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Friday, April 15, 2016

On 07.01.2003, the respondent-Managing Committee issued a notice to the appellant in accordance with Section 25F (a) of the ID Act, stating that his services were no longer required by the school and that he would be retrenched from his service on the expiry of the notice period of one month. The notice also stated that the appellant was entitled to retrenchment compensation which would be paid after the expiry of the notice period of one month.=For the reasons stated supra, we are of the view that the impugned judgment and order dated 28.07.2008 passed by the Delhi High Court is liable to be set aside and accordingly set aside, by allowing this appeal. The retrenchment of the appellant from his service is bad in law. The respondent-Managing Committee is directed to reinstate the appellant at his post. Consequently, the relief of back wages till the date of this order is awarded to the appellant, along with all consequential benefits from the date of termination of his services. The back wages shall be computed on the basis of periodical revision of wages/salary. We further make it clear that the entire amount due to the appellant must be spread over the period between the period of retrenchment and the date of this decision, which amounts to 13 years, for the reason that the appellant is entitled to the benefit under Section 89 of the Income Tax Act. The same must be complied with within six weeks from the date of receipt of the copy of this judgment.

 REPORTABLE

                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
                        CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

                        CIVIL APPEAL NO. 1020 OF 2011


RAJ KUMAR                             ………… APPELLANT
                                     Vs.
DIRECTOR OF EDUCATION & ORS.       ………… RESPONDENTS



                               J U D G M E N T


  V. GOPALA GOWDA, J.


The present appeal arises out of  the  impugned  judgment  and  order  dated
28.07.2008 passed by the High Court of Delhi at New Delhi in  Writ  Petition
(C) No.5349 of  2008,  whereby  the  High  Court  dismissed  the  said  Writ
Petition filed by the appellant in limine and upheld the  termination  order
dated 22.08.2008 passed against the appellant by the Delhi  School  Tribunal
(hereinafter  referred  to  as  “the  Tribunal”)  on  the  ground  that  the
appellant, who was a driver, had been retrenched from his  services  by  the
respondent-Managing Committee, DAV Public School by following the  procedure
laid down under Sections 25F (a) and (b) of Chapter V-A  of  the  Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947 (hereinafter referred to as “the ID Act”).

The brief  facts  of  the  case  required  to  appreciate  the  rival  legal
contentions advanced on behalf of the parties are stated as hereunder:

     The appellant was employed as  a  driver  by  the  DAV  Public  School,
Pocket ‘C’, LIG Flats, East of Loni Road, Delhi and became permanent on  the
said post in the year 1994. His terms of service are covered under  Sections
2(h), 8(2), 10 and other provisions of the Delhi School Education Act,  1973
(hereinafter referred to as the “DSE Act”).

On 01.05.2001, the DAV College Managing Committee in  its  72nd  meeting  of
Public Schools Governing Body, passed a resolution to buy new  school  buses
with CNG facility in compliance with the  directions  of  this  Court  dated
26.03.2001 passed in the case of M.C. Mehta v. Union of  India  and  allowed
the management of the DAV Schools to raise loan from nationalized banks  for
the said purpose.

The respondent-Managing Committee in its meeting dated 24.08.2002, passed  a
resolution to retrench the services of the two junior most surplus  drivers,
namely the appellant and one Amar Nath, for the reason that the  school  had
two old mechanically unfit vehicles namely, a Matador (registration No.  DL-
IV-1481) and a Maruti Van  bearing  registration  No.DL-5C-3107  which  were
disposed of on 01.09.1995 and  13.06.1997,  respectively.  As  an  alternate
arrangement, private buses  had  to  be  hired  for  the  transportation  of
students as per instructions in the earlier resolution, but the  respondent-
Managing Committee could not purchase new buses due to  shortage  of  funds,
which resulted in the appellant being declared surplus on  account  of  non-
availability of job.

On 07.01.2003, the respondent-Managing Committee  issued  a  notice  to  the
appellant in accordance with Section 25F (a) of the ID  Act,   stating  that
his services were no longer required by the school  and  that  he  would  be
retrenched from his service on the  expiry  of  the  notice  period  of  one
month.  The  notice  also  stated  that  the  appellant  was   entitled   to
retrenchment compensation which would  be  paid  after  the  expiry  of  the
notice period of one month.

On 10.01.2003, the appellant replied to the above said  notice  through  his
counsel, in which it was stated that  the  impugned  notice  is  unjust  and
illegal, as the appellant is a permanent employee of the  school  under  the
provisions of the DSE Act. It was also stated in the notice that the  school
had failed to pay arrears amounting to Rs. 70,000/- to the appellant as  per
the recommendations of the Fifth Pay  Commission.  On  the  same  date,  the
appellant, through his counsel, wrote  a  letter  to  the  respondent  No.1-
Director of Education, Govt  of  NCT  of  Delhi  regarding  payment  of  all
arrears as per the Fifth Pay Commission to the appellant.

By way  of  letter  dated  22.01.2003,  the  respondent-Managing  Committee,
through their counsel informed  the  appellant  that  the  school  has  been
paying pay and allowances to the appellant as  per  the  recommendations  of
the Fifth Pay Commission which came to Rs.3,500/- per  month  as  basic  pay
and Rs.1,435/- as Dearness Allowances. In the same letter,  the  respondent-
Managing  Committee  also  denied  that  it  had  held  back  an  amount  of
Rs.70,000/- due to the appellant.

On 31.01.2003, the appellant filed Writ Petition (C) No.957 of  2003  before
the High Court of Delhi,  praying  that  the  notice  served  on  him  dated
07.01.2003 be quashed and to stay  the  operation  of  the  impugned  notice
until the Writ Petition was finally disposed of.

Meanwhile, vide letter dated 25.07.2003, the  respondent-Managing  Committee
informed the appellant that since the extended notice period  under  Section
25F of the ID  Act  was  also  over,  his  services  now  stood  terminated.
Further, a salary cheque for a sum of Rs.4,165/- against one month’s  notice
period from 01.07.2003 to 25.07.2003, along with a cheque bearing  No.877690
dated 22.07.2003 for a  sum  of  Rs.25,650/-  as  retrenchment  compensation
under Section 25F (b) of the ID Act were enclosed with the letter.

The High Court disposed of the Writ Petition No. 957 of 2003  filed  by  the
appellant vide judgment and order dated 25.02.2004. Placing reliance on  the
judgment of the Delhi High Court passed in Writ Petition (C) No.970 of  2003
dated 21.07.2003, filed by the other terminated driver  Amar  Nath,  in  the
case of Amar Nath v. Director of Education, Govt. of Delhi & Ors., the  High
Court held that Section 8 of the DSE Act  is  very  wide  and  any  kind  of
termination would fall within its ambit. Accordingly, the Writ Petition  was
disposed of with liberty granted to the petitioner to  seek  an  appropriate
remedy under the DSE Act.

Accordingly, the appellant filed Appeal No.09 of 2004 before  the  Presiding
officer, Delhi School Tribunal under Section 8(3) of  the  DSE  Act  against
the impugned retrenchment notice dated 07.01.2003.  The  Tribunal  vide  its
judgment and order dated  22.02.2008,  dismissed  the  said  appeal  on  the
ground that the respondent-Managing Committee  had  the  right  to  retrench
surplus drivers of the School after fulfilling all the  conditions  as  laid
down under Sections 25F (a)  &  (b)  of  the  ID  Act.  The  Tribunal  while
upholding the validity of the retrenchment order held that the appellant  is
governed by the provisions of the ID Act as well the DSE Act.  Section  2(h)
of the DSE Act defines “employee” as  a  teacher  and  also  includes  every
other employee working in a recognized school as  “employee”.  The  Tribunal
held as under:
“2(h) Hence the laws which governs  the  employment  of  the  Appellant  are
Delhi School Education Act  &  Rules,  1973  and  Industrial  Disputes  Act,
1947.Since  Delhi  School  Education  Act,  1973   has   no   provision   of
retrenchment of workmen, one  has  to  fall  back  upon  the  provisions  of
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 to see whether the conditions of the said  Act
regarding retrenchment were fully complied with by the Management or not.”


The Tribunal further held  that  all  the  conditions  precedent  which  are
required to be satisfied for retrenchment under Section 25F of  the  ID  Act
have been fulfilled in the instant case.  The  appellant  was  given  notice
under the provisions of the ID Act dated 07.01.2003. The  intended  date  of
his  retrenchment  thus,  was  07.02.2003.  However,   the   appellant   was
retrenched only on 25.07.2003. It was held that since  the  notice  of  more
than one month had been given, the condition of Section 25F (a)  of  the  ID
Act has been duly complied with. The Tribunal  in  its  order  further  held
that the appellant had been paid the retrenchment  compensation  calculating
15 days average pay for every completed  year  of  continuous  service.  The
respondent-Managing Committee calculated his  service  for  a  period  of  9
years and concluded that the appellant is entitled to salary  for  a  period
of four and a half months, which amounts to Rs.19,740/-, after  taking  into
consideration  Rs.3,500/-  basic  pay  along  with  Rs.4,071/-  as  dearness
allowance. In total, the  appellant  was  paid  Rs.25,650/-  on  account  of
compensation. Therefore, the Tribunal held that Section 25F (b)  of  the  ID
Act had also been duly complied with. On the issue of  notice  being  served
on the appropriate government in the prescribed manner, the Tribunal  placed
reliance on the decision of this Court  in  the  case  of  Bombay  Union  of
Journalists & Ors. v. The State of Bombay & Anr.[1],  wherein  it  was  held
that this was only directory in nature, and not a  condition  precedent  for
retrenchment. This Court had held as under:
“Clause (c) is not intended to protect  the  interests  of  the  workman  as
such. It is only intended to give intimation to the  appropriate  Government
about the retrenchment, and that only helps the Government  to  keep  itself
informed about the conditions of  employment  in  the  different  industries
within its region. There does  not  appear  to  be  present  any  compelling
consideration which would justify the making of the provision prescribed  by
clause (c) a condition precedent as in  the  case  of  clauses  (a)  &  (b).
Therefore, having regard to the object which is intended to be  achieved  by
clauses (a) & (b) as distinguished from the object which clause (c)  has  in
mind, it would not be unreasonable to hold that clause (c),  unlike  clauses
(a) & (b), is not a condition precedent.”
               (emphasis laid by this Court)

Thus, the Tribunal held that both the mandatory conditions for  retrenchment
have been fulfilled in the instant case, and that Section 25F(c) of  the  ID
Act merely lays  down  a  direction  and  not  a  condition  precedent.  The
Tribunal further held:
“As far as the question of permission from Directorate of  Education  before
removing an employee is concerned, in view of the judgment  of  the  Hon’ble
Supreme Court in the matter of “TMA Pai Foundation v/s State  of  Karnataka”
and the judgment of our own Hon’ble High Court in the  matter  of  “Kathuria
Public  School  v/s  Directorate  of  Education”,  the  provision  regarding
obtaining prior approval from the Director  of  Education  has  been  struck
down and the School Management has been given a free hand to deal  with  its
employees.”

The appeal filed by  the  appellant  before  the  Tribunal  was  accordingly
dismissed.
Aggrieved of the said judgment of the Tribunal,  the  appellant  filed  Writ
Petition (C) No. 5349 of 2008 before the High  Court  of  Delhi  questioning
the correctness of the same urging various  grounds.  The  High  Court  vide
impugned judgment and order dated 28.07.2008 dismissed the  same  in  limine
as it found no infirmity in the view  taken  by  the  Tribunal.  Hence,  the
present appeal.

On the basis of the contentions advanced by the  learned  counsel  appearing
on behalf  of  the  parties,  the  following  issues  would  arise  for  our
consideration:
Whether the appellant is a workman for the purpose of ID Act?

Whether the conditions precedent  for  the  retrenchment  of  a  workman  as
prescribed under Section 25F (a), (b) and  (c)  of  the  ID  Act  have  been
fulfilled in the instant case?


Whether the provision of Section 8(2) of the DSE Act is  applicable  to  the
facts of the instant case?

What order?


Before we advert to the rival legal contentions advanced on  behalf  of  the
parties, it is important for us to consider the relevant provisions  of  the
ID Act and DSE Act in play in the instant case.
The DSE Act was enacted in the year 1973 and is:
“An Act to  provide  for  better  organisation  and  development  of  school
education in  the  Union  Territory  of  Delhi  and  for  matters  connected
therewith or incidental thereto”

Section 2(h) defines an employee:
“means a teacher and includes every other employee working in  a  recognized
school”
Section 8(2) of the DSE Act provides:
“Subject to any rule that may be made in  this  behalf,  no  employee  of  a
recognized private school shall be dismissed, removed  or  reduced  in  rank
nor shall his service  be  otherwise  terminated  excepted  with  the  prior
approval of the Director”
Section 10 of the DSE Act reads as under:
“10.(1). Salaries of employees- the scales of pay  and  allowances,  medical
facilities, pension, gratuity provident fund and other  prescribed  benefits
of the employees of a recognized private school shall not be  as  less  than
these of the employees of the corresponding status  in  school  run  by  the
appropriate authority………

(2). The managing committee of  every  aided  school,  shall  deposit  every
month, its share towards pay and allowances,  medical  facilities,  pension,
gratuity,  provident  fund  and   other   prescribed   benefits   with   the
Administrator  and  the  Administrator  shall  disburse,  or  cause  to   be
disbursed within the first week of every month, the salaries and  allowances
to the employees of the aided schools.”

The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, is:
“An  Act  to  make  provision  for  the  investigation  and  settlement   of
industrial disputes, and for certain other purposes”

      Section 2(s) defines a Workman as:
“2(s). "workman" means any person (including an apprentice) employed in  any
industry to do  any  manual,  unskilled,  skilled,  technical,  operational,
clerical or supervisory work for  hire  or  reward,  whether  the  terms  of
employment be express or implied, and for the  purposes  of  any  proceeding
under this Act in relation to  an  industrial  dispute,  includes  any  such
person who has been dismissed, discharged or retrenched in connection  with,
or as a consequence of, 9 that dispute, or  whose  dismissal,  discharge  or
retrenchment has led to that dispute, but does not include any such person—

who is subject to the Air Force Act, 1950 (45 of 1950),  or  the  Army  Act,
1950 (46 of 1950), or the Navy Act, 1957 (62 of 1957);
 who is employed in the police service or as an officer  or  other  employee
of a prison;
who is employed mainly in a managerial or administrative capacity;
who, being employed in a supervisory capacity,  draws  wages  exceeding  one
thousand six hundred rupees per mensem or exercises, either  by  the  nature
of the duties attached to the office or by reason of the  powers  vested  in
him, functions mainly of a managerial nature.”

Section 2(oo) lays down the concept of retrenchment as:
“2(oo). Retrenchment means the termination by the employer  of  the  service
of a workman for any reason  whatsoever,  otherwise  than  as  a  punishment
inflicted by way of disciplinary action, but does not include—

voluntary retirement of the workman;

(b) retirement of the workman on reaching the age of superannuation  if  the
contract of employment  between  the  employer  and  the  workman  concerned
contains a stipulation in that behalf;

(bb) termination of the service of the workman  as  a  result  of  the  non-
renewal of the contract of employment between the employer and  the  workman
concerned on its expiry  or  of  such  contract  being  terminated  under  a
stipulation in that behalf contained therein;”

(c) termination of the service of a workman on the ground of continued  ill-
health”

Section 25F of the ID Act provides for  the  conditions  precedent  for  the
retrenchment of a workman and reads as under:
“25F.Conditions precedent to retrenchment of workmen.- No  workman  employed
in any industry who has been in continuous service for  not  less  than  one
year under an employer shall be retrenched by that employer until-

(a) the workman has been given one month' s  notice  in  writing  indicating
the reasons for retrenchment and the period of notice has  expired,  or  the
workman has been paid in lieu of such notice, wages for the  period  of  the
notice:
(b) the workman has been paid, at the  time  of  retrenchment,  compensation
which shall  be  equivalent  to  fifteen  days'  average  pay  2  for  every
completed year of continuous service] or any part thereof in excess  of  six
months; and
(c) notice in the prescribed manner is served on the appropriate  Government
3 or such authority as may be specified by  the  appropriate  Government  by
notification in the Official Gazette.

The spirit and scheme of the ID Act was discussed by a Seven-Judge Bench  of
this Court in the case of Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage  Board  v.  A.
Rajappa & Ors.[2] as under:
“To sum up, the personality of the whole statute, be it  remembered,  has  a
welfare basis, it being a  beneficial  legislation  which  protects  Labour,
promotes their contentment and regulates situations of  crisis  and  tension
where production may be imperiled by untenable strikes and  blackmail  lock-
outs. The mechanism  of  the  Act  is  geared  to  conferment  of  regulated
benefits to workmen and resolution, according to a sympathetic rule of  law,
of the conflicts, actual or potential, between managements and workmen.  Its
goal is amelioration of the conditions of workers, tempered by  a  practical
sense of peaceful  co-existence,  to  the  benefit  of  both-not  a  neutral
position but restraints on laissez faire and concern for the welfare of  the
weaker lot. Empathy with the statute is necessary to understand  not  merely
its spirit, but also its sense.”
       (emphasis laid by this Court)

It is in this context that any dispute regarding retrenchment of  a  workman
under the ID Act needs to be appreciated.
Answer to Point 1:
Mr.  A.T.M.  Sampath,  the  learned  counsel  appearing  on  behalf  of  the
appellant contends that in the instant case, the appellant  is  a  permanent
employee of the school and thus, he is not a ‘workman’ for the  purposes  of
the ID Act. His services are covered instead, under Sections 2(h), 8(2)  and
10 of the DSE Act,  and  thus,  his  services  cannot  be  retrenched  under
Section 25F of the ID Act. Reliance is placed on the decision of this  Court
in the case of Miss A.  Sundarambal  v.  Govt.  of  Goa,  Daman  &  Diu  and
Ors.[3], wherein this Court has laid down the  legal  principle  that  while
educational institutions come within the ambit of ‘industry’, a  teacher  is
not ‘workman’ for the purpose of the ID Act.  The  learned  counsel  submits
that using the analogy, the driver  of  the  school  would  also  be  not  a
‘workman’ for the purpose of the ID Act, rather would come within the  ambit
of the term ‘employee’ as defined under Section 2(h) of the DSE Act.

On the other hand, Mr. S.S. Ray, the learned counsel appearing on behalf  of
the respondent- School contends  that  the  appellant  is  squarely  covered
under the  definition  of  ‘workman’  under  the  ID  Act  as  well  as  the
definition of ‘employee’ under the  DSE  Act.  The  learned  counsel  places
strong reliance on the decision of this Court in the case of  A  Sundarambal
(supra), wherein this Court held that  teachers  are  not  workmen  for  the
purpose of the ID Act,  though  educational  institutions  are  industry  in
terms of Section 2(j) of the ID Act.

We are unable to agree with the contention advanced by the  learned  counsel
appearing on behalf of the appellant. The question ‘who is  a  workman’  has
been well settled by various judgments of this Court. In the  case  of  H.R.
Adyanthaya v. Sandoz (India) Ltd[4], a Constitution Bench of this Court  has
held as under:
“..We thus have three Judge Bench decisions which have taken the  view  that
a person to be qualified to be a workman must be doing the work which  falls
in any of  the  four  categories,  viz,  manual,  clerical,  supervisory  or
technical and two two-judge Bench decisions which have by referring  to  one
or the other of the said three decisions have reiterated the  said  law.  As
against this, we have three three-judge Bench decisions which  have  without
referring to the decisions in May & Baker,  WIMCO  and  Bunnah  Shell  cases
(supra) have taken the other view which was expressly negatived, viz., if  a
person does not fall within the four exceptions to the  said  definition  he
is a workman within the meaning of the ID  Act.  These  decisions  are  also
based on the facts found  in  those  cases.  They  have,  therefore,  to  be
confined to those facts. Hence the position in law as it  obtains  today  is
that a person to be a workman under the ID Act must be employed  to  do  the
work of any of the categories, viz., manual, unskilled, skilled,  technical,
operational, clerical or supervisory. It  is  not  enough  that  he  is  not
covered by either of the four exceptions to  the  definition.  We  reiterate
the said interpretation.”
                (emphasis laid by this Court)

The  issue  whether  educational  institution  is  an  ‘industry’,  and  its
employees are ‘workmen’ for the purpose of the ID Act has been  answered  by
a Seven-judge Bench of this Court way back in the year 1978 in the  case  of
Bangalore Water Supply (supra). It was held that educational institution  is
an industry in terms of Section 2(j) of the ID Act, though not  all  of  its
employees are workmen. It was held as under:
“The premises relied on is that the bulk of the employees in the  university
is the teaching  community.  Teachers  are  not  workmen  and  cannot  raise
disputes under the Act. The subordinate staff being only  a  minor  category
of insignificant numbers, the institution must be  excluded,  going  by  the
predominant character test. It is one thing to say that  an  institution  is
not an industry. It is altogether another  thinking  to  say  that  a  large
number of its employees are not 'workmen' and cannot therefore avail of  the
benefits of the Act so the institution ceases to be an  industry.  The  test
is not the predominant number of employees entitled to  enjoy  the  benefits
of the Act. The true test is the predominant nature of the activity. In  the
case of the university or an educational  institution,  the  nature  of  the
activity is, ex hypothesis, education which is a service to  the  community.
Ergo, the university is an industry. The error has crept in, if  we  may  so
say with  great  respect,  in  mixing  up  the  numerical  strength  of  the
personnel with the nature of the activity.
Secondly  there  are  a  number  of  other  activities  of  the   University
Administration,  demonstrably  industrial  which  are   severable   although
ancillary to the main cultural enterprise. For instance,  a  university  may
have a large printing press as a separate  but  considerable  establishment.
It may have a large fleet of transport buses with an army of running  staff.
It may have a tremendous administrative strength of  officers  and  clerical
cadres. It may have karamcharis of  various  hues.  As  the  Corporation  of
Nagpur has effectively ruled,  these  operations,  viewed  in  severalty  or
collectively, may be treated as industry. It would be strange, indeed, if  a
university has 50 transport buses, hiring drivers, conductors, cleaners  and
workshop technicians. How are they to be denied the  benefits  of  the  Act,
especially when their work  is  separable  from  academic  teaching,  merely
because the buses are owned by the  same  corporate  personality?  We  find,
with all defence, little force in  this  process  of  nullification  of  the
industrial character of the University's multi-form operations.”
                (emphasis laid by this Court)

A perusal of the abovementioned two judgments clearly shows  that  a  driver
employed by a school, being a skilled person, is a workman for  the  purpose
of the  ID  Act.  Point  No.1  is  answered  accordingly  in  favor  of  the
respondents. The provisions of ID Act are applicable to  the  facts  of  the
present case.
Answer to Point No.2
Mr.  A.T.M.  Sampath,  the  learned  counsel  appearing  on  behalf  of  the
appellant contends that the retrenchment of the services of  the  appellant,
who is a permanent employee with an unblemished record of  service,  on  the
ground of non  availability  of  CNG  vehicles  is  illegal,  arbitrary  and
unjust. The appellant had been working at  the  respondent-School  for  more
than seven years and had even received a  letter  of  appreciation  for  his
services from the principal of the school. The learned counsel submits  that
the appellant could have been given alternate employment at any one  of  the
60 schools under the respondent-Managing Committee. It is further  submitted
that even the defence of loss is not available to the respondents, as  after
the retrenchment of the appellant,  the  respondent-  School  has  appointed
another, less experienced person as driver.  The  learned  counsel  contends
that this is in clear  violation  of  Section  25H  of  the  ID  Act,  which
provides that when an opportunity for reemployment arises,  preference  must
be given to the willing  retrenched  workmen  over  any  other  persons  for
filling up that vacancy.

The  learned  counsel  further  contends  that  the   conditions   precedent
prescribed under Section 25F of the ID  Act  have  not  been  complied  with
before retrenching the appellant. It is submitted that the  notice  required
to be sent  to  the  appropriate  government  in  the  prescribed  form,  as
provided for under Section 25F (c) of the ID Act has not been sent.

On the other hand, Mr. S.S. Ray, the learned counsel appearing on behalf  of
the respondent-School contends that the reason for the retrenchment  of  the
appellant has been explained in detail in the notice dated  07.01.2003.  The
respondent school had only one car left, while there were three drivers,  as
the two other cars had been rendered unfit for use.  That  being  the  case,
the  respondent  school  required  the  services  of  only  one  driver  and
accordingly, the two junior most drivers were retrenched from  service,  the
present appellant being the junior most driver. It  is  submitted  that  all
the mandatory conditions as laid down under Section 25F  of the ID Act  were
complied with, including the payment of  retrenchment  compensation  to  the
appellant.

We are unable to agree with the reasoning adopted by the  Tribunal  as  well
as the High Court in the instant case. Admittedly, the notice under  Section
25F(c) of the ID Act has not been served upon the  Delhi  State  Government.
In support of  the  justification  for  not  sending  notice  to  the  State
Government reliance has been placed upon the decision of this Court  in  the
case of Bombay Journalists (supra). This decision was rendered in  the  year
1963 and it was held in the said case that the  provisions  of  Section  25F
(c) of the ID Act is directory and not mandatory in nature.  What  has  been
ignored by the Tribunal as well as the High Court is that subsequently,  the
Parliament enacted the Industrial Disputes (Amendment)  Act,  1964.  Section
25F (c) of the ID Act was amended to include the words:
 “or such authority as may be specified by  the  appropriate  Government  by
notification in the Official Gazette”

    The statement of objects and reasons provides:
“Opportunity  has  been  availed  of  to  propose  a  few  other   essential
amendments which are mainly of a formal or clarificatory nature”

Nothing was done on part of the legislature to  indicate  that  it  intended
Section 25F(c) of the ID Act to be a directory  provision,  when  the  other
two sub-sections of the same section are mandatory in nature. The  amendment
was enacted which seeks to make it administratively easier for notice to  be
served on any other authority as specified.

Further, even the decision in the case of Bombay  Journalists  (supra)  does
not come to the rescue of the respondents. On the  issue  of  interpretation
of Section 25F(c) of the ID Act, it was held as under:
“The hardship resulting from retrenchment has been  partially  redressed  by
these two clauses, and so, there is  every  justification  for  making  them
conditions precedent. The same cannot be said about the  requirement  as  to
clause (c). Clause (c) is not intended  to  protect  the  interests  of  the
workman as such. It is only intended to give intimation to  the  appropriate
Government about the retrenchment, and that only  helps  the  Government  to
keep itself informed about the conditions of  employment  in  the  different
industries within its region. There  does  not  appear  to  be  present  any
compelling consideration which would justify the  making  of  the  provision
prescribed by clause (c) a condition precedent as in  the  case  of  clauses
(a) & (b). Therefore, having regard to the object which is  intended  to  be
achieved by clauses (a) & (b) as distinguished from the object which  clause
(c) has in mind, it would not be  unreasonable  to  hold  that  clause  (c),
unlike clauses (a) & (b), is not a condition precedent.”
                  (emphasis laid by this Court)
Thus, this Court read the ID Act and the relevant Rules thereunder  together
and arrived at the  conclusion  that  Section  25F(c)  is  not  a  condition
precedent for retrenchment. By no stretch of imagination can  this  decision
be said to have held that there is no need for  industries  to  comply  with
this condition at all. At the most, it can be held that Section 25F(c) is  a
condition subsequent, but is still a  mandatory  condition  required  to  be
fulfilled by the employers before the order of retrenchment of  the  workman
is passed. This Court in the case of Mackinon Mackenzie &  Company  Ltd.  v.
Mackinnon Employees Union[5] held as under:
“Further, with regard to the  provision  of  Section  25F  Clause  (c),  the
Appellant-Company has not been able to produce cogent evidence  that  notice
in the prescribed manner has been served  by  it  to  the  State  Government
prior to the retrenchment of the concerned workmen. Therefore,  we  have  to
hold that  the  Appellant-Company  has  not  complied  with  the  conditions
precedent to retrenchment as per Section 25F Clauses  (a)  and  (c)  of  the
I.D. Act which are mandatory in law.”


In the  instant  case,  the  relevant  rules  are  the  Industrial  Disputes
(Central) Rules, 1957. Rule 76 of the said Rules reads as under:
“76. Notice of retrenchment.-  If  any  employer  desires  to  retrench  any
workman employed in his industrial establishment who has been in  continuous
service for not less than one year under him  (hereinafter  referred  to  as
'workman' in this rule and in rules 77 and 78),  he  shall  give  notice  of
such retrenchment as in Form P  to  the  Central  Government,  the  Regional
Labour Commissioner (Central) and Assistant  Labour  Commissioner  (Central)
and the Employment Exchange concerned and such notice  shall  be  served  on
that Government, the Regional Labour Commissioner (Central),  the  Assistant
Labour Commissioner (Central), and  the  Employment  Exchange  concerned  by
registered post in the following manner :-
      (a)   where notice is given to the  workman,  notice  of  retrenchment
shall be sent within three days from the date on which notice  is  given  to
the workman;
               (emphasis laid by this Court)

Rule 76(a)  clearly  mandates  that  the  notice  has  to  be  sent  to  the
appropriate authorities within three days from the date on which  notice  is
served on the workman. In the instant case, the notice of  retrenchment  was
served on the appellant on 07.01.2003. No  evidence  has  been  produced  on
behalf of the respondents to show that notice of the retrenchment  has  been
sent to the appropriate authority even till date.
That being the case, it is clear that in the  instant  case,  the  mandatory
conditions of Section 25F of the ID Act to retrench a workman have not  been
complied with. The notice of retrenchment dated 07.01.2003 and the order  of
retrenchment dated 25.07.2003 are liable to be  set  aside  and  accordingly
set aside.

Answer to Point No.3
The learned counsel for the appellant contends  that  the  respondent-School
is a recognized private school and the appellant is an ‘employee’  in  terms
of Section 2(h) of the DSE Act. Chapter IV of the DSE Act provides  for  the
terms and conditions of services of an  employee  of  a  recognized  private
school. Section 8(2) of the DSE Act  contemplates  that  no  employee  of  a
recognized private school shall be dismissed, removed  or  reduced  in  rank
nor shall their services be  otherwise  terminated  except  with  the  prior
approval of the Director of Education,  Delhi.  In  the  instant  case,  the
respondent–Managing  Committee,  before  terminating  the  services  of  the
appellant did not comply with the said mandatory provision of  Section  8(2)
of the DSE Act. The learned counsel for the appellant further contends  that
the notice regarding termination of service was served on the  appellant  on
07.01.2003, and as on that  date,  the  aforesaid  statutory  provision  was
valid and binding.

The learned counsel for the appellant submits that Section 8(2) of  the  DSE
Act is a substantive right  provided  for  safeguarding  the  conditions  of
services of an employee.  The  termination  of  services  of  the  appellant
without obtaining prior permission of the Director, renders  the  action  of
the respondent-School as  void.  The  learned  counsel  contends  that  when
statutory provisions provide a procedure  to  do  an  act  in  a  particular
manner, it should be done in that very manner or not  at  all.  Reliance  is
placed on the decision of this Court in the case of Babu Verghese & Ors.  v.
Bar Council Of Kerala & Ors.[6]:
“31. It is the basic principle of law long settled that  if  the  manner  of
doing a particular act is prescribed under any  Statute,  the  act  must  be
done in that manner or not at all. The origin of this rule is  traceable  to
the decision in Taylor v. Taylor which was followed by Lord Roche  in  Nazir
Ahmad v. King Emperor who stated as under :

“Where a power is given to do a certain thing in a certain  way,  the  thing
must be done in that way or not at all.”

32. This rule has since been approved by this  Court  in  Rao  Shiv  Bahadur
Singh and Anr. v. State of Vindhya Pradesh and again in Deep Chand v.  State
of Rajasthan These cases were considered by  a  Three-Judge  Bench  of  this
Court in State of Uttar Pradesh v. Singhara Singh  and  Ors.  and  the  rule
laid down in Nazir Ahmad's case (supra) was  again  upheld.  This  rule  has
since been applied to the exercise of jurisdiction by courts  and  has  also
been recognized as a salutary principle of administrative law.”
                  (emphasis laid by this Court)
On  the  other  hand,  the  learned  counsel  appearing  on  behalf  of  the
respondent-School contends that there was no requirement on the part of  the
respondent-Managing Committee to comply with Section 8(2) of  the  DSE  Act.
Reliance is placed on the decision of the Delhi High Court in  the  case  of
Kathuria Public School v. Director of Education & Anr.[7],  wherein  Section
8(2) of the DSE was struck down. It was held as under:
“21. If the aforesaid observations of the Supreme Court in  TMA  Pai’s  case
(supra) are taken to its logical  conclusion,  it  would  imply  that  there
should be no such requirement of prior permissions  or  subsequent  approval
in matter of discipline of the staff. Thus, whether it is for suspension  or
disciplinary action, the educational institutions would have  a  free  hand.
The safeguard provided is for a judicial Tribunal to be set  up  to  examine
the cases.”


A Constitution Bench of  this  Court  had  held  in  the  case  of  TMA  PAI
Foundation v. State of Karnataka[8] as under:
“61...In the case of unaided private schools, maximum  autonomy  has  to  be
with the management with regard to administration, including  the  right  of
appointment, disciplinary powers, admission of students and the fees  to  be
charged.
“64. An educational institution is  established  only  for  the  purpose  of
imparting  education  to  the  students.  In  such  an  institution,  it  is
necessary for all  to  maintain  discipline  and  abide  by  the  rules  and
regulations that have been lawfully framed. The teachers  are  like  foster-
parents who are required to look after, cultivate and guide the students  in
their pursuit of education. The teachers and the institution exist  for  the
students and not vice versa. Once this principle is kept in  mind,  it  must
follow that it becomes imperative for the teaching and  other  staff  of  an
educational institution to  perform  their  duties  properly,  and  for  the
benefit of the students. Where allegations of misconduct  are  made,  it  is
imperative that a disciplinary enquiry is conducted, and that a decision  is
taken. In the case of a private institution, the  relationship  between  the
management and the employees is contractual in nature.  A  teacher,  if  the
contract  so  provides,  can   be   proceeded   against,   and   appropriate
disciplinary action can be  taken  if  the  misconduct  of  the  teacher  is
proved. Considering the nature of the duties and keeping  the  principle  of
natural justice in mind for the  purposes  of  establishing  misconduct  and
taking action thereon, it is imperative that  a  fair  domestic  inquiry  is
conducted. It is only on  the  basis  of  the  result  of  the  disciplinary
inquiry that the management will been titled to take appropriate action.  We
see  no  reason  why  the  management  of  a  private  unaided   educational
institution  should  seek  the  consent  or  approval  of  any  governmental
authority before taking any such action. In  the  ordinary  relationship  of
master and servant, governed by the  terms  of  a  contract  of  employment,
anyone who is guilty of breach of the terms can  be  proceeded  against  and
appropriate relief can  be  sought.  Normally,  the  aggrieved  party  would
approach a Court of law  and  seek  redress.  In  the  case  of  educational
institutions, however, we are of the opinion that requiring a teacher  or  a
member of the staff to go to a  civil  Court  for  the  purpose  of  seeking
redress is not in the interest of general education.  Disputes  between  the
management and  the  staff  of  educational  institutions  must  be  decided
speedily,  and  without  the  excessive  incurring  of  costs.   It   would,
therefore, be appropriate that an educational tribunal be  set  up  in  each
district in a state -- the object being that the teacher should  not  suffer
through the substantial costs that arise because  of  the  location  of  the
tribunal;  if  the  tribunals  are  limited  in  number,   they   can   hold
circuit/camp sittings indifferent districts to achieve this objective.  Till
a specialized tribunal is set up, the right of filing the appeal  would  lie
before the District judge or Additional District Judge as  notified  by  the
Government. It will not be  necessary  for  the  institution  to  get  prior
permission or ex post facto  approval  of  a  governmental  authority  while
taking disciplinary action against a teacher  or  any  other  employee.  The
state government shall determine, in consultation with the High  Court,  the
judicial forum in which an aggrieved teacher can file an appeal against  the
decision of the management concerning disciplinary action or termination  of
service.”
                (emphasis laid by this Court)

The learned counsel appearing on behalf  of  the  respondent-School  submits
that not obtaining prior approval for the termination  of  the  services  of
the appellant is thus, justified.
We are unable to agree with the contention advanced by the  learned  counsel
appearing on behalf of the respondent-School. Section 8(2) of  the  DSE  Act
is a procedural safeguard in favor of an employee to ensure  that  an  order
of termination or dismissal is not passed without the prior approval of  the
Director  of  Education.  This  is  to  avoid  arbitrary   or   unreasonable
termination or dismissal of an employee of a recognized private school.

The State Legislature is empowered to enact  such  statutory  provisions  in
relation to educational institutions, from Entry XI  of  List  II  of  VIIth
Schedule of the Constitution of India, which reads as:
      "education including Universities"

A number of legislations across the country have  been  enacted  which  deal
with the regulation of educational institutions,  which  contain  provisions
similar to the one provided for under Section 8(2) of the DSE Act. One  such
provision came for consideration before a Constitution Bench of  this  Court
in the case of Katra  Educational  Society  v.  State  Of  Uttar  Pradesh  &
Ors.[9] The  impugned  provisions  therein  were  certain  Sections  of  the
amended Intermediate Education Act (U.P. Act 2 of  1921).  Section  16-G  of
the Intermediate Education (Amendment) Act, 1958 provided that Committee  of
Management  could  not  remove  or  dismiss  from  service  any   Principal,
Headmaster or teacher of a college  or  school  without  prior  approval  in
writing of the Inspector. The Amendment Act also contained other  provisions
providing for  governmental  control  over  certain  other  aspects  of  the
educational institutions. Adjudicating upon  the  competence  of  the  state
legislature to enact the amending act, this Court held as under:
“8. Power of the State Legislature to legislate under  the  head  "education
including Universities" in Entry 11 of List II of  the  7th  Schedule  would
prima facie include the power to impose restrictions on  the  management  of
educational institutions in matters relating  to  education.  The  pith  and
substance of the impugned legislation  being  in  regard  to  the  field  of
education within the competence  of  the  State  Legislature,  authority  to
legislate  in  respect  of  the  maintenance  of  control  over  educational
institutions imparting higher secondary education and for  that  purpose  to
make provisions for proper administration of  the  educational  institutions
was not denied. But it was said that the impugned Act is inoperative to  the
extent to which it seeks to  impose  controls  upon  the  management  of  an
educational institution registered under the Societies Registration Act  and
managed through trustees, and thereby  directly  trenches  upon  legislative
power conferred by Entry 44 of List I and Entries 10 & 18 of List III.  This
argument has no substance. This Court has in Board of Trustees v.  State  of
Delhi held that legislation which deprives the  Board  of  Management  of  a
Society registered under the Societies Registration  Act  of  the  power  of
management and creates a new Board does not fall within Entry 44 of List  I,
but falls under  Entry  32  of  List  II,  for  by  registration  under  the
Societies Registration Act the Society does not acquire a corporate  status.
It cannot also be said that the pith and substance of  the  Act  relates  to
charities or charitable institutions, or to trusts or trustees. If the  true
nature and character of the Act falls within the express  legislative  power
conferred by Entry 11 of List II, merely because  it  incidentally  trenches
upon or affects a charitable institution, or the powers of trustees  of  the
institution,  it  will  not  on  that  account  be  beyond  the  legislative
authority of the State. The impact  of  the  Act  upon  the  rights  of  the
trustees  or  the  management  of  a  charitable   institution   is   purely
incidental, the true object of the legislation being to provide for  control
over educational institutions. The amending Act  was  therefore  within  the
competence of the State  Legislature  and  the  fact  that  it  incidentally
affected the powers  of  the  trustees  or  the  management  in  respect  of
educational institutions which may be  regarded  as  charitable,  could  not
distract from the validity of the exercise of that power.

10... If the management fails to comply with  the  directions  made  by  the
Director,  that  Officer  may   after   considering   the   explanation   or
representation, if any, given or made by the management, refer the  case  to
the  Board  for  withdrawal  of  recognition  or  recommend  to  the   State
Government to proceed against the  institution  under  sub-s.  (4)  and  the
powers which the State Government may exercise after  being  satisfied  that
the affairs of the institution are being mismanaged or that  the  management
has wilfully or persistently  failed  in  the  performance  of  its  duties,
include the power to appoint an Authorised Controller to manage the  affairs
of the institution for such period as may be specified  by  the  Government.
The provision is disciplinary and enacted for securing  the  best  interests
of the students. The State in a democratic set-up is vitally  interested  in
securing a healthy system of imparting education for its  coming  generation
of citizens, and if the management is recalcitrant and  declines  to  afford
facilities for enforcement of the provisions enacted  in  the  interests  of
the students, a provision authorising the State  Government  to  enter  upon
the management through its  Authorized  Controller  cannot  be  regarded  as
unreasonable.”
                       (emphasis laid by this Court)
From a perusal of the above judgment of the Constitution Bench,  it  becomes
clear that the state legislature is empowered in  law  to  enact  provisions
similar to Section 8(2) of the DSE Act.
At this stage, it would also be useful to refer to the statement of  objects
and reasons of the DSE Act, 1973. It reads as under:
“In recent years the unsatisfactory  working  and  management  of  privately
managed educational institutions in the Union territory of  Delhi  has  been
subjected to a good deal of adverse criticism. In the absence of  any  legal
power, it has  not  been  possible  for  the  Government  to  improve  their
working.  An  urgent  need  is,  therefore,  felt   for   taking   effective
legislative measures providing for better organization  and  development  of
educational institutions in the  Union  territory  of  Delhi,  for  ensuring
security of service of teachers, regulating  the  terms  and  conditions  of
their employment………The Bill seeks to achieve these objectives.”

A perusal of the Statement of objects and  reasons  of  the  DSE  Act  would
clearly show that the intent of the legislature while enacting the same  was
to provide security of  tenure  to  the  employees  of  the  school  and  to
regulate the terms and conditions of their employment.
    In the case  of  The  Principal  &  Ors.  v.  The  Presiding  Officer  &
Ors.[10], a Division Bench of this Court held as under:
“Sub-section (2) of Section 8 of the Act ordains that subject  to  any  rule
that may be made in this behalf, no employee of a recognised private  school
shall be dismissed, removed or reduced in rank  nor  shall  his  service  be
otherwise terminated except with the  prior  approval  of  the  Director  of
Education. From this, it clearly follows that  the  prior  approval  of  the
Director of Education is required only if the service of an  employee  of  a
recognised private school is to be terminated.”

The Division Bench of the Delhi High Court, thus,  erred  in  striking  down
Section 8(2) of the DSE Act in the case of Kathuria  Public  School  (supra)
by placing reliance on the decision of this Court in the  case  of  TMA  Pai
(supra), as the subject matter in controversy therein was not  the  security
of tenure of the employees of a school, rather, the question was  the  right
of educational institutions to function unfettered.  While  the  functioning
of both aided  and  unaided  educational  institutions  must  be  free  from
unnecessary governmental interference, the same needs to be reconciled  with
the conditions of employment of the  employees  of  these  institutions  and
provision of adequate precautions  to  safeguard  their  interests.  Section
8(2) of the DSE Act is one such precautionary safeguard which  needs  to  be
followed to ensure that employees of educational institutions do not  suffer
unfair treatment at the hands of the management. The Division Bench  of  the
Delhi High Court, while striking down Section 8(2) of the  DSE  Act  in  the
case of Kathuria Public School (supra) has not  correctly  applied  the  law
laid down in the case  of  Katra  Educational  Society  (supra),  wherein  a
Constitution Bench of this Court, with reference  to  provision  similar  to
Section 8(2) of the DSE Act and keeping in view the object of regulation  of
an aided or unaided recognised school, has held that the regulation  of  the
service conditions  of  the  employees  of  private  recognized  schools  is
required  to  be  controlled  by  educational  authorities  and  the   state
legislature is empowered to legislate such provision in  the  DSE  Act.  The
Division Bench wrongly relied upon that part of the judgment in the case  of
Katra  Education  Society  (supra)  which  dealt  with  Article  14  of  the
Constitution and aided and unaided educational institutions,  which  had  no
bearing on the fact situation therein. Further,  the  reliance  placed  upon
the decision of this Court in  the  case  of  Frank  Anthony  Public  School
Employees Association v. Union Of India & Ors.[11] is also misplaced as  the
institution under consideration  in  that  case  was  a  religious  minority
institution. The reliance placed by the learned counsel appearing on  behalf
of the respondents on the case of TMA Pai (supra) is also misplaced  as  the
same has no bearing on the facts  of  the  instant  case,  for  the  reasons
discussed supra. The reliance placed upon the decision  of  the  Delhi  High
Court in the case of Kathuria Public School (supra)  is  also  misplaced  as
the same has been passed  without  appreciating  the  true  purport  of  the
Constitution Bench decision in the case of Katra Education Society  (supra).
Therefore, the decision in the  case  of  Kathuria  Public  School  (supra),
striking down Section 8(2) of the DSE Act, is bad in law.

Furthermore, the decision in the case  of  Kathuria  Public  School  (supra)
does  not  come  to  the  aid  of  the  respondents  for  one  more  reason.
Undisputedly, the notice of retrenchment was  served  on  the  appellant  on
07.01.2003 and he was retrenched from service on  25.07.2003.  The  decision
in the case of Kathuria Public School (supra), striking  down  Section  8(2)
of the DSE Act  was  rendered  almost  exactly  two  years  later,  i.e.  on
22.07.2005. Surely,  the  respondents  could  not  have  foreseen  that  the
requirement of prior approval of the order  of  termination  passed  against
the appellant from Director would be struck down later and hence decided  to
not comply with it. Section 8(2) of the  DSE  Act  was  very  much  a  valid
provision of the  statute  as  on  the  date  of  the  retrenchment  of  the
appellant, and there is absolutely no reason why it  should  not  have  been
complied with. The rights and liabilities of the parties to  the  suit  must
be considered in accordance with the law as on the date of  the  institution
of the suit. This is a fairly well settled principle of law.   In  the  case
of Dayawati v. Inderjit[12], a three judge  bench  of  this  Court  held  as
under:
“Now as a general proposition, it may be admitted that  ordinarily  a  court
of appeal cannot take into account a new law, brought into  existence  after
the judgment appealed from has been tendered,  because  the  rights  of  the
litigants in an appeal are determined under the law in force at the date  of
the suit.”

   More recently, in the case of Carona  Ltd  v.  Parvathy  Swaminathan  and
Sons[13], this Court held as under:
“……The basic rule is that the rights of the parties should be determined  on
the basis of the date of institution of the suit.  Thus,  if  the  plaintiff
has no cause of action on the date of the filing of  the  suit,  ordinarily,
he will not be allowed to take advantage of  the  cause  of  action  arising
subsequent to the filing of the suit. Conversely, no  relief  will  normally
be denied to the plaintiff by reason of any subsequent event if at the  date
of the institution of the suit, he has a substantive  right  to  claim  such
relief.”

The respondent-Managing Committee in the instant case, did not obtain  prior
approval of the order of termination passed against the appellant  from  the
Director of Education, Govt. of NCT of Delhi as required under Section  8(2)
of the DSE Act. The order of termination passed  against  the  appellant  is
thus, bad in law.

    Answer to Point no. 4
The termination of the appellant is bad in law for non-compliance  with  the
mandatory provisions of Section 25F of the ID Act and also Section  8(2)  of
the DSE Act. Further, the respondent-School has not  produced  any  evidence
on record to show that the retrenchment of the appellant  was  necessary  as
he had become ‘surplus’. The termination of the  appellant  was  ordered  in
the year 2003 and he is unemployed till  date.  The  respondents  have  been
unable to produce any evidence  to  show  that  he  was  gainfully  employed
during that period and therefore he is entitled  to  back  wages  and  other
consequential benefits in view of the law laid down by  this  Court  in  the
case  of  Deepali  Gundu  Surwase  v.  Kranti  Junior  Adhyapak  Mahavidyala
(D.ED.)& Ors.[14] wherein it was held as under:
“22. The very idea of restoring an employee to the position  which  he  held
before dismissal or removal or  termination  of  service  implies  that  the
employee will be put in the same position in which he would  have  been  but
for the illegal action taken by the  employer.  The  injury  suffered  by  a
person, who is dismissed or removed or is otherwise terminated from  service
cannot easily be measured in terms of money. With the passing  of  an  order
which has the effect of severing the  employer  employee  relationship,  the
latter's source of income gets dried up. Not only  the  concerned  employee,
but his entire family suffers grave adversities. They are  deprived  of  the
source of sustenance. The children are deprived of nutritious food  and  all
opportunities of education and advancement in life.  At  times,  the  family
has  to  borrow  from  the  relatives  and  other  acquaintance   to   avoid
starvation. These sufferings continue till the competent adjudicatory  forum
decides  on  the  legality  of  the  action  taken  by  the  employer.   The
reinstatement of such an employee, which is preceded by  a  finding  of  the
competent judicial/quasi judicial body or Court that  the  action  taken  by
the employer is  ultra  vires  the  relevant  statutory  provisions  or  the
principles of natural justice, entitles the  employee  to  claim  full  back
wages. If the employer wants to deny back wages to the employee  or  contest
his entitlement to get consequential benefits, then it  is  for  him/her  to
specifically  plead  and  prove  that  during  the  intervening  period  the
employee was gainfully employed and was getting the same emoluments.  Denial
of back wages to an employee, who has suffered due to an illegal act of  the
employer would amount to indirectly punishing  the  concerned  employee  and
rewarding the employer by relieving him of the obligation to pay back  wages
including the emoluments.”


For the reasons stated supra, we are of the view that the impugned  judgment
and order dated 28.07.2008 passed by the Delhi High Court is  liable  to  be
set  aside  and  accordingly  set  aside,  by  allowing  this  appeal.   The
retrenchment  of  the  appellant  from  his  service  is  bad  in  law.  The
respondent-Managing Committee is directed to reinstate the appellant at  his
post. Consequently, the relief of back wages till the date of this order  is
awarded to the appellant, along with all  consequential  benefits  from  the
date of termination of his services. The back wages  shall  be  computed  on
the basis of periodical revision of wages/salary. We further make  it  clear
that the entire amount due to the appellant must be spread over  the  period
between the period of retrenchment and the  date  of  this  decision,  which
amounts to 13 years, for the reason that the appellant is  entitled  to  the
benefit under Section 89 of the Income Tax Act. The same  must  be  complied
with within six weeks  from  the  date  of  receipt  of  the  copy  of  this
judgment.


                             …………………………………………………………J.
                             [V. GOPALA GOWDA]



                    …………………………………………………………J.
                    [AMITAVA ROY]

New Delhi,
April 13, 2016
-----------------------
[1]   [2] AIR 1964 SC 1671
[3]   [4] (1978) 2 SCC 213
[5]   [6] (1988) 4 SCC 42
[7]   [8] (1997) 5 SCC 737
[9]   [10](2015) 4 SCC 544
[11]  [12](1999) 3 SCC 422
[13]  [14] 113(2004) DLT 703 (DB)
[15]  [16](2002)8 SCC 481
[17]  [18]  AIR 1966  SC 1307
[19]  [20] (1978) 1 SCC 498
[21]  [22](1986) 4 SCC 707
[23]  [24] AIR 1966 SC 1423
[25]  [26] (2007) 8 SCC 559
[27]  [28] (2013) 10 SCC 324

Since the settlement indicated above have been accepted by the parties, the same is recorded as a part of this judgment and order. The appellant shall pay the decretal amount with interest calculated at the rate of 12% per annum (in place of 18% per annum) from 20th June, 1992 with adjustment of Rs.20,00,000/- already paid in 2003, in two installments payable in three months and six months time respectively. On such payment the sentence imposed upon the appellant shall stand reduced to the period already undergone along with fine of Rs.1,00,000/-. The decree of the Special Court, Mumbai in Civil Suit No. 6 of 2002 will be treated to have been satisfied by the appellant on his making the payment of the settlement amount indicated above. In case the settlement amount is not paid by the appellant in the manner and to the extent indicated above, then after six months this order shall stand recalled and the appellant shall surrender to serve out the remaining period of sentence of RI for six months as per the judgment under appeal which shall then stand confirmed by this Court. The Appeal is disposed of accordingly.

                                                                  REPORTABLE

                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

                       CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

                       CRIMINAL APPEAL NO.1664 OF 2005

Pallav Sheth                                       …..Appellant

      Versus

Canara Bank                                  …..Respondent



                               J U D G M E N T


SHIVA KIRTI SINGH, J.

This is an appeal under Section 10 of the Special Court (Trial  of  Offences
Relating to Transactions in Securities)  Act,  1992,  directed  against  the
final judgment and order dated 17.10.2005 of the Special  Judge  in  Special
Case No. 1 of 2002.
In view of nature of the order proposed to be passed in this appeal,  it  is
not necessary to go into the details of the evidence.  It would  suffice  to
notice that there was no serious dispute raised on behalf of  the  appellant
that he was liable to pay the  agreed  price  of  Rs.83,00,000/-  for  20000
shares which  were  not  returned  to  the  respondent-bank.   In  fact  the
appellant had admitted the liability and issued cheques to meet it  but  the
cheques were not honored.  The defence of the appellant that such  liability
was only a civil liability without any criminal intention was  not  accepted
by the learned Special Court.  After discussing the  relevant  materials  it
held that dishonest misappropriation of those shares  on  the  part  of  the
accused is writ large.  While rejecting the  defence  of  the  accused  that
there was no criminal intention on his part in  not  paying  the  amount  of
Rs.83,00,000/-, the learned Judge, Special Court  in  paragraph  23  of  the
judgment under  appeal  has  given  lucid  account  of  relevant  facts  for
reaching at such conclusion.  Para 23 runs as follows:
“23.  In this view of the matter, I do not find  merit  in  the  submissions
made on behalf of the accused.  Dishonest intention is quite  clear  and  it
is since beginning of the transaction.  It is on the representation  of  the
accused that 20000 shares alongwith blank share transfer forms, duly  signed
by the Authorised Officer, were  delivered  to  the  representative  of  the
accused, against post dated  cheques,  that  was  also  as  per  the  market
practice. What is pertinent to be noted is that the cheque was  post  dated,
the transaction took place on 2nd April, 1992. The delivery  of  the  shares
and blank share transfer forms against the post dated  cheque  was  made  on
5.6.1992, the cheque was post dated of 20.06.1992. Before the  due  date  of
the cheque, the accused had called the Complainant’s witness Sriram-PW2  and
requested them  to  present  the  cheque  for  encashment  a  little  later.
Accordingly,  the  cheque  came  to  be  presented  on  29.6.1992.  It   was
dishonoured.  Again,  the  accused   requested   to   present   the   cheque
subsequently and  on  such  subsequent  presentation  also  the  cheque  was
dishonoured. Then he happened to promise to issue Pay order, which he  never
issued. He then delivered two cheques, one for Rs. 50,00,000/-  and  another
for Rs.33,00,000/-, both were dishonoured, not once but twice. This  conduct
of the accused shows a clear dishonest intention of misappropriation of  the
shares or its sell consideration.”
Since we were inclined to agree with  the  aforesaid  view  of  the  learned
Special Court on the basis whereof the  appellant  has  been  convicted  for
offence under Section 409 of the Indian Penal Code and sentenced  to  suffer
RI for six months and to pay fine of Rs.1,00,000/- only and  in  default  to
suffer RI for further three months, a  suggestion  was  made  by  Mr.  Rajiv
Dutta,  learned  senior  advocate  for  the  appellant,  on  the  basis   of
instructions received, that respondent bank should file a chart showing  the
amount payable by the appellant after deducting the amount that has  already
been paid and/or after taking into consideration the  adjustment  of  shares
already made.  In the light of such pro settlement stand on  behalf  of  the
appellant, an order to that effect was passed on 24th February, 2016.
On the next and final date of hearing a chart showing the amount payable  by
the appellant to the bank  was  produced  by  Ms.  Radhika  Gautam,  learned
counsel for the respondent bank.  As per the original  chart  Rs.58,10,000/-
is the principal amount decreed against  the  appellant  vide   order  dated
3.5.2007 passed by the Special Court, Mumbai in Civil Suit No.  6  of  2002.
It further transpires that interest has also been allowed  at  the  rate  of
18% per annum from 20th June, 1992.  After adjusting Rs.20,00,000/- paid  by
the appellant in 2003 by way of part settlement,  the  balance  amount  with
same rate of interest till 29th February, 2016 has resulted into  an  amount
of Rs.2,86,17,424 payable by the appellant to the Bank as on 29th  February,
2016.
On hearing counsel for  both  the  parties,  we  found  good  chances  of  a
settlement between the parties if a substantial amount could be paid to  the
bank by the appellant so as to virtually meet the entire decretal  liability
within a reasonable period of time. On behalf  of  the  appellant  a  strong
plea was made for working out such settlement but with a further  plea  that
in the larger interest of justice and considering his  precarious  financial
condition, the rate of interest may be reduced to a reasonable rate such  as
12% per annum.
On  our  persuasion,  learned  counsel  for  the  respondent-Bank   obtained
instructions and conveyed that the respondent-bank was willing  for  such  a
settlement.  It was also made clear that a reasonable rate  of  interest  as
may be determined by this Court will be acceptable to the respondent-Bank.
On recalculation with rate of interest at 12% per annum  and  adjustment  of
Rs.20,00,000/-  already  made,  according  to  learned   counsel   for   the
respondent-bank the total amount payable by the appellant  as  on  29.2.2016
would be Rs.2,03,10,400/- only.  Learned senior counsel  for  the  appellant
has conveyed acceptance but pleaded that the appellant be given  six  months
time to pay the decretal amount due  to  the  Bank  with  modified  rate  of
interest at the 12% per annum.  It was accepted on behalf of  the  appellant
that the entire dues calculated at the rate of 12% per annum shall  be  paid
in two installments, first one payable by end of three months and the  final
by end of six months from today.
In the aforesaid facts and circumstances, in the special  facts  and  larger
interest of justice this appeal is disposed of in the following terms:
Since the settlement indicated above have been accepted by the parties,  the
same is recorded as a part of this judgment and order.
The appellant shall pay the decretal amount with interest calculated at  the
rate of 12% per annum (in place of 18% per annum) from 20th June, 1992  with
adjustment of Rs.20,00,000/- already  paid  in  2003,  in  two  installments
payable in three months and six months time respectively.  On  such  payment
the sentence imposed upon the appellant shall stand reduced  to  the  period
already undergone along with fine of Rs.1,00,000/-.
The decree of the Special Court, Mumbai in Civil Suit No. 6 of 2002 will  be
treated to have been satisfied by the appellant on his  making  the  payment
of the settlement amount indicated above.
In case the settlement amount is not paid by the  appellant  in  the  manner
and to the extent indicated above, then after six months  this  order  shall
stand recalled and the appellant shall surrender to serve out the  remaining
period of sentence of RI for six months as per  the  judgment  under  appeal
which shall then stand confirmed by this Court.
The Appeal is disposed of accordingly.



                       .…………………………………….J.
                             [DIPAK MISRA]


                       ……………………………………..J.
                       [SHIVA KIRTI SINGH]
New Delhi.
April 13, 2016.
-----------------------
6


Tax Holiday = The appellant is a company incorporated under the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956. It is also a dealer registered under the provisions of the KST Act. The appellant is engaged in the manufacture of Dry Manganese Dioxide Batteries (DMD batteries). It has its manufacturing Unit at Somanahalli, Maddur Taluk, which falls under Zone-II of the notification dated 23.06.1997 issued by the State Government. Before establishing its manufacturing Unit at Somanahalli, Maddur Taluk, the appellant-company had approached the State Government for grant of incentive and exemption under the provisions of the KST Act and also under the provisions of the Karnataka Sales Tax Act, 1957. Pursuant to the request so made, the State Government had issued a Notification/Government Order in No. CI.92.SPI.1997 dated 25.06.1997 inter alia granting exemption from payment of entry tax on raw materials and component parts for a period of six years from the date of commencement of commercial production. In the Notification/Government Order, it was made clear that the appellant- company should make an investment of a sum of Rs.111 crores, to claim benefit under the notification dated 25.06.1997. After obtaining the said exemption from the State Government, the appellant-company established its manufacturing Unit at Somanahalli, Maddur Taluk. But for various reasons, the appellant-company could not make investment of a sum of Rs. 111 crores, as envisaged under the notification dated 25.06.1997. Therefore, the appellant-company was ineligible to claim the “Tax Holiday” under the aforesaid notification. =It is trite that exemption notifications require strict interpretation. In order to get benefit of any exemption notification, assessee has to satisfy that it fulfills all the conditions contained in the notification= it is for the assessee to establish that the goods manufactured by him come within the ambit of the exemption notification. Since, it is a case of exemption from duty, there is no question of any liberal construction to extent the term and the scope of the exemption notification. Such exemption notification must be strictly construed and the assessee should bring himself squarely within the ambit of the notification. No extended meaning can be given to the exempted item to enlarge the scope of exemption granted by the notification.”= a person, invoking an exception or exemption provisions, to relieve him of tax liability must establish clearly that he is covered by the said provisions and, in case of doubt or ambiguity, the benefit of it must go to the State=It is a different matter that once the conditions contained in the exemption notification are satisfied and the assessee gets covered by the exemption notification, for the purpose of giving benefit notification has to be construed liberally. However, in the present case, the appellant has not been able to cross the threshold and to find entry under notification dated 31.03.1993 for the reasons mentioned above. Therefore, we have no option but to hold that the appellant was not entitled to exemption from entry tax.

                                                              NON-REPORTABLE


                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

                        CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

                        CIVIL APPEAL NO. 4231 OF 2006


|EVEREADY INDUSTRIES INDIA LTD.             |.....APPELLANT(S)           |
|VERSUS                                     |                            |
|STATE OF KARNATAKA                         |.....RESPONDENT(S)          |

                               J U D G M E N T

A.K. SIKRI, J.

      The appellant  herein  (earlier  known  as  BPL  Soft  Energy  Systems
Limited) has challenged  the  legality  and  validity  of  the  order  dated
12.01.2005 rendered by the High Court of Karnataka whereby  three  petitions
of the appellant, after clubbing together, were heard  and  decided  against
it, by the said common order.  Those petitions were preferred under  Section
15A of the Karnataka Tax on Entry of Goods Act, 1979  (hereinafter  referred
to as the 'KST Act') against the order which was  passed  by  the  Karnataka
Appellate Tribunal, Bangalore.  The  necessity  of  filing  three  petitions
arose because of the reason that  three  Assessment  Years  i.e.  1997-1998,
1998-1999 and 1999-2000 are involved, though  the  question  raised  in  all
these petitions was identical which pertains to the levy of entry tax  under
the KST Act.  All the authorities below including  the  Karnataka  Appellate
Tribunal took the view that the appellant is liable to  pay  the  tax  under
the provisions of KST Act and is not entitled to exemption from  payment  of
entry   tax   on   raw   material   under   Notification/Government    Order
No.CI.92.SPI.1997 dated 25.06.1997.  The High Court has, vide  the  impugned
judgment, affirmed the said view of the authorities below.

Some of the seminal facts which require a mention to determine the lis,  are
recapitulated below:

2.1   The appellant is a company incorporated under the  provisions  of  the
Companies Act, 1956.  It is also a dealer registered  under  the  provisions
of the KST Act.   The  appellant  is  engaged  in  the  manufacture  of  Dry
Manganese Dioxide Batteries (DMD batteries).  It has its manufacturing  Unit
at  Somanahalli,  Maddur  Taluk,  which  falls   under    Zone-II   of   the
notification dated  23.06.1997  issued  by  the  State  Government.   Before
establishing its  manufacturing  Unit  at  Somanahalli,  Maddur  Taluk,  the
appellant-company  had  approached  the  State  Government  for   grant   of
incentive and exemption under the provisions of the KST Act and  also  under
the provisions of the Karnataka  Sales  Tax  Act,  1957.   Pursuant  to  the
request so made, the State Government had issued  a  Notification/Government
Order in No. CI.92.SPI.1997 dated 25.06.1997 inter alia  granting  exemption
from payment of entry tax on raw materials and component parts for a  period
of six years from the date of commencement  of  commercial  production.   In
the Notification/Government Order, it was made  clear  that  the  appellant-
company should make an investment of  a  sum  of  Rs.111  crores,  to  claim
benefit under the notification dated 25.06.1997.  After obtaining  the  said
exemption from the State Government, the appellant-company  established  its
manufacturing Unit at Somanahalli, Maddur Taluk.  But for  various  reasons,
the appellant-company could not make investment of a sum of Rs. 111  crores,
as envisaged  under  the  notification  dated  25.06.1997.   Therefore,  the
appellant-company was ineligible  to  claim  the  “Tax  Holiday”  under  the
aforesaid notification.

      2.2   For the Assessment  Year  1997-1998,  initially,  the  Assessing
Authority had passed an order under the provisions of  the  Entry  Tax  Act,
granting exemption from payment of entry tax on  raw  materials,  components
and machinery parts brought into thelocal area (Somanahalli) for use in  the
manufacture of DMD batteries.  Subsequently,  the  Assessing  Authority  had
initiated reassessment proceedings and had passed the  order  and  in  that,
has levied  entry  tax  on  the  causing  of  entry  of  raw  materials  and
components into the local area, on the  ground  that  the  appellant-company
could not have availed tax exemption, since it did not fulfill  the  primary
condition stipulated in the notification dated 25.06.1997 and  it  was  also
held by the Assessing Authority  that  since  Government  Order/Notification
dated 25.06.1997 had been specifically issued granting entry  tax  exemption
to the appellant-company  subject  to  fulfilling  certain  conditions,  the
appellant-company  is   ineligible   to   seek   exemption   under   general
notification No. FD.11.CET.93(3) dated 31.03.1993.  The Assessing  Authority
while framing the reassessment order under Section 6 of the  Act,  had  also
levied penalty under Section 6(2) of the KST Act.

2.3         Aggrieved  by  the  aforesaid  order  passed  by  the  Assessing
Authority, the assessee had preferred the first  appeal  before  the  Deputy
Commissioner of Commercial Taxes (Appeals) in KTEG.AP.25/02-03.   The  First
Appellate Authority by his order dated 18.03.2003  had  partly  allowed  the
appeal filed by the assessee.

2.4         For the Assessment Years 1998-1999 and 1999-2000, the  Assessing
Authority had also passed reassessment orders under Section 6(1) of the  KST
Act and also  had  levied  penalty  under  Section  6(2)  of  the  KST  Act.
Aggrieved by the said order, the assessee had  filed  first  appeals  before
the First Appellate Authority  in  Appeal  Nos.KTEG.AP.24/02-03  (1998-1999)
and 25/02-03 (1999-2000), who by his order  dated  20.01.2003  had  rejected
the appeals so filed.

2.5         The assessee aggrieved by the orders  passed  by  the  Assessing
Authority under Sections 6(1) and  6(2)  of  the  KST  Act  had  also  under
Section 5(5) of the KST Act for the Assessment  Years  1997-1998  and  1999-
2000 had filed appeals before the  Karnataka  Appellate  Tribunal  and  they
were registered as STA Nos. 571/2001, 709, 329 and 330/2003.   The  Tribunal
by its common order dated 23.01.2004 had allowed STA No.  571/2001  and  had
partly allowed STA No. 709/2003 and had rejected STA Nos. 329  and  330/2003
for the Assessment Years 1997-1998, 1998-1999 and 2000-2001.  In its  order,
the Tribunal has concluded that the assessee is not entitled to  benefit  of
the Notification No.FD.11.CET.93(III) dated 31.03.1993; insertion of  clause
(g) to the  explanation  to  KST  Notification  No.  FD.239.CSL.90(I)  dated
31.03.1993; no penalty can be imposed under Section 5(5) of the KST  Act  on
the assessee company for the relevant Assessment Years.

Not satisfied with the  aforesaid  outcome,  the  appellant  filed  revision
petitions under Section 15A of the KST Act before the High Court  which  has
dismissed all the three  petitions.  Though,  various  arguments  have  been
discussed by the High Court in the  impugned  judgment,  a  perusal  of  the
judgment of the High Court would reflect that these arguments were  advanced
by the appellant to contend that it was not liable to pay  entry  tax  under
the Entry Tax Act  and  was  entitled  to  exemption  in  terms  of  general
Notification dated 31.03.1993.  The High Court  has  rejected  the  plea  by
holding  that  due  to  amendment  of  notification  dated   19.06.1991   by
notification dated 31.03.1993, the appellant was excluded from  getting  the
benefit of general Notification.  In this  behalf,  it  has  concluded  that
subsequent insertion of clause (g) to Explanation III of notification  dated
19.06.1991 was applicable to the general exemption issued under Section  11-
A of  Entry  Tax  Act.   While  so  holding,  the  High  Court  has  made  a
distinction  between   legislation   by   reference   and   legislation   by
incorporation and has held that in  case  of  legislation  by  reference  of
subsequent amendments to the legislation referred to will become  applicable
whereas in case of legislation by incorporation,  subsequent  amendments  to
the legislation referred to do not apply.  As per the  High  Court,  in  the
present case, there was legislation by reference and  not  by  incorporation
and,  therefore,  the  newly  inserted  clause  (g)  to  Notification  dated
19.06.1991  would  be  applicable  while  implementing   general   exemption
notification dated 31.03.1993.  The aforesaid principle stated by  the  High
Court in the impugned judgment was severely criticised and attacked  by  the
learned counsel for the appellant on the ground that  in  the  present  case
there was legislation by incorporation and not by  reference.   However,  we
feel that it may not even be  necessary  to  go  into  this  aspect,  having
regard to the discussion that follows hereinafter.

As pointed out  above,  the  order  dated  25.06.1997  was  passed  granting
exemption to the appellant from payment of entry tax on  raw  materials  and
component parts for a period of six years from the date of  commencement  of
commercial products.  However, it was subject  to  the  condition  that  the
appellant should make an investment in the sum of Rs.111 crores in order  to
enable itself to claim the benefit of the aforesaid notification.  It is  an
admitted fact that due to certain reasons, the appellant could  not  fulfill
this condition as it did  not  invest  Rs.111  crores  in  the  project,  as
envisaged in  the  notification  dated  25.06.1997.  Therefore,  insofar  as
exemption notification dated 25.06.1997 which  was  issued  specifically  in
the case of the appellant, the appellant cannot  be  held  entitled  to  the
benefit thereof as it failed to fulfill the conditions.

The appellant, however, still claims the  exemption  by  virtue  of  general
Notification  dated  31.03.1993  issued  under  the  Entry  Tax  Act.   This
notification was issued under Section 11A of the Entry Tax Act.   Vide  this
notification, the Government of Karnataka exempted  the  tax  payable  under
the Entry Tax Act on the entry of raw materials, component parts and  inputs
and machinery and its parts into a local area for use in the manufacture  of
an immediate  or  finished  product  by  the  new  industrial  units.   This
notification contains  a  'Table'  which  enlists  type  of  industries  and
location of industries which are  entitled  to  exemption  as  well  as  the
period of exemption.  It is not  in  dispute  that  the  appellant  industry
stands covered by one such category of industry the description  whereof  is
given in the  notification.   It  is  also  located  at  a  place  which  is
stipulated in the said notification.  However, the exemption  was  available
to the new  Industrial  Units.   The  question  arises  as  to  whether  the
appellant falls within  the  ambit  of  “new  industrial  unit”  as  defined
therein.  Explanation in the notification defines “a  new  industrial  unit”
which reads as under:

“Explanation – (1)  For the purpose of this notification “a  new  industrial
unit” shall have the same meaning assigned to it in Notification  No.FD  239
CSL 90(1), dated 19th June, 1991 issued under Section 8-A of  the  Karnataka
Sales Tax Act, 1957.

The provisions of this notification shall not apply to a unit to  which  the
provisions of Notification No.FD 239 CSL 90(I), dated 19th June 1991  issued
under section 8-A of the Karnataka Sales Tax Act, 1957 shall not apply.

The procedure specified in Notification No. FD  239  CSL  90(I)  dated  19th
June 1991 issued under Section 8-A of the Karnataka Sales Tax Act, 1957  for
claiming exemption under that notification shall mutatis mutandis  apply  to
a industrial unit claiming exemption under notification.”


Reading of the aforesaid definition clearly suggests that “a new  industrial
unit” is given the same meaning which is assigned in the notification  dated
19.06.1991.  For this purpose, one needs to look into the  meaning  that  is
given to “a new industrial unit” in the notification  dated  21.06.1991.   A
scan through the said notification leads us to the  definition  given  to  a
“new industrial unit”.  We reproduce this Explanation in its entirety:
“Explanation I. – (a) For the purpose of this Notification;

A “Tiny Industrial Unit” or “Small Scale Industrial Unit” or  “Medium  Scale
Industrial Unit” or “Large Scale Industrial Unit”  means  a  unit  which  is
registered as such with the Director  of  Industries  and  Commerce  or  the
Ministry of Industries, Government of India.

(ii)  A Khadi and Village Industrial Unit as  defined  under  the  Karnataka
Khadi & Village Industries Act, 1956 from time to time. [See Note 3]

(b)  “A New Industrial Unit” means any of the units described in Clause  (a)
above,  which  are  certified  to  be  eligible  for  exemption  under  this
Notification, by the authorities mentioned in Clauses (a) and  (b)  of  Para
(1) under “Procedure” below.”


In order to qualify to be “A New Industrial Unit”, the following  conditions
need to be fulfilled:

      (i)  It has to be  either  a  Tiny  Industrial  Unit  or  Small  Scale
Industrial Unit or Medium Scale Industrial Unit or  Large  Scale  Industrial
Unit of the type of industries mentioned in Table contained in  notification
dated 21.06.1991 or else it has to be a Khadi or  Village  Industrial  Units
as defined under the Karnataka Khadi & Village Industries  Act,  1956.   (We
are not concerned with this later category in the present case.)

      (ii)   Such  a  Unit  has  to  be  registered  with  the  Director  of
Industries and Commerce or the Ministry of Industries, Government of India.

      (iii)  Such a Unit has to be certified to be  eligible  for  exemption
under the said notification by the authorities mentioned therein.

What is significant for  our  purposes  is  that  such  a  Unit  has  to  be
certified  to  be  eligible  for  exemption  under  the  notification  dated
21.06.1991.  That is an essential requirement for a Unit to fall within  the
definition  of  “A  New  Industrial  Unit”  under  the  notification   dated
31.03.1993  as  it  is  assigned  the  same  meaning  as  contained  in  the
notification dated 21.06.1991.  Notification dated 31.03.1993 further  makes
it clear that this  notification  is  not  to  apply  to  a  Unit  to  which
notification dated 19.06.1991 does not apply.  So  much  so,  the  procedure
prescribed in the notification dated 19.06.1991 for  claiming  exemption  is
also made applicable to the Industrial Units  seeking  exemption  under  the
notification dated 31.03.1993.  In the instant case, it was admitted by  the
appellant itself that the  Department  of  Industries  and  Commerce  issued
eligibility certificate in terms of industrial policy G.O. No. CI 30 SPC  96
dated 15.03.1996 and notification dated 15.11.1996 issued under Section  19-
C of the  KST  Act.  Such  eligibility  certificate  would  not  be  of  any
consequence in as much as, in order to get the benefit of  the  notification
dated 31.03.1993, the appellant was required to get certification under  the
notification dated 19.06.1991.  Obviously,  therefore,  the  appellant  does
not fulfill the requirement of the notification dated 31.03.1993 as well.

It is trite that exemption notifications require strict  interpretation.  In
order to get benefit of any exemption notification, assessee has to  satisfy
that it fulfills all the conditions contained in the  notification  This  is
so held by this Court in Rajasthan Spinning  and  Weaving  Mills,  Bhilwara,
Rajasthan v. Collector of  Central  Excise,  Jaipur,  Rajasthan[1],  wherein
this principle was stated in the following manner:
“16.   Lastly,  it  is  for  the  assessee  to  establish  that  the   goods
manufactured by him come within the ambit  of  the  exemption  notification.
Since, it is a case of exemption from duty, there  is  no  question  of  any
liberal construction to extent the term  and  the  scope  of  the  exemption
notification. Such exemption notification must  be  strictly  construed  and
the  assessee  should  bring  himself  squarely  within  the  ambit  of  the
notification. No extended meaning can be  given  to  the  exempted  item  to
enlarge the scope of exemption granted by the notification.”



In Novopan India Ltd. v. CCE and Customs[2], this Court held that a  person,
invoking an exception  or  exemption  provisions,  to  relieve  him  of  tax
liability must establish clearly that he is covered by the  said  provisions
and, in case of doubt or ambiguity, the benefit of it must go to the  State.
 A Constitution Bench of  this  Court  in  Hansraj  Gordhandas  v.  CCE  and
Customs[3] held that (Novopan India Ltd. Case, SCC p. 614, para 16):

“16...such a notification has to be interpreted in the light  of  the  words
employed by it and not on any other basis. This was so held in  the  context
of the principle that in  a  taxing  statute,  there  is  no  room  for  any
intendment, that regard must be had to the clear meaning of  the  words  and
that  the  matter  should  be  governed  wholly  by  the  language  of   the
notification, i.e., by the plain terms of the exemption.”



It is  a  different  matter  that  once  the  conditions  contained  in  the
exemption notification are satisfied and the assessee gets  covered  by  the
exemption notification, for the purpose of giving benefit  notification  has
to be construed liberally.  However, in the present case, the appellant  has
not been able to cross the threshold and to find  entry  under  notification
dated 31.03.1993 for the reasons mentioned  above.  Therefore,  we  have  no
option but to hold that the appellant was not  entitled  to  exemption  from
entry tax.

We, therefore, agree with the conclusions contained in the  impugned   order
and  dismiss  the  instant  appeal  finding        no merit therein.   There
shall be no order as to costs.


                             .............................................J.
                                                                (A.K. SIKRI)



                             .............................................J.
                                                     (ROHINTON FALI NARIMAN)

NEW DELHI
APRIL 13, 2016.

-----------------------
[1]   (1995) 4 SCC 473
[2]   1994 Supp. (3) SCC 606
[3]   (1969) 2 SCR 253 : AIR 1970 SC 755

after the Coimbatore serial blasts, a conspiracy was hatched to do away with Dr. Sridhar (deceased), who was BJP Town Secretary at Trichy, and also actively involved in the propagation of the Hindu religion in the town. There were a total of 13 accused that hatched conspiracies in two separate groups to kill Dr. Sridhar and curb the growth of BJP in the city.=Regarding the conviction of A7 for the offences under Section 109 read with Section 302 IPC, it has to be considered that A8 to A13 had been acquitted of this charge and the same reason shall apply for the acquittal of A7 as well, as this charge relates to the second group. A7 had been charged for the offence under Section 109 read with Section 302 IPC along with A8 to A13 on the basis of the conspiracy hatched at Tirunelveli, but when A8 to A13 have been acquitted, A7 must also be acquitted as the abetment is with reference to the conspiracy.- when the offence of Section 147 IPC is not proved beyond reasonable doubt, A7’s presence becomes doubtful and if that is the case, he cannot be made liable for abetment to commit murder by A1 to A6. The conviction of A7 is, therefore, set aside and he is acquitted of all the charges and is directed to be set at liberty. In the light of the above discussion, we find no ground to interfere with the judgment passed by the High Court so far as it has confirmed the conviction and sentence of A1 to A6. Criminal Appeal Nos.2118-2119 of 2009 are, accordingly, dismissed. However, the judgment of the High Court so far as it concerns the conviction of A7, is set aside. Criminal Appeal No.2117 of 2009 is, accordingly, allowed. A7 is already released on bail granted by this Court on 4th July, 2011. His bail bond shall stand discharged.

                                                                  REPORTABLE

                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

                       CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

                   CRIMINAL APPEAL NOS. 2118-2119  OF 2009

SHEIKH SINTHA MADHAR @ JAFFER @

SINTHA  ETC.                                       APPELLANT(S)

                                   VERSUS

STATE REP. BY INSPECTOR OF POLICE         RESPONDENT(S)

                                    WITH

                      CRIMINAL APPEAL NO. 2117 OF 2009

SHAHJAHAN                                                APPELLANT(S)

                                   VERSUS

STATE REP. BY INSPECTOR OF POLICE       RESPONDENT(S)



                               J U D G M E N T

Pinaki Chandra Ghose, J.

These appeals, by special leave, have been  directed  against  the  judgment
and order dated 22.02.2008 passed by the Madras High Court,  Madurai  Bench,
in Criminal Appeal No.1736 of 2003 and  Criminal  Appeal  No.1807  of  2003,
whereby  the  High  Court  dismissed  the  criminal  appeals  filed  by  the
appellants  and  confirmed  their  conviction  and  sentences  for   various
offences punishable under Sections 148, 302, 201  and  120B  of  the  Indian
Penal Code, 1860 (hereinafter referred to as “IPC”).

The brief facts necessary to dispose of these appeals  are  that  after  the
Coimbatore serial blasts, a conspiracy was  hatched  to  do  away  with  Dr.
Sridhar (deceased), who was BJP Town Secretary at Trichy, and also  actively
involved in the propagation of the Hindu religion in the town. There were  a
total of 13 accused that hatched conspiracies  in  two  separate  groups  to
kill Dr. Sridhar and curb the growth of BJP in the city.  A1  to  A6  formed
one group and hatched a conspiracy under the leadership of  A1.  The  second
group was formed under the guidance  of  A8  and  included  A7  to  A13  who
conspired at  Tirunelveli.  Both  these  groups  had  planned  to  kill  the
deceased in two separate conspiracies at two different places. In  pursuance
of the conspiracy, A1 to A7 formed an  unlawful  assembly  on  2.2.1999  and
attacked the deceased at about 10 p.m. when he was returning back  from  his
clinic. A1 to A6 attacked the deceased with  weapons  in  pursuance  of  the
common object and caused his death and A7 stood nearby unarmed.  As  claimed
by the prosecution, this incident was  witnessed  by  the  daughter  of  the
deceased (Lakshmi Priya-PW1), neighbours of the deceased  (Domnic  Raja-PW2,
Sagayarajan-PW3 and Dr. Soundirarajan-PW65) and the  night-watchman  in  the
area (Mr. Marimuthu-PW5).

After investigation, Police filed charge-sheet against all  the  13  accused
persons. Upon considering the material on record and hearing the counsel  on
both  sides,  the  accused  persons  were  charged  for   various   offences
punishable under Sections 148, 302, 201 and 120-B of the  IPC.  The  charges
were read over and explained to them. All the accused persons  pleaded  ‘not
guilty’ and claimed for trial.

The Trial Court by its judgment and order  dated  7.10.2003,  convicted  and
sentenced the accused/appellants for the offences as follows: A1 to  A6  for
the offences punishable under Sections 120-B read with Section 302,  Section
148 and  Section  302  IPC.  A3  and  A6  were  acquitted  of  the  offences
punishable under Section 201 read with Section 302  IPC.  A7  was  convicted
for the offence punishable under Section  147  and  Section  109  read  with
Section 302 IPC. However, he was acquitted of the charges under Section 120-
B read with 302 and Section 201 read with Section 302 IPC.  A8 to  A13  were
acquitted of all the charges framed against them.

The matter came up  before  the  Madras  High  Court  (Madurai  Bench)  vide
Criminal Appeal No.1736 of 2003 filed by A5 and Criminal Appeal  No.1807  of
2003 filed by A1, A2, A3, A4, A6 and A7.  No appeal was filed by  the  State
against the acquittal of A8 to A13. The High Court by the impugned  judgment
and order dismissed both the appeals on the ground that the prosecution  had
established beyond reasonable doubt that A1 to A6 had conspired to kill  Dr.
Sridhar and A7 was a part of the unlawful assembly and participated  in  the
murder of Dr. Sridhar (deceased).  Since  the  conspiracy  and  murder  were
proved, the High Court refused to interfere with the judgment of  the  Trial
Court.

Aggrieved by the judgment and order dated 22.02.2008 passed  by  the  Madras
High Court, the accused have filed the appeals  before  this  Court  against
their conviction and sentence. Criminal  Appeal  Nos.2118-2119  of  2009  is
filed by A1 to A6 and Criminal Appeal No.2117 of 2009 is filed  by  A7.   We
shall first discuss the culpability of A1 to A6 and subsequently  deal  with
the conviction and sentence of A7.

 Mr. Sidharth Luthra and Mr. Ratnakar Das, learned senior counsel  appearing
on behalf of appellants A1  to  A6  have  inter  alia  reiterated  that  the
judgments of the Trial Court as well as the High  Court  were  erroneous  as
the prosecution had been unable to bring home its  case.   He  assailed  the
reasoning given by the High Court in arriving at  a  wrong  conclusion  i.e.
the guilt of the accused on the following grounds: Firstly, the presence  of
PW1 (daughter of the deceased) was doubtful  at  the  spot  as  it  was  not
reflected in the earliest available records and her testimony cannot be  the
sole basis of conviction as it  was  unreliable.  Secondly,  the  number  of
assailants was not clear. Thirdly, due to  the  distance  of  the  place  of
occurrence and insufficient light thereat, the identity of the  accused  was
rendered doubtful and  the  weapon  of  the  murder  was  also  not  clearly
established, being contrary to what was stated in  the  post-mortem  report.
Fourthly, the Test Identification Parade was vitiated in law and delayed  as
well. Fifthly, the conspiracy was not proved. Lastly, the investigation  was
defective and biased and various material documents were suppressed and  the
forensic evidence was also not reliable.

 Mr. Subramonium Prasad, learned senior counsel appearing for the State  has
vehemently rebutted  the  grounds  argued  by  the  learned  senior  counsel
appearing for the appellants and has stated that the motive  and  conspiracy
behind the incident and  the  involvement  of  the  appellants  was  proved,
beyond reasonable doubt, by the testimony of PW-1  as  corroborated  by  PW-
65’s evidence in particular. The post-incident conspiracy  was  also  proved
and there were no such  irregularity  in  the  Test  Identification  Parades
which would vitiate the case of the prosecution.

Mr. M. Karpaga Vinayagam, learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of  A7,
submitted that the offence under Section 147 IPC was not  made  out  against
A7 as the evidence of PW-1, even when corroborated by the  evidence  of  PW-
65, could not establish the identity and presence of A7 at the place of  the
incident. He also argued that since A7 had been acquitted of the  conspiracy
with A8 to A13, his conviction under Section 109 read with Section 302  IPC,
 could not be sustained.

The main issues are whether the conspiracy was proved  or  not  and  whether
the presence of the accused at the place  of  incident  was  established  or
not. We shall deal with A1 to A6 first and subsequently  with  A7.  We  have
perused the oral and documentary evidence on record. We  shall  now  examine
each and every contention in light of the arguments adduced before us.

The first aspect for consideration before us is the testimony  of  the  eye-
witnesses. There were allegedly 5  eye-witnesses  to  the  murder  who  were
examined: the daughter of the deceased (Lakshmi  Priya-PW1),  neighbours  of
the   deceased   (namely,   Domnic   Raja-PW2,   Sagayarajan-PW3   and   Dr.
Soundirarajan-PW65) and the night-watchman in the area (Mr.  Marimuthu-PW5).
PW1 stated that she was studying in her  house  when  she  heard  a  scream-
“Save me”. Realizing that it was of her father, she went  out  of  the  gate
and saw 6-7 persons stabbing her father with  knife-like  weapons.  She  was
standing at about a 100 feet distance from the place of incident and  though
it was around 10 p.m. but still she could clearly see  the  incident  as  it
took place at a spot which was then lit up by  the  tube  lights  of  PW65’s
house. Apart from the lights of PW65’s house, the street lights as  well  as
her own compound lights were on. She  shouted  at  the  accused  persons  to
stop, but they only turned and saw her and thus she could see them  clearly.
After the incident, she saw them going away on their  bikes  and  they  also
took her father’s bike. She immediately went to the house of the  deceased’s
elder brother Shanmugasundaram (informant), who came along with her and  saw
the deceased lying in a pool of  blood.  The  elder  brother  could  not  be
examined as he died before the trial could  commence.  PW1  also  identified
all the seven accused appellants in the Test  Identification  Parade.  PW65,
on the other hand, stated that he heard the distress call  of  the  deceased
and came outside and saw 4-5 persons attacking the  deceased,  but  he  only
saw PW1 when she came near the dead body of her father after the  assailants
had left.

When we analyse the statements of PW1 and PW65, they are  not  contradictory
to each other, rather they are complementary to each other.  Merely  because
PW65 did not see PW1 until the accused had left, does not mean that she  was
not present at  the  place  of  occurrence  and  she  did  not  witness  the
occurrence. She has already stated that she was afraid of her own  life  and
so she was hiding to some extent, and thus, PW65 might not  have  seen  her.
PW65 made a call to the police but did not mention  PW1’s  presence  to  the
police at that time. This fact is quite natural as in the commotion, he  had
made a police call only to inform the police about the  incident  and  could
not provide details for the same.

The fact that PW1 was not named in the inquest report is of  no  consequence
as the inquest report relates to the cause of death and not  the  witnesses’
account of the incident. The first informant though had  not  named  PW1  in
the complaint such omission is not fatal in the  face  of  otherwise  cogent
and convincing evidence of  PW1,  corroborated  by  PW65.  The  other  three
eyewitnesses: PW2, PW3 and PW5 turned hostile during the trial and  did  not
support  the  prosecution  case  at  all,  but  that  does  not  affect  the
statements of PW1 and PW65. PW1’s statement cannot be rejected only  on  the
ground that she is an  interested  witness  as  she  has  been  particularly
corroborated by PW65’s testimony.

The next aspect for our consideration is the distance and brightness of  the
place of incident from where PW1 witnessed it and whether  it  was  possible
for her to see the assailants at night from a distance of  about  100  feet.
This aspect has been dealt with by the High Court in great  details  and  we
agree with the High Court that PW1 could have seen the assailants  at  night
because the area was illuminated by  the  electric  lights  all  around  and
there was sufficient light to see them. Also, the fact that she was  sitting
in an air-conditioned room was not  conclusively  proved  and  it  is  quite
natural that at 10 p.m. in the night, when the roads and  neighbourhood  are
quiet, and there is no hustle-bustle like daytime, even a slight  noise  can
be heard. Thus, the screams of the deceased could  have  been  easily  heard
and identified by his daughter and there was  nothing  unusual  for  her  to
come out and witness the incident, as she was by then already expecting  the
return of her father from the clinic.

The next question is regarding the weapon of murder not  conforming  to  the
post-mortem  report  opinion.  The  post-mortem  was  done  by  PW40  -  Dr.
Vijayalakshmi who stated that many of the injuries  found  on  the  deceased
were all cut injuries and could have been caused by  cutting  weapons,  like
an Aruval and not by knives as stated by PW1 in her testimony.  A  knife  is
essentially used for stabbing but it  can  also  be  used  for  slicing  and
cutting depending upon the manner and angle at which it  is  used.  PW1  had
stated that she saw the accused attacking the  deceased  and  it  cannot  be
technically taken to be stabbing or slicing. The post-mortem  report  states
that most of the wounds are deep cut wounds but the same can be caused by  a
knife. To this extent, the statement of PW1 is corroborated by  the  medical
examination.

The next question is whether the Test Identification Parades  were  vitiated
on account of delay or for holding those TIPs jointly, or on account of  the
identity of the accused having been already revealed before  the  TIP  could
be conducted.  It is clear from the evidence that  there  is  no  inordinate
delay in conducting the TIP. As and when the accused were  arrested,  within
reasonable  time  they  were  produced  for  the  TIP.  Also,  there  is  no
invariable rule that two accused persons cannot be made  part  of  the  same
TIP. Joint TIP would thus, in no manner, affect the  validity  of  the  TIP.
The purpose of a TIP is to ensure that the investigation  is  going  on  the
right  track  and  it  is  merely  a  corroborative  evidence.   The  actual
identification must be done  in  the  Court  and  that  is  the  substantive
evidence. If the accused is already known to the witness, the TIP  does  not
hold much value and it is the  identification  in  the  Court  which  is  of
utmost importance. PW1 identified all the seven accused  appellants  in  the
Court as well as in the TIP.

The fact that the deceased had a few strands of hair in his hand  which  did
not match with any of the accused except A13, who was already  acquitted  by
the Trial Court as well as the High Court, does not hold much ground as  it,
by itself cannot exonerate the accused  only  because  the  samples  do  not
match.


The most important question is whether the conspiracy hatched by  A1  to  A6
was proved or not. A conspiracy is always hatched in secrecy and it is  very
difficult to  gather  direct  evidence  for  the  proof  of  the  same.  The
conspiracy before the incident is proved by the  statements  of  PW23,  PW36
and  PW37.  PW23  was  a  coolie  (daily-wage  worker)  who  had   overheard
indistinct conversations between 6-7 persons in the first week  of  January,
1999, when they had come  to  take  bath  at  the  Mukkombu  Dam.  But  this
witness’s testimony cannot be directly used to implicate the accused  as  he
did not remember their faces and refused to identify them in  Court  because
of fear. The same is the case with PW24 who was a caretaker  at  the  garden
near Mukkombu Dam who also could not identify the accused in the Court.

An important witness of the conspiracy is Sayeed  Ibrahim  (PW36),  a  purse
manufacturer, who stated that he knew A1 to A6. He was a member of  the  Al-
Umma movement which was a banned organization and his  job  was  to  collect
money for the undercover or arrested members of the organization.   In  July
1998, A4 told him to go to Mukkombu to meet  A1,  A2,  A3,  A5  and  A6  and
collect money for some of the convicts in  the  Coimbatore  Blast  Case.  He
then went to Madurai and he heard the discussion between A1, A2 and A4  that
Dr. Sridhar must be killed in Trichy to stop the growth of  the  BJP  party.
Around 20.1.1999, he along with A1 to A6, went  to  Mukkombu  and  was  told
that the decision to kill Dr. Sridhar was finalized.  This  is  corroborated
to this extent by the statements of PW23 and PW24 who stated their  presence
at Mukkombu around that time. Also, after the incident, he saw  A3,  A4,  A5
and A6 in Madurai, where A4 described how  they  murdered  Dr.  Sridhar  and
that A3 hurt his left hand middle finger during the attack.  This  statement
by PW36, who turned an approver, substantiates the allegation of  conspiracy
to murder Dr. Sridhar.

PW37 (John Basha) also testified that on the  date  of  incident  at  around
8:30 p.m., A3 called him up and told him that they have  planned  to  murder
Dr. Sridhar and after that one person will come to  stay  with  him  and  he
should permit him to do so. After the incident, A3 came to PW37 with A4  who
had a blood-stained shirt in his hand and they were accompanied  by  A5.  He
also saw A3 washing six blood-stained knives and a wound on  his  left  hand
middle finger. The injury on the middle finger of A3 was seen by  both  PW36
and PW37 and they were supported by PW17 (the  doctor  who  dressed  up  the
wound on A3’s finger). Though he maintained no records of patients,  but  he
stated that he stitched the wound of A3.

Thus, the conspiracy was proved beyond reasonable doubt  between  A1  to  A6
and the Courts below were correct in convicting  them  for  the  offence  of
conspiracy. Also, the murder of Dr. Sridhar was proved by  the  aid  of  the
eye-witnesses. The conviction of A1 to A6 is based  on  proper  appreciation
of evidence and requires no interference.



Now, we shall discuss the culpability of A7 under Sections 147 and 109  read
with 302 IPC, though he was acquitted of the charges of conspiracy  with  A8
to A13. The prosecution alleged that A7 was standing unarmed when A1  to  A6
were attacking the deceased and therefore he was charged  with  Section  147
IPC and not with Section 148 IPC. PW1 has stated in her testimony  that  6-7
persons were attacking her father. She did  not  state  anything  about  any
particular person standing unarmed or any role played by such person in  the
incident. Though she identified A7 as well in the Court,  but  she  did  not
state that he  was  the  one  standing  unarmed,  as  is  the  case  of  the
prosecution. A7 was already acquitted of the charges of conspiracy with  the
second group i.e. A8 to A13. He thus  cannot  be  linked  at  all  with  the
common object of A1 to A6 who had hatched a separate conspiracy. Also,  PW65
did not identify A7 or any other accused in the Court.

Regarding the conviction of A7 for the offences under Section 109 read  with
Section 302 IPC, it has to be considered that A8 to A13 had  been  acquitted
of this charge and the same reason shall apply for the acquittal  of  A7  as
well, as this charge relates to the second group. A7 had  been  charged  for
the offence under Section 109 read with Section 302 IPC  along  with  A8  to
A13 on the basis of the conspiracy hatched at Tirunelveli, but  when  A8  to
A13 have been acquitted, A7 must also be acquitted as the abetment  is  with
reference to the conspiracy.

Also, when the offence of Section 147 IPC is not  proved  beyond  reasonable
doubt, A7’s presence becomes doubtful and if that is the case, he cannot  be
made liable for abetment to commit murder by A1 to A6. The conviction of  A7
is, therefore, set aside and he is acquitted  of  all  the  charges  and  is
directed to be set at liberty.

In the light of the above discussion, we find no ground  to  interfere  with
the judgment passed by the High  Court  so  far  as  it  has  confirmed  the
conviction and sentence of A1 to A6.  Criminal Appeal Nos.2118-2119 of  2009
are, accordingly, dismissed. However, the judgment of the High Court so  far
as it concerns the conviction of A7, is set aside. Criminal  Appeal  No.2117
of 2009 is, accordingly, allowed.  A7 is already released  on  bail  granted
by this Court on 4th July, 2011.  His bail bond shall stand discharged.
                                      …....................................J

                                                    (Pinaki Chandra Ghose)



                                       …...................................J

                                                  (Amitava Roy)

New Delhi;

April 13, 2016.

Thandan Community and were held entitled to be treated as Scheduled Caste= the appellant was treated as Thandan and, thus, belonging to Scheduled caste community on the basis of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act 1976 and she was appointed as High School Assistant (Physical Science) in Government School on 03.02.1989 treating her as Scheduled Caste. Even if we proceed on the basis that she belongs to Ezhuvas/Thiyyas, that is irrelevant insofar as the appellant is contained as these castes were treated as part of Thandan Community and were held entitled to be treated as Scheduled Caste. This principle is categorically stated in Palaghat Jilla's case. R. Unnikrishnan's case clarified that the position changes only w.e.f. 30.08.2007 with the Amendment Act of 2007 when Thiyyas and Ezhuvas are not to be treated as part of Thandan and, thus, Scheduled Caste but those who have already conferred the benefit would entitled to continue to reap the fruits thereof. 12. In the another appeal also, we find that appellant was treated as belonging to Thandan Community and given benefit much prior to 2007. 13. For the reasons stated above, these appeals succeed and are accordingly allowed. Since the appellants have been continued in service because of the interim order passed by this Court, they are treated as validly appointed giving them the benefit of members of Scheduled Caste category. The impugned judgment is accordingly set aside thereby allowing the writ petitions filed by the appellants and quashing the orders of respondent Nos. 2 and 3. The appellants shall also be entitled to the cost of these proceedings.

                                                                  REPORTABLE

                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

                        CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

                     CIVIL APPEAL NO. 6126-6127 OF 2013


|T. KOCHA                                   |.....APPELLANT(S)            |
|VERSUS                                     |                             |
|STATE OF KERALA & ORS.                     |.....RESPONDENT(S)           |


                                   W I T H


                       CIVIL APPEAL NO. 11377 OF 2011


                               J U D G M E N T


A.K. SIKRI, J.

                  In  these   appeals,   the   legal   issue   which   needs
determination is identical.  The  background  facts  under  which  the  said
issue  arises  are  also  somewhat  similar.    Therefore,   without   being
repetitive, it would serve our purpose to take note of the  facts  appearing
in Civil Appeal Nos. 6126-6127 of 2013 in  order  to  spell  out  the  issue
involved and decision thereupon shall govern both the appeals.

2.    The appellant in Civil Appeal Nos. 6126-6127 of 2013 is T.  Kocha  who
claims to be the member of the  Thandan  Community,  which  is  a  Scheduled
Caste in the State of Kerala.  She applied  for  the  post  of  High  School
Assistant (Physical Science) in a Government School under reserved  category
claiming  herself  to  be  the  Scheduled  Caste  as  belonging  to  Thandan
Community.  She  was  given  appointment  to  the  said  post,  after  being
successful in the selection process, w.e.f. 03.02.1989.

3.    There was some dispute about Thandans  as  members  of  the  Scheduled
Caste which travelled up to this Court  and  was  decided  in  the  case  of
Palghat Jilla Thandan Samudhaya Samrakshna Samithi and another v.  State  of
Kerala and another[1].  We shall  be  referring  to  the  said  judgment  at
length and the decision taken therein  by  this  Court  at  the  appropriate
stage.  We may mention at  this  juncture  that  on  the  basis  of  another
judgment rendered by Full Bench of High Court of Kerala in O.P. No.  6758/87
(decided on 14.03.1995), the Vigilance Cell of  KIRTADS  (respondent  No.  3
herein) had examined the cases of those persons who had changed their  caste
name after the promulgation of the Scheduled  Castes  and  Scheduled  Tribes
Orders (Amendment) Act 1976.  In respect of the  appellant,  the  respondent
No. 3 came to the conclusion that she did not belong  to  Thandan  Community
but was a member of  Ezhava/Thiyya  Community  and,  therefore,  was  not  a
person belonging to Scheduled Caste Community.  Based on  that  report,  the
Scrutiny Committee, for verification of Community Certificates of  Scheduled
Castes  and  Scheduled  Tribes  Department  in  the  Government  of   Kerala
(respondent No. 2 herein), issued a show cause notice  dated  03.06.2003  to
the appellant as to why she should not be  treated  as  non-Scheduled  Caste
person.  The appellant submitted her written  explanation  dated  06.09.2003
along with as many as 46 documents in support of her plea that  she  was  of
Thandan Caste and,  therefore,  rightly  given  the  Government  appointment
under the quota meant for Scheduled Caste persons.  It was  followed  by  an
affidavit  dated  02.12.2003  of  the  appellant   wherein   she   requested
respondent No. 2 to furnish the name and addresses  of  those  persons  from
whom respondent No. 3 had allegedly collected evidence.  A request was  also
made to afford an  opportunity  to  cross  examine  those  witnesses.   This
request was not allowed.
4.    After considering the written explanation and the documents  submitted
by the appellant, respondent No. 2 concluded that  she  did  not  belong  to
Thandan Community and, therefore, was not a Scheduled Caste  person.   Order
dated 13.04.2004 was passed  to  this  effect  which  was  served  upon  the
appellant on 28.06.2004. The appellant challenged  the  aforesaid  order  of
the respondents by filing the writ petition in the  High  Court  of  Kerala.
The said writ petition was  admitted  and  interim  stay  vide  order  dated
13.04.2004 was granted in favour of the appellant.  However, when  the  said
writ petition was finally heard  in  the  year  2012,  vide  judgment  dated
05.09.2012, the High Court dismissed the same. The appellant  preferred  the
Review Petition No. 1224/2012 seeking review of the said judgment which  was
also dismissed on 07.02.2013.  Main judgment as well as the order passed  in
the review petition are  challenged  by  the  appellant  via  special  leave
petition in which leave was granted and that  is  how  the  instant  appeals
have come up for final hearing wherein issue regarding  the  status  of  the
appellant as to whether she belongs to Thandan Community or  not  falls  for
consideration.
5.    Before we discuss various documents filed by the appellant in  support
of her claim, it would  be  advisable  to  traverse  through  the  judgments
referred to above as well as some other  judgments  and  also  the  relevant
statutory  orders/enactments  in  this  behalf.   A  scanning  through   the
aforesaid material would clear much of the haze which  surrounds  the  issue
in question.  We would like to start our discussion  with  the  judgment  of
this Court in Palghat Jilla's case which traces out the  history  about  the
inclusion of Thandans as Scheduled Caste in the State of Kerala.  A  perusal
of the judgment reveals that Thandan Community in the  erstwhile  Travancore
and Cochin State alone was included in  the  Scheduled  Caste  list  by  the
Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order 1950.  Scheduled Caste list of  Kerala
State was amended, as per  Scheduled  Castes  and  Scheduled  Tribes  Orders
(Amendment) Act 1976 (Act 108/76) by including  Thandans  throughout  Kerala
State  in  the  Scheduled  Caste  list.   After  inclusion  of  the  Thandan
Community throughout the State  in  the  Scheduled  Caste  list,  the  State
Government  issued  instructions    to   the   caste   certificate   issuing
authorities not to issue Scheduled Caste  certificates  to  the  members  of
Thandan Community stating that Thandan Community  of  Malabar  is  synonymed
Ezhava/Thiyya Community.  The purport of the  aforesaid  considerations  was
to clarify that Ezhava/Thiyya Community in  Malabar  was  not  the  same  as
Thandan Community and those belonging to Ezhava/Thiyya Community  could  not
claim the status of Scheduled Caste category by equating  themselves  to  be
the members of Thandan Community.   Certain  writ  petitions  were  directly
filed in the High Court questioning the  validity  of  the  aforesaid  order
dated 24.11.1987.  Some of the persons had filed the writ petitions  in  the
High Court of Kerala which were decided by the High Court  one  way  or  the
other and those decisions were  also  challenged  before  this  Court.   All
these writ petitions and appeals were decided together.

6.    The principal question in the said  writ  petitions  and  appeals  was
with regard to the validity of the decisions of the State of Kerala  not  to
treat members of  Thandan  Community  belonging  to  the  erstwhile  Malabar
District, including the present Palakkad District of the  State  of  Kerala,
as the members of the Scheduled Castes.  This Court noted that  Article  366
(24) of the Constitution of India defines the expression “Scheduled  Castes”
to mean “such castes, races or tribes or parts  of  or  groups  within  such
castes, races or tribes as are deemed under  Article  341  to  be  Scheduled
Castes  for  the  purposes  of  this  Constitution.”   Under  Article   341,
President is empowered to specify the castes, races or tribes  or  parts  of
or groups within castes, races or tribes which shall  for  the  purposes  of
this Constitution be deemed to be  Scheduled  Castes  in  relation  to  that
State  or  Union  Territory,  as  the  case  may  be.   Parliament  is  also
empowered, by the said Article, to make law to include in  or  exclude  from
the list of Scheduled Castes specified  in  a  notification  issued  by  the
President under the said provision.  The  President,  in  consultation  with
the  Governors  and  Rajpramukhs  of  the  various  States  had  issued  The
Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 specifying various castes to  be
Scheduled Castes in respect of different States.  Part XVI  thereof  related
to the then State  of  Travancore-Cochin.   At  item  22  of  Part  XVI  was
specified the caste Thandan for the  purposes  of  the  entire  State.   The
Constitution Scheduled  Castes  (Modification)  Order,  1956,  modified  the
Scheduled Castes Order.  In the list in Part V, applicable to the  State  of
Kerala (the successor to the State of Travancore-Cochin), at  item  14,  was
specified the caste Thandan for the purposes of the entirety  of  the  State
except  Malabar  District.   The  Scheduled  Castes  and  Scheduled   Tribes
(Amendment) Act, 1976 came into force on 27.07.1977.  In the First  Schedule
thereof, under Part VII  relative  to  the  State  of  Kerala,  Thandan  was
specified at item 61.  In Part VII only in respect of  two  castes,  namely,
Boyan and Malayan, were specific areas of the State  of  Kerala  designated.
In other words, all other castes listed in Part VII, including Thandan  were
Scheduled Castes for  the  purposes  of  the  entirety  of  the  State.   On
17.05.1979, the Government of Kerala issued an order which noted  that  upon
the coming into force on 27.07.1977, of the Scheduled Castes  and  Scheduled
Tribes (Amendment) Act, 1976, the Thandan community throughout the State  of
Kerala came to be included in the list  of  Scheduled  Castes.   As  certain
complaints  were  received  to  the  effect  that  there  was   section   of
Ezhavas/Thiyyas of Malabar area and of certain Taluks  of  Trichur  District
who were called Thandans but have  nothing  in  common  with  the  Scheduled
Caste Thandans.  After going through these  complaints,  the  Government  of
Kerala issued the Order dated 15.10.1984 stating that after  reconsideration
of the matter in all respects, the 1979 Order was  cancelled  and  “Thandans
throughout Kerala would be  treated  as  members  of  Scheduled  Castes  and
Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment)  Act,  1976  and  Community  Certificate
issued accordingly”.  This was modified by another  order  dated  24.11.1987
which further added that  while  issuing  caste  certificates,  the  Revenue
authorities  should  clarify  after  proper  verification  that  the  person
concerned belongs to Thandan caste and not Ezhava/Thiyya.   As  pointed  out
above, this order was under challenge before this Court.

7.    The Court proceeded on the basis that the State Government  was  right
in saying that there is  a  section  of  Ezhava/Thiyya  community  which  is
called Thandan in the Malabar District.   Notwithstanding  the  above,  this
Court ruled that so long as Thandan was mentioned as Scheduled Caste in  the
notification, Ezhava/Thiyya community which is also called  Thandan  in  the
Malabar District would get the benefit  thereof  and  would  be  treated  as
Scheduled Caste persons.  The discussion in  this  behalf  is  contained  in
Paras 16, 17 and 18 of the judgment, which reads as under:
“16.  Article 341 empowers the President to specify not only  castes,  races
or tribes which shall be deemed to be Scheduled  Castes  in  relation  to  a
State but also “parts of or groups within castes,  races  or  tribes”  which
shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to a State. By reason  of
Article 341 a part or group or section of a caste, race or tribe, which,  as
a whole, is not specified as a  Scheduled  Caste,  may  be  specified  as  a
Scheduled Caste. Assuming,  therefore,  that  there  is  a  section  of  the
Ezhavas/Thiyyas community (which is not  specified  as  a  Scheduled  Caste)
which is called Thandan in some parts of Malabar area, that section is  also
entitled to be treated as a Scheduled Caste,  for  Thandans  throughout  the
State are deemed to be a Scheduled Caste by reason of the provisions of  the
Scheduled Castes Order as it now stands. Once Thandans throughout the  State
are entitled to be treated as a Scheduled Caste by reason of  the  Scheduled
Castes Order as it now stands, it is not open to  the  State  Government  to
say otherwise, as it has purported to do in the 1987 order.

17.  We may usefully draw attention to the judgment  of  a  Bench  of  three
learned Judges of this Court in Srish Kumar Choudhury v.  State  of  Tripura
(1990 Supp. SCC  220).  This  judgment  considered  the  Constitution  Bench
judgments in B. Basavalingappa v. D. Munichinnappa ((1965) 1  SCR  316)  and
Bhaiyalal  v.  Harikishan  Singh  ((1965)  2  SCR  877)  and  certain  other
judgments. It held that the two Constitution Bench judgments indicated  that
any amendment to the Presidential Orders could only be by  legislation.  The
Court could not assume  jurisdiction  and  order  an  enquiry  to  determine
whether  the  terms  of  the  Presidential  Order  included   a   particular
community.  A  State  Government  was  entitled  to   initiate   appropriate
proposals  for  modification  in  cases  where   it   was   satisfied   that
modifications  were  necessary  and,  if  after  appropriate  enquiry,   the
authorities were satisfied that a modification was  required,  an  amendment
could be undertaken as provided by the Constitution.

18. These judgments leave no doubt that the Scheduled Castes  Order  has  to
be applied as it stands and no enquiry can be held or  evidence  let  in  to
determine whether or not  some  particular  community  falls  within  it  or
outside it. No action to modify the plain effect  of  the  Scheduled  Castes
Order, except as contemplated by Article 341, is valid.”

8.    The effect of  the  aforesaid  judgment,  or  the  ratio  thereof,  is
pointed out succinctly a recent judgment of this Court  in  R.  Unnikrishnan
and another v. V.K. Mahanudevan and others[2] in the following words:

“32.  What followed from the above is that Thandans, regardless  of  whether
they were Ezhuvas/Thiyyas known as Thandans belonging to the  Malabar  area,
were by reason of the above pronouncement of  this  Court  in  Palghat  case
held entitled to the benefit of being treated  as  Scheduled  Caste  by  the
Presidential  Order,  any  enquiry  into  their  being  Thandans  who   were
Scheduled  Caste  having  been  forbidden   by   this   Court   as   legally
impermissible. The distinction which the State  Government  sought  to  make
between Ezhuva/Thiyyas known as Thandans like  the  respondent  on  the  one
hand and Thandans who fell in the Scheduled Caste category,  on  the  other,
thus stood abolished by reason of the above pronouncement. No such  argument
could be countenanced against the respondent especially when it is  not  the
case of the appellants that the respondent is not  an  Ezhuva  from  Malabar
area of the State of Kerala.”


9.    It so happened that after the judgment in Palghat Jilla's case,  there
was an amendment of the Presidential Order  in  terms  of  the  Constitution
(Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Act, 2007 which received the assent  of
the President on 29.08.2007.  By this Act, following changes  were  made  in
Part VIII – Kerala for Entry 61:
“61.  Thandan (excluding Ezhuvas and Thiyyas who are known  as  Thandan,  in
the erstwhile Cochin and Malabar areas  and  carpenters  who  are  known  as
Thachan, in the erstwhile Cochin and Travancore State).”

10.         It, thus, becomes clear that after the  said  judgment,  Ezhuvas
and Thiyyas who are also known  as  Thandan  in  the  erstwhile  Cochin  and
Malabar are no longer Scheduled Castes in the  State  of  Kerala.   However,
this amendment is prospective and, therefore, the aforesaid change  position
become effective only from 30.08.2007,  the  date  when  the  amendment  was
notified.  In R. Unnikrishnan's judgment, this  Court  made  it  clear  that
having regard to the ratio of Palghat  Jilla's  case,  Ezhuvas  and  Thiyyas
known as Thandans were entitled to  be  treated  as  Scheduled  Castes  till
29.08.2007 and such an entitlement could not be taken away  retrospectively.
  The  Court  was,  thus,  categorical  in  holding  that  those  who   were
Ezhuvas/Thiyyas known as Thandans in Cochin  and  Malabar  region  and  were
given the benefit of Scheduled Caste status prior to  30.08.2007  could  not
be deprived of such benefit already bestowed on  them.   We  would  like  to
reproduce the following discussions from this judgment:


“36.  The law declared by this Court in  Palghat  Jilla  case  entitled  all
Thandans including those who  were  Ezhuvas  and  Thiyyas  from  Cochin  and
Malabar region to claim the Scheduled Caste status. That  entitlement  could
be taken away retrospectively only by specific provisions to that effect  or
by necessary intendment. We see no such specific provision or intendment  in
the amending legislation  to  hold  that  the  entitlement  was  taken  away
retrospectively so as to affect even those who had  already  benefited  from
the reservation for Scheduled Caste candidates. At any rate,  a  certificate
issued to an Ezhuva known as Thandan who was a native of Cochin and  Malabar
region of the State could not be withdrawn as  the  Constitution  (Scheduled
Castes) Order, 1950 did not make a distinction between  the  two  categories
of Thandans till the Amendment Act of 2007 for  the  first  time  introduced
such a difference.

37.  That apart, the question of ouster of  Ezhuvas  and  Thiyyas  known  as
Thandan on account of  the  confusion  that  prevailed  for  a  considerable
length of time till the decision of this Court in Palghat Jilla  case  would
be unjustified both in  law  and  on  the  principles  of  equity  and  good
conscience.

                         xxx         xxx        xxx

40.  In Sandeep Subhash Parate v. State of Maharashtra ((2006) 7  SCC  501),
also dealing with a similar confusion  between  “Halba”  and  “Halba-Koshti”
and applying the principle underlying in Milind case ((2001) 1 SCC 4),  this
Court held that ouster of candidates who have  obtained  undeserved  benefit
will be justified only where the court finds the claim to be bona  fide.  In
State of Maharashtra v. Sanjay K. Nimje ((2007)  14  SCC  481),  this  Court
held that the grant of relief would  depend  upon  the  bona  fides  of  the
person  who  has  obtained  the  appointment  and   upon   the   facts   and
circumstances of each case.


41.  In the instant case there is no evidence of lack of bona fides  by  the
respondent. The protection available  under  the  decision  of  Milind  case
could, therefore, be admissible even to  the  respondent.  It  follows  that
even if on a true and  correct  construction  of  the  expression  “Thandan”
appearing in  the  Constitution  (Scheduled  Castes)  Order,  2007  did  not
include “Ezhuvas” and “Thiyyas” known as “Thandan”  and  assuming  that  the
two were different at all  relevant  points  of  time,  the  fact  that  the
position was not  clear  till  the  Amendment  Act  of  2007  made  a  clear
distinction between the two, would entitle all those appointed to serve  the
State up to the date the amending  Act  came  into  force,  to  continue  in
service.”

11.   The cumulative reading of the aforesaid  two  judgments  viz.  in  the
case of Palaghat Jilla and R.  Unnikrishnan,  clinches  the  controversy  by
tilting the balance in favour of the appellant herein. We  may  record  that
the appellants have laboured to demonstrate that they are in  fact  Thandans
on the basis of various documents filed by them and have attentive to  argue
that the Scrutiny Committee did not arrive at a correct decision.   However,
it is not even necessary to go into  this  aspect  in  the  facts  of  these
cases. As pointed out above, the  appellant  was  treated  as  Thandan  and,
thus, belonging to Scheduled caste community on the basis of  the  Scheduled
Castes and  Scheduled  Tribes  Orders  (Amendment)  Act  1976  and  she  was
appointed as High School Assistant (Physical Science) in  Government  School
on 03.02.1989 treating her as Scheduled Caste.  Even if we  proceed  on  the
basis that she belongs to Ezhuvas/Thiyyas, that  is  irrelevant  insofar  as
the appellant is contained as these castes were treated as part  of  Thandan
Community and were held entitled to be treated  as  Scheduled  Caste.   This
principle  is  categorically  stated   in   Palaghat   Jilla's   case.    R.
Unnikrishnan's  case  clarified  that  the  position  changes  only   w.e.f.
30.08.2007 with the Amendment Act of 2007 when Thiyyas and Ezhuvas  are  not
to be treated as part of Thandan and, thus, Scheduled Caste  but  those  who
have already conferred the benefit would entitled to continue  to  reap  the
fruits thereof.
12.  In the another appeal also, we  find  that  appellant  was  treated  as
belonging to Thandan Community and given benefit much prior to 2007.
13.   For  the  reasons  stated  above,  these  appeals  succeed   and   are
accordingly allowed.  Since the appellants have been  continued  in  service
because of the interim order passed by  this  Court,  they  are  treated  as
validly appointed giving them the benefit  of  members  of  Scheduled  Caste
category.  The impugned judgment is accordingly set aside  thereby  allowing
the writ petitions filed by  the  appellants  and  quashing  the  orders  of
respondent Nos. 2 and 3.  The appellants shall also be entitled to the  cost
of these proceedings.

                             .............................................J.
                                                                (A.K. SIKRI)


                             .............................................J.
                                                             (R. K. AGRAWAL)

NEW DELHI;
APRIL 13, 2016.

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[1]   (1994) 1 SCC 359
[2]   (2014) 4 SCC 434