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Thursday, January 10, 2013

entered into a criminal conspiracy to cheat the Regional Passport Office, Trichy in order to obtain passports on the basis of creating ante- dated passport applications with duplicate file numbers, so as to make them appear as old cases, accompanied by forged enclosures such as police verification certificates etc. = Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946- “5. Extension of powers and jurisdiction of special police establishment to other areas.—(1) The Central Government may by order extend to any area (including Railway areas), in a State, not being a Union Territory the powers and jurisdiction of members of the Delhi Special Police Establishment for the investigation of any offences or classes of offences specified in a notification under Section 3. (2) When by an order under sub-section (1) the powers and jurisdiction of members of the said police establishment are extended to any such area, a member thereof may, subject of any orders which the Central Government may make in this behalf, discharge the functions of a police officer in that area and shall, while so discharging such functions, be deemed to be a member of a police force of that area and be vested with the powers, functions and privileges and be subject to the liabilities of a police officer belonging to that police station. (3) where any such order under sub-section (1) is made in relation to any area, then, without prejudice to the provisions of sub-section (2) any member of the Delhi Special Police Establishment of or above the rank of Sub-Inspector may subject to any orders which the Central Government may make in this behalf, exercise the powers of the officer in charge of a police station in that area and when so exercising such powers, shall be deemed to be an officer in charge of a police station discharging the functions of such an officer within the limits of his station.” : it is very well established by the prosecution that the filled up passport applications were submitted by A-5 (appellant herein) on behalf of her employer A-3. Further, in majority of passport applications (Exh. P-2 to P-43), bogus particulars were filled by A-5 (appellant herein), at Trichy. The prosecution has also established that A-5 has given false particulars regarding the place of residence of applicants’ in the passport applications in view of her admission in 313 statement that she was working in Goodluck Travels and assisting Rajendran (A-3) in preparing applications and filing them before the Passport Office as well as handling the affairs connected therewith which clearly prove that A-5 has filled up the said passport applications (Exh.P-2 to P-43). We are also satisfied that the prosecution has clearly established that false documents were made for the purpose of cheating and those documents were used as genuine for obtaining passports. 25) In the light of the overwhelming evidence placed by the prosecution, analyzed by the trial Court and affirmed by the High Court, interference by this Court with concurrent findings of fact by the courts below is not warranted except where there is some serious infirmity in the appreciation of evidence and the findings are perverse. Further, this Court will not ordinarily interfere with appreciation of evidence by the High Court and re-appreciation is permissible only if an error of law or procedure and conclusion arrived are perverse. 26) Taking note of the fact that the appellant is having a small child, while confirming the conviction we reduce the sentence to six months from two years. 27) With the above modification i.e., reduction of sentence, the appeal stands disposed of.


                                     REPORTABLE


                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

                       CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION


                      1 CRIMINAL APPEAL No.  31 OF 2013

               (Arising out of S.L.P. (Crl.) No. 9190 of 2011)


Hema                                            .... Appellant(s)

            Versus

State, thr. Inspector of Police,
Madras                                                         ....
Respondent(s)


                                      2



                               J U D G M E N T


P.Sathasivam,J.

1)    Leave granted.
2)    This appeal is directed against the final judgment  and  common  order
dated 29.04.2011 passed by the Madurai Bench of the  Madras  High  Court  in
Criminal Appeal (MD) No. 37 of 2004 whereby the  High  Court  dismissed  the
appeal filed by the appellant herein  (A-5  therein)  while  confirming  the
judgment dated 28.07.2004, passed by the Court of  Principal  Special  Judge
for CBI Cases, Madurai.
3)   Brief facts:
a)    According to the prosecution,
during  the  year  1992,  the  appellant
herein (A-5), along with other accused persons  (A-1  to  A-4  therein)
had entered into a  criminal  conspiracy  to  cheat  the  Regional  Passport
Office, Trichy in order to obtain passports on the basis of  creating  ante-
dated passport applications with duplicate file numbers, so as to make  them
appear as old  cases,  accompanied  by  forged  enclosures  such  as  police
verification certificates etc.  
In pursuance of  the  said  conspiracy,  A-2
being the Lower Division Clerk  in  the  Regional  Passport  Office,  Trichy
fraudulently received and processed 42 forged  passport  applications  filed
by one Goodluck Travels, Trichy run by A-3 with the assistance of A-4 and A-
5 (the appellant herein) and made false endorsement  of  reference  numbers,
fee certifications etc. and A-1, being the Superintendent  of  the  Regional
Passport Office, Trichy, by abusing his official  position,  granted  orders
for the issue of passports in respect of the said 42 applications.
b)    In pursuance of the same, on 09.02.1993, the District Crime Branch  at
Ramanathapuram, Tamil Nadu received a letter from Deputy  Superintendent  of
Police (DSP), DCRB Ramanad, containing a complaint  given  by  the  Passport
Officer, Trichy.  
On the basis of the same, a case was  registered  by  the
District Crime Branch,  Ramanad  as  Criminal  Case  No.  1  of  1993  under Sections 419, 420, 465 and 467 of the Indian  Penal  Code,  1860  (in  short‘the IPC’).
c)    When the Inspector of Police, DCB, took up the investigation, the  CBI
intervened and  filed  a  First  Information  Report  being  RC-21(A)/93  on
11.05.1973 under Section 120-B read with Sections 420, 467, 468 and  471  of
the IPC and Section 13(2) read with Section 13(1)(d) of  the  Prevention  of
Corruption Act, 1988 (in short ‘the  PC  Act’).   
After  investigation,  the
case was committed to the Special Court for CBI Cases, Madurai and  numbered
as CC No. 38 of 1996.  On 01.08.1996,  
the  Special  Court,  framed  charges
under Section 120-B of IPC against A-1 to A-5 and 

under  Sections  420,  465 and 471 of  IPC against the appellant  herein  (A-5)  and  

specific  charges under Section 13(1)(d) read with Section 13(2) of the  PC  Act  against  A-1
and 
under Sections 420, 467, 468 and 471 of IPC and under  Section  13(1)(d)
read with Section 13(2) of the PC Act against A-2 and 

under  Sections  420,465 and 471 of IPC against A-3.
d)    By order dated 28.07.2004, the Principal Special Judge  convicted  and
sentenced A-1 to A-3 and A-5.
In the present appeal, we are concerned  only
with A-5 who was convicted and sentenced to undergo RI  for  2  years  along
with a fine of Rs.5,000/-, in default, to further undergo RI  for  6  months
for each of the offences under Sections 120-B, 420 read with  Sections  511,
465 and 471 of IPC. (Total fine of Rs. 15,000/-).
e)    Aggrieved by the said order of conviction and sentence, the  appellant
herein filed Criminal Appeal No. 37 of 2004 before the Madurai Bench of  the
Madras High Court.  By impugned  order  dated  29.04.2011,  the  High  Court
dismissed the same along with other set  of  appeals  filed  in  respect  of
other accused and confirmed their conviction and  sentence  awarded  by  the
trial Court.  Being aggrieved by the judgment of the High Court,  A-5  alone
has preferred this appeal by way of special leave before this Court.
4)    Heard Mr. S. Prabhakaran, learned counsel for the  appellant  and  Mr.
H.P. Rawal, learned Additional Solicitor General for the respondent-CBI.
Contentions:
5)    Mr. S. Prabhakaran, learned counsel for the  appellant,  after  taking
us through the entire materials including the order of the trial  Court  and
the High Court submitted that the initial proceedings  by  the  State  Crime
Branch and the subsequent  proceedings  by  the  CBI  cannot  be  permitted,
hence, the entire investigation is  to  be  thrown  out.   In  other  words,
according to him, parallel proceedings by the State  Crime  Branch  and  the
CBI are not permissible.  In addition to the same,  he  submitted  that  the
original seals and rubber stamps  have  not  been  seized  from  the  police
officials and those were not produced by the I.O. to prove  that  the  seals
and stamps were forged.  He  further  submitted  that  the  prosecution  has
failed to exhibit the FSL report with regard to the impression of  seals  of
M.Os 1 to 3 alleged to  have  been  recovered  by  the  prosecution  at  the
instance of A-3 despite the same were being sent by Shri Madavanan  (PW-30),
Inspector of Police.  According to him,  the  specimen  signatures  of  Shri
Natarajan (PW-16), DSP, and R. Muniyandi (PW-29), Sub-Inspector  of  Police,
have not been sent to the hand writing expert  for  his  opinion.   Further,
the seal and specimen signature of attesting officer, viz., Dr.  Muthu  (PW-
18) were not collected by the CBI  to  prove  that  the  seal  and  specimen
signature were forged.  There is no document or indication found in  Exh.P-3
to P-43 to show that they were sent by M/s Goodluck Travels to the  Passport
Office at Trichy.  Finally, he submitted that inasmuch as  the  certificates
issued by the Village Administrative Officers that the applicants  were  not
the residents of the place mentioned in the application form, their  reports
have no legal sanctity in the absence of certification by the Tahsildar.
6)     Mr.  Rawal,  learned  ASG  appearing  for  the  CBI,  met   all   the
contentions.  He submitted that the claim that parallel proceedings  by  the
District Crime Branch (DCB) and the CBI, though not urged before  the  trial
Court, High Court and even in the grounds of appeal, however,  there  is  no
legal basis for such claim.  Even otherwise, according to him, if  there  is
any defect in the investigation, the accused cannot  be  acquitted  on  this
ground.  By taking us through the evidence relied  on  by  the  prosecution,
findings by the trial Court and the High Court, learned ASG  submitted  that
in view of concurrent  decision  of  two  courts,  in  the  absence  of  any
perversity,  interference  by  this  Court  exercising  jurisdiction   under
Article 136 is not warranted.
Discussion:
7)    With regard to the  main  objection  as  to  parallel  proceedings  as
claimed by Mr. Prabhakaran, learned counsel for  the  appellant,  as  stated
earlier, this objection was not raised either  before  the  trial  Court  or
before the High Court and even in the grounds of appeal before  this  Court,
however, considering the fact that we are dealing with a  matter  pertaining
to criminal prosecution, we heard the counsel on this  aspect.   He  pointed
out that the first FIR dated 09.02.1993 was registered at  the  instance  of
the complaint by Shri V.A. Britto, Passport Officer, Trichy.  The  said  FIR
has been marked as Exh.P-214.  He also pointed out that the second  FIR,  at
the instance of the Special Police Establishment, Madras Branch, was  lodged
on 11.05.1993 against three persons, namely, (1) P.  Durai,  Superintendent,
Passport Office, Trichy (2) P.M. Rajendran,  LDC,  Passport  Office,  Trichy
and (3) M/s Goodluck Travels, Thiruvadanai, Ramanad  District,  Tamil  Nadu.
By taking us through the said reports, particularly,  the  second  FIR,  the
counsel for the appellant has pointed out that the said report  proceeds  on
the basis of credible information from a  reliable  source.   The  same  was
entertained and registered as R.C.No. 21(A)/93 by S. Arulnadu, Inspector  of
Police, SPE:CBI:ACB:Madras.  By pointing out these details, it is  contended
by the counsel for the appellant that the course adopted by the  prosecution
in examining certain persons by the DCB, namely, the State  Police  and  the
remaining persons by the CBI is not permissible.
8)    It is settled law that not only fair trial, but fair investigation  is
also part of constitutional rights guaranteed under Articles 20  and  21  of
the  Constitution  of  India.   Accordingly,  investigation  must  be  fair,
transparent and judicious and it is the immediate  requirement  of  rule  of
law.
As observed by this  Court  in  Babubhai  vs.  State  of  Gujarat  and
Others, 2010 (12) SCC 254, the Investigating Officer cannot be permitted  to
conduct an investigation in a tainted and biased  manner.   It  was  further
observed that where non-interference of the Court  would  ultimately  result
in failure of justice,  the  Court  must  interfere.   Though  reliance  was
placed on the above decision by the appellant, it is not in dispute that  in
that case, the High Court has concluded by giving detailed reasons that  the
investigation has been totally one-sided based  on  malafide.   Further,  in
that case, the charge-sheets filed by the Investigating Agency in  both  the
cases were against the same set of accused.  This was not the  situation  in
the case on hand.  Though the State Crime  Branch  initiated  investigation,
subsequently, the same was taken over by the CBI considering the volume  and
importance of the offence.
9)    In this regard, Mr. Rawal, learned ASG by  drawing  our  attention  to
the relevant provisions of the 
Delhi Special Police Establishment Act,  1946
submitted that the course adopted by the CBI  is,  undoubtedly,  within  the
ambit of the said Act and legally sustainable.  Section 5 of  the  said  Act
speaks about extension of powers and jurisdiction of  special  establishment
to other areas.  Section 5 of the Act is  relevant  for  our  purpose  which
reads as under:-
      “5.  Extension  of  powers  and   jurisdiction   of   special   police
      establishment to other areas.—(1) The Central Government may by  order
      extend to any area (including Railway areas), in a State, not being  a
      Union Territory the powers and jurisdiction of members  of  the  Delhi
      Special Police Establishment for the investigation of any offences  or
      classes of offences specified in a notification under Section 3.
      (2) When by an order under sub-section (1) the powers and jurisdiction
      of members of the said police establishment are extended to  any  such
      area, a member thereof may, subject of any orders  which  the  Central
      Government may make in this  behalf,  discharge  the  functions  of  a
      police officer in that area  and  shall,  while  so  discharging  such
      functions, be deemed to be a member of a police force of that area and
      be vested with the powers, functions and privileges and be subject  to
      the liabilities of a police officer belonging to that police station.


      (3) where any such order under sub-section (1) is made in relation  to
      any area, then, without prejudice to the provisions of sub-section (2)
      any member of the Delhi Special Police Establishment of or  above  the
      rank of Sub-Inspector may subject to  any  orders  which  the  Central
      Government may make in this behalf, exercise the powers of the officer
      in charge of a police station in that area and when so exercising such
      powers, shall be deemed to be an officer in charge of a police station
      discharging the functions of such an officer within the limits of  his
      station.”


Sub-section (3) which was inserted with effect from 18.12.1964 by Act 40  of
1964 makes it clear that on  the  orders  of  the  Central  Government,  any
member of the Delhi Special Police Establishment is  permitted  to  exercise
the powers of the officer in charge of a police station  in  that  area  and
while exercising such powers, he shall be deemed to be an officer in  charge
of a police station concerned discharging  the  functions  of  such  officer
within the limits of his station.  In the light of the mandates as  provided
in sub-section (3), we are  of  the  view  that  learned  ASG  is  right  in
contending  that  there  is  no  infirmity  or  flaw   in   continuing   the
investigation by the officers of the CBI in  spite  of  the  fact  that  the
State  Crime  Branch  registered  a  complaint  and   proceeded   with   the
investigation to a certain extent.
10)   It is also settled law that for certain defects in investigation,  the
accused cannot be acquitted.  This aspect has  been  considered  in  various
decisions.  In C. Muniappan and Others vs. State of  Tamil  Nadu,  2010  (9)
SCC 567, the following discussion and conclusion are relevant which  are  as
follows:-
      “55. There may be highly defective investigation in a  case.  However,
      it is to be examined as to whether there is any lapse by  the  IO  and
      whether due to such lapse any benefit should be given to the  accused.
      The law on  this  issue  is  well  settled  that  the  defect  in  the
      investigation by itself cannot be a ground for acquittal.  If  primacy
      is given to such  designed  or  negligent  investigations  or  to  the
      omissions or  lapses  by  perfunctory  investigation,  the  faith  and
      confidence of the people in the criminal justice administration  would
      be eroded. Where  there  has  been  negligence  on  the  part  of  the
      investigating agency or omissions, etc. which  resulted  in  defective
      investigation, there is a legal obligation on the part of the court to
      examine the prosecution evidence dehors  such  lapses,  carefully,  to
      find out whether the said evidence is reliable  or  not  and  to  what
      extent it is reliable and as  to  whether  such  lapses  affected  the
      object of finding out the truth. Therefore, the investigation  is  not
      the solitary area for judicial  scrutiny  in  a  criminal  trial.  The
      conclusion of the trial in the case cannot be allowed to depend solely
      on the probity of investigation.

11)   In Dayal Singh and Others vs. State of Uttaranchal, 2012 (8) SCC  263,
while reiterating the principles rendered  in  C.  Muniappan  (supra),  this
Court held thus:


      “18.  … Merely because PW 3 and PW 6  have  failed  to  perform  their
      duties in accordance with the requirements of law, and there has  been
      some defect in the investigation, it will not be to the benefit of the
      accused persons to the extent that they would be entitled to an  order
      of acquittal on this ground. …”

12)    In  Gajoo  vs.  State  of  Uttarakhand,  2012  (9)  SCC  532,  
while
reiterating the  same  principle  again,  this  Court  held  that  defective
investigation, unless affects the very root of the prosecution case  and  is
prejudicial  to  the  accused  should  not  be   an   aspect   of   material
consideration by the Court.  Since,  the  Court  has  adverted  to  all  the
earlier decisions with regard to defective investigation and outcome of  the
same, it is useful to refer the dictum laid down in those cases:







      20. In regard to defective investigation, this Court in Dayal Singh v.
      State of Uttaranchal while dealing with the  cases  of  omissions  and
      commissions by the investigating officer, and duty  of  the  court  in
      such cases, held as under: (SCC pp. 280-83, paras 27-36)




           “27. Now, we may advert to the duty of the court in such  cases.
           In Sathi Prasad v. State of U.P this Court  stated  that  it  is
           well settled that if  the  police  records  become  suspect  and
           investigation perfunctory, it becomes the duty of the  court  to
           see if the evidence given in court should  be  relied  upon  and
           such lapses ignored. Noticing the possibility  of  investigation
           being designedly defective, this Court in Dhanaj Singh v.  State
           of Punjab, held: (SCC p.     657, para 5)




           ‘5. In the case of a defective investigation the court has to be
           circumspect in evaluating the evidence.  But  it  would  not  be
           right in acquitting an accused person solely on account  of  the
           defect; to do so [pic]would tantamount to playing into the hands
           of the investigating officer if the investigation is  designedly
           defective.’


      28. Dealing with the cases of omission and commission,  the  Court  in
      Paras Yadav v. State of Bihar enunciated the principle, in  conformity
      with the  previous  judgments,  that  if  the  lapse  or  omission  is
      committed by the investigating agency, negligently or  otherwise,  the
      prosecution evidence is required to be examined dehors such  omissions
      to find out  whether  the  said  evidence  is  reliable  or  not.  The
      contaminated conduct of officials should  not  stand  in  the  way  of
      evaluating the evidence by the courts, otherwise the designed mischief
      would be perpetuated and justice would be denied  to  the  complainant
      party.


      29. In Zahira Habibullah Sheikh (5) v. State  of  Gujarat,  the  Court
      noticed the importance of the role of witnesses in a  criminal  trial.
      The importance and primacy of the quality  of  trial  process  can  be
      observed from the words of Bentham, who states that witnesses are  the
      eyes and ears of justice. The court issued  a  caution  that  in  such
      situations, there is a greater responsibility of the court on the  one
      hand and on the other the courts must seriously deal with persons  who
      are involved in creating designed investigation. The Court held  that:
      (SCC p.     398, para 42)


           ‘42.  Legislative  measures  to  emphasise  prohibition  against
           tampering with witness, victim  or  informant  have  become  the
           imminent  and  inevitable  need  of  the  day.  Conducts   which
           illegitimately  affect   the   presentation   of   evidence   in
           proceedings before the courts have to be seriously  and  sternly
           dealt with. There should  not  be  any  undue  anxiety  to  only
           protect the interest of the accused. That would  be  unfair,  as
           noted above, to the needs  of  the  society.  On  the  contrary,
           efforts should be to ensure a fair trial where the  accused  and
           the prosecution both get a fair deal.  Public  interest  in  the
           proper  administration  of  justice  must  be  given   as   much
           importance, if not more,  as  the  interest  of  the  individual
           accused.  In  this  courts  have  a   vital   role   to   play.’
           (emphasis in original)


        30. With the passage of time, the law also developed and the dictum
        of the court emphasised that  in  a  criminal  case,  the  fate  of
        proceedings cannot always be left entirely  in  the  hands  of  the
        parties. Crime is a public wrong, in breach and violation of public
        rights and duties, which affects the community as a  whole  and  is
        harmful to the society in general.


        31. Reiterating the above principle, this Court in NHRC v. State of
        Gujarat held as under: (SCC pp. 777-78, para 6)
           [pic]‘6. … “35. … The concept of  fair  trial  entails  familiar
           triangulation of interests of the accused, the  victim  and  the
           society and it is the community that acts through the State  and
           prosecuting agencies. Interest of society is not to  be  treated
           completely with disdain and as persona  non  grata.  The  courts
           have always been  considered  to  have  an  overriding  duty  to
           maintain   public   confidence   in   the   administration    of
           justice—often referred to as the duty to  vindicate  and  uphold
           the ‘majesty of the law’.  Due  administration  of  justice  has
           always been viewed as a  continuous  process,  not  confined  to
           determination of the particular case, protecting its ability  to
           function as a court of law in the future as in the  case  before
           it. If a criminal court is to  be  an  effective  instrument  in
           dispensing justice, the Presiding  Judge  must  cease  to  be  a
           spectator and a mere recording machine by becoming a participant
           in the trial evincing intelligence, active interest  and  elicit
           all  relevant  materials  necessary  for  reaching  the  correct
           conclusion, to find out the truth, and administer  justice  with
           fairness and  impartiality  both  to  the  parties  and  to  the
           community it serves. The courts administering  criminal  justice
           cannot turn a blind eye to vexatious or oppressive conduct  that
           has occurred in relation to proceedings, even if a fair trial is
           still possible, except at the risk of undermining the fair  name
           and  standing  of  the  Judges  as  impartial  and   independent
           adjudicators.” (Zahira Habibullah case,  SCC  p.      395,  para
           35)’


      32. In State of Karnataka v. K. Yarappa Reddy this Court occasioned to
      consider the similar question of defective investigation as to whether
      any manipulation in the  station  house  diary  by  the  investigating
      officer could be put against the prosecution case. This Court, in para
      19, held as follows: (SCC p.      720)


        ‘19. But can the above finding (that the station house diary is not
        genuine) have any inevitable bearing on the other evidence in  this
        case? If the other evidence, on scrutiny,  is  found  credible  and
        acceptable, should the court  be  influenced  by  the  machinations
        demonstrated   by   the   investigating   officer   in   conducting
        investigation or in preparing the records so unscrupulously? It can
        be a guiding principle that as investigation is  not  the  solitary
        area for judicial scrutiny in a criminal trial, the  conclusion  of
        the court in the case cannot be allowed to  depend  solely  on  the
        probity of investigation. It is well-nigh settled that even if  the
        investigation is  illegal  or  even  suspicious  the  rest  of  the
        evidence must be scrutinised independently of  the  impact  of  it.
        Otherwise the criminal trial will  plummet  to  the  level  of  the
        investigating officers  ruling  the  roost.  The  court  must  have
        predominance  and  pre-eminence  in  criminal   trials   over   the
        [pic]action taken  by  the  investigating  officers.  The  criminal
        justice should not be made a casualty for the wrongs  committed  by
        the investigating officers in the case.  In  other  words,  if  the
        court  is  convinced  that  the  testimony  of  a  witness  to  the
        occurrence is true the court is  free  to  act  on  it  albeit  the
        investigating officer’s suspicious role in the case.’




      33. In Ram Bali v. State of U.P. the judgment in Karnel Singh v. State
      of M.P. was reiterated and this Court had  observed  that:  (Ram  Bali
      case15, SCC p.   604, para 12)
        ‘12. … In case of defective  investigation  the  court  has  to  be
        circumspect [while] evaluating the evidence. But it  would  not  be
        right in acquitting an accused person  solely  on  account  of  the
        defect; to do so would tantamount to playing into the hands of  the
        investigation  officer   if   the   investigation   is   designedly
        defective.’



      34. Where our criminal justice  system  provides  safeguards  of  fair
      trial and innocent till proven guilty to an  accused,  there  it  also
      contemplates that a criminal trial is meant for doing justice to  all,
      the  accused,  the  society  and  a  fair  chance  to  prove  to   the
      prosecution. Then alone can law and order be maintained. The courts do
      not merely discharge the function to ensure that no  innocent  man  is
      punished, but also that a guilty man does not escape. Both are  public
      duties of the Judge. During the  course  of  the  trial,  the  learned
      Presiding Judge is expected to  work  objectively  and  in  a  correct
      perspective. Where the prosecution attempts to misdirect the trial  on
      the basis of a  perfunctory  or  designedly  defective  investigation,
      there the court is to be deeply cautious and ensure that despite  such
      an attempt, the determinative process  is  not  subverted.  For  truly
      attaining this object of a ‘fair trial’, the  court  should  leave  no
      stone unturned to do justice and protect the interest of  the  society
      as well.

      35. This brings us to an ancillary issue as to  how  the  court  would
      appreciate the  evidence  in  such  cases.  The  possibility  of  some
      variations in the exhibits, medical  and  ocular  evidence  cannot  be
      ruled out. But it is not that every minor variation  or  inconsistency
      would tilt the balance of justice in favour of the accused. Of course,
      where contradictions and variations are of  a  serious  nature,  which
      apparently or impliedly are destructive of the substantive case sought
      to be proved by the prosecution, they may provide an advantage to  the
      accused. The courts, normally, look at expert evidence with a  greater
      sense of acceptability, but it is equally true that the courts are not
      absolutely guided by the report of the  experts,  especially  if  such
      reports are  perfunctory,  unsustainable  and  are  the  result  of  a
      deliberate attempt to misdirect the prosecution. In Kamaljit Singh  v.
      State of Punjab, the  Court,  while  [pic]dealing  with  discrepancies
      between ocular and medical evidence, held: (SCC p.       159, para 8)

        ‘8. It is trite law that minor variations between medical  evidence
        and ocular evidence do not take away the  primacy  of  the  latter.
        Unless medical evidence in its term goes so far  as  to  completely
        rule out all possibilities whatsoever of injuries taking  place  in
        the manner  stated  by  the  eyewitnesses,  the  testimony  of  the
        eyewitnesses cannot be thrown out.’


      36. Where the eyewitness account is found  credible  and  trustworthy,
      medical opinion pointing  to  alternative  possibilities  may  not  be
      accepted as conclusive.



        ‘34. … The expert witness is expected to put before the  court  all
        materials inclusive of the data which induced him to  come  to  the
        conclusion and enlighten the court on the technical aspect  of  the
        case by  [examining]  the  terms  of  science  so  that  the  court
        although, not  an  expert  may  form  its  own  judgment  on  those
        materials after giving due regard to the expert’s opinion,  because
        once the expert’s opinion is accepted, it is not the opinion of the
        medical officer but [that] of the court.’”


13)   It is clear that merely because of some defect in  the  investigation,
lapse on the part of  the  I.O.,  it  cannot  be  a  ground  for  acquittal.
Further, even if there had been negligence on the part of the  investigating
agency or omissions etc., it is the obligation on the part of the  Court  to
scrutinize the prosecution evidence de hors such lapses to find out  whether
the said evidence is reliable or not and  whether  such  lapses  affect  the
object of finding out the truth.  In the light of the above  principles,  as
noticed, we reject the main  contention  of  the  learned  counsel  for  the
appellant, however, as observed in the above decisions, let us  examine  the
material relied on by the prosecution and find out whether a case  has  been
made out against the appellant.
Discussion as to the merits of the prosecution case:
14)   It is the claim of the appellant that the prosecution has  not  proved
that the travel agency was purported to have been run by S. Rajendran  (A-3)
for the purpose of  submitting  passport  applications.   According  to  the
appellant, Exh.P-2 to P-43 is incorrect.  The said contention is  liable  to
be rejected since Palaniappan (PW-11), who is  the  owner  of  the  building
bearing No.48/9, MCT Building, near Bus Stand, Karaikudi has leased out  the
first floor of the said building to S. Rajendran (A-3) for  the  purpose  of
running a travel agency in the name and style of Goodluck Travels.  Even  in
the cross-examination, PW-11, the owner of the said building, admitted  that
A-3 was a tenant under him.  In addition to the same, it is also clear  from
the evidence of one Dawood  (PW-13)  that  Rajendran  (A-3)  was  running  a
travel agency at Karaikudi in the name and style of  Goodluck  Travels.   It
is also relevant to  point  out  that  as  per  the  evidence  of  Assistant
Registrar, Ramanad District (PW-9), Goodluck Travels  was  registered  as  a
firm in the Office of the District Registrar, Karaikudi.  It is  clear  from
the above materials that A-3 was occupying the said premises  pertaining  to
PW-11 during the period from 1991-93 and he was running a travel  agency  in
that place.
15)   The claim of the appellant that there is  no  evidence  to  show  that
Exh.P-2 to P-43 had been presented by  the  Goodluck  Travels  is  incorrect
since Hema (A-5), who was working as a clerk in the said travel agency of A-
3 has admitted in the statement under Section 313 of the  Code  of  Criminal
Procedure that at the relevant  time  she  was  working  with  the  Goodluck
Travels and she used to submit the passport  applications  in  the  passport
office and receive the passports  from  the  office.   The  above  statement
makes it clear that she  was  assisting  S.  Rajendran  (A-3)  in  preparing
applications and filing them before the  passport  office  and  dealing  the
affairs connected therewith.  This fact  is  also  evident  from  Exh.  P-2,
which is a folder marked on the side of the  prosecution  and  captioned  as
“Goodluck Travels”.
16)    The  other  relevant  aspect  is  the  admissible  portion   of   the
confessional statement of A-3 which is marked as Exh.P-215 and which led  to
the recovery of forged/fabricated rubber stamp seals, M.Os 1 to 3 seized  at
his behest  under  Exh.P-216,  the  Mazahar,  in  the  presence  of  Village
Administrative  Officer  (PW-15)  and  Village   Menial   also   prove   the
prosecution case and disprove the stand of the appellant.
17)   The trial Court, on verification  and  perusal  of  Exh.P-2  to  P-43,
passport applications, noted that the same were filed by  Goodluck  Travels.
It is  pointed  out  that  the  applicant  concerned  in  Exh.P-2  (passport
application) namely, Shri Rasool, authorized M/s Goodluck  Travels  to  deal
with the matter relating to his passport and to  receive  the  same  on  his
behalf.  The evidence of PW-12 and PW-13 also lends credence  to  the  above
aspect.  Further, we  have  already  noted  that  the  appellant  (A-5)  has
admitted in her examination under Section 313  that  she  was  working  with
Goodluck Travels and she used to submit the  applications  in  the  passport
office and receive the passports from the office.
18)   Next, it is contended by the appellant that  the  police  verification
forms, namely, Exh.128 to 136 and 161 to 202 were not proved  to  have  been
forged in the light of the fact that the subsequent  signatures  of  PWs  16
and 29 were not sent to PW-28, the hand writing  expert,  for  his  opinion.
The said contention is liable to be rejected  in  view  of  the  categorical
statement of Shri Selvin (PW-26), DSP, DCRB, Ramanad who has stated that  as
soon as the  personal  particulars,  forms  of  passport  applications  were
received from  the  Passport  Office  for  police  verification,  they  were
entered in the register maintained for the purpose and each application  was
given a number and all the applications were sent to the  respective  Police
Stations for report.  He further explained that after  verification  by  the
officials concerned, the paper would again come to the office of  DSP,  DCRB
for forwarding the same to the  concerned  Passport  Offices.   He  asserted
that 42 application forms, viz., Exh. P-2 to P-43 were not received  at  the
office of DSP, DCRB, Ramanad.  He also highlighted  that  these  forms  were
neither sent to the sub-Inspector of Police  Thiruvadanai  for  verification
nor received back from the S.I. Police and not dispatched  to  the  Passport
Office, Trichy for recommendation for issue of passports.  A perusal of  the
evidence of Shri Natarajan (PW-16), DSP, R. Muniyadi (PW-29),  Sub-Inspector
of Police clearly shows that they did not sign the verification forms.   PW-
29 specifically stated that during the relevant time, passport  applications
(Exh.P-2 to 43) were not received by his office and  he  did  not  sign  the
verification forms Exh.P-161 to P-202.  It is clear  from  their  statements
and assertions that the verification forms of the said 42 applications  have
not been dealt with by the concerned  officials  and  the  trial  Judge  was
right  in  concluding  that  they  were  forged.   Mere  non-production   of
registers  maintained  in  the  office  of  DSP,  DCRB,  Ramanad  cannot  be
construed to be an infirmity in this case in the light of  the  evidence  of
PWs 16, 26 and 29 who are relevant officers concerned with those documents.
19)   Regarding the contention that the specimen  signatures  of  Dr.  Muthu
(PW-18), Civil Surgeon,  Government  Hospital  and  Shri  Vairavan  (PW-20),
Executive Officer (Retired), Town Panchayat,  Thondi  in  Ramanad  District,
who are all independent witnesses, were not forged, it is  very  much  clear
from their evidence that their signatures were forged in  the  applications.
There is no reason to disbelieve their evidence  and  the  trial  Judge  has
rightly accepted the same.
20)   Regarding the evidence of  Village  Administrative  Officers  and  the
certificates issued by  them,  it  is  relevant  to  point  out  that  those
documents were properly marked through Village  Administrative  Officers  of
the villages concerned and also by the officers who  made  a  field  enquiry
for the same.  We  are  satisfied  that  there  is  no  legal  infirmity  as
claimed.
21)   Insofar as the contention relating to recoveries of  M.Os  1  to  3  –
Seals of Superintendent of Police, Ramanad,  as  rightly  concluded  by  the
trial Court, the evidence of the concerned Village Administrative  Officers,
Deputy  Superintendent  of  Police,  Civil   Surgeon   (PW-18),   Government
Hospital,  Executive  Officer  (Retired)  of  Town  Panchayat  (PW-20)   are
sufficient to establish that the forged attested documents were created  and
enclosed for the purpose of getting passports in support of false  addresses
given in the applications by the appellant.  The above fact is also  evident
from the evidence of Village Administrative Officer (PW-15),  Thiruvadanani,
the confessional statement given by A-3 which was recorded under Section  27
of the Evidence Act in his presence and M.Os 1 to  3  which  were  recovered
under a cover of  mazahar  (Exh.  P-216)  at  the  behest  of  A-3  and  the
admissible portion of the evidence leading to recovery which  is  marked  as
Exh. 215. The contradictions as pointed out by the learned counsel  for  the
appellant are only trivial in nature as found by both the  trial  Court  and
the High Court, accordingly, it cannot be construed to be a material one  so
as to affect the version of the prosecution.  We are  satisfied  that  there
is no infirmity in the recovery and  reject  the  argument  of  the  learned
counsel for the appellant.
22)   Coming to the next contention, namely, the failure of the  prosecution
to exhibit the report of FSL, Chennai  with  regard  to  the  impression  of
seals M.Os 1 to 3 is fatal to the prosecution, it is relevant to  note  that
PWs 16, 26 and 29 DSPs and S.I. of  Police  have  categorically  denied  the
genuineness of the above seals since the same  were  recovered  pursuant  to
the confessional statement of A-3 and  the  absence  of  expert  opinion  by
itself does not absolve the liability of the appellant.
23)   The  contention  that  the  evidence  of  Sundaram  (PW-14),  who  was
examined for the purpose of proving the handwriting  of  the  appellant  and
whose competency  to  identify  the  writing  of  the  appellant  itself  is
doubtful, as rightly pointed out by the respondent that it was  admitted  by
A-5 (appellant herein), while questioning under Section  313  that  she  had
been working in Sugir Tours and Travels run by  PW-14  during  1987-91  and,
hence, the evidence of PW-14,  who  identified  the  writings  available  in
Exhs.P-2 to P-43 as that of A-5  is  admissible  under  Section  47  of  the
Indian Evidence Act.  We are satisfied that the same was rightly acted  upon
by the trial Court and the High Court while holding the charge  against  the
accused-appellant  as  proved  to  have  committed  in  pursuance   of   the
conspiracy.
24)   Finally, the contention of  the  appellant  that  simply  because  the
applications were filled up by a person does not automatically lead  to  the
inference that a person is a party to the conspiracy.  In the case on  hand,
it is very well established by the prosecution that the filled  up  passport applications were submitted by A-5  (appellant  herein)  on  behalf  of  her employer A-3.  Further, in majority of passport applications (Exh. P-2 to P-43), bogus particulars were filled by A-5  (appellant  herein),  at  Trichy.
The prosecution has also established that A-5 has  given  false  particulars regarding  the  place  of  residence  of   applicants’   in   the   passport applications in view of her admission in 313 statement that she was  working in Goodluck Travels and assisting Rajendran (A-3) in preparing  applications
and filing them before the Passport Office as well as handling  the  affairs connected therewith which clearly prove that A-5  has  filled  up  the  said passport applications (Exh.P-2 to P-43).  We are  also  satisfied  that  the prosecution has clearly established that false documents were made  for  the purpose of cheating and those documents were used as genuine  for  obtaining
passports.
25)   In the light of the overwhelming evidence placed by  the  prosecution,
analyzed by the trial Court and affirmed by the High Court, interference  by
this Court with concurrent findings of fact  by  the  courts  below  is  not
warranted except where there is some serious infirmity in  the  appreciation
of evidence and the findings are perverse.  Further, this Court
will not ordinarily interfere with appreciation  of  evidence  by  the  High
Court and re-appreciation  is  permissible  only  if  an  error  of  law  or
procedure and conclusion arrived are perverse.

26)   Taking note of the fact that the appellant is having  a  small  child,
while confirming the conviction we reduce the sentence to  six  months  from
two years.

27)   With the above modification i.e., reduction of  sentence,  the  appeal
stands disposed of.

                                  ………….…………………………J.


                                       (P. SATHASIVAM)










                                    ………….…………………………J.


                                      (RANJAN GOGOI)


                                    ………….…………………………J.


                                      (V. GOPALA GOWDA)

NEW DELHI;
JANUARY 7, 2013.









-----------------------
27


The respondent had availed the benefit of the licence being fully aware of the Rules, notification and the terms incorporated in the licence. The Rules provide that he has to pay from the date of the settlement and in this case, the settlement took place on 5th June, 2006. In view of what has been engrafted in the Rules, there cannot be any trace of doubt that the respondent has to be made liable to pay the licence fee from the date of the settlement. There could not have been condonation of default. Such a concept is alien to the present nature of trade and a licencee cannot claim any benefit under the same as the whole thing is governed by the command of the Rules. That apart, we are unable to subscribe to the interpretation placed by the High Court that the auction-purchaser is liable to pay from the date of issuance of licence but not from the date of the settlement as that runs counter to the plain language of Rule 24. Reading the Rules in a comprehensive manner in juxtaposition with the notification which forms the terms and conditions of the licence and the nature of the trade, the irresistible conclusion is that the liability accrued from the date of the settlement and, therefore, we find that the order passed by the Excise Commissioner was just and proper and there was no warrant on the part of the High Court to interfere with the same. 32. Consequently, the appeal is allowed, the order passed by the High Court is set aside and that of the Excise Commissioner is restored. The parties shall bear their respective costs.


                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

                        CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

                        CIVIL APPEAL NO. 128  OF 2013
                (Arising out of S.L.P. (C) No. 19133 of 2009)


State of Bihar and Others                          ... Appellants

                                   Versus

Nirmal Kumar Gupta                           ..Respondent






                               J U D G M E N T


Dipak Misra, J.



      Leave granted.

   2. The pivotal issue that emerges for consideration  in  this  appeal  is
      whether the Division Bench of the High Court of  Judicature  at  Patna
      has correctly interpreted the effect and impact of  the  Bihar  Excise
      (Settlement of Licences for  retail  sale  of  country/spiced  country
      liquor) Rules, 2004 (for short “the Rules”) and the sale  notification
      published by the Collector  of  Kishanganj  in  Excise  Form  127  for
      various excise shops in groups in the said district for the year 2006-
      07 and the terms of licence.

   3.  As the factual matrix would exposit, the Collector,  Kishanganj,  got
      the sale notification in Excise Form  127  issued  for  settlement  of
      various excise shops in various groups in the district  of  Kishanganj
      for the financial year 2006-07 which stipulated  that  the  settlement
      shall be made on 23rd March, 2006  on  auction-cum-tender  basis  and,
      accordingly, applications were invited from  interested  persons.   As
      the settlement could not be effected in respect of group ‘ka’ shops in
      the said district, the Collector issued a second notification on  17th
      May, 2006 for the said group  ‘ka’  which  consisted  of  six  country
      spirit shops and three spiced country  spirit  shops.   On  5th  June,
      2006, the group ‘ka’ excise  shops  were  settled  in  favour  of  the
      respondent at a monthly licence fee of Rs.8,29,600/-.  The  respondent
      deposited the advance security of Rs.8,29,594/- on 7th June, 2006  and
      further Rs.8,29,600/- on 22nd June, 2006.  The  Collector,  Kishanganj
      moved the Commissioner for his approval and the same  was  granted  on
      1st July, 2006 in the office of the Collector on 5th July, 2006 and on
      that day itself, the licence was issued in favour of  the  respondent-
      licencee.  It is the case of the appellant that as the respondent  did
      not deposit the requisite 1/4th amount of the annual  licence  fee  as
      advance security as prescribed under the Rules but  did  so  in  three
      instalments, there was delay in obtaining the approval from the Excise
      Commissioner in terms of Rule 17(kha) of the Rules.  Despite the delay
      in the payment of the advance deposit, the Collector  had  recommended
      his case for approval and, eventually, the Commissioner  approved  the
      grant of licence in respect of group ‘ka’ shops and,  ultimately,  the
      licence was issued, as stated earlier, on 5th July, 2006.

   4. As there was breach of the conditions of the  licence,  a  demand  was
      raised for the period commencing 5th June, 2006 to 5th July,  2006  by
      the Excise Superintendent, Araria-cum-Kishanganj on 27th March,  2007.
      On receipt of the demand  notice,  the  respondent  moved  the  Excise
      Superintendent on 29th April, 2007 asking him to withdraw  the  demand
      on the ground that he had  not  utilized  the  privilege  during  that
      period.  Thereafter, he challenged the demand notice before the Excise
      Commissioner, who rejected  the  application  vide  order  dated  18th
      September, 2008.  Being grieved by the said order he  moved  the  High
      Court invoking the writ jurisdiction in CWJC No. 16577 of 2008.

   5. The High Court referred to Rules 16, 17, 20, 22 and  24  and  recorded
      its opinion in the following manner: -

                 “That group of shops have been settled  in  favour  of  the
           petitioner in the midst of excise year, is not in  dispute.   It
           is also a fact that on 5th June,  2006,  the  bid  made  by  the
           petitioner for group ‘ka’ excise shops  of  Kishanganj  District
           was highest and accepted by the  auctioning  authority  by  such
           acceptance is subject to approval of  the  Excise  Commissioner.
           There also does not seem to be any dispute that there  was  some
           default on the part of the petitioner in payment of the  advance
           security amount.   However,  the  default  seems  to  have  been
           condoned as despite the said default, his bid  dated  5th  June,
           2006 was not cancelled and licence was issued in Form 26C of the
           Rules on 5th July, 2006.  Rules 16 and 17  of  the  Rules,  when
           read together, would show that the final acceptance of  the  bid
           by the auctioning authority, by itself,  does  not  entitle  the
           bidder to get the licence as the said bid has to be accepted  by
           the Commissioner of Excise and only after it is accepted by  the
           Commissioner, then the licence is issued.  In  the  backdrop  of
           the aforesaid legal position, when we turn to the facts  of  the
           present case, it would be seen that although highest bid of  the
           petitioner was accepted on 5th June, 2006 but  it  was  only  on
           30th June, 2006 that the Licensing Authority recommended to  the
           Commissioner of Excise for approval of  settlement  and  it  was
           approved by the Excise Commissioner, Bihar on 1st July, 2006 and
           after receipt of the approval from the  Excise  Commissioner  on
           5th  July,  2006,  the  licence  was  issued  by  the  Licensing
           Authority on that date.  Surely, in the backdrop  of  the  facts
           that the licence was issued on 5th  July,  2006  the  petitioner
           could not have been fastened with the liability to  pay  licence
           fee from 5th June, 2006.”

                                                       [Underlining is ours]

   6. Questioning  the  correctness  of  the  aforesaid  conclusion,  it  is
      submitted by Mr. Gopal Singh, learned counsel for the State of  Bihar,
      that the High Court has fallen  into  error  by  construing  that  the
      default has been condoned though there is no concept of condonation in
      such a trade.  It is urged  by  him  that  as  the  requisite  advance
      licence fee was not deposited as per the Rules, the approval could not
      be obtained earlier and hence, the Department,  not  being  at  fault,
      should not suffer the loss of revenue more so when  the  licencee  had
      accepted the conditions enumerated in the licence. That apart, submits
      Mr. Singh, as per the Rules, in such a situation, the  respondent  was
      legally bound to pay the licence fee from the date of settlement.

   7. Mr. Shantanu Sagar, learned counsel appearing for the respondent,  per
      contra, has submitted that the High Court has correctly determined the
      controversy that the liability would be from the date of issue of  the
      licence and not earlier than that, for unless the licence  is  issued,
      he cannot trade in liquor and further it cannot be said that the State
      has parted with the exclusive privilege.

   8. To appreciate the controversy, it is necessary  to  refer  to  certain
      Rules.  Rule 16 of the Rules deals  with  the  acceptance  of  bid  or
      tenders.  It reads as follows: -

           “16. Acceptance of bid or tenders.– (1) The Auctioning Authority
           shall not be bound to accept the highest bid or  tender  or  any
           bid.  If  the  highest  bid  or  tender  is  not  accepted,  the
           licensing officer shall  instantaneously  declare  the  date  of
           fresh auction, mentioning the reasons.  In such a  circumstance,
           the entire deposited advance money will  be  refunded  to  those
           applicants who do not want to participate in subsequent auction.

           (2)   If the bid amount in any auction is finally accepted,  any
           subsequent  offer  with  regard  to  that  bid  shall   not   be
           considered.  No further negotiation shall be entertained by  the
           Licensing Authority or the officer conducting the auction.”

   9. Rule 17 of the Rules which provides for final acceptance of the bid is
      as follows: -

           “17. Final acceptance of bid. – (a) The recommendation to  grant
           exclusive privilege of retail sale for  the  shop  or  group  of
           shops to the person bidding highest, and acceptance  under  Rule
           16, shall be sent to the Commissioner of Excise by the Licensing
           Officer, and after his acceptance a licence will be issued.

           (b)   The amount of highest bid, accepted  will  be  the  annual
           amount of licence fee.”

  10. On a perusal of  the  aforesaid  two  Rules,  it  is  vivid  that  the
      Licensing Officer conducting auction accepts the bid and,  thereafter,
      sends his recommendation for grant of exclusive  privilege  of  retail
      sale for the shops or group of shops to the Commissioner and after his
      acceptance, the licence is issued.  The pertinent part of this Rule is
      that the amount of highest bid accepted would be the annual amount  of
      licence fee.

  11. Rule 19 provides  for  payment  of  advance  security  in  the  manner
      prescribed therein.  The said Rule is reproduced hereinbelow: -

           “19. Payment of Advance Security. –  After  the  declaration  of
           acceptance of the  highest  bid  the  Licensing  Authority,  one
           fourth, portion of the annual licence fee shall be paid  by  the
           highest bidder as advance security in the following  manner  for
           due execution of a contract: -

           a) An amount equivalent to sixth portion of annual  licence  fee
              shall be immediately deposited in cash or in the form of Bank
              Draft.  The amount of cash/Bank Draft  and  that  of  advance
              money deposited previously under Rule 11(a)  and  Rule  11(c)
              respectively, shall be adjusted in part from security amount.

           b) The payable remaining amount on account of  advance  security
              shall have to be deposited within  ten  days  of  auction  or
              before commencement of the licence whichever is earlier.”

  12. On a plain reading of the said Rule, it is manifest that  the  highest
      bidder has to immediately deposit one fourth of the annual licence fee
      as advance security money in the manner provided  in  sub-clauses  (a)
      and (b) of the Rule.

  13. Rule 20 deals with the consequences of default  in  advance  security.
      It reads as under: -

           “20. Default in advance  security.  –  In  case  of  failure  to
           deposit the amount of advance security, as mentioned in Rule 19,
           within the prescribed time, the settlement and the  licence,  if
           issued, shall stand cancelled and the deposited amount, if  any,
           shall be forfeited to the Government.  In such a circumstance, a
           re-auction or alternative  arrangement  shall  be  made  by  the
           Licensing Authority.”

  14. The aforesaid  Rule,  when  properly  scrutinized,  clearly  lays  the
      postulate that if the advance security  amount  is  not  deposited  in
      accordance  with  the  time  limit  prescribed  under  Rule  19,   the
      settlement and the licence, if issued, shall stand cancelled  and  the
      deposited sum, if any, shall be forfeited to  the  Government.   Thus,
      there is a distinction between settlement and issue of licence.

  15. Rule 23 deals with adjustment/refund of advance security  amount.   It
      stipulates that the security amount referred to in Rule  19  shall  be
      refunded at the end of the settlement  period  if  all  the  dues  and
      claims of the State Government with regard to the  auctioned  shop  or
      group of shops have already been paid by the licencee.

  16. Rule 24 deals with the commencement of the period of licence.   It  is
      as follows: -

           “24. Commencement of the period of licence. – A  licence  issued
           in favour of any auction-purchaser shall be effective  from  1st
           April of the excise year unless the Licensing  Authority  orders
           otherwise.  The auction-purchaser shall be liable to pay the bid
           money from the first day of the  licence  period,  even  if  the
           licence has been issued thereafter.

                 Provided that if any shop or a group of shops is settled in
                 the midst of the excise year, the  licence  shall  commence
                 from the date of settlement of the shop  or  the  group  of
                 shops.

           The  Licensing  Authority   shall   mention   details   of   the
           shops/licences to  be  settled  and  annual  minimum  guaranteed
           quantity to be lifted under those licences and the reserved  fee
           thereof, in the sale notification for every excise year.”

  17. The said Rule has to be carefully x-rayed and understood.  It  clearly
      lays down that the licence shall be effective from 1st  April  of  the
      excise year and the auction-purchaser shall be liable to pay  the  bid
      money from the first day of the licence period, even  if  the  licence
      has been issued thereafter.  The proviso further  stipulates  that  if
      any shop or a group of shops is settled in the  midst  of  the  excise
      year, the licence shall commence from the date of  settlement  of  the
      shop or the group of shops.

  18. The High Court, interpreting the Rule position, has  opined  that  the
      shops were settled in favour of the respondent in  the  midst  of  the
      year, i.e., on 5th June, 2006, and after obtaining the approval on 1st
      July, 2006 from the Excise Commissioner, the licence was issued by the
      Licensing Authority on 5th July, 2006, and, therefore, the  demand  of
      licence fee for the period from 5th June, 2006 to 5th  July,  2006  is
      not sustainable.

  19. As the factual matrix would reveal, the notification in Form  No.  127
      was issued on 23rd March, 2006.   The  terms  and  conditions  of  the
      settlement  of  excise  shops  were  duly  incorporated  in  the  sale
      notification and as per Rule 8, the terms and conditions mentioned  in
      the notification are deemed to be included in the  conditions  of  the
      licence.  As per the first notification, all the three country  spirit
      shops could not be settled and further steps were taken for settlement
      and, eventually, the bid of the respondent was accepted on  5th  June,
      2006 with the annual licence fee of Rs.99,55,200/- or at a monthly fee
      of Rs.8,29,600/-.  The respondent was required to  pay  1/4th  of  the
      annual licence fee as advance security money but he failed to do so in
      time.  He deposited the requisite amount in three  instalments,  i.e.,
      first on 7th June, 2006, second on 22nd June, 2006 and third  on  17th
      July, 2006.  As per Rule 19(a),  he  was  required  to  deposit  1/6th
      portion of the annual licence fee immediately in cash or in  the  form
      of bank draft.  The remaining amount of advance  security  was  to  be
      deposited within ten days of the auction or before the commencement of
      the licence.  Thus, the respondent failed  to  comply  with  the  said
      Rule.  However, the Collector recommended his case on 30th June,  2006
      which was accepted on 1st July, 2006 and the licence was issued on 5th
      July, 2006.  It is worthy to note that thereafter,  demand  notice  of
      Rs.16,03,893/-  was  issued  by  the   Excise   Superintendent.    The
      Commissioner took note of the fact that  out  of  Rs.74,36,071/-,  the
      licencee had paid Rs.66,36,794/- and, hence, a  sum  of  Rs.7,99,277/-
      remained to be paid.  Be it noted, on 3rd March, 2007, the licence was
      cancelled for breach of other conditions and in the present  case,  we
      are not concerned with  those  conditions,  for  the  controversy   in
      praesenti only relates to the demand commencing 5th June, 2006 to  5th
      July, 2006.

  20. The High Court has opined that the  State  had  not  parted  with  the
      exclusive privilege till the licence was issued.   Under  Rule  24,  a
      licence issued in favour of the auction-purchaser  is  effective  from
      1st April of the excise year unless  the  Licensing  Authority  orders
      otherwise and the auction purchaser is liable to  pay  the  bid  money
      from the first day of the licence period even if the licence has  been
      issued thereafter.  That apart, he is supposed to pay the licence  fee
      from the  commencement  of  the  settlement  period  and  the  licence
      commences from the date of the settlement.  In the case  at  hand,  it
      was settled on 5th June, 2006.  The licence was issued  on  5th  July,
      2006.  The principle of condonation of default has been taken recourse
      to by the High Court on the foundation that despite default in  making
      deposit of advance security, the  licensing  officer  recommended  his
      case for approval to the Commissioner of Excise.  The default,  as  we
      perceive, comes into play if there  is  violation  of  Rule  19  which
      stipulates for advance security.  There is no dispute  over  the  fact
      that there was delay.  The respondent was clearly responsible for  the
      same.  The licensing officer thought it appropriate to  recommend  his
      case and the Excise Commissioner did approve it and on receipt of  the
      approval, the licence was issued on  the  same  day.   The  respondent
      accepted the licence knowing fully well the terms  and  conditions  of
      the licence and that he has to pay the licence fee from  the  date  of
      the settlement.

  21. At this juncture, we may usefully address to the issue  whether  in  a
      case of this nature, the principle of condonation of default by way of
      conduct can  be  attracted.   First  of  all,  under  the  Rules,  the
      authorities are entitled to forfeit the amount deposited when there is
      non-compliance of the Rules.  It is to  be  borne  in  mind  that  the
      nature of the trade has also its own significance.   In  Amar  Chandra
      Chakraborty v. The Collector of Excise, Govt. of Tripura, Agartala and
      others[1], this Court held thus: -

           “Trade or business in  country  liquor  has  from  its  inherent
           nature been treated by the State and the society  as  a  special
           category requiring legislative control which has been  in  force
           in the whole of India since several decades.   In  view  of  the
           injurious effect of excessive consumption of  liquor  on  health
           this trade or business must be treated as a class by itself  and
           it cannot be treated on the same basis  as  other  trades  while
           considering Article 14.”

  22. In the  case  of  Nashirwar  etc.  v.  State  of  Madhya  Pradesh  and
      Others[2], this Court opined that the State has the exclusive right or
      privilege in manufacturing and selling of liquor and a citizen has  no
      fundamental right to do business in liquor.  It has been further ruled
      that it is within the police power of  the  State  to  enforce  public
      morality by prohibiting trade in noxious or dangerous goods.

  23. In Har Shandar and Others etc.  v.  The  Deputy  Excise  and  Taxation
      Commissioner and others etc.[3], the Constitution Bench reiterated the
      principles that there is no fundamental right to do trade or  business
      in intoxicant and the State has the authority to prohibit  every  form
      of activity in relation to intoxicant including manufacture,  storage,
      export, import, sale and possession.  It has also been laid down  that
      a wider right to prohibit absolutely would include the narrower  right
      to permit dealings in intoxicants in such terms of general application
      as the State deems expedient.

  24. In State of M.P.  and  others  etc.  v.  Nandlal  Jaiswal  and  others
      etc.[4], this Court held that trading in liquor is inherently punitive
      in nature.

  25. In M/s.  Khoday  Distilleries  Ltd.  v.  State  of  Karnataka[5],  the
      Constitution Bench has ruled that the right to  carry  on  occupation,
      trade or business  does  not  extend  to  trade  or  business  or  any
      activities which are injurious and against the welfare of the  general
      public.  It is further held therein that a citizen has no  fundamental
      right to do business in intoxicant as liquor.

  26. In M/s. Ugar Sugar Works Ltd. v. Delhi Administration  and  others[6],
      this Court  reiterated  the  said  principle  and  emphasized  on  the
      regulatory powers of the State.

27.   In State of M.P. and Ors. etc. etc. v. Nandlal Jaiswal and  Ors.  etc.
etc.[7], a two-Judge Bench, while expressing the view  that  Article  14  of
the Constitution is attracted to grant of exclusive right or  privilege  for
manufacture and sale of liquor  as  it  involves  the  State  largesse,  has
stated thus:-


          “33. But, while considering the applicability of  Article  14  in
          such a case, we must bear in mind  that,  having  regard  to  the
          nature of the trade or business,  the  Court  would  be  slow  to
          interfere with the policy laid down by the State  Government  for
          grant of licences for manufacture and sale of liquor.  The  Court
          would, in  view  of  the  inherently  pernicious  nature  of  the
          commodity  allow  a  large  measure  of  latitude  to  the  State
          Government in determining its policy of  regulating,  manufacture
          and  trade  in  liquor.  Moreover,  the  grant  of  licences  for
          manufacture and sale of liquor would essentially be a  matter  of
          economic policy where the Court would hesitate to  intervene  and
          strike down what the State Government had done, unless it appears
          to be plainly arbitrary, irrational or mala fide.”


                                                         [emphasis supplied]


28.   In P.N. Krishna Lal and Ors. v.  Govt.  of  Kerala  and  Anr.[8],  the
Court expressed thus:-


          “28....dealing in liquor inherently pernicious or dangerous goods
          which endangers the community or subversive of morale, is  within
          the legislative competence under the Act. The State  has  thereby
          the power to prohibit trade or business which is injurious to the
          health  and  welfare  of  the  public  and  the  elimination  and
          exclusion from the business is inherent in the nature  of  liquor
          business. The power of the legislature to evolve the  policy  and
          its competence to raise presumptive evidence should be considered
          from this scenario.”


                                                         [emphasis supplied]


29.   In Secretary to Govt., Tamil Nadu and Anr.  v.  K.  Vinayagamurthy[9],
it has been held as follows:


          “7....So far as the trade  in  noxious  or  dangerous  goods  are
          concerned, no citizen can claim to have trade in the same and the
          intoxicating liquor being a  noxious  material,  no  citizen  can
          claim any inherent right to sell intoxicating liquor  by  retail.
          It cannot be claimed as a privilege of a citizen of a State. That
          being the position, any restriction which the State brings forth,
          must be a reasonable restriction within the  meaning  of  Article
          19(6) and reasonableness of the  restriction  would  differ  from
          trade to trade and no hard and fast rule  concerning  all  trades
          can be laid down....”


30.   In State of Punjab and  Anr.  v.  Devans  Modern  Breweries  Ltd.  and
Anr.[10], it  has  been  reiterated  that  trade  in  liquor  is  considered
inherently noxious and pernicious.


31.   We have referred to the aforesaid decisions to accentuate  the  nature
of the trade, the role of the State, the economic  concept  of  the  policy,
limited attractability of Article 14 of  the  Constitution  as  regards  the
legislation or policy, the restriction inherent in the policy and  the  duty
of the court.  
On the aforesaid touchstone, we are required to  see
whether
the doctrine of condonation by conduct,  especially  in  the  present  case,
could have been taken recourse to by the High  Court.   
The  respondent  had
availed the  benefit  of  the  licence  being  fully  aware  of  the  Rules,
notification and the terms incorporated in the licence.  
The  Rules  provide
that he has to pay from the date of the settlement and  in  this  case,  the
settlement took place  on  5th  June,  2006.   
In  view  of  what  has  been
engrafted in the Rules,  there  cannot  be  any  trace  of  doubt  that  the
respondent has to be made liable to pay the licence fee  from  the  date  of
the settlement.  
There could not have been condonation of default.   
Such  a
concept is alien to the present nature of trade and a licencee cannot  claim
any benefit under the same as the whole thing is governed by the command  of
the Rules.  
That apart, we are unable to  subscribe  to  the  interpretation
placed by the High Court that the auction-purchaser is liable  to  pay  from the date of issuance of licence but not from the date of the  settlement  as that runs counter to the plain language of Rule 24.  
Reading the Rules in  a
comprehensive manner in juxtaposition with the notification which forms  the
terms and conditions of the  licence  and  the  nature  of  the  trade,  the
irresistible conclusion is that the liability accrued from the date  of  the
settlement and, therefore, we find that  the  order  passed  by  the  Excise
Commissioner was just and proper and there was no warrant  on  the  part  of
the High Court to interfere with the same.


32.   Consequently, the appeal is allowed, the  order  passed  by  the  High
Court is set aside and that of the Excise  Commissioner  is  restored.   The
parties shall bear their respective costs.





                                                             ……………………………….J.
                            [K. S. Radhakrishnan]



                                                             ……………………………….J.
                                                     [Dipak Misra]

New Delhi;
January 08, 2013
-----------------------
[1]    AIR 1972 SC 1863
[2]    AIR 1975 SC 360
[3]    AIR 1975 SC 1121
[4]    AIR 1987 SC 251
[5]    (1995) 1 SCC 574
[6]    AIR 2001 SC 1447
[7]    AIR 1987 SC 251
[8]    1995 Supp (2) SCC 187
[9]    AIR 2002 SC 2968
[10]   (2004) 11 SCC 26

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19


violation of provisions of section 13(2) (d) (h) and as such exemption u/s 11 and 12 cannot be allowed to the assessee and the assessment will be made in the status of AOP. =The respondent-assessee is a trust, who was treated as an AOP by the Assessing Officer for the assessment year 2002-2003 by an order dated 24th May, 2005 and exemption under Sections 11 & 12 of the Income Tax Act [hereinafter referred to as “the Act”] had not been continued. =many of the trustees of the assessee trust were related to the directors of M/s Apollo Tyres Ltd. and so as to give undue advantage under the provisions of Section 80G of the Act, the cheque had been accepted before 31st March, 2002 although the cheque was dated 22nd April, 2002. Thus, by accepting a post dated cheque and by giving receipt in the earlier accounting year, the assessee trust had done undue favour and, therefore, the Assessing Officer observed as under in para 8 of the Assessment Order : “…This has been primarily done with the sole objective of giving advantage to the donor company M/s Apollo Tyre Ltd. in which the main trustees and their relatives were substantially interested as per provisions of section 13 (3) of the I.T. Act, 1961. This is clearly in violation of provisions of section 13(2) (d) (h) and as such exemption u/s 11 and 12 cannot be allowed to the assessee and the assessment will be made in the status of AOP. With these remarks the income is computed as under…”= none of the cheques has been dishonoured on presentation and payment cannot, therefore, be said to have been defeated by the happening of the condition subsequent, namely dishonour by non-payment and that being so there can be no question, therefore, that the assessee did not receive payment by the receipt of the cheques. The position, therefore, is that in one view of the matter there was, in the circumstances of this case, an implied agreement under which the cheques were accepted unconditionally as payment and on another view, even if the cheques were taken conditionally, the cheques not having been dishonoured but having been cashed, the payment related back to the dates of the receipt of the cheques and in law the dates of payments were the dates of the delivery of the cheques.” 15) Looking into the aforestated undisputed facts, and the view expressed by this court in the case of M/s Ogale Glass Works Ltd. (supra), we are of the view that no irregularity had been committed by the assessee trust and there was no violation of the provisions of Sections 13(2)(b) or 13(2)(h) of the Act. The fact that most of the trustees of the assessee trust and the directors of M/s Apollo Tyres Ltd. are related is absolutely irrelevant. 16) Upon careful perusal of the order passed by the Tribunal, we do not find any error therein. We are, therefore, in agreement with the view expressed by the Tribunal as well as the High Court and, therefore, the appeal is dismissed with no order as to costs.


                                                              NON-REPORTABLE

                        IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

                        CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION


                    1 CIVIL APPEAL NO.   90       OF 2013

                (ARISING OUT OF S.L.P. (C) NO.31546 OF 2008)



DIRECTOR OF INCOME TAX


(EXEMPTION), NEW DELHI                .....APPELLANT.


                                VERSUS

RAUNAQ EDUCATION FOUNDATION    ....RESPONDENT



                              1 J U D G M E N T




1 ANIL R. DAVE, J.



         1) Delay condoned.
         2) Leave granted.
         3) Being aggrieved by an order passed in ITA No.150 of 2008 by the
            High Court of Delhi at New Delhi, the Revenue  has  filed  this
            appeal.
         4) The facts giving rise to the present appeal in a  nutshell  are
            as under:
         5) The respondent-assessee is a trust, who was treated as  an  AOP by the Assessing Officer for the assessment year  2002-2003  by an order dated 24th May, 2005 and exemption under Sections 11 & 12 of the Income Tax Act [hereinafter referred to as “the Act”] had not been continued.  
Being aggrieved by the said  order  of
            the Assessing Officer, the respondent-assessee had preferred an
            appeal before the Income  Tax  Commissioner.   The  Income  Tax
            Commissioner was pleased to dismiss  the  appeal  by  an  order
            dated 29th May, 2005.  Being aggrieved by  the  said  order  of
            dismissal, the respondent-assessee had filed an  appeal  before
            the Income Tax Appellate  Tribunal,  Delhi  Bench  “F”  at  New
            Delhi.   The  said  appeal,  being  ITA  No.2657/DEL/2006,  was
            allowed by an order dated 09th March, 2007.  Being aggrieved by
            the said order, the Revenue had filed ITA No.150 of 2008 before
            the High Court of Delhi at New Delhi which had been  dismissed.
            Being aggrieved by the dismissal of the said appeal by an order
            dated 04th March, 2008,  the  Revenue  has  filed  the  present
            appeal.
         6) The facts of the case pertain to the assessment year  2002-2003 of the respondent assessee.   
During  the  relevant  account year i.e. 2001-2002, the respondent-assessee  had,  by  way  of  donation, received two cheques for a sum of Rs.40 lac each from M/s Apollo Tyres Ltd.  One of the cheques was dated 22nd April,  2002 and yet it was given in  accounting  year  2001-2002  i.e.  before 31st March, 2002.  The  said  cheque  for  donation  was  received by the respondent-assessee before 31st March, 2002 but   was honoured after 1st April, 2002 i.e. in accounting year 2002-2003.

         7) In the assessment proceedings, the Assessing  Officer  came  to
            the conclusion that with an intention to do undue favour to M/s
            Apollo Tyres Ltd., the cheque dated 22nd April, 2002, given  by
            way of donation for a sum of Rs.40 lac had been accepted by the
            respondent-assessee and receipt for the said  amount  was  also
            issued before 31st March, 2002 i.e. in the accounting year 2001-
            2002.
According to the Assessing Officer, many of the trustees
            of the assessee trust were related  to  the  directors  of  M/s
            Apollo Tyres Ltd. and so as to give undue advantage  under  the
            provisions of Section 80G of  the  Act,  the  cheque  had  been
            accepted before 31st March, 2002 although the cheque was  dated
            22nd April, 2002.
Thus, by accepting a post dated  cheque  and
            by giving receipt in the earlier accounting year, the  assessee
            trust had done  undue  favour  and,  therefore,  the  Assessing
            Officer observed as under in para 8 of the Assessment Order :

        “…This has been primarily done with the sole  objective  of  giving
        advantage to the donor company M/s Apollo Tyre Ltd.  in  which  the
        main trustees and their relatives were substantially interested  as
        per provisions of section 13 (3) of the I.T. Act,  1961.   This  is
        clearly in violation of provisions of section 13(2) (d) (h) and  as
        such exemption u/s 11 and 12 cannot be allowed to the assessee  and
        the assessment will be made in  the  status  of  AOP.   With  these
        remarks the income is computed as under…”

         8) As stated hereinabove, the appeal which was filed  against  the
            assessment order had been dismissed and the second appeal filed
            before the Income Tax Appellate  Tribunal  by  the  respondent-
            assessee had been allowed by an order dated 09th March, 2007.

         9) The Tribunal, after hearing the concerned  advocates,  came  to
            the conclusion that there was no violation of the provisions of
            Sections 13 (2)(b) & 13(2)(h) of the Act and the assessee trust
            had not acted in improper and  illegal  manner.   The  Tribunal
            noted the fact that the  amount  of  donation  i.e.  Rs.40  lac
            received by way of a cheque dated 22nd April, 2002 was  treated
            as donation receivable and accordingly accounting treatment was
            given to the said amount.  The said amount was not included  in
            the  accounting  year  2001-2002  as  donation  but  was  shown
            separately in the balance sheet as amount receivable by way  of
            donation.  Moreover, M/s Apollo Tyres Ltd. had also not availed
            benefit of the said amount under Section 80G of the Act  during
            the accounting year 2001-2002 but had availed the benefit  only
            in the accounting year 2002-2003, the period during  which  the
            cheque had been honoured and the amount of donation was paid to
            the assessee trust.  For the  aforestated  reason,  the  appeal
            filed by the assessee was allowed.

        10) Being aggrieved by the aforesaid order passed  in  the  appeal,
            the Revenue had filed Income Tax Appeal No.150 of 2008  in  the
            High Court of Delhi.  The said appeal has been  dismissed  and,
            therefore, the present appeal has been filed by the Revenue.

        11) The learned counsel appearing for the  Revenue  submitted  that
            the High Court committed an error  by  dismissing  the  appeal.
            According to him there  was  breach  of  Section  13(2)(b)  and
            13(2)(h) and he further submitted that though  the  cheque  was
            dated 22nd April, 2002 it was given by way of donation  in  the
            earlier accounting year for which the assessee trust had issued
            a receipt and  as  the  trustees  of  the  assessee  trust  and
            directors of M/s Apollo Tyres Ltd.  were  closely  related,  an
            effort was made by the assessee trust to do undue favour to M/s
            Apollo Tyres Ltd.

        12) On the other  hand,  the  learned  counsel  appearing  for  the
            assessee  submitted  that  no  illegality  or  irregularity  of
            whatsoever type was committed by the assessee trust and he  had
            relied upon the reasons recorded by the  Income  Tax  Appellate
            Tribunal so to substantiate his  case.   He  further  submitted
            that the post dated cheque for Rs.40 lac was given before  31st
            March, 2002 i.e. during the accounting year 2001-2002  and  the
            cheque was duly honoured in April, 2002 when it  was  presented
            before the collecting bank.  As the cheque  had  been  honoured
            and the amount was paid to the  assessee  trust,  the  date  of
            payment of cheque should be treated as the date  on  which  the
            cheque was given.  Had  the  cheque  been  dishonoured,  things
            would have been different but  as  the  cheque  had  been  duly
            honoured, as laid down  by  this  court  in  the  case  of  The
            Commissioner of Income-Tax, Bombay South, Bombay  vs.   Messrs.
            Ogale Glass Works Ltd., Ogale Wadi (1955 (1), SCR page 185), it
            will have to be presumed that the amount was paid on  the  date
            on which the cheque was given to the respondent  assessee  and,
            therefore, it cannot be said that any undue favour was done  by
            the respondent-assessee to M/s Apollo Tyres Ltd.

        13) Upon hearing the learned  counsel  for  the  parties,  we  find
            certain undisputed facts.  It is not in dispute that though the
            assessee trust had issued receipt when it received  the  cheque
            dated 22nd April, 2002 for Rs.40 lac in  March,  2002,  it  was
            clearly stated in its record that the amount  of  donation  was
            receivable in future and accordingly, the said amount was  also
            shown as donation receivable in the balance sheet  prepared  by
            the assessee trust as on 31st March, 2002.  It is also  not  in
            dispute that M/s Apollo Tyres Ltd. did not avail any  advantage
            of the said donation  during  the  accounting  year  2001-2002.
            Upon perusal of the Assessment Order of M/s Apollo  Tyres  Ltd.
            for the assessment year 2002-2003, it is clearly revealed  that
            the cheque dated 22nd April, 2002 was not  taken  into  account
            for giving benefit under Section 80G of the  Act  as  the  said
            amount was paid in April, 2002, when the cheque  was  honoured.
            The assessment order showing the above fact is a  part  of  the
            record, which we have carefully perused.

        14) The submission made on behalf  of  the  respondent-assessee  is
            supported by this court in the case of M/s  Ogale  Glass  Works
            Ltd. (supra).   Relying  upon  other  authorities,  this  court
            observed as under in the aforesaid case :

        “…When it is said that a payment  by  negotiable  instrument  is  a
        conditional payment what is meant is that such payment  is  subject
        to a condition subsequent that  if  the  negotiable  instrument  is
        dishonoured on presentation the creditor may consider it  as  waste
        paper and resort to his original demand : Stedman v. Gooch (1793) 1
        Esp.5.  It is said in Benjamin on Sale, 8th Edition, page 788 :-


           “The payment takes effect from the delivery of the bill, but  is
        defeated by the happening of the condition,  i.e.,  non-payment  at
        maturity.”


           In Byles on Bills,  20th  Edition,  page  23,  the  position  is
        summarised pithily as follows :


           “A cheque, unless dishonoured, is payment.”


           To the same effect are the passages  to  be  found  in  Hart  on
        Banking, 4th Edition, Volume I, page 342.  In Felix Hadley & Co. v.
        Hadley (L.R. (1898) 2 Ch.D.680, Byrne J. expressed the same idea in
        the following passage in his judgment at page 682 :


           “In this case I think what took place amounted to a  conditional
        payment of the debt; the condition being that the  cheque  or  bill
        should be duly met or honoured at the proper date.  If that be  the
        true view, then I think the position is exactly as if an  agreement
        had been expressly made that the bill or cheque should  operate  as
        payment unless defeated by dishonour or by not  being  met;  and  I
        think that that agreement is implied from  giving  and  taking  the
        cheques and bills in question.”


            The  following  observations  of  Lord   Maugham   in   Rhokana
        Corporation v. Inland Reveue Commissioners (L.R. [1938] AC  380  at
        p.399) are also apposite:


           “Apart from the express terms of section 33,  sub-section  1,  a
        similar conclusion might be founded on the well  known  common  law
        rules as to the effect of the sending of a cheque in payment  of  a
        debt, and in the fact that though the payment  is  subject  to  the
        condition subsequent that the cheque must be met  on  presentation,
        the date of payment, if the cheque is duly met, is  the  date  when
        the cheque was posted.”


           In the case before us
none of the cheques has  been  dishonoured
        on presentation and payment cannot, therefore, be said to have been
        defeated by the  happening  of  the  condition  subsequent,  namely
        dishonour by  non-payment  and  that  being  so  there  can  be  no
        question, therefore, that the assessee did not receive  payment  by
        the receipt of the cheques.  
The position, therefore,  is  that  in
        one view of the matter there was,  in  the  circumstances  of  this
        case, an implied agreement under which the  cheques  were  accepted unconditionally as payment and on another view, even if the cheques were taken conditionally, the cheques not having  been  dishonoured
 but having been cashed, the payment related back to  the  dates  of  the receipt of the cheques and in law the dates  of  payments  were the dates of the delivery of the cheques.”

        15) Looking into the aforestated undisputed  facts,  and  the  view
            expressed by this court in the case of M/s  Ogale  Glass  Works
            Ltd. (supra), we are of the view that no irregularity had  been
            committed by the assessee trust and there was no  violation  of
       the provisions of Sections 13(2)(b) or  13(2)(h)  of  the  Act.
            The fact that most of the trustees of the  assessee  trust  and
            the  directors  of  M/s  Apollo  Tyres  Ltd.  are  related   is
            absolutely irrelevant.

        16) Upon careful perusal of the order passed by the Tribunal, we do
            not find any error therein.  We are,  therefore,  in  agreement
            with the view expressed by the Tribunal as  well  as  the  High
            Court and, therefore, the appeal is dismissed with no order  as
            to costs.


                       ..............................J.
                                                   (R.M. LODHA)



                                       ..............................J.
                                                   (ANIL R. DAVE)

New Delhi
January 07, 2013


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