedule
to the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985 (5 of 1986);

(b)   a special duty of excise, in addition to the duty of excise  specified
in clause (a) above, on excisable goods specified in the Second Schedule  to
the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985  (5  of  1986)  which  are  produced  or
manufactured in India, as, and at the rates, set forth in  the  said  Second
Schedule.

Provided that the duties of excise which shall be levied  and  collected  on
any excisable goods which are produced or manufactured, --

(i)   in a free trade zone and brought to any other place in India; or

(ii)  by a hundred per cent export-oriented undertaking and  allowed  to  be
sold in India,

shall be an amount equal to the aggregate of the  duties  of  customs  which
would be leviable under Section 12 of the Customs Act, 1962  (52  of  1962),
on like goods produced  or  manufactured  outside  India  if  imported  into
India, and where the said duties of customs are chargeable by  reference  to
their value; the  value  of  such  excisable  goods  shall,  notwithstanding
anything contained in any other provision of  this  Act,  be  determined  in
accordance with the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962  (52  of  1962)  and
the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (51 of 1975).”

22.   After the amendment the  relevant  part  of  the  provision  reads  as
under:-

“Section 3. Duties specified in the First Schedule and the  Second  Schedule
to the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985 to be levied –  (1)  There  shall  be
levied and collected in such manner as may be prescribed,-

(a)   a duty of excise to be called the Central Value Added Tax (CENVAT)  on
all excisable goods excluding goods  produced  or  manufactured  in  special
economic zones which are produced or manufactured in India as,  and  at  the
rates, set forth in the First Schedule to the  Central  Excise  Tariff  Act,
1985 (5 of 1986);

(b)   a special duty of excise, in addition to the duty of excise  specified
in clause  (a)  above,  on  excisable  goods  excluding  goods  produced  or
manufactured in special economic zones specified in the Second  Schedule  to
the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985  (5  of  1986)  which  are  produced  or
manufactured in India, as, and at the rates, set forth in  the  said  Second
Schedule.

Provided that the duties of excise which shall be levied  and  collected  on
any excisable goods which are produced or manufactured, --

(i)   in a free trade zone or a special economic zone  and  brought  to  any
other place in India; or

(ii)  by a hundred per cent export-oriented undertaking and brought  to  any
other place in India,

shall be an amount equal to the aggregate of the  duties  of  customs  which
would be leviable under  the Customs Act, 1962 (52 of  1962)  or  any  other
law for the time being in force, on  like  goods  produced  or  manufactured
outside India if imported into India, and where the said duties  of  customs
are chargeable by reference to their value;  the  value  of  such  excisable
goods shall, notwithstanding anything contained in any  other  provision  of
this Act, be determined in accordance with the  provisions  of  the  Customs
Act, 1962 (52 of 1962) and the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (51 of 1975).”


23.   Having noted the relevant provisions, it  is  apposite  to  appreciate
what has been held in SIV Industries Ltd. (supra). In  the  said  case,  the
appeal was preferred challenging the order of the tribunal  whereby  it  had
directed that the duty of central excise was not payable under Section  3(1)
of the Act but under the proviso to Section 3(1) of the Act.  The  appellant
therein was granted permission to set up a 100% Export Oriented  Unit  (EOU)
for the manufacture of viscose staple fibre at its factory at  Sirumugal  in
Coimbatore District in the State of Tamil Nadu. The letter of  intent  dated
18.12.1991 was issued to the appellant for the purpose  by  the  Secretariat
for Industrial Approvals (SIA), Ministry of Industry, Government  of  India.
On 08.09.1993 the appellant therein made an application  to  the  Secretary,
Ministry of Commerce, Government of India and sought debonding of  its  unit
from 100% EOU, i.e., withdrawal  from  100%  EOU  Scheme.  By  letter  dated
18.10.1993 of the Ministry of Commerce it was agreed in principle  to  allow
the  appellant  to  withdraw  from  the  100%  EOU  Scheme  subject  to  the
conditions on which withdrawal was permitted.  Once  the  debonding  of  the
unit was permitted, finished goods earlier  manufactured  in  the  100%  EOU
could be cleared for domestic tariff area (DTA) on levy of duty  of  central
excise. The dispute arose as to what rate of duty  was  to  be  levied.  The
contention of the assessee was that excise duty is payable on  the  finished
goods under the main Section 3(1) of the Act together with customs  duty  on
the imported raw material used in  the  manufacture  of  the  said  finished
goods lying in the stock. The Revenue  on  the  other  hand  contended  that
excise duty under the proviso to Section 3(1) of the Act was payable on  the
finished goods and with no customs duty being levied on  the  raw  materials
gone into the manufacture of finished  goods.  The  Court  encapsulated  the
issue by  stating  that  the  expression  “allowed  to  be  sold  in  India”
appearing in the proviso to  Section  3(1)  of  the  Act  was  the  bone  of
contention  between  the  parties.  The  assessee  contended  that  for  the
application of the proviso  to  Section  3(1)  two  conditions  have  to  be
cumulatively and simultaneously satisfied, viz., (1) goods should have  been
produced or manufactured by an  existing  100%  EOU,  and  (2)  these  goods
should have been allowed to be sold  in  India.    After  analyzing  various
aspects and the circulars dated 17.02.1983 clarifying  the  introduction  of
the proviso and the circular dated 29.05.1984 explaining  further  amendment
to the proviso to Section 3(1) of the Act, the Court held :-
“The contention of the Revenue is  that  permission  to  withdraw  from  the
Scheme is itself a permission to sell in  India,  i.e.,  when  the  unit  is
permitted to debond, it would be deemed to have been permitted to  sell  the
goods in India. But then permission to sell in India has to be in  terms  or
in accordance with the provisions of the  export-import  policy.  Permission
to sell in India by 100% EOU  consists  of  all  those  factors  like  value
addition, fulfilment of  export  obligation,  sale  of  a  general  currency
licence-holder, item being not mentioned  in  the  negative  list  and  then
there being a limit of 25%, etc. When permission to debond  is  given,  none
of these criteria or aspects are applied by the Board of Approvals (BoA)  to
the closing stock of finished goods. The Board of Approvals is  a  statutory
authority, which permits debonding.  It  is  created  under  the  Industrial
(Development and Regulation) Act. On the other hand permission to  sell  the
goods in India under and in accordance with the  import  policy  has  to  be
given by the Development Commissioner  in  the  Ministry  of  Commerce.  The
Board of Approvals  and  the  Development  Commissioner  are  two  different
authorities constituted for two different purposes. Permission to debond  is
a statutory function exercised by one  statutory  authority.  On  the  other
hand permission to  sell  in  India  is  to  be  exercised  by  a  different
statutory authority. If reference is  made  to  para  102  of  the  relevant
import-export policy permission of the Development Commissioner is  required
for selling the goods in India up to a limit of 25% by 100%  EOU.  Para  117
of the policy deals with debonding of 100% EOU. Thus  it  is  apparent  that
debonding and permission to sell in India are two  different  things  having
no connection with each other. It also becomes apparent that in view of  the
EOU Scheme as modified from time to time  and  corresponding  amendments  to
Section 3 of the Act the expression “allowed to be sold  in  India”  in  the
proviso to Section 3(1) of the Act is applicable only to sales  made  up  to
25% of production by 100%  EOU  in  DTA  and  with  the  permission  of  the
Development  Commissioner.  No  permission  is  required   to   sell   goods
manufactured by 100% EOU lying with it at the time approval  is  granted  to
debond.”

24.   After so stating the Court noted the stand  of  the  revenue  that  by
debonding permission had been granted by BoA for selling the  closing  stock
of finished goods in India.   Negativing  the  said  contention,  the  Court
held:-
“By its application dated 8-9-1993 the appellant had only asked the  Central
Government for permission to  debond  the  unit.  Pending  formal  debonding
clearance, the appellant requested the  Central  Government  that  it  might
allow it to sell the goods in India.  This  request  of  the  appellant  was
never acceded to by the authority concerned  and  letter  of  debonding  was
issued. This application of the appellant, therefore, could not  be  treated
as an application for permission to  sell  in  India  as  contended  by  the
Revenue and the debonding letter of BoA cannot be  construed  as  permission
to sell in India.  The  argument  of  the  Revenue  that  debonding  assumes
allowing all closing stock of the goods on the date of debonding to be  sold
in India would be stretching the matter a little  too  far.  Conditions  for
sale of 25% of the finished products by EOU and sale of finished stock by  a
debonded 100% EOU on the date of debonding are different.”

25.   Eventually, the Court  interpreting  the  provision  and  notification
issued under the relevant Rules held thus:-
“Chapter V-A of the Central Excise Rules  contains  provisions  for  removal
from a free trade zone or from a  100%  EOU  of  excisable  goods  for  home
consumption. This chapter was made applicable to units under the EOU  Scheme
by Notification No. 130/84-CE dated 26-5-1984. This chapter  contains  Rules
100-A to 100-H. Rule 100-A provides that  the  provisions  of  this  chapter
shall apply to a person permitted under any law for the time being in  force
to  produce  or  manufacture  excisable  goods  in  a  100%  export-oriented
undertaking and who has been allowed by the proper officer  to  remove  such
excisable goods for being sold  in  India  on  payment  of  duty  of  excise
leviable thereon. It will be thus seen that this Chapter V-A  would  not  be
applicable where EOU is outside the EOU Scheme after the unit  is  debonded.
Under Rule 100-H, Rule 57-A and other  Rules  mentioned  therein  shall  not
apply to excisable goods produced or manufactured by a 100%  export-oriented
undertaking. Rule 57-A relates to allowing credit of any duty of  excise  or
the additional duty under Section 3 of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975  as  may
be specified by the Central Government in  the  notification,  paid  on  the
goods used in or in relation to the manufacture of the  final  products  and
for utilising the credit so  allowed  towards  payment  of  duty  of  excise
leviable on the final products.”

26.   In view of the aforesaid position, the Court was of the view that  the
tribunal was not right in holding  that duty was to be leviable in terms  of
the proviso to Section 3(1) of the Act and, accordingly, it  set  aside  the
judgment of the tribunal and restored that of the adjudicating authority.
27.   The aforesaid judgment of this Court was distinguished by  the  Larger
Bench of the tribunal in Himalaya International  Ltd.  (supra).  The  Larger
Bench referred to circular No. 618/9/2002-CX  dated  13.02.2002   and  ruled
thus:-
“A reading of the above circular would show that it was issued  pursuant  to
the decision of the Supreme  Court  in  SIV  Industries  Ltd.  (supra),  but
without understanding the position that the Supreme Court did not deal  with
a case where clearance was made  to  DTA  by  100%  EOU  in  excess  of  the
permission granted.  It is contended on behalf  of  the  assessee  that  the
interpretation given in the circular referred to above  is  binding  on  the
Revenue and therefore, this Tribunal cannot give a different  interpretation
to Section 3(1) and the proviso at the instance of the Revenue.  In  support
of the above contention reliance was placed on a  decision  of  the  Supreme
Court in CCE, Vadodara v. Dhiren Chemicals  Industries,  2002  (139)  ELT  3
(S.C.). We find no merit in the above contention of the assessee.   In  CCE,
Vadodara v. Dhiren Chemicals Industries  the  Supreme  Court  observed  that
regardless of the interpretation placed by  it  on  the  expression  in  the
notification ‘on which appropriate duty of excise has already been paid’  if
there are circulars which have been issued by the Central Board of Excise  &
Customs placing  a  different  interpretation  upon  the  said  phrase  that
interpretation will be binding upon the Revenue.  In the  present  case,  we
are not dealing with any circular of Central Board of  Revenue  interpreting
the meaning of the proviso to Section 3(1) and which had been in force.   On
the other hand, the circular dated 13.2.2002 is one issued  giving  a  wrong
interpretation to the decision of the Supreme Court.  We have no  hesitation
to hold that an interpretation thus given by the Board to  the  decision  of
the Supreme Court will not be binding.”

28.   To appreciate the whole controversy in completeness, we may  reproduce
the said circular dated 13.2.2002:-
“Subject: Removal of goods by 100% EOUs to DTA  –  Non-levy  of  duty  under
Section 3(1) of Central Excise Act, 1944.

      I am directed to invite reference to Supreme Court’s judgment in  case
of SIV Industries v. CCE [2000 (117) E.L.T. 281 (S.C.)] vide which the  Apex
Court had held that “proviso to Section 3(1) regarding the  duty  chargeable
on goods cleared by EOUs shall be applicable only to sales made in DTA  upto
25% of production which are allowed to be sold into India as per  provisions
of EXIM Policy”.  In other words, Hon’ble Court decided that  if  the  goods
are “not allowed” to be sold in  India,  the  proviso  to  Section  3(1)  of
Central Excise Act, 1944 shall not be applicable.  The  expression  ‘allowed
to be sold’ has since been  replaced  with  ‘brought  to  any  other  place’
w.e.f. 11-5-2001 vide Section 120 of Finance Act, 2001 [14 of 2001].

2. It has come to  the  notice  of  the  Board  that  field  formations  are
interpreting the judgment of Apex Court to the  effect  that  if  the  goods
cleared by EOUs are not allowed to be sold into India, the Section  3(1)  of
Central Excise Act, 1944 is not applicable and duty can  be  demanded  under
the provisions of Customs Act, 1962 only.  Board has taken  a  serious  view
of this mis-interpretation.  The provisions  of  Central  Excise  Act,  1944
shall apply to all  goods  manufactured  or  produced  in  India  for  which
Section 3 is the charging section.  EOUs are also situated in India and  the
chargeability under Central Excise Act is never in doubt.  Therefore, it  is
clarified that prior to 11-05-2001, the clearances from EOUs if not  allowed
to be sold in India, shall continue to be  chargeable  to  duty  under  main
Section 3(1) of Central Excise Act, 1944. Appropriate action  may  be  taken
immediately to safeguard revenue and all pending decisions  may  be  settled
accordingly.”



29.   The said circular, as is perceptible, is in accord with  the  decision
rendered in SIV  Industries  Ltd.  (supra).   The  said  circular  while  so
indicating also clearly lays down the expression “allowed to  be  sold”  has
been replaced with “brought to any other place” with effect from  11.05.2001
vide Section 120 of Finance Act, 2001 (14 of 2001).   The circular being  in
consonance with the decision in SIV Industries Ltd. (supra) and rightly  so,
it was absolute unnecessary on the part of the Larger Bench of the  tribunal
to say that this Court in SIV Industries Ltd. (supra) did not deal with  the
case where clearance  was  made  to  DTA  by  100%  EOU  in  excess  of  the
permission granted.   The  attempt  to  distinguish  the  circular,  in  our
considered opinion, was not only unnecessary but also absolutely  erroneous.

30.   After the judgment of the Larger Bench, the Central  Board  of  Excise
and Customs,  New  Delhi  brought  out  a  circular  dated  05.01.2004.  The
relevant part of the said circular reads as follows:-
“Subject: Withdrawal of Board’s Circular No.618/9/2002-CX., dated  13-2-2002
– Removal of goods by 100% EOU to DTA  –  Clarification  regarding  levy  of
duty on removal of goods by 100% EOU to DTA.

I am directed to draw your attention to  Board’s  Circular  No.  618/9/2002-
CX., dated 13-02-2002 [2002 (140) E.L.T. T27] on the above  subject  wherein
it was clarified that prior to 11-5-2001, the clearances from  EOUs  if  not
allowed to be sold in India, shall continue to be chargeable to  duty  under
main Section  3(1)  of  Central  Excise  Act,  1944.This  was  based  on  an
interpretation of Apex Court’s decision in the case of SIV  Industries  Ltd.
[2000 (117) E.L.T. 281(S.C.)].

2.    However, attention is now invited to the decision of Larger  Bench  of
CESTAT in the case of M/s. Himalaya International Ltd.  v.  Commissioner  of
Central Excise, Chandigarh [2003 (154) E.L.T. 580 (Tri. – LB)],  wherein  it
has been held that “Rate of duty as per the proviso to Section 3(1)  of  the
Central  Excise  Act,  1944  would  be  applicable  for  assessing  all  the
excisable goods, which were cleared by 100% EOU to DTA whether in  terms  of
permission granted or in excess of permission  granted”.   In  view  of  the
said  judgment  of  the  CESTAT,  it  is  now  clear  that  all  the   goods
manufactured by EOU and cleared into DTA before final debonding of  the  EOU
shall be chargeable to duty under proviso to Section  3(1)  of  the  Central
Excise Act, 1944 and under no condition, goods produced in 100% EOU  can  be
charged under main Section 3(1) of Central Excise Act, 1944.

3.     In view of the above judgment of the CESTAT, the matter has been  re-
considered by the Board and it has been  decided  to  withdraw  the  Board’s
Circular No. 618/9/2002-CX., dated 13-2-2002.  The above-mentioned  judgment
of CESTAT, which has been accepted  by  Board,  may  kindly  be  taken  into
consideration in deciding similar pending cases.”

31.   Having noted the circular, we may refer to the authority in  NCC  Blue
Water Products Ltd. (supra).  In the said case, the tribunal has  held  that
the duty of Central excise on shrimps and shrimp seeds produced and  removed
by the assessee-respondent,  a  100%  export-oriented  unit  (EOU),  in  the
Domestic  Tariff  Area  (DTA)  without  the  approval  of  the   Development
Commissioner, would be payable under Section 3(1) of the Act and  not  under
the proviso appended thereto.   The two-Judge Bench taking note of the  fact
that during the period 1994-1995 to 1997-1998,  the  assessee  produced  and
sold 11,15,29,540 number of shrimp seeds and 48,365 kg  of  shrimps  in  DTA
without obtaining the permission of the  Development  Commissioner;  without
issuing proper invoices as mandated under Rule 100-E of the  Central  Excise
Rules, 1944 (for short “the Rules”) and  without  payment  of  excise  duty.
Besides, the assessee also undertook certain job-work whereby  it  processed
864.238 MT of shrimps and 905.580 MT of fish and cleared the said  goods  in
DTA. According to the assessee, these goods were ultimately exported by  DTA
units. The said action of the assessee compelled the authority  to  issue  a
show cause notice requiring the assessee to show cause as  to  why  duty  of
excise equal to aggregate of the duties of  customs  should  not  be  levied
under Section 3 of the Act read with Rule 9(2) read  with  proviso  to  sub-
section (1) of Section 11-A of the Act and  interest  and  penalty  thereon.
The matter was contested by the assessee and eventually the  tribunal  ruled
in favour of the assessee. Before this Court, it was  contended  that  since
as per Note 1 of Section I of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff  Act,
1975, any reference in that section “to a particular genus or species of  an
animal, except where the context otherwise requires,  includes  a  reference
to the young of that genus or species” and,  therefore,  both  live  shrimps
and shrimp seeds are classifiable under Sub-Heading 0306.23 of Chapter 3  of
the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.  It was also urged  that
the tribunal committed an error in relying on the decision of this Court  in
SIV Industries Ltd. (supra) because unlike in that  case  the  assessee  had
sought permission of the Development Commissioner, who in turn  had  advised
them to approach the SIA for permission to clear shrimps  and  shrimp  seeds
which, in fact, was granted and, therefore, they were required to  pay  duty
under proviso to Section 3(1) of the Act. It was also urged that  under  the
Exim Policy, an EOU is obliged to make  exports  of  the  entire  production
itself and not through any other entity.   The  Court  posed  the  following
question:-
“The core question for our consideration, therefore, is  whether  the  sales
of shrimps and shrimp seeds  by  the  assessee  in  DTA,  without  requisite
permission from the Development Commissioner, are to be assessed  to  excise
duty under Section 3(1) of  the  Act  or  under  the  proviso  to  the  said
section?”

32.   To deal with the said question, the Court referred to  Section  3  and
it expressed understanding of the provision in the following terms:-
“It is manifest that all excisable goods produced or manufactured  in  India
are exigible to duty of excise under Section 3  of  the  Act,  the  charging
section, at the rates set forth in the Schedule to the Tariff Act.  However,
the proviso to the said section provides that the duties of  excise  on  any
excisable goods, which are produced  or  manufactured  by  a  100%  EOU  and
allowed to be sold in India shall be an amount equal  to  the  aggregate  of
the duties of customs which would  be  leviable  under  Section  12  of  the
Customs Act, 1962. As aforestated, the controversy at  hand  is  whether  in
the absence of an order by the competent authority,  allowing  the  assessee
to sell the shrimp seeds and shrimps in India, excise  duty  on  such  sales
could  be  levied  and  collected  in  terms  of  the  proviso.  To  put  it
differently, the  issue  relates  to  the  significance  of  the  expression
“allowed to be sold in India” as appearing in clause (ii) to the proviso  to
sub-section (1) of Section 3 of the Act.”

33.   After so stating the two-Judge Bench referred to the decision  in  SIV
Industries Ltd. (supra) and opined that:-

“A similar issue fell for consideration of  this  Court  in  SIV  Industries
Ltd. (supra) In that case, the assessee was  a  100%  EOU.  Later  on,  they
sought permission to withdraw from 100% EOU Scheme, for which  the  Ministry
accorded the necessary permission. However, some of the goods lying  in  the
unit were removed prior to the debonding.  A  dispute  arose  regarding  the
rate of duty payable on such sales. The plea taken by the assessee was  that
they were liable to pay duty under Section 3(1) of  the  Act  together  with
customs duty on the imported raw material used in the  manufacture  of  said
finished goods, lying in the stock whereas the  stand  of  the  Revenue  was
that excise duty under the proviso to Section 3(1) of the  Act  was  payable
on the finished goods with  no  customs  duty  being  leviable  on  the  raw
materials used in the manufacture of  finished  goods.  Thus,  the  bone  of
contention in that case was also with regard to the  interpretation  of  the
expression “allowed to be sold in India”  appearing  in  the  said  proviso.
Interpreting the said  expression,  this  Court  held  that  the  expression
“allowed to be sold in India” used in the proviso to  Section  3(1)  of  the
Act is applicable only to sales made in DTA up to 25% of the  production  by
100% EOUs, which are allowed to be sold into India as per the provisions  of
the Exim Policy. No permission was required to sell the  goods  manufactured
by 100% EOU lying with it at the time the approval is  accorded  to  debond.
The Court opined that the goods having been sold without permission  of  the
Central Government to debond the unit, the duty on the  goods  sold  by  the
assessee was leviable under main Section 3(1) of the Act.”
                                                            [Emphasis added]


34.   It is necessary to state here that after so  stating  the  Court  also
noted  that after pronouncement of  the  decision  in  SIV  Industries  Ltd.
(supra), the circular was issued  on  13.02.2002  clarifying  the  position.
Interpreting the said circular, the Court held:-
“19. As  aforesaid,  according  to  the  Exim  Policy  1992-1997  read  with
Appendix XXXIII of the Handbook of Procedures, an EOU may sell  50%  of  its
production in value  terms  into  a  DTA  only  on  issuance  of  a  removal
authorisation by the Development Commissioner.

20. In the instant case, admittedly at the time  of  sales  of  shrimps  and
shrimp seeds by the assessee in DTA, the Development  Commissioner  had  not
issued the requisite  removal  authorisation.  Therefore,  in  view  of  the
dictum of this Court in SIV Industries Ltd. (supra), with which  we  are  in
respectful agreement, and the afore-extracted circular issued by  the  Board
following the said decision, excise duty on such sales is  chargeable  under
main Section 3(1) of the Act.”
                                                            [Emphasis added]

35.   The impugned order,  as  is  manifest,  relies  on  the  Larger  Bench
decision. It is to be noted that  after  the  judgment  in  NCC  Blue  Water
Products Ltd. (supra) the said decision was brought to  the  notice  of  the
tribunal but it has opined that  parent  judgment  in  SIV  Industries  Ltd.
(supra) was distinguished by the  Larger  Bench  and  further  the  circular
dated 05.01.2004 was not taken note of  by  this  Court  in  the  subsequent
judgment.  On a  careful  scrutiny  of  the  authority  in  NCC  Blue  Water
Products Ltd. (supra), we are of the  considered  opinion  that  it  concurs
with the view expressed in SIV Industries Ltd. (supra). The  circular  dated
05.01.2004 came into existence after the Larger Bench decision  in  Himalaya
International Ltd. (supra).  We  have  already  stated  that  there  was  no
justification  for  distinguishing  the  decision  in  SIV  Industries  Ltd.
(supra).  The Technical Member who authored the judgment after the  decision
in NCC Blue Water Products Ltd. (supra) was brought to  the  notice  of  the
tribunal  has  absolutely   improperly  noted  that   the   circular   dated
05.01.2004 was not brought to the notice of this Court.  The  Court  in  NCC
Blue Water Products Ltd. case had not based its conclusion on the  basis  of
the circular dated 13.02.2002. It is clear as  day  that  it  has  concurred
with the ratio laid down  in  SIV  Industries  Ltd.  (supra).  It  has  been
clearly opined that the expression “allowed to be sold  in  India”  used  in
proviso to Section 3(1) of the Act would be applicable only  to  sales  made
in DTA  of the production by 100% EOUs, which are allowed to  be  sold  into
India as per the provisions of the Exim Policy.
36.   The said authority has also made it clear that the circular issued  in
2002 is in consonance with the authority in  SIV  Industries  Ltd.  (supra).
Thus, the view expressed by NCC Blue Water Products Ltd. (supra)  has  given
the stamp of approval to the circular. It is a binding precedent on all  the
courts and the tribunals under Article 141 of  the  Constitution  of  India.
The Larger Bench  of  the  Tribunal,  as  stated  earlier,  could  not  have
distinguished the  judgment  in  SIV  Industries  Ltd.  (supra).  The  later
circular issued on 05.01.2004 on which reliance was placed  by  the  revenue
before the tribunal which has been taken note of in  the  impugned  judgment
is clearly indicative of an erroneous approach.  The decision  in  NCC  Blue
Water Products Ltd. (supra) was bound to be followed and the tribunal  could
not have stated that 2004 circular was  not  taken  note  of.  The  tribunal
should have appropriately appreciated that this Court was  interpreting  the
statutory provision and it is also worthy to note that  after  the  judgment
delivered in SIV Industries Ltd. (supra) an amendment was brought  into  the
provision.  Therefore, the transaction prior to the date of amendment  would
be governed by SIV Industries Ltd. (supra) which has been  followed  in  NCC
Blue Water Products Ltd. (supra). Be it clarified that we are not  concerned
with the amended provision in this case.
37.   In view of the aforesaid  analysis,  the  appeals  are  allowed.   The
judgment and order passed by the  tribunal  and  that  of  the  adjudicating
authority are set aside. The assessee shall be  liable  to  pay  the  excise
duty as per Section 3(1) of the Act.  The competent  authority  is  directed
to compute the duty accordingly and proceed thereafter as per  law.  In  the
facts and circumstances of the case, there shall be no order as to costs.


                                  ........................................J.
                                    [DIPAK MISRA]



                                  ........................................J.
                                              [SHIVA KIRTI SINGH]
NEW DELHI;
June 03, 2016
-----------------------
[1]     1996 (86) ELT 472 (SC)
[2]     (2000) 3 SCC 367
[3]     1999 (108) ELT 61 (Tribunal)
[4]     2005 (188) ELT 201 (Trib.-Mumbai)
[5]     2002 (141) ELT 3 (SC)
[6]     (2010) 12 SCC 761 : 2010 (258)_ ELT 161
[7]    (2003) 154 ELT 580


In the present case, it can be stated with certitude that no ingredient of Section 420 IPC is remotely attracted. Even if it is a wrong, the complainant has to take recourse to civil action.

                                                                  REPORTABLE
                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
                       CRIMINAL ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
                   WRIT PETITION (CRIMINAL) NO. 30 OF 2015


Dr. Rini Johar & Anr.                   ... Petitioners
                                   Versus
State of M.P. & Ors.                    ... Respondents


                               J U D G M E N T

Dipak Misra, J.
      The petitioner no.1 is a doctor and she is presently  pursuing  higher
studies in United States of  America  (USA).   She  runs  an  NGO  meant  to
provide services for South Asian Abused Women in USA.   Petitioner  no.2,  a
septuagenarian lady, is a practicing Advocate in the District Court at  Pune
for last 36 years.  Petitioner no.1 is associated with  M/s.  Progen,  a  US
company.
2.    As the facts would unveil, the informant, respondent no.8 herein,  had
sent an email to the company for purchase of machine Aura Cam,  6000,  which
is an Aura Imaging Equipment, in India and the  concerned  company  sent  an
email  to  the  respondent  making  a  reference  to  the  petitioner  no.1.
Thereafter, the said respondent  sent  an  email  asking  her  to  send  the
address where he could meet her and have details  for  making  payment.   He
also expressed his interest to become a distributor.
3.    The informant visited the petitioner no.1 at Pune and received a  demo
of Aura Cam 6000 and being satisfied decided  to  purchase  a  lesser  price
machine i.e. “Twinaura Pro” for a total sum of Rs.2,54,800/-.    He  paid  a
sum of Rs.2,50,000/- for which a hand  written  receipt  was  given  as  the
proof  of  payment.   During  the  course  of  the  said  meeting,  the  8th
respondent expressed his desire to purchase  a  laptop  of  M/s.  Progen  of
which the petitioner no. 1 was the  representative.   In  pursuance  of  the
discussion, the laptop was given to him who acknowledged it by stating  that
he owed a sum of Rs.4,800/- as balance consideration towards  the  Aura  Cam
and an amount of USD 350 towards the laptop.  An  assurance  was  given  for
remitting the money within a short time.  As averred,  the  respondent  no.8
had never raised any  grievance  relating  either  to  the  machine  or  the
laptop.   Certain transactions between the  informant  and  the  US  company
have been mentioned and the allegations  have  been  made  against  the  8th
respondent that he represented himself as  the  sole  distributor  in  India
which was brought to the notice of the concerned  police  in  the  State  of
M.P. by the competent authority of the company.  The said  facts  really  do
not have much relevance to the lis which we are going to adjudicate  in  the
present writ petition.
4.    When the matter stood thus, the  respondent  no.8  filed  a  complaint
before the Inspector General of Police, Cyber  Cell,  Bhopal  alleging  that
the petitioner no.1 and Mr. Guy Coggin had committed  fraud  of  US  10,500.
On the basis of the complaint made, FIR no. 24/2012 under  Section  420  and
34 of the Indian Penal Code  (IPC)  and  Section  66-D  of  the  Information
Technology Act, 2000 (for brevity, ‘the Act’)  was  registered  against  the
petitioners by Cyber  Police  Headquarters,  Bhopal,  M.P.   The  respondent
no.2, I.G. Cyber Cell, issued  an  order  on  20.11.2012  which  is  to  the
following effect:-
“Cyber state police having registered FIR 24/2012 under S 420, 34 of  Indian
Penal Code and 66 D  of  IT  Act  search  and  information  the  undersigned
persons are asked to go to Pune.
1. R.R. Devendra Sisodia
2. R.R. (Lady) Ishrat Praveen Khan
3. RR (Lady) Valari Upadhyay”

5.    On 21.11.2012, Dy. S.P. State Cyber Police, Bhopal proceeded  to  pass
the following order:-
“Cyber state police having registered FIR 24/2012 under  S  420,  34  Indian
Penal Code and S 66 D of IT Act accused Rini Johar and Gulshan Johar  should
be arrested and for that lady constable Ishrat Khan has  been  deputed  with
case diary with address from where they are to be found and arrested and  it
is ordered that they be brought to Bhopal.  In reference to which  you  have
been given possession of the said case diary.”

6.    We have reproduced the  said  orders  in  entirety  as  the  same  has
immense relevance to the relief sought for by the petitioners.
7.    As the narration would unfurl, on  27.11.2012,  the  petitioners  were
arrested from their residence at Pune.  Various assertions  have  been  made
as regards the legality of the arrest  which  cover  the  spectrum  of  non-
presence of the witnesses at the time of arrest  of  the  petitioners,  non-
mentioning of date, and arrest by unauthorized officers, etc.   It  is  also
asserted after they were arrested, they were taken from Pune  to  Bhopal  in
an  unreserved  railway  compartment  marked  –   ‘viklang’   (handicapped).
Despite request, the petitioner no.2, an  old  lady,  was  not  taken  to  a
doctor, and was compelled to lie on the cold floor of the train  compartment
without any food and  water.   Indignified  treatment  and  the  humiliation
faced  by  the  petitioners  have  been  mentioned  in  great  detail.    On
28.11.2012, they were produced before the learned Magistrate at  Bhopal  and
the petitioner no. 2 was enlarged on bail after being in custody  for  about
17 days and the petitioner no.1 was released after more  than  three  weeks.
There is allegation that they were forced to pay Rs.5  lakhs  to  respondent
no.3,  Deepak  Thakur,  Dy.  S.P.  Cyber  Cell,  Bhopal.    On   18.12.2012,
chargesheet was filed and thereafter a petition under Section 482  CrPC  has
been filed before the High Court for quashment of the FIR.
8.    At this stage,  it  is  pertinent  to  state  that  on  19.2.2015  the
petitioners filed an application for discharge and  the  learned  Magistrate
passed an order discharging  the  petitioners  in  respect  of  the  offence
punishable under Section 66-D of the Act.  However, learned  Magistrate  has
opined that there is prima facie  case  for  the  offence  punishable  under
Section 66-A(b) of the Act read with Section 420 and 34 of the IPC.
9.    Ordinarily, we would  have  asked  the  petitioners  to  pursue  their
remedy before the High Court. But,  a   disturbing  one,  petitioners  while
appearing in person, agonizingly submitted that this Court should look  into
the manner in which they have been arrested, how the  norms  fixed  by  this
Court have been flagrantly violated and how their dignity has  been  sullied
permitting the atrocities to reign.  It was urged  that  if  this  Court  is
prima facie satisfied that violations are absolutely impermissible  in  law,
they would be entitled to compensation.   That apart, it was contended  that
no case is made out against them  and  the  order  of  discharge  is  wholly
unsustainable.  Regard being had to the said submission,  we  appointed  Mr.
Sunil Fernandes as Amicus Curiae to assist the Court.
10.   In this writ  petition,  first  we  shall  address  to  the  challenge
relating to the validity and  legality  of  arrest,  advert  to  the  aspect
whether the petitioners  would  be  entitled  to  any  compensation  on  the
bedrock of public law remedy and thereafter finally  to  the  justifiability
of the continuance of the criminal proceedings.   Be  it  stated  here  that
this Court on 7.12.2015, taking note of the submissions of  the  petitioners
that they are not interested to prosecute their petition under  Section  482
CrPC directed that the said petition is deemed to  have  been  disposed  of.
It is also requisite to note here that despite efforts  being  made  by  the
petitioners as well as the State of M.P, respondent  no.8,  who  belongs  to
Jabalpur, M.P. could not be served.  This Court is inclined  to  infer  that
the said respondent is really not interested to appear and contest.
11.   As stated earlier, first we shall advert to  the  legality  of  arrest
and detention.  Mr. Saurabh Mishra, learned counsel appearing for the  State
of M.P. has submitted that as the State Government had already conducted  an
enquiry  in  this  regard  and  initiated  proceedings   against   the   3rd
respondent, the matter should not be adjudicated at this stage.  We are  not
disposed to accept the said submission, for  initiation  of  a  disciplinary
proceeding  or  criminal  prosecution  should  not  be  an  impediment   for
delineation as regards the violation of procedure of arrest and  curtailment
of liberty.
12.   We consider it imperative to refer to the enquiry made  by  the  State
and the findings arrived at by the enquiry officer.  It is asserted  in  the
counter  affidavit  that  the  petitioners  had  made  a  complaint  to  the
Lokayukta Police (M.P. Special Police Establishment)  alleging  that  Deepak
Thakur, respondent no.3 herein, demanded a bribe of Rs.10 lakhs for  letting
them go and pursuant to the said demand, initially a  sum  of  Rs.2,50,000/-
was paid and subsequently a  sum  of  Rs.2,50,000/-  was  also  given.   The
Lokayukta Police had already registered a preliminary  enquiry  no.  33/2015
and after enquiry submitted an enquiry report dated 18.6.2015  stating  that
prima facie case had been made out against Deepak Thakur,  Dy.  S.P.,  Cyber
Cell, Bhopal, Ishrat Khan, Head Constable,  Cyber  Cell,  Bhopal,  Inderpal,
Writer, Cyber Cell Bhopal and Saurabh Bhat, Clerk, Cyber Cell, Bhopal  under
Section 13(1)(d) and Section 13(2) of  the  Prevention  of  Corruption  Act,
1988 and Section 120B IPC.  Based on the said  preliminary  enquiry  report,
FIR No. 273/2015 dated 27.3.2015 has been  registered  against  the  accused
persons in respect of the said offences and further  steps  under  the  CrPC
are being taken.   Be it clarified, we are not at  all  concerned  with  the
launching of said prosecution and accordingly we shall  not  advert  to  the
same.
13.   It is perceivable that the State in its initial affidavit  had  stated
that the Director  General  of  Police  by  its  order  dated  8.7.2015  had
appointed Inspector General of Police, CID to enquire into  the  allegations
as regards the violation of the provisions enshrined under Section  41-A  to
41-C of CrPC.  It needs to be stated here that in  pursuance  of  the  order
passed by the Director General, an enquiry has been conducted  by  Inspector
General of Police Administration,  CID,  Bhopal.   It  has  been  styled  as
“preliminary enquiry”.  The said report dated 19.08.2015  has  been  brought
on record. The Inquiring Authority has recorded the statement of Ms.  Ishrat
Praveen Khan.  The part of her statement reads as follows:-
“… When I received the order, I requested DSP Shri Deepak Thakur that I  was
not in the District Police  Force.   I  do  not  have  any  knowledge  about
IPC/Cr.P.C./Police Regulation/Police Act and Evidence Act, IT Act as I  have
not obtained any training in Police Training  School,  nor  do  I  have  any
knowledge in this regard, nor do  I  have  any  knowledge  to  fill  up  the
seizure memo and arrest memo.  Even  after  the  request,  DSP  Shri  Deepak
Thakur asked in  strict  word  that  I  must  follow  the  order.  The  duty
certificate was granted to me on 26.11.2012, on  which  Report  No.567  time
16.30 was registered, in which there are clear  directions.   In  compliance
with this order, we reached Kondwa Police Station  in  Pune  Maharashtra  on
27.11.2012 with my team and 2 constables and 1 woman constable were sent  to
assist us from there.  The persons of the  police  station  Kondwa  came  to
know reaching Lulla Nagar that the said  area  does  not  fall  under  their
police station area so the police of Kondwa phoning Banwari  Police  Station
got to bring the force for help Banwari Police Station.   I  had  given  the
written application in PS Banwari.  The entire team  reached  the  house  of
Rini Johar and 01 laptop of  Dell  Company  and  1  data  card  of  Reliance
Company were seized. Rini Johar called her mother  Gulshan  Johar  from  the
Court furnishing information to her about  her  custody.   Thereafter,  Shri
Rini Johar had called up  the  Inspector  General  of  Police,  State  Cyber
Police Shri Anil Kumar Gupta. I and my team had taken Miss  Rini  Johar  and
Smt. Gulshan  in  our  custody.   I  and  Constable  Miss  Hemlata  Jharbare
conduced robe search of Miss Rini Johar and Smt. Gulshan Johar. Nothing  was
found on their body.”

14.   He has also recorded the statement of Devender  Sisodia,  Ms.  Vallari
Upadhyay, Ms. Hemlata Jharbare and thereafter recorded  his  findings.   The
findings arrived at in the preliminary enquiry read thus:-
“24.  Finding  of  the  preliminary  inquiry:-  It  was  found  during   the
preliminary enquiry that  Crime  No.24/12  had  been  registered  after  the
inquiry of one written complaint of the applicant Shri  Vikram  Rajput,  but
this complaint inquiry report during the investigation of  the  offence  has
been kept as the relevant evidence.  The crime was registered on  27.11.2012
under Section 420, 34 IPC read with Section 66D IT  Act,  2000  against  the
named accused persons.  The offence  was  to  the  effect  that  though  the
alleged accused persons obtained Rs.5.00  lakh,  they  did  not  supply  the
camera etc and they supplied the defective articles.  This sale  –  purchase
was conducted through the online correspondence, due to  which  the  section
of IT Act was imposed.  It was found on the preliminary  inquiry  that  Shri
Vikram Rajput gave the payment of Rs.2.50 lakh by the  bank  draft  and  the
remaining payment by cash.  The facts of the  payment  and  supply  are  now
disputed and the trial of Crime No.24/12 is pending in the competent  Court.
 Therefore, to give any inquiry finding on it would not be  proper.   It  is
clear from the documents attached to the case diary  and  the  statement  of
Shri Deepak Thakur that Shri Deepak Thakur sent 2  notices  respectively  by
the post and through the Deputy Commissioner, Economic Crime and Cyber  Pune
respectively to  Miss  Rini  Johar  on  01.06.2012  and  02.07.2012  in  the
investigation  of  the  offence,  but  they  did  not  appear   before   the
Investigator.  It has not been written above both the notices if the  notice
has been issued under Section 41A of Cr.P.C. It is also  not  clear  whether
or not these both notices were severed to Miss Rini Johar.
25. This case is related to the alleged  cheating  between  two  persons  in
respect of sale and purchase of goods.  The maximum sentence in Section  420
is the period upto 7 years and  similarly  when  the  reasons  mentioned  in
Section 41 (1)(B) are not found, the suspects of the crime  should  be  made
to appear for the interrogation  in  the  investigation  issuing  notice  to
them.  Justice Late Krishna Ayyer has held in Jolly George Varghese v.  Bank
of Cochin[1] that “No one shall  be  imprisoned  merely  on  the  ground  of
inability to fulfill a contractual obligation”.  Section  41(2)  of  Cr.P.C.
grants power to the Investigator that if the suspect  does  not  appear  for
the investigation despite the  notice,  he  can  be  arrested,  though  this
reason having been mentioned in the case diary  should  have  been  produced
before the Magistrate, but no reason for the arrest has  been  mentioned  in
the case diary.  No notice has been sent  to  the  old  woman  Smt.  Gulshan
Johar (aged about 70 years), nor has she played any role in  committing  any
offence.  Only the draft of Rs.2.50 lakh had been deposited in her  account.
 No binding ground has been mentioned in respect of her arrest in  the  case
diary.”

And again:-
“28. It has not been mentioned anywhere in the arrest memo  and  case  diary
that the information of the arrest of both women was  furnished  to  any  of
their relatives and friends.  It has become clear from the  statements  that
when both the women  were  arrested  physically  they  were  brought  to  PS
Banwari Pune, where the arrest memo was prepared.  There  is  the  signature
of Shri Amol Shetty as the witness of the seizure memo.  Shri Deepak  Thakur
has stated in his statement that the handwriting of the seizure memo  is  of
the constable Shri Indrapal. Shri Indrapal did not go as  a  member  of  the
arresting persons to Pune.  The seizure memo does not have the signature  of
Amol Shetty as well, which proves prima facie that the seizure memo was  not
prepared on 27.11.2012 in Pune.  The report  no.29/12  dated  27.11.2012  of
seeking police help in  PS  Banwari  is  recorded,  but  no  information  is
recorded at the police station that MP Police are taking by arresting  these
citizens with them.  As a result, the information of  the  arrested  persons
was neither furnished in the District Police Control Room Pune, nor  was  it
published there.  It has also been  clarified  in  the  preliminary  inquiry
that the accused persons after they were arrested were not  produced  before
the Local Judge and they were brought to Bhopal by rail.  Miss  Ishrat  Khan
stated  that  she  did  not  obtain  the  rail  warrant   of   neither   the
policepersons nor the accused during return due to paucity of time.”

And finally:-
“As such, the facts  of  arresting  both  the  suspected  women  and  making
seizure memo searching their houses not fully  following  the  procedure  of
arrest by the Investigator and police team have come  to  the  fore  in  the
preliminary enquiry prima facie.”

15.   Keeping the aforesaid facts in view, we may refer to the decisions  in
the field and the submissions canvassed by  Mr.  Fernandes,  learned  Amicus
Curiae.
16.   In Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P.[2] while considering the misuse  of
police power of arrest, it has been opined:-
“No arrest can be made because it is lawful for the  police  officer  to  do
so. The existence of the power to arrest is  one  thing.  The  justification
for the exercise of it is quite another. … No arrest should be made  without
a reasonable  satisfaction  reached  after  some  investigation  as  to  the
genuineness and bona fides of a complaint and a reasonable  belief  both  as
to the person’s complicity and even so as to  the  need  to  effect  arrest.
Denying a person of his liberty is a serious matter.”

17.   In the  said  case,  the  Court  also  voiced  its  concern  regarding
complaints of human rights  pre  and  after  arrests  and  in  that  context
observed:-
“The horizon of human rights is expanding. At the same time, the crime  rate
is also increasing. Of late, this Court has been receiving complaints  about
violations of human rights because of indiscriminate arrests. How are we  to
strike a balance between the two?

      A realistic approach should be made in  this  direction.  The  law  of
arrest is one of balancing individual rights, liberties and  privileges,  on
the one hand, and individual duties,  obligations  and  responsibilities  on
the other; of weighing and balancing the rights,  liberties  and  privileges
of the single individual and those of individuals  collectively;  of  simply
deciding what is wanted and where to put the weight  and  the  emphasis;  of
deciding which comes first — the criminal or society, the  law  violator  or
the law abider ….”

      After so stating, certain procedural requirements were set down.
18.   In D.K. Basu v. State of W.B.[3], after referring to  the  authorities
in Joginder Kumar (supra), Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa[4]  and  State
of M.P. v. Shyamsunder Trivedi[5] the Court laid down certain guidelines  to
be followed in cases of arrest and detention till legal provisions are  made
in that behalf as preventive measures. The said guidelines read as follows:-

“(1)  The  police  personnel  carrying  out  the  arrest  and  handling  the
interrogation of the  arrestee  should  bear  accurate,  visible  and  clear
identification and name tags with their  designations.  The  particulars  of
all such police personnel who handle interrogation of the arrestee  must  be
recorded in a register.
(2) That the police officer carrying out the arrest of  the  arrestee  shall
prepare a memo of arrest at the time  of  arrest  and  such  memo  shall  be
attested by at least one witness, who may either be a member of  the  family
of the arrestee or a respectable person  of  the  locality  from  where  the
arrest is made. It shall also be countersigned by  the  arrestee  and  shall
contain the time and date of arrest.
(3) A person who has been arrested or detained and is being held in  custody
in a police station or interrogation  centre  or  other  lock-up,  shall  be
entitled to have one friend or relative or other  person  known  to  him  or
having interest in his welfare being informed, as soon as practicable,  that
he has been arrested and is being detained at the particular  place,  unless
the attesting witness of the memo of arrest is himself such a  friend  or  a
relative of the arrestee.
(4) The time, place of arrest and venue of custody of an  arrestee  must  be
notified by the police where the next friend or  relative  of  the  arrestee
lives outside the district or town through the  Legal  Aid  Organisation  in
the District and the police station of the  area  concerned  telegraphically
within a period of 8 to 12 hours after the arrest.
(5) The person arrested must be made aware of this  right  to  have  someone
informed of his arrest or detention as soon as he is put under arrest or  is
detained.
(6) An entry must be made in the diary at the place of  detention  regarding
the arrest of the person which shall also disclose  the  name  of  the  next
friend of the person who has been informed of the arrest and the  names  and
particulars of the police officials in whose custody the arrestee is.
(7) The arrestee should, where he so requests, be also examined at the  time
of his arrest and major and minor injuries, if any present on his/her  body,
must be recorded at that time. The “Inspection Memo” must be signed both  by
the arrestee and the police  officer  effecting  the  arrest  and  its  copy
provided to the arrestee.
(8) The arrestee should be subjected to medical  examination  by  a  trained
doctor every 48 hours during his detention in custody by  a  doctor  on  the
panel of approved doctors appointed by  Director,  Health  Services  of  the
State  or  Union  Territory  concerned.  Director,  Health  Services  should
prepare such a panel for all tehsils and districts as well.
(9) Copies of all the documents including the memo of  arrest,  referred  to
above, should be sent to the Illaqa Magistrate for his record.
(10) The arrestee may be permitted to meet his lawyer during  interrogation,
though not throughout the interrogation.
(11) A police control room should be provided  at  all  district  and  State
headquarters, where information  regarding  the  arrest  and  the  place  of
custody of the arrestee shall be communicated by  the  officer  causing  the
arrest, within 12 hours of effecting the arrest and at  the  police  control
room it should be displayed on a conspicuous notice board.”


19.   Mr. Fernandes, learned Amicus Curiae, in a tabular chart  has  pointed
that none of the requirements had been complied with.  Various reasons  have
been ascribed for the same.   On  a  scrutiny  of  enquiry  report  and  the
factual assertions made, it is limpid that some of the guidelines have  been
violated. It is strenuously urged by Mr. Fernandes that Section  66-A(b)  of
the Information Technology Act, 2000 provides   maximum  sentence  of  three
years  and  Section  420  CrPC  stipulates  sentence  of  seven  years  and,
therefore, it was  absolutely  imperative  on  the  part  of  the  arresting
authority to comply with the procedure postulated in  Section  41-A  of  the
Code of Criminal Procedure.  The Court in Arnesh Kumar  v.  State  of  Bihar
and another[6], while dwelling upon the concept of arrest, was compelled  to
observe thus:-
“Arrest brings  humiliation,  curtails  freedom  and  casts  scars  forever.
Lawmakers know it so  also  the  police.  There  is  a  battle  between  the
lawmakers and the police and it seems that the police  has  not  learnt  its
lesson: the lesson implicit and embodied in CrPC. It has  not  come  out  of
its colonial image despite  six  decades  of  Independence,  it  is  largely
considered as a tool of harassment, oppression and surely not  considered  a
friend of public. The need for caution in exercising the  drastic  power  of
arrest has been emphasised time and again by the courts but has not  yielded
desired result. Power to arrest greatly  contributes  to  its  arrogance  so
also the failure of the Magistracy to check it. Not only this, the power  of
arrest is one of the lucrative sources of police  corruption.  The  attitude
to arrest first and then proceed with the rest is despicable. It has  become
a handy tool to the  police  officers  who  lack  sensitivity  or  act  with
oblique motive.”

20.   Thereafter, the Court referred to Section 41 CrPC  and  analyzing  the
said provision, opined that a person accused of an offence  punishable  with
imprisonment for a term which may be less than  seven  years  or  which  may
extend to seven years with or  without  fine,  cannot  be  arrested  by  the
police officer only on his satisfaction that such person had  committed  the
offence.  It has been further held that a police officer before  arrest,  in
such cases has to be further satisfied that  such  arrest  is  necessary  to
prevent such person from committing  any  further  offence;  or  for  proper
investigation of the case; or  to  prevent  the  accused  from  causing  the
evidence of the offence to disappear; or tampering  with  such  evidence  in
any manner; or to prevent such person from making any inducement, threat  or
promise to a witness so as to dissuade him from  disclosing  such  facts  to
the court or the police officer; or unless such accused person is  arrested,
his presence in the court whenever required cannot  be  ensured.  These  are
the conclusions, which one may reach based on facts.  Eventually, the  Court
was compelled to state:-
“In pith and core, the police officer before arrest must put a  question  to
himself, why arrest? Is it really required?  What  purpose  it  will  serve?
What object it will achieve? It is only after these questions are  addressed
and one or the other conditions as enumerated above is satisfied, the  power
of arrest needs to be exercised. In fine, before  arrest  first  the  police
officers should have reason to believe  on  the  basis  of  information  and
material that the accused has committed the offence. Apart  from  this,  the
police officer has to be satisfied further that the arrest is necessary  for
one or the more purposes envisaged by sub-clauses (a) to (e) of  clause  (1)
of Section 41 CrPC.”

21.   In the said authority, Section 41-A CrPC, which has been  inserted  by
Section 6 of the Code of Criminal Procedure  (Amendment)  Act,  2008  (5  of
2009) was introduced and in that context, it has been held that Section  41-
A CrPC makes it clear that where the arrest of  a  person  is  not  required
under Section 41(1) CrPC, the police officer is  required  to  issue  notice
directing the accused to appear before him at a specified  place  and  time.
Law obliges such an accused to appear  before  the  police  officer  and  it
further mandates that if such an accused complies with the terms  of  notice
he shall not be arrested, unless for reasons  to  be  recorded,  the  police
officer is of the opinion that the arrest is necessary. At this stage  also,
the condition precedent for arrest as envisaged under Section  41  CrPC  has
to be complied and shall be subject to the same scrutiny by  the  Magistrate
as aforesaid.
22.   We have referred  to  the  enquiry  report  and  the  legal   position
prevalent in the field.  On a studied scrutiny of the report,  it  is  quite
vivid that the arrest of the petitioners  was  not  made  by  following  the
procedure of arrest.  Section 41-A CRPC as  has  been  interpreted  by  this
Court has not been followed.  The  report  clearly  shows  there  have  been
number of violations in the arrest, and seizure.  Circumstances in  no  case
justify the manner in which the petitioners were treated.
23.   In such a situation, we are inclined to think that the dignity of  the
petitioners,  a  doctor  and  a  practicing  Advocate  has  been   seriously
jeopardized.  Dignity, as has  been  held  in  Charu  Khurana  v.  Union  of
India[7], is the quintessential quality  of  a  personality,  for  it  is  a
highly cherished value.  It is also clear that  liberty  of  the  petitioner
was curtailed in violation of law.  The freedom of  an  individual  has  its
sanctity.  When the individual liberty is curtailed in an  unlawful  manner,
the victim is likely to feel more anguished,  agonized,  shaken,  perturbed,
disillusioned and emotionally torn.  It is an assault on  his/her  identity.
The said identity is sacrosanct  under  the  Constitution.   Therefore,  for
curtailment of liberty, requisite norms are to  be  followed.   Fidelity  to
statutory safeguards instil faith of the collective in the system.  It  does
not require wisdom of a seer to visualize that for  some  invisible  reason,
an attempt has been made to corrode  the  procedural  safeguards  which  are
meant to sustain the sanguinity of liberty.  The  investigating  agency,  as
it seems, has put its sense of accountability  to  law  on  the  ventilator.
The two ladies have been arrested without following the  procedure  and  put
in the compartment of a  train  without  being  produced  before  the  local
Magistrate from Pune to Bhopal.  One need not be Argus –  eyed  to  perceive
the same.  Its visibility is as clear as the cloudless noon day.   It  would
not be erroneous to say  that  the  enthusiastic  investigating  agency  had
totally forgotten the golden words of Benjamin Disraeli:
“I repeat …. that all power is a trust – that we  are  accountable  for  its
exercise – that, from the people and for the people,  all  springs  and  all
must exist.”

24.   We are compelled to say so as liberty which is basically the  splendor
 of beauty of life and bliss of growth, cannot be allowed to  be  frozen  in
such a contrived winter.  That would tantamount  to  comatosing  of  liberty
which is the strongest pillar of democracy.
25.   Having  held  thus,  we  shall  proceed  to  the  facet  of  grant  of
compensation.  The officers of the State had played with the liberty of  the
petitioners and, in a way, experimented with it.  Law does  not  countenance
such kind of experiments as that causes trauma and pain.  In Mehmood  Nayyar
Azam v. State of Chhattisgarh[8],  while  dealing  with  the  harassment  in
custody, deliberating on the concept of harassment, the Court stated thus:-
“22. At this juncture, it becomes absolutely necessary  to  appreciate  what
is meant by the term “harassment”. In P. Ramanatha Aiyar’s Law Lexicon,  2nd
Edn., the term “harass” has been defined thus:
“Harass.—‘Injure’ and ‘injury’ are words having numerous  and  comprehensive
popular meanings, as well as having a legal import.  A  line  may  be  drawn
between these words and the word ‘harass’, excluding the latter  from  being
comprehended within the word ‘injure’ or ‘injury’. The synonyms of  ‘harass’
are:  to  weary,  tire,  perplex,  distress  tease,  vex,  molest,  trouble,
disturb. They all have relation to mental annoyance, and a troubling of  the
spirit.”

The term “harassment”  in  its  connotative  expanse  includes  torment  and
vexation. The term “torture” also engulfs the concept of torment.  The  word
“torture” in  its  denotative  concept  includes  mental  and  psychological
harassment.  The  accused  in  custody   can   be   put   under   tremendous
psychological pressure by cruel, inhuman and degrading treatment.”

26.   In the said case, emphasizing on dignity, it has been observed:-

“…..The majesty of law protects the  dignity  of  a  citizen  in  a  society
governed by law. It cannot be forgotten that the welfare State  is  governed
by the rule of law which has paramountcy. It has been said by Edward  Biggon
“the laws of a nation form the most instructive  portion  of  its  history”.
The Constitution as the organic law of the land has  unfolded  itself  in  a
manifold manner like a living organism  in  the  various  decisions  of  the
court about the rights of a person under Article 21 of the  Constitution  of
India. When citizenry rights are sometimes dashed against  and  pushed  back
by the members of City Halls, there  has  to  be  a  rebound  and  when  the
rebound takes place, Article 21 of the Constitution springs up to action  as
a protector….”

27.   In the case at hand, there has been violation of Article  21  and  the
petitioners were compelled to face  humiliation.   They  have  been  treated
with an  attitude  of  insensibility.   Not  only  there  are  violation  of
guidelines issued in the case of D.K. Basu (supra), there are also  flagrant
violation of mandate of law enshrined under Section 41 and Section  41-A  of
CrPC.  The investigating officers in no  circumstances  can  flout  the  law
with brazen proclivity.  In such a situation, the public  law  remedy  which
has been postulated in Nilawati  Behra  (supra),  Sube  Singh  v.  State  of
Haryana[9], Hardeep Singh v.  State  of  M.P.[10],  comes  into  play.   The
constitutional courts taking note of suffering and humiliation are  entitled
to grant compensation.  That has been regarded as a redeeming  feature.   In
the case at hand, taking  into  consideration  the  totality  of  facts  and
circumstances, we think it appropriate  to  grant  a  sum  of  Rs.5,00,000/-
(rupees five lakhs only) towards compensation to each of the petitioners  to
be paid by the State of M.P. within three months hence.  It will be open  to
the State to proceed against the erring officials, if so advised.
28.   The controversy does not  end  here.  Mr.  Fernandes,  learned  Amicus
Curiae would urge that it was a case  for  discharge  but  the  trial  court
failed to appreciate the factual  matrix  in  proper  perspective.   As  the
matter remained pending in this court for some time, and we had  dealt  with
other aspects, we thought it apt to hear the learned counsel for the  aspect
of continuance of the criminal prosecution.  We have narrated the  facts  at
the beginning.  The learned Magistrate by order dated  19.2.2015  has  found
existence of prima facie case for the offences punishable under Section  420
IPC and Section 66-A(b) of I.T. Act, 2000 read with Section 34 IPC.   It  is
submitted by Mr. Fernandes that Section 66-A of the I.T. Act,  2000  is  not
applicable.  The submission need not detain us any further, for Section  66-
A of the I.T.  Act,  2000  has  been  struck  down  in  its  entirety  being
violative of Article 19(1)(a) and not saved under Article  19(2)  in  Shreya
Singhal v. Union of India[11].  The only offence,  therefore,  that  remains
is Section 420 IPC.  The learned Magistrate  has  recorded  a  finding  that
there has been no impersonation.  However, he  has  opined  that  there  are
some material to show that the petitioners had intention  to  cheat.   On  a
perusal of the FIR, it is clear to us that the dispute is purely of a  civil
nature, but a maladroit effort has been made to give it a  criminal  colour.
In Devendra v. State of U.P.[12], it has been held thus:-
“.. it is now well settled that the High  Court  ordinarily  would  exercise
its jurisdiction under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure if  the
allegations made in the first information report, even if given  face  value
and taken to be correct in their entirety, do  not  make  out  any  offence.
When the allegations made in the first information report or  the  evidences
collected  during  investigation  do  not  satisfy  the  ingredients  of  an
offence, the superior courts would not encourage harassment of a  person  in
a criminal court for nothing”.
29.   In the  present  case,  it  can  be  stated  with  certitude  that  no
ingredient of Section 420 IPC is  remotely  attracted.   Even  if  it  is  a
wrong, the complainant has to take recourse to civil action.   The  case  in
hand does not fall in the categories where cognizance of the offence can  be
taken by the court and the accused can be  asked  to  face  trial.   In  our
considered opinion, the entire case projects a  civil  dispute  and  nothing
else.  Therefore, invoking the principle laid down in State  of  Haryana  v.
Bhajan Lal[13], we quash the proceedings initiated at the  instance  of  the
8th respondent and set aside the order negativing the prayer  for  discharge
of the accused persons.  The prosecution initiated against  the  petitioners
stands quashed.
30.   Consequently, the writ petition is allowed  to  the  extent  indicated
above.  There shall be no order as to costs.


                                  ........................................J.
                             [DIPAK MISRA]

                                  ........................................J.
                                        [SHIVA KIRTI SINGH]
NEW DELHI
June 03, 2016.

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[1]    AIR 1980 SC 470
[2]    (1994) 4 SCC 260
[3]    (1997) 1 SCC 416
[4]    (1993) 2 SCC 746
[5]    (1995) 4 SCC 262
[6]    (2014) 8 SCC 273
[7]     (2015) 1 SCC 192
[8]      (2012) 8 SCC 1
[9]     (2006) 3 SCC 178
[10]    (2012) 1 SCC 748
[11]    (2015) 5 SCC 1
[12]    (2009) 7 SCC 495
[13]    1992 Supp. (1) SCC 335

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