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Monday, March 17, 2025

When the cheque bounce case is filed with delay petition - notice is to be ordered , without hearing both sides delay could not be condoned - court not permitted to take cognizance.

9. Since the Chief Judicial Magistrate condoned the delay for

launching the prosecution, without notice to the respondents and

without affording any opportunity to the respondents to have their

say, the case deserves to be remitted to the Chief Judicial

Magistrate for deciding the application filed by the prosecution

seeking condonation of delay, if any, afresh in accordance with

law after hearing both the parties. It is after the decision of the

application for condonation of delay that the Chief Judicial

Magistrate shall proceed further in the matter.



IN THE HIGH COURT OF ANDHRA PRADESH AT AMARAVATI

****

CRIMINAL PETITION No.11345 OF 2013

Between:

V. Ravikanth, s/o. Shivaji,

Aged about 35 years, occupation business,

R/o.H.No.68-5-1, Gandhipuram-4,

Lalacheruvu, Rajahmundry – 533 106,

East Godavari District.

 … Petitioner.

 And

1) The State of Andhra Pradesh,

 Rep. by its Public Prosecutor,

 High Court of A.P at Hyderabad.

2) Krishnapatnam Port Company Limited,

 Represented by its General Manager,

 L. Bharath Reddy, represented by his GPA Holder,

 S.K. Masthan, S/o. Mahaboob Saheb,

 Aged about 26 years, R/o. D.No.26/350,

 Mahatma Gandhi Nagar, Vedayapalem, Nellore.

 … Respondent No.2/Defacto Complainant


DATE OF ORDER PRONOUNCED : 28.01.2020

SUBMITTED FOR APPROVAL:

THE HON'BLE SRI JUSTICE U. DURGA PRASAD RAO

1. Whether Reporters of Local Newspapers

may be allowed to see the order? : Yes/No

2. Whether the copy of order may be

marked to Law Reporters/Journals? : Yes/No

3. Whether His Lordship wish to

see the fair copy of the order? : Yes/No

_________________________

 U. DURGA PRASAD RAO, J

2019:APHC:27217

UDPR, J

Crl.P.No.11345 of 2013

2

* THE HON'BLE SRI JUSTICE U. DURGA PRASAD RAO

+ CRIMINAL PETITION No.11345 OF 2013

% 28.01.2020

CRIMINAL PETITION No.11345 OF 2013:

V. Ravikanth, s/o. Shivaji,

Aged about 35 years, occupation business,

R/o.H.No.68-5-1, Gandhipuram-4,

Lalacheruvu, Rajahmundry – 533 106,

East Godavari District.

 … Petitioner.

 And

1) The State of Andhra Pradesh,

 Rep. by its Public Prosecutor,

 High Court of A.P at Hyderabad.

2) Krishnapatnam Port Company Limited,

 Represented by its General Manager,

 L. Bharath Reddy, represented by his GPA Holder,

 S.K. Masthan, S/o. Mahaboob Saheb,

 Aged about 26 years, R/o. D.No.26/350,

 Mahatma Gandhi Nagar, Vedayapalem, Nellore.

 … Respondent No.2/Defacto Complainant


! Counsel for Petitioner : Sri Srinivas Kapatia

^ Counsel for 2nd Respondent : Sri Dammalapati Srinivas

< Gist:

> Head Note:

? Cases referred:

1) 2019(1) ALD (Crl.) 812

2) AIR 1995 SC 231

This court made the following :

2019:APHC:27217

UDPR, J

Crl.P.No.11345 of 2013

3

HON'BLE SRI JUSTICE U. DURGA PRASAD RAO

Criminal Petition No.11345 of 2013

ORDER:

 In this petition filed under Section 482 of Cr.P.C, the

petitioner/accused seeks to quash proceedings against him in

C.C.No.294 of 2012 which was taken cognizance for the offences

under Sections 138 & 142 of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881

(for short, “NI Act”) by Judicial Magistrate of First Class-cum-Spl.

Mobile Magistrate, SPSR Nellore.

2. The respondent/complainant filed a private complaint alleging

that the complainant and accused entered into an undertaking dated

03.06.2009 whereby the accused has to supply 700 KL of bio-diesel

worth Rs.2,10,00,000/-. The accused received the said amount from

the complainant company but supplied only 611.70 KL of bio-diesel,

but could not supply the remaining 88.30 KL worth Rs.26,49,000/-.

Hence, the accused issued a cheque bearing No.250650, dated

03.06.2009 for Rs.26,49,000/- drawn on State Bank of India,

Lallacheruvu Branch, Rajahmundry in favour of complainant

company in discharge of his legal liability. The complainant

company presented the said cheque on 22.10.2009 in the Axis Bank,

Nellore for collection, but the cheque was returned dishonoured by

the State Bank of India, Lallacheruvu, Rajahmundry with the

endorsement “funds insufficient”. The complainant received the said

information on 26.10.2009 and then got issued the statutory notice to

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UDPR, J

Crl.P.No.11345 of 2013

4

the accused on 12.11.2009 and the same was returned to the

complainant on 05.12.2009 as ‘un-served’. According to the

complainant, he has to file complaint within 45 days from 05.12.2009

i.e., on or before 20.01.2010, but he filed complaint on 30.01.2010.

Hence, the complainant filed a delay condonation petition in

Crl.M.P.No.596 of 2010 under Section 142(b) of N.I Act to condone

the delay and the said petition appears to have been allowed by the

trial Court and a complaint was taken cognizance.

 Hence the instant petition.

3. Heard learned counsel for petitioner Sri Srinivas Kapatia and

learned counsel for respondent No.2/defacto complainant

Sri Dammalapati Srinivas.

4. The first and foremost contention of learned counsel for

petitioner is that since the complaint petition was filed with delay, the

trial Court instead of directly allowing the petition, ought to have

afforded notice to the petitioner/accused and after receiving counter

ought to have decided the petition on merits. Since the trial Court

allowed the petition straightaway, the petitioner/accused lost valuable

right to oppose the delay petition. Therefore, the cognizance of the

complaint is vitiated by law. He placed reliance on a decision in

Annapureddy Srinivasa Reddy vs. State of Andhra Pradesh and

another1

 to contend that notice is must in delay condoning petition.


1

 2019(1) ALD (Crl.) 812

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UDPR, J

Crl.P.No.11345 of 2013

5

 (a) Learned counsel also raised several other grounds and

would contend that the complaint is not maintainable.

5. Per contra, learned counsel for respondent No.2 would contend

that the trial Court has power to condone the delay without issuing

notice to the accused as the trial Court has discretion to condone the

delay and proviso to Section 142(b) of NI Act did not specify

issuance of notice to the accused. He also refuted the other grounds

raised by the petitioner.

6. The point for consideration is whether there are merits in

the criminal petition to allow?

7. I gave my anxious consideration to the above respective

arguments. Section 142 (b) of NI Act deals with the period within

which a complaint has to be filed. It reads thus:

142. (b) such complaint is made within one month of the date on

which the cause of action arises under clause (c) of the proviso to

section 138:

 3 [Provided that the cognizance of a complaint may be taken

by the Court after the prescribed period, if the complainant

satisfies the Court that he had sufficient cause for not making a

complaint within such period;]

 (c) no court inferior to that of a Metropolitan Magistrate or a

Judicial Magistrate of the first class shall try any offence

punishable under section 138.].

8. From the above provision it is discernible that a complaint has

to be filed within one month of the date on which cause of action has

arisen under clause (c) of proviso of Sec.138 of NI Act. Be that it

may, the proviso of sub section (b) says that if the complainant failed

to file the complaint within the above period, power is vested in the

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UDPR, J

Crl.P.No.11345 of 2013

6

Court to take cognizance of the complaint, if the complainant satisfies

the Court that he had sufficient cause for not making the complaint

within such period. So, the complainant is obligated to show

sufficient cause for not making the complaint within the period of

limitation. If there is no sufficient cause to convince the Court,

needless to say, the accused need not face prosecution. In that view,

when the complainant failed to file complaint within the stipulated

period, a right of discharge from the prosecution accrues to the

accused. Therefore, before condoning the delay in filing the

complaint, the Court has to afford notice to the accused to express his

say and thereafter only shall pass a reasoned order on merits. In

Annapureddy Srinivasa Reddy’s case a learned Judge of High

Court of Judicature at Hyderabad for the State of Telangana and the

state of Andhra Pradesh held thus:

xxxx The crux is whether it is filed within 30 days and if not, filed

with any application to condone the delay in filing as contemplated

by Section 142(b) of the Act. Needless to say if at all any

application to condone the delay in filing made it is only after

notice and hearing for condoning that delay to be decided and not

without hearing for certain rights accrue to the accused after

expiry to the statutory notice of one month from cause of action to

file the complaint which cannot be interfered without opportunity

to accused.

In State of Maharashtra vs. Sharadchandra Vinayak Dongre

and others2

, Supreme Court observed thus:


9. Since the Chief Judicial Magistrate condoned the delay for

launching the prosecution, without notice to the respondents and

without affording any opportunity to the respondents to have their

say, the case deserves to be remitted to the Chief Judicial


2

 AIR 1995 SC 231

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Crl.P.No.11345 of 2013

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Magistrate for deciding the application filed by the prosecution

seeking condonation of delay, if any, afresh in accordance with

law after hearing both the parties. It is after the decision of the

application for condonation of delay that the Chief Judicial

Magistrate shall proceed further in the matter.

9. When the case on hand is scrutinized in the light of above

jurisprudence, in the instant case Crl.M.P.No.596 of 2010 was filed

by the respondent/complainant to condone the delay on the ground

that the petitioner/complainant suffered with serious ill-health i.e.,

viral hepatitis fever and bed ridden and therefore he could not file the

complaint within time. Be that it may, the trial Court, it appears, did

not order notice to the petitioner/accused in the said criminal petition

and allowed the same. Therefore, taking cognizance of the complaint

is vitiated in view of the said error in law.

10. The other arguments put forth by the petitioner against the

maintainability of the complaint need not be discussed at this stage in

view of holding that complaint is not maintainable without serving

notice to the petitioner/accused in delay condoning petition.

11. Accordingly, this Criminal Petition is allowed and the

cognizance order passed by the trial Court is set aside and case is

remitted back to the trial Court with a direction to give notice

to petitioner/accused in delay condoning petition filed by

respondent/complainant and after receiving counter if any filed by

petitioner/accused, hear both sides and pass an appropriate order in

accordance with law on the delay condoning petition. Needless to

emphasise that in case, the said petition is allowed and the complaint

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Crl.P.No.11345 of 2013

8

is taken cognizance, the petitioner/accused shall have right to defend

the case on all the pleas that are legally permissible to him.

As a sequel, interlocutory applications pending, if any, shall

stand closed.

_________________________

U. DURGA PRASAD RAO, J

28.01.2020

MS

2019:APHC:27217


Succession Act, 1925 – s.63 – SR-Testator was the owner of 1/4th share of a land – The Testator had no children and resided with his nephew appellant-GK – He executed a Will on 07.11.2005 and passed away the next day on 08.11.2005 – Having received the said land/property by the virtue of the said Will, the appellant transferred the same in favour of his four sons – Thereafter, the said property was sold jointly – Respondent nos.1 to 7 herein filed a suit seeking declaration to the effect inter alia that the Will dated 07.11.2005 was forged and fabricated – Trial Court held that the Will cannot be relied on – The Will was held to be valid and genuine by the Lower Appellate Court, so also it was held that the consequent sale deeds cannot be held invalid – However, the High Court held that the Will had not been proved – Correctness: Held: The view taken by the High Court is that the attesting witness, in his deposition, did not state that the act of affixing his thumb impression on the Will subject matter of dispute was at the direction of the Testator and, therefore, the requirement stipulated u/s. 63 of the Act was not met – The language of Section 63(c) of the Act uses the word ‘OR’ – It states that each Will shall be attested by two or more witnesses who have seen the Testator sign or affix his mark on the Will OR has seen some other persons sign the Will in the presence and by the direction of the Testator OR has received a personal acknowledgment from the Testator of his signature or mark etc – What flows therefrom is that the witnesses who have attested the Will ought to have seen the Testator sign or attest his mark OR have seen some other persons sign the Will in the presence of and on the direction of the Testator – In the instant case, the testimony of DW-1 is clear that he had seen the deceased affix his mark on the Will – That alone would ensure compliance of Section 63(c) – The part of the Section that employs the term ‘direction’ would come into play only when the attestor to the Will would have to see some other person signing the Will – Such signing would explicitly have to be in the presence and upon the direction of the Testator – The requirement of law while undoubtedly present, was not of concern in the instant dispute – On that count, the High Court to have erred in law – As such the impugned judgment of the High Court is set aside – The Judgment of the First Appellant Court stand restored – Consequently, the Will of SR is valid and so are the subsequent Sale Deeds executed by GK. [Paras 11, 13, 14, 15]


[2025] 1 S.C.R. 93 : 2025 INSC 18


Gopal Krishan & Ors. v. Daulat Ram & Ors.

(Civil Appeal No. 13192 of 2024)


02 January 2025


[C.T. Ravikumar and Sanjay Karol,* JJ.]

Issue for Consideration


Impugned in this appeal is the judgment and order of the High Court dated 26.03.2018 whereby it has been held that the Will, subject matter of controversy, allegedly of one Testator-SR, had not been proved, thereby finding that the Lower Appellate Court had erred in holding otherwise.


Headnotes


Succession Act, 1925 – s.63 – SR-Testator was the owner of 1/4th share of a land – The Testator had no children and resided with his nephew appellant-GK – He executed a Will on 07.11.2005 and passed away the next day on 08.11.2005 – Having received the said land/property by the virtue of the said Will, the appellant transferred the same in favour of his four sons – Thereafter, the said property was sold jointly – Respondent nos.1 to 7 herein filed a suit seeking declaration to the effect inter alia that the Will dated 07.11.2005 was forged and fabricated – Trial Court held that the Will cannot be relied on – The Will was held to be valid and genuine by the Lower Appellate Court, so also it was held that the consequent sale deeds cannot be held invalid – However, the High Court held that the Will had not been proved – Correctness:


Held: The view taken by the High Court is that the attesting witness, in his deposition, did not state that the act of affixing his thumb impression on the Will subject matter of dispute was at the direction of the Testator and, therefore, the requirement stipulated u/s. 63 of the Act was not met – The language of Section 63(c) of the Act uses the word ‘OR’ – It states that each Will shall be attested by two or more witnesses who have seen the Testator sign or affix his mark on the Will OR has seen some other persons sign the Will in the presence and by the direction of the Testator OR has received a personal acknowledgment from the Testator of his signature or mark etc – What flows therefrom is that the witnesses who have attested the Will ought to have seen the Testator sign or attest his mark OR have seen some other persons sign the Will in the presence of and on the direction of the Testator – In the instant case, the testimony of DW-1 is clear that he had seen the deceased affix his mark on the Will – That alone would ensure compliance of Section 63(c) – The part of the Section that employs the term ‘direction’ would come into play only when the attestor to the Will would have to see some other person signing the Will – Such signing would explicitly have to be in the presence and upon the direction of the Testator – The requirement of law while undoubtedly present, was not of concern in the instant dispute – On that count, the High Court to have erred in law – As such the impugned judgment of the High Court is set aside – The Judgment of the First Appellant Court stand restored – Consequently, the Will of SR is valid and so are the subsequent Sale Deeds executed by GK. [Paras 11, 13, 14, 15]


Case Law Cited


Meena Pradhan and Others v. Kamla Pradhan and Another (2023) 9 SCC 734; Shivakumar and Others v. Sharanabasappa and Others [2020] 6 SCR 666 : (2021) 11 SCC 277 – relied on.


Janki Narayan Bhoir v. Narayan Mandeo Kadam [2002] Supp. 5 SCR 175 : (2003) 2 SCC 91; Kanwaljit Kaur v. Joginder Singh Badwal (deceased through LRs) RSA No. 5252 of 2012; Pankajakshi (Dead) through LRs v. Chandrika and Ors. [2016] 3 SCR 1018 : (2016) 6 SCC 157 – referred to.


Books and Periodicals Cited


Justice G.P Singh’s treatise, ‘Principles of Statutory Interpretation


List of Acts


Succession Act, 1925


List of Keywords


Will; Testator; Mental faculties; Attesting Witnesses; Direction of the Testator; Attestor to the Will; Section 63 of Succession Act, 1925.


Case Arising From


CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Civil Appeal No. 13192 of 2024


From the Judgment and Order dated 26.03.2018 of the High Court of Punjab & Haryana at Chandigarh in RSA No. 1935 of 2015


Appearances for Parties


T. V. S. Raghavendra Sreyas, Ms. Gayatri Gulati, Siddharth Vasudev, Advs. for the Appellants.


Abhimanyu Tewari, Ms. Eliza Bar, Manav Bhalla, Sidhant Awasthy, Siddhant Saroha, Praveer Singh, Abhijeet Chaudhary, Advs. for the Respondents.


Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court


Judgment


Sanjay Karol J.


1.Impugned in this appeal is the judgment and order of the Punjab and Haryana High Court in RSA No. 1935 of 2015 dated 26th March 2018 whereby it has been held that the Will, subject matter of controversy, allegedly of one Sanjhi Ram, had not been proved, thereby finding that the Lower Appellate Court1 had erred in holding otherwise. The said Lower Appellate Court had set aside the decree of the Civil Court2 which had found that the Will and the subsequent mutation of the properties enumerated therein was bad in law, as the Will was “illegal ”, “null ” and “void ”. The question that falls for our consideration is-


“What do the words “by the direction of the testator” as they appear in Section 63 (c) of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 mean? Is the term to be interpreted liberally or strictly? Consequently, was the High Court correct in holding, in agreement with the Civil Court, that the Will, subject matter of dispute, stood not proved?”


2.Facts, shorn of unnecessary details, as they appear from the record are as follows: -


2.1Sanjhi Ram,3 was the owner of 1/4th share of land measuring 40 canals, 3 marlas, comprised in Khewat no.7, Khatauni no.9, Rett no. 9, Kila no. 9/8 situated in the Revenue Estate of Village Umarpura, Khurd, Tehsil and District Gurdaspur, Punjab. His share in the aforesaid property was to the extent of 10 canals and 1 marla.4


2.2The Testator had no children and resided with his nephew Gopal Krishan.5 He executed a Will on 7th November 2005 and passed away the next day on 8th November 2005. The death certificate issued by the competent authority is dated 19th November 2005.


2.3Having received the property by virtue of the aforesaid Will, the appellant transferred the same in favour of his four sons viz., Ravinder Kumar; Rajinder Kumar; Satish Kumar and Roop Lal vide Sale Deed dated 16th January 2006. The said property was sold jointly for a sum of Rs.98,000/- to Madhu Sharma and Meena Kumari, vide Sale Deed dated 3rd February 2006.


2.4Respondent nos.1 to 7 herein filed a Suit bearing No. 282 of 2006 before the Civil Court, seeking declaration to the effect inter alia (i) that the plaintiffs (respondents herein) were the owners of Sanjhi Ram’s 1/4th share; (ii) that the Will dated 7th November 2005 was forged and fabricated; and (iii) that the mutation carried out subsequent to the execution of such a Will is illegal and not binding on the plaintiffs.


2.5By way of written statement dated 24th April 2006 the contentions made in the plaint were denied.


3.The Trial Court framed seven issues primarily pertaining to, (a) validity of the Will subject matter of the present lis; (b) whether the plaintiffs are estopped by their act and conduct from filing the suit; and (c) whether the plaintiffs have the locus standi to file the suit and whether the same is maintainable, within limitation and filed with sufficient court fees, being affixed thereto.


3.1Of primary importance to the present adjudication is the findings qua issue no.1. The relevant extracts from the judgment of the Civil Court are as below:-


“10. On going through the file I find it has been admitted by the witnesses of the defendants that Sanjhi Ram remained ill. The claim of the Plaintiffs is that he died on 7.11.2005 and the claim of the Defendants that the died on 8.11.2005. The defendants did not being the death certificate of Shri Sanjhi Ram on the file and thus failed to rebut the contention of the Plaintiffs. The visit of Sanjhi Ram at Tehsil Gurdaspur on 7.11.2005 and then executing the Will on the said day without any registration of the same and adjustment of lines on the page in the lower portion and further adjusting the seal by the scribe in the left margin and further the place the thumb mark alleged to be of Sanjhi Ram make the will suspicious which cannot be relied on.”


4.On appeal the Lower Appellate Court relied on a judgment returned by a Division Bench of the High Court of Judicature at Allahabad and one judgment of the Rajasthan High Court to hold that even if the Testator was ill, so long as his mental faculties were not affected, no inference could be drawn that he was not of sound state of mind or that he could not execute a Will. In the facts of the instant case, it was observed that nowhere did the case record reflect that Sanjhi Ram’s mental faculties were in any way questionable nor was he disoriented or affected by illness. In regard to other observations of the Civil Court reproduced (supra) the Lower Appellate Court held as under:-


“16. As noted above, learned Lower Court had found the Will Ex.D1 suspicious also for the reason that the spacing in between last lines in this Will was narrower than the space available between lines in remaining upper part of this Will. In this context learned counsel for the appellants has relied upon Judgment Bahadur Singh versus Poonam Sin h & Ors, (Supra) which applies to the facts of the case in hand. Vide it Hon’ble High Court categorically observed that merely because the spacing of last two three lines is less than the earlier lines it cannot be said that the Will is not genuine. To accommodate writing in one page, sometimes last lines are written closely and therefore such circumstances should not be considered as adverse circumstances. In the case in hand also Will Ex.P1 is on a single page. Moreover, the lines on more than two third of this page have equal spacing between them. It is in the last 1/3rd part of the page of Will that spacing goes on narrowing. When the Will is on a single page only narrowing of space towards end of the writing has to be taken as a natural phenomenon.”


Having observed as above, the Will was held to be valid and genuine, so also it was held that the consequent sale deeds cannot be held invalid. The judgment of the lower Court was set aside.


5.In second appeal the High Court found that: -


(A)The reduction of space while concluding the Will had “totally escaped the notice of the Court’s below ”, and that this was a glaring illegality and perversity. The attesting witness, Janak Raj (DW-1) had not stated in his examination that his thumb print had been appended to the Will upon the direction of the Testator which is a requirement in law. For such a conclusion, reliance was placed on Janki Narayan Bhoir v. Narayan Mandeo Kadam 6 and the Judgment of the Division Bench of the High Court titled Kanwaljit Kaur v. Joginder Singh Badwal (deceased through LRs).7


(B)Placing reliance on the Constitution Bench Judgment of this Court in Pankajakshi (Dead) through LRs v. Chandrika and Ors.,8 the Court without framing substantial questions of law set aside the judgment of the Lower Appellate Court. The appeal preferred by the present respondents was thus allowed.


6.Having traversed the Courts below as aforesaid, the dispute stands before us. We have heard the learned counsel for the parties.


7.Section 63 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 runs thus:-


“63. Execution of unprivileged Wills.—


Every testator, not being a soldier employed in an expedition or engaged in actual warfare, or an airman so employed or engaged, or a mariner at sea, shall execute his Will according to the following rules:—


(a)The testator shall sign or shall affix his mark to the Will, or it shall be signed by some other person in his presence and by his direction.


(b)The signature or mark of the testator, or the signature of the person signing for him, shall be so placed that it shall appear that it was intended thereby to give effect to the writing as a Will.


(c) The Will shall be attested by two or more witnesses, each of whom has seen the testator sign or affix his mark to the Will or has seen some other person sign the Will, in the presence and by the direction of the testator, or has received from the testator a personal acknowledgement of his signature or mark, or the signature of such other person; and each of the witnesses shall sign the Will in the presence of the testator, but it shall not be necessary that more than one witness be present at the same time, and no particular form of attestation shall be necessary.”


(emphasis supplied)


As seen above, Section 63(c) enumerates five distinct situations:


A is the testator of the Will in question. B and C have signed the Will. For B and C to qualify as attestors,-


Situation 1:


Each of them has to have seen A sign the will or put his mark on it;


OR


Situation 2:


They should have seen some other person, let’s say D sign the will in the presence of and on the direction of A;


OR


Situation 3:


They ought to have received a personal acknowledgment from A to the effect that A had signed the Will or has affixed his mark thereon;


With the use of the conjunctive, ‘and’ one further stipulation has been provided:


B, C, D or any other witness is required to sign the Will in the presence of A however it is not necessitated that more than one witness be present at the same time.


The statutory language also clarifies that B and C, the attestors, are not required to follow any particular prescribed format.


8.The requisites for proving of a Will are well established. They were recently reiterated in a Judgment of this Court in Meena Pradhan and others v. Kamla Pradhan and Another.9 See also Shivakumar and Others v. Sharanabasappa and Others.10 The principles as summarised by the former are reproduced as below:-


“…10.1. The court has to consider two aspects : firstly, that the will is executed by the testator, and secondly, that it was the last will executed by him;


10.2. It is not required to be proved with mathematical accuracy, but the test of satisfaction of the prudent mind has to be applied.


10.3. A will is required to fulfil all the formalities required under Section 63 of the Succession Act, that is to say:


(a) The testator shall sign or affix his mark to the will or it shall be signed by some other person in his presence and by his direction and the said signature or affixation shall show that it was intended to give effect to the writing as a will;


(b) It is mandatory to get it attested by two or more witnesses, though no particular form of attestation is necessary;


(c) Each of the attesting witnesses must have seen the testator sign or affix his mark to the will or has seen some other person sign the will, in the presence and by the direction of the testator, or has received from the testator a personal acknowledgment of such signatures;


(d) Each of the attesting witnesses shall sign the will in the presence of the testator, however, the presence of all witnesses at the same time is not required;


10.4. For the purpose of proving the execution of the will, at least one of the attesting witnesses, who is alive, subject to the process of court, and capable of giving evidence, shall be examined;


10.5. The attesting witness should speak not only about the testator’s signatures but also that each of the witnesses had signed the will in the presence of the testator;


10.6. If one attesting witness can prove the execution of the will, the examination of other attesting witnesses can be dispensed with;


10.7. Where one attesting witness examined to prove the will fails to prove its due execution, then the other available attesting witness has to be called to supplement his evidence;


10.8. Whenever there exists any suspicion as to the execution of the will, it is the responsibility of the propounder to remove all legitimate suspicions before it can be accepted as the testator’s last will. In such cases, the initial onus on the propounder becomes heavier;


10.9. The test of judicial conscience has been evolved for dealing with those cases where the execution of the will is surrounded by suspicious circumstances. It requires to consider factors such as awareness of the testator as to the content as well as the consequences, nature and effect of the dispositions in the will; sound, certain and disposing state of mind and memory of the testator at the time of execution; testator executed the will while acting on his own free will;


10.10. One who alleges fraud, fabrication, undue influence et cetera has to prove the same. However, even in the absence of such allegations, if there are circumstances giving rise to doubt, then it becomes the duty of the propounder to dispel such suspicious circumstances by giving a cogent and convincing explanation;


10.11. Suspicious circumstances must be “real, germane and valid” and not merely “the fantasy of the doubting mind [Shivakumar v. Sharanabasappa (2021) 11 SCC 277]”. Whether a particular feature would qualify as “suspicious” would depend on the facts and circumstances of each case. Any circumstance raising suspicion legitimate in nature would qualify as a suspicious circumstance, for example, a shaky signature, a feeble mind, an unfair and unjust disposition of property, the propounder himself taking a leading part in the making of the will under which he receives a substantial benefit, etc.”


9.This case raises the question whether the third requirement u/s 63 of the Act stands met in the present case particularly as to the contours of the meaning of the phrase ‘direction of the testator’.


10.The word ‘direction’, as discussed in the Cambridge Dictionary, can be employed in various contexts – (a) giving instructions to someone to find a particular place or location; (b) looking to an area or position where someone is placed; (c) a sense of direction i.e., the ability to find or locate a particular place; (d) control or instruction; and (e) information or orders telling somebody how or what to do.


11.The present case concerns (d) and/or (e) as above. The view taken by the High Court is that the attesting witness, in his deposition, did not state that the act of affixing his thumb impression on the Will subject matter of dispute was at the direction of the Testator and, therefore, the requirement stipulated u/s 63 Iof the Act was not met.


12.The above said conclusion of the High Court is based on the testimony of Janak Raj, who is DW-1. His testimony reads as under:-


“1. That I know both the parties. I also knew Sanjhi Ram, Son of Shri Tulsi Ram, who was a resident of our Village. He was residing at Gopal Krishan. Sanjhi Ram died issueless. His wife is predeceased him. Gopal Krishan used to serve deceased Sanjhi Ram and was looking after him. Shri Sanjhi Ram who was real uncle of Gopal Krishan, while possessed of sound disposing mind, executed a valid Will on 7.1.2005 in favour of Gopal Krishan. I have seen the original WILL which bears my thumb impression. The WILL is Ex.D.1. The same was scribed by the Deed Writer at the instance of Shri Sanjhi Ram. He further scribing the same, read over and explained the contents of the WILL Ex.D1. Sh. Sanjhi Ram after admitting the contents of the WILL, appended his thumb impression in my presence and as well as in the presence of other attesting witness Sh. Tarsem Lal and thereafter I and other attesting witness put my thumb impression and signature respectively. On the basis of WILL Ex.D.1 Shri Gopal Krishan defendant is owner in possession of the land of the land of Shri Sanjhi Ram. The Plaintiffs have got no right, title or interest in the land let by Shri Sanjhi Ram. …”


(emphasis supplied)


13.The language of Section 63(c)of the Act uses the word ‘OR’. It states that each Will shall be attested by two or more witnesses who have seen the Testator sign or affix his mark on the Will OR has seen some other persons sign the Will in the presence and by the direction of the Testator OR has received a personal acknowledgment from the Testator of his signature or mark etc. What flows therefrom is that the witnesses who have attested the Will ought to have seen the Testator sign or attest his mark OR have seen some other persons sign the Will in the presence of and on the direction of the Testator. The judgment relied on by the learned Single Judge in the impugned judgment, i.e., Kanwaljit Kaur (supra) holds that the deposition of the attesting witness in the said case had not deposed in accordance with Section 63(c) of the Act, where two persons had undoubtedly attested the Will, but the aspect of the ‘direction of the testator’ was absent from such deposition. In the considered view of this Court, the Learned Single Judge fell in error in arriving at such a finding for the words used in the Section, which already stands extracted earlier,read-“or has seen some other person sign the Will, in the presence and by the direction of the testator, or has received from the testator a…”. That being the case, there is no reason why the ‘or’ employed therein, should be read as ‘and’. After all, it is well settled that one should not read ‘and ’ as ‘or ’ or vice-versa unless one is obliged to do so by discernible legislative intent. Justice G.P Singh’s treatise, ‘Principles of Statutory Interpretation’ tells us that the word “or ” is normally disjunctive while the word “and” is normally conjunctive. Further, it is equally well settled as a proposition of law that the ordinary, grammatical meaning displayed by the words of the statute should be given effect to unless the same leads to ambiguity, uncertainty or absurdity. None of these requirements, to read a word is which is normally disjunctive, as conjunctive herein, are present.


14.In the present case the testimony of DW-1 is clear that he had seen the deceased affix his mark on the Will. That alone would ensure compliance of Section 63(c). The part of the Section that employs the term ‘direction’ would come into play only when the attestor to the Will would have to see some other person signing the Will. Such signing would explicitly have to be in the presence and upon the direction of the Testator.


15.The requirement of law while undoubtedly present, was not of concern in the instant dispute. On that count, we find the High Court to have erred in law. As such the impugned judgment of the High Court with the particulars as described in para 1 is set aside. The Judgment of the First Appellant Court stand restored. Consequently, the Will of Sanjhi Ram is valid and so are the subsequent Sale Deeds executed by Gopal Krishan.


Appeal is allowed in the aforesaid terms. Pending application(s) if any shall stand disposed of.


Result of the case: Appeal allowed.


1 Civil Appeal No. 27 of 2011, judgment dated 5th September 2014 delivered by The Court of Additional District Judge (Adhoc), Fast Track Court, Gurdaspur.


2 Civil Suit No. 282 of 2006, judgment dated 24th February 2011 delivered by Civil Judge, Senior Division, Gurdaspur.


3 Testator


4 Suit property


5 Hereafter appellant no.1


6 [2002] Supp. 5 SCR 175 : (2003) 2 SCC 91


7 RSA No.5252 of 2012


8 [2016] 3 SCR 1018 : (2016) 6 SCC 157


9 (2023) 9 SCC 734


10 [2020] 6 SCR 666 : (2021) 11 SCC 277



Hindu Succession Act, 1956 – s.12 – Effects of adoption – 'Relation Back Principle': Held: Principle is that the adoption by a widow would relate back to the date of death of her husband, creating an immediate coparcenary interest in the joint property, meaning that the adopted child is treated as if they were born to the deceased husband, thus entitled to inherit his property. [Para 18]

 

[2025] 1 S.C.R. 62 : 2025 INSC 14


Sri Mahesh v. Sangram & Ors.

(Civil Appeal No(s). 36-37 of 2025)


02 January 2025


[C.T. Ravikumar* and Prashant Kumar Mishra, JJ.]

Issue for Consideration


Issue arose whether by virtue of operation of the provisions of ss. 14(1) and 12(c) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, the defendant no.1-adoptive mother would become absolute owner of the property prior to the adoption of appellant-adopted son; and as regards the effect of adoption on sale deed and gift deed executed thereafter by adoptive mother.


Headnotes


Hindu Succession Act, 1956 – ss.13, 14 – Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 – ss.12, 16 – Transfer of Property Act, 1882 – s.122 – Effects of adoption – Principle of Relation Back – Death of the original owner of the property – Following his death, property dispute between his two wives – Property divided among the two on basis of a compromise decree – Thereafter, the first wife-defendant no. 1 who was issueless, adopted the appellant – Thirteen years later, the defendant no. 1 executed sale deed in respect of schedule A properties and gift deed in respect of schedule B and C properties in favour of defendants – Appellant filed suit for partition and separate possession of the schedule properties as also challenged the execution of sale deed and gift deed – Trial court declared gift deed as null and void and granted the entire suit schedule B and C properties to the appellant since he was the sole legal heir of defendant No.1 and rejected his claim as regards the sale deed upholding the sale deed – High Court set aside the order as regards alienation under the gift deed, however, upheld the sale deed – Interference:


Held: Principle of Relation Back is that an adoption by a widow would relate back to the date of death of her husband, creating an immediate coparcenary interest in the joint property, meaning that the adopted child is treated as if they were born to the deceased husband, thus entitled to inherit his property – Adoption by defendant No.1-widow of the original owner would relate back to the date of death of the adoptive father but then all lawful alienations made by defendant No.1-adoptive mother would be binding on the appellant-adopted son – Adoptive son’s right to impeach previous alienations would depend upon the capacity of defendant No.1 who made the alienation as well as on the nature of the action of alienation – First alienation is the one where defendant no.1 effected sale of the properties – Concurrent findings by the courts below that defendant no.1 got absolute right to effect the sale of the property warrant no interference – By applying the ‘Doctrine of Relation Back’, the appellant is bound by the said alienation – As regards the alienation by gift deed, the nature of action of alienation is gift – In order to be valid gift, acceptance of the gift is a pre- requisite – Gift deed has no reference about the delivery of property by the donor and taking possession of property by the donee – Trial court’s holding that the appellant is entitled to entire 'B' and 'C' schedule properties as the sole legal heir of deceased defendant no.1, not faulty as it is the inevitable consequence of application for the ‘Doctrine of Relation Back’; and that the prerequisite for making the gift valid was absent and as such defendant nos. 4 and 5 could not become absolute owners of the schedule properties through gift deed – High Court interfered with the sound reasoning of the trial court, and set aside without providing any good and sustainable reason – Such finding could be reversed only if it is found that the said finding was based on perverse precision of evidence – Concurrent finding of the courts below that the sale deed is valid is upheld – Impugned judgment pertaining to the alienation of properties through gift deed quashed and set aside. [Paras 16-31]


Hindu Succession Act, 1956 – s.12 – Effects of adoption – 'Relation Back Principle':


Held: Principle is that the adoption by a widow would relate back to the date of death of her husband, creating an immediate coparcenary interest in the joint property, meaning that the adopted child is treated as if they were born to the deceased husband, thus entitled to inherit his property. [Para 18]


Case Law Cited


Kasabai Tukaram Karvar and Others v. Nivruti (Dead) Through Legal Heirs and Others, 2022 INSC 733 : [2022] 5 SCR 899 : 2022 SCC Online 918; Shripad Gajanan Suthankar v. Dattaram Kashinath Suthankar, 1974 INSC 43 : [1974] 3 SCR 474 : (1974) 2 SCC 156 – relied on.


Mst. Deu and Ors. v. Laxmi Narayan and Ors. (1998) 8 SCC 701 – referred to.


List of Acts


Hindu Succession Act, 1956; Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956; Transfer of Property Act, 1882.


List of Keywords


Adoption; Absolute owner; Adoptive son’s right in properties; Relation Back Principle; Execution of sale deed by adoptive mother; Execution of gift deed by adoptive mother; Nature of alienation; Lawful alienations; Constituents of valid gift; Offer and acceptance of gift; No delivery of gift; No acceptance of gift in legal sense; Adoptive mother as absolute owner; Adoptive son sole legal heir.


Case Arising From


CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Civil Appeal Nos. 36-37 of 2025


From the Judgment and Order dated 14.02.2024 of the High Court of Karnataka Circuit Bench at Dharwad in RFA Nos. 100168 and 100247 of 2018


Appearances for Parties


Ms. Aparajita Singh, Sr. Adv., Rahul Pratap, Mahadev Ganpat Patil, Shubham Rajhans, Advs. for the Appellant.


Shailesh Madiyal, Sr. Adv., M/s. Dharmaprabhas Law Associates, Chandrashekhar A. Chakalabbi, S.K Pandey, Awanish Kumar, Anshul Rai, Abhinav Garg, Ms. G. Anusha, Mahesh Thakur, Ms. Divija Mahajan, Ranvijay Singh Chandel, Mrs. Geetanjali Bedi, Chinmay Deshpande, Anirudh Sanganeria, Advs. for the Respondents.


Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court


Judgment


C.T. Ravikumar, J.


1.Leave granted.


2.In the captioned appeals by Special Leave the appellant calls in question the common judgment dated 14.02.2024 of the Karnataka, High Court, Dharwad Bench, passed in RFA Nos.100168 and 100247, of 2018 which emanated from the judgment and preliminary decree dated 31.03.2018 in OS No.122 of 2009 of the Court of IIIrd Additional Senior Civil Judge, Belagavi.


3.The self-same appellant was the plaintiff in OS No.122 of 2009 filed for partition of the suit schedule properties and separate possession against the defendants. Respondent Nos.1 to 4 herein were the original defendant Nos. 2 to 5 respectively in the said suit. Pending the first appeals, respondent No.5/defendant No.6 died and consequently, his legal representatives were impleaded as additional respondent Nos.5A to 5F and they are respondent Nos.5 to 10 in these appeals.


4.The facts of the case necessary for disposal of the captioned appeals are as follows:-


One Bhavakanna Shahapurkar was the original owner of the suit schedule properties and original defendant No.1-Smt. Parvatibai was his legally wedded wife. They had no issues in their wedlock and hence, with the consent of defendant No.1 the said Bhavakanna married one Laxmibai without dissolving his first marriage with defendant No.1. In his wedlock with Smt. Laxmibai, Bhavakanna Shahpurkar got two children, namely, Parashuram and Renuka. On 04.03.1982, Bhavakanna Shahapurkar died leaving behind two widows. After his demise, OS No.266/1982 was filed by defendant No.1 against Laxmibai, and her children Parashuram and Renuka for partition and separate possession of suit schedule properties. Based on a compromise, a decree was drawn in the said suit and later, in the final decree proceedings defendant No.1 was allotted and thereby acquired 9/32 share in schedule ‘A’ and ‘D’ properties. The appellant herein/the plaintiff was adopted by defendant No.1-Parvatibai on 16.07.1994. The adoption deed was signed and got registered by his natural father and the adoptee mother (defendant No.1) and other witnesses. Later, the appellant came and started residing with defendant No.1 as her adopted son after relinquishing all his rights in his natural family. At the time of his adoption the appellant was aged 21 years. The case of the appellant/plaintiff in OS No.122 of 2009 is that on being adopted he became the legal heir of Bhavakanna and, therefore, entitled to half share in the suit schedule properties. According to him, in such circumstances, defendant No.1 was not having absolute right or title to execute sale deed dated 13.12.2007 in favour of defendants 2 and 3 without his consent as also to execute gift deed dated 27.08.2008 in favour of defendant Nos.4 and 5. Earlier, the appellant demanded for partition of the suit schedule properties. However, defendant No.1 refused to effect partition which made him to institute the aforementioned Original Suit. In fact, in the said suit beside seeking partition and separate possession of the suit schedule properties he also sought to set aside a sale deed executed on 13.12.2007 by defendant No.1 in favour of defendant Nos.2 and 3 (respondent Nos.1 and 2 herein) and a gift deed dated 27.08.2008 made by defendant No.1 in favour of defendant Nos.4 and 5 as null and void.


5.Defendant No.1 filed written statement stating, inter alia, that the suit schedule properties are wrongly described. While admitting the adoption of the appellant/plaintiff on 16.07.1994 as also the fact that subsequently, he came to stay with her, defendant No.1 would state that she became the full and absolute owner of the suit schedule properties after the death of her husband Bhavakanna and further that by virtue of adoption of the appellant/plaintiff she was not divested off her ownership over the suit schedule properties. She had also refuted the claims of the appellant/plaintiff that without his consent she could not have sold the property covered under sale deed dated 13.12.2007 and that she had played fraud in creating gift deed dated 27.08.2008 in respect of properties described in para 1B and C of the plaint, in favour of defendant Nos.4 and 5 viz., respondent Nos.3 and 4. Above all, defendant No.1 denied the claim of acquisition of half share of the suit schedule properties by virtue of his adoption by her and thereby becoming the legal heir of her husband Sri Bhavakanna Shahapurkar.


6.Defendant Nos.2 and 3 jointly filed a separate written statement, but adopting the contentions raised by defendant No.1. They claimed that they are in possession of suit schedule property covered by the sale deed dated 13.12.2007 from the date of its purchase.


7.Defendant Nos.4 and 5 also jointly filed a separate written statement, essentially, reiterating the stand of defendant Nos.1 to 3 regarding the absolute ownership of defendant No.1 over the suit schedule properties and especially, stating that defendant No.1 was having absolute right and title over the property gifted to them under gift deed dated 27.08.2008 and that since its execution they became the absolute owners of the same.


8.Defendant No.6 filed a separate written statement even denying the adoption of the appellant/plaintiff by defendant No.1. He would further state that based on the compromise decree in OS No.266/1982 filed by defendant No.1 whereunder she consented to give him half share in each of the suit schedule properties and after the demise of defendant No.1 he became the only legal heir of Bhavakanna and defendant No.1 as his sister Renuka died in her early age itself on 12.05.1990.


9.Based on the rival pleadings the trial Court framed the following issues and additional issues:-


“ISSUES


1) Whether the plaintiff is entitled for ½ share in the suit schedule property?


2) Whether the plaintiff proves that the sale deed executed on 13/12/2007 is not at all binding upon the plaintiff?


3) Whether the defendant No.1 was competent to sell the suit schedule property to the defendant No. 2 and 3?


4) What other relief is the plaintiff entitled to?


5) What order or decree?


Additional issue dtd: 10/02/2012


1) Whether the plaintiff proves that he is the only legal representative of the deceased defendant No. 1?


Additional Issues dtd: 20/10/2012.


1) Whether the plaintiff proves that he is the only legal representatives of deceased defendant No. 1?


2) Whether the defendants No. 4 and 5 prove that they are the only legal representatives of the deceased defendant No. 1?


3) Whether the defendants No. 4 and 5 prove that they became the absolute owners of the properties mentioned in para 1B and 1C of the plaint by virtue of the gift deed executed by deceased defendant No.1 in their favour on 27/08/2008 and the said gift deed is valid and so the plaintiff has no right over the said properties?


Additional issues framed on 29/07/2017:


1) Whether the defendant No. 6 proves that the plaintiff got executed an adoption deed dtd: 19/07/1994 fraudulently, by force by taking undue advantage of the old age of defendant No.1?


2) Whether the defendant No.6 proves that the defendant No.2 and 3 got executed a sale deed dtd: 13/12/2007 with respect to “A” schedule property from defendant No.1 by undue influence and coercion?


10.It is to be noted that during the pendency of the suit the defendant No.1 died.


11.As per judgment dated 31.03.2018 in OS No.122/2009, the suit was partly decreed and declared gift deed executed by defendant No.1 dated 27.08.2008 in favour of respondent Nos.3 and 4 (defendant Nos.4 and 5) as null and void and granted the entire suit schedule B and C properties to the appellant as he being the sole legal heir of defendant No.1. However, the trial Court rejected his claim in regard to suit schedule A property and thereby, upheld the sale deed executed by defendant No.1 in favour of respondent No.1 and 2 viz., defendant Nos.2 and 3. In such circumstances, RFA No.100247/2018 was filed by the appellant herein and RFA No.100168/2018 was filed by defendant Nos.4 and 5 wherein the plaintiff is the respondent No. 1 and defendant Nos.2,3 & 6 were respondent Nos.2 to 4 respectively. On perusing the records and considering the rival submissions, the High Court formulated the following points for consideration:-


1)Whether the plaintiff is entitled for half share in the suit schedule properties.


2)Whether the plaintiff proves that defendant No.1 is not competent to sell ‘A’ schedule property in favour of defendant Nos.2 and 3 under registered sale deed?


3)Whether plaintiff proves that defendant No. l had no right to execute the gift deed in respect of ‘B’ and ‘C’ schedule properties in favour of defendant Nos.4 and 5 and the gift deed is not binding on the plaintiff?


4)Whether the plaintiff proves that dismissal of the suit for the relief of declaration that registered sale deed executed by defendant No.1 in favour of defendant Nos. 2 and 3 is arbitrary and erroneous?


5)Whether defendant Nos.4 and 5 prove that judgment and decree passed by the trial court declaring that registered gift deed executed by defendant No. l in favour of defendant Nos.4 and 5 as null and void, is arbitrary and erroneous?


6)What order or decree?


12.While considering the first point formulated the High Court took note of the compromise decree passed in OS No.266/1982 filed by defendant No.1 which was followed Ext.D14 and the consequential allotment of shares in favour of defendant No.1 Paragraph 22 of the impugned common judgment would reveal that as per Ext.D14 only 9/32 share in schedule ‘A’ to ‘D’ properties were allotted to and acquired by the defendant. Ultimately, the High Court found that as relates to the properties acquired pursuant to Ext.D14, the defendant No.1 became its absolute owner.


13.As per the impugned common judgment dated 14.02.2024 the High Court, dismissed RFA No.100247/2018 filed by the appellant herein and allowed RFA No.100168/2018 filed by respondent Nos.4 and 5, and the judgment and decree by the trial Court was set aside. Consequent to the setting aside of the decree the suit filed by the appellant viz., OS No.122/2009 was dismissed. In view of the dismissal of RFA No.100247/2018, the Interlocutory Application being IA No.1/2018 therein for temporary injunction was held as not surviving and consequently the same was also dismissed. It is in the said circumstances that the appellant herein who was the plaintiff filed the captioned appeals.


14.In view of the narration of the facts as above, before considering the rival contentions, we think it apposite to refer to the relevant provisions of law as well as the law settled in regard to the questions involved in this matter. Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 (for short ‘the Act’) reads thus:-


“14. Property of a female Hindu to be her absolute property.―(1) Any property possessed by a female Hindu, whether acquired before or after the commencement of this Act, shall be held by her as full owner thereof and not as a limited owner.


Explanation.―In this sub-section, “property” includes both movable and immovable property acquired by a female Hindu by inheritance or devise, or at a partition, or in lieu of maintenance or arrears of maintenance, or by gift from any person, whether a relative or not, before, at or after her marriage, or by her own skill or exertion, or by purchase or by prescription, or in any other manner whatsoever, and also any such property held by her as stridhana immediately before the commencement of this Act.


(2) Nothing contained in sub-section (1) shall apply to any property acquired by way of gift or under a will or any other instrument or under a decree or order of a civil court or under an award where the terms of the gift, will or other instrument or the decree, order or award prescribe a restricted estate in such property.”


15.Section 13 of the Act reads thus:-


“13. Computation of degrees.―(1) For the purposes of determining the order of succession among agnates or cognates, relationship shall be reckoned from the intestate to the heir in terms of degrees of ascent or degrees of descent or both, as the case may be.


(2) Degrees of ascent and degrees of descent shall be computed inclusive of the intestate.


(3) Every generation constitutes a degree either ascending or descending.”


16.We will firstly consider the law relating to adoption in view of the case of the appellant that he was adopted by defendant No.1. Though there was an attempt on the part of the defendants to defy adoption concurrently it was found that defendant No.1 had adopted the appellant/the plaintiff as her son. The trial Court and the High Court found that plaintiff has succeeded in proving adoption orally and by producing Ext.P1 registered adoption deed. The Courts have also found that defendant No.1 in her written statement admitted that she had taken plaintiff in adoption. In the contextual situation, it is relevant to refer to the decision in Mst. Deu and Ors. v. Laxmi Narayan and Ors.,1 where this Court held by virtue of Section 16 the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 (for brevity ‘The Act of 1956’), that wherever any document registered under the law is produced before the court purporting to record an adoption made and is signed by the persons mentioned therein, the court should presume that the adoption has been made in compliance with the provisions of the said statute unless and until it is disproved. It was further held therein in view of Section 16 of the Act of 1956 that it would be open to the persons who challenge the registered deed of adoption to disprove the same by taking independent proceedings. As noticed hereinbefore in the case on hand the appellant plaintiff had succeeded in proving the factum of his adoption by defendant No.1 and in that regard, he had produced and proved Ext.P1 which is a registered deed of adoption and above all defendant No.1 herself admitted the factum of his adoption in her written statement. In such circumstances, the position is that the appellant/plaintiff was indisputably adopted by defendant No.1 on 16.07.1994.


17.We have already extracted Sections 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act. For a proper consideration of the questions involved in the case on hand it is only apposite to refer to Section 12(c) of the Act of 1956. It reads thus:-


“12. Effects of adoption.―An adopted child shall be deemed to be the child of his or her adoptive father or mother for all purposes with effect from the date of the adoption and from such date all the ties of the child in the family of his or her birth shall be deemed to be severed and replaced by those created by the adoption in the adoptive family;


(a)…


(b)…


(c) the adopted child shall not divest any person of any estate which vested in him or her before the adoption.”


18.Thus, going by proviso (c) to Section 12 of the Act of 1956, it is clear that an adopted child shall not divest any person of any estate which vested him or her before the adoption. We have already taken note of the fact that the date of adoption was 16.07.1994. In the contextual situation it is also relevant to refer to the ‘Relation Back Principle’. The said principle is that adoption by a widow would relate back to the date of death of her husband, creating an immediate coparcenary interest in the joint property, meaning that the adopted child is treated as if they were born to the deceased husband, thus entitled to inherit his property. In Kasabai Tukaram Karvar and Others v. Nivruti (Dead) Through Legal Heirs and Others,2 this Court extracted Paragraph 6 of Shripad Gajanan Suthankar v. Dattaram Kashinath Suthankar,3 with agreement thus:-


“10. As far as the doctrine of relation back goes, we need only notice decisions of this Court in Govind Hanumantha Rao Desai v. Nagappa alias Narahari Laxman Rao Deshpande and Sever (1972) 1 SCC 515 and Shripad Gajanan Suthankar v. Dattaram Kashinath Suthankar (1974) 2 SCC 156. We may only further expatiate by referring to paragraphs 6, 7 and 9 of Shripad Gajanan Suthankar (Supra).


6. It is established law that the adoption by a widow relates back to the date of the death of the adoptive father, which, in this case, took place in 1921. Indeed, the complexity of the present case arises from the application of this legal fiction of “relation-back” and the limitations on the amplitude of that fiction visa-vis the partition of 1944, in the light of the rulings of the various High Courts and of the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council, and of this Court, the last of which is Govind v. Nagappa. According to the appellant, the rights of the adopted son, armed as he is with the theory of “relation-back”, have to be effectuated retroactively, the guidelines wherefor are available from the decided cases. It is no doubt true that “when a member of a joint family governed by Mitakshara law dies and the widow validly adopts a son to him, a coparcenary interest in the joint property is immediately created by the adoption co-extensive with that which the deceased coparcener had, and it vests at once in the adopted son”. (See Mulla on Hindu Law, 13th Edn. p.516.)


11. The same author, however, points out that:


“the rights of an adopted son arise for the first time on his adoption. He may, by virtue of his rights as adopted son, divest other persons in whom the property vested after the death of the adoptive father, but all lawful alienations made by previous holder would be binding on him. His right to impeach previous alienations would depend upon the capacity of the holder who made the alienation as well as on the nature of the action of alienation. When the holder was a male, who had unfettered right of transfer, e.g., the last surviving member of a joint family, the adopted son could not impeach the transfer. In case of females who had restricted rights of transfer even apart from any adoption, the transfers would be valid only when they are supported by legal necessity”. (ibid; pp. 516 – 517; para 507.)


“An adopted son is bound by alienations made by his adoptive father prior to the adoption to the same extent as a natural-born son would be. (ibid; p. 517 : para 508.)


7. It is settled law that the rights of an adopted son spring into existence only from the moment of the adoption and all alienations made by the widow before the adoption, if they are made for legal necessity or otherwise lawfully, such as with the consent of the next reversioners, are binding on the adopted son.”


19.In fact, the defendants who refuted the claim of the appellant, including defendant No.1 would rely on Section 14(1) of ‘the Act’ and Section 12(c) of the Act of 1956, besides the compromise decree in OS No.266 of 1982 to contend that defendant No.1 became the absolute owner of the suit schedule properties by virtue of the adoption and the operation of the aforesaid provisions much earlier to the adoption of the appellant/plaintiff on 16.07.1994. In fact, it is so contended by them to drive home the point that since defendant No.1 became the absolute owner of the suit schedule property prior to the adoption of the appellant/plaintiff and the sale deed dated 13.12.2007 in favour of defendant Nos.2 and 3 (respondent Nos.1 and 2 herein) as also the gift deed dated 27.08.2007 in favour of defendant No.4 and 5 (respondent Nos.3 and 4 herein), the appellant/plaintiff was bound by such alienation made by defendant No.1.


20.In view of the position of law referred above and the factual position obtained in the case on hand the crucial legal position to be looked into is what is the effect of the compromise decree passed in OS No.266 of 1982 and whether it would be binding on the appellant. In this context, it is also relevant to note that indisputably the adoption of the appellant/plaintiff was on 16.07.1994 and the adoption deed is a registered one which was not disproved by defendants though it is permissible under Section 16 of the Act of 1956. Furthermore, it is relevant to note that it is indisputable that the sale deed in question was executed only on 13.12.2007 by defendant No.1 and the gift deed was executed by her only on 27.08.2007. In other words, the sale deed and the gift deed were executed only subsequent to the adoption of the appellant by defendant No.1 on 16.07.1994. It is in this context that the aforementioned question assumes relevance.


21.As noticed hereinbefore, defendant No.1 filed OS No.266 of 1982 against her husband Bhavakanna, Smt. Laxmibai, the second wife of Bhavakanna, Parsuram and Renuka who are the children of Laxmibai through Bhavakanna. True that the said suit was compromised and a decree was passed in terms of the compromise petition. Defendant No.1 filed Final Decree Proceedings No.75/1988 and in the said proceedings the parties entered into compromise and the compromise petition was marked as Ext.D14 and by virtue of the same defendant No.1 was allotted 9/32 share in A to D schedule properties. Indisputably the adoption of the appellant/plaintiff was subsequent to the compromise decree and Ext.D14 in terms of which defendant No.1 was allotted the shares mentioned as above. In such circumstances, the question is whether by virtue of operation of the provisions of Section 14(1) of the Act and Section 12(c) of the Act of 1956, the defendant No.1 would become the absolute owner of the property prior to the adoption of appellant on 16.07.1994.


22.Obviously, in the case on hand, the factum of adoption of the appellant/the plaintiff by defendant No.1 after the death of adoptive father, on 16.07.1994 is established by the appellant/the plaintiff and it is pertinent to note that the same was admitted by defendant No.1 as well, in her written statement. In such circumstances, in view of the ‘Doctrine of Relation Back’ and by applying the law laid down in Sripad Gajanan Suthankar’s case (supra) relied on with agreement in Kasabai Tukaram Karvar’s case (supra) the adoption by defendant No.1, the widow of Bhavakanna Shahpurkar, would relate back to the date of death of the adoptive father which is 04.03.1982 but then all lawful alienations made by defendant No.1 would be binding on the appellant/plaintiff. As held in Sripad Gajanan Suthankar’s case (supra) in paragraph 11 his right to impeach previous alienations would depend upon the capacity of defendant No.1 who made the alienation as well as on the nature of the action of alienation.


23.The first among the alienations under challenge in the case on hand is the one where defendant No.1 effected sale of the properties covered by registered sale deed dated 13.12.2007 in respect of ‘A’ schedule property in favour of defendant Nos.2 and 3. There is concurrency with respect to the said issue between the trial Court and the High Court. The Courts have held that defendant No.1 got absolute right to effect the sale of the property covered thereunder and that the sale was done in favour of defendant Nos.2 and 3 in accordance with the law. Admittedly, in regard to the sale, defendant No.1 executed the sale deed dated 13.12.2007 and she was not having a case that she had not received sale consideration. By applying the ‘Doctrine of Relation Back’ and the ratio of decisions in Kasabai Tukaram Karvar’s case (supra) and Sripad Gajanan Suthankar’s case (supra) it can only be held that the appellant/plaintiff is bound by the said alienation. This is because of the cumulative effect of the compromise decree in OS No.122 of 2009 followed by Ext.D14 and the allotment of share based on the same. In this context it is also relevant to note that the factum of execution of the sale deed is not disputed by the appellant but his contention is only that defendant No.1 could not have sold the property without his consent and knowledge. Though the alienation was subsequent to his adoption by virtue of the fact that defendant No.1 got absolute right and title in regard to the property covered by the said sale deed dated 13.12.2007 and that a valid sale was effected following the procedures, the challenge of the appellant against the said alienation of property by defendant No.1 in favour of defendant Nos.2 and 3 is not liable to be interfered with. We have no hesitation to hold that the concurrent findings of the trial Court and the High Court in regard to the said sale deed warrant no interference. In such circumstances, dismissal of RFA No.100247 of 2018 filed by the appellant/plaintiff challenging the alienation under the registered sale deed dated 13.12.2007 is only to be confirmed.


24.The other alienation of property by defendant No.1 which is under challenge is the alienation of ‘B’ and ‘C’ schedule properties by registered gift deed dated 27.08.2008 in favour of defendant Nos.4 and 5. It is to be noted that the trial Court and the High Court are at issue in regard to the said alienation. Obviously, the trial Court held that the gift deed dated 27.08.2008 executed by defendant No.1 in favour of defendant Nos.4 and 5 is null and void and is not binding on the plaintiff. Consequent to such declaration the trial Court found that the appellant/plaintiff is entitled to entire ‘B’ and ‘C’ schedule properties as he being the sole legal heir of deceased defendant No.1. Per contra, the High Court found that since defendant No.1 was the absolute owner of the said suit schedule properties as well the appellant/plaintiff got no locus standi to challenge the registered gift deed executed by defendant No.1 in favour of defendant Nos.4 and 5. It is the said finding that resulted in allowing RFA No.100168 of 2018 filed by defendant Nos.4 and 5. Consequently, the High Court set aside the judgment and decree passed by the trial Court to that extent and resultantly dismissed the suit filed by the appellant/plaintiff.


25.In the light of the ‘Doctrine of Relation Back’ and the ratio in the decisions in Kasabhai Tukaram Karwar’s case (supra) and Sripad Gajanan Suthankar’s case (supra) we have already found that all lawful alienations made by defendant No.1 will bind the appellant/plaintiff and his right to impeach previous alienation would depend upon the capacity of the holder who make the alienation as well as on the nature of the action of alienation. The nature of action of alienation is gift and it is allegedly made in favour of defendant Nos.4 and 5. It is to be noted that defendant Nos.4 and 5 though got a case that earlier defendant No.1 executed a Will in regard to the said properties in their favour they themselves would admit and plead that subsequently the properties were given in gift as per registered gift deed dated 27.08.2008. The very fact that the defendant Nos.4 and 5 themselves relied on the gift deed would go to show that if at all there was a Will that was revoked. At any rate, it is a fact that even defendant Nos.4 and 5 did not rely on the same.


26.Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (for short, ‘the TP Act’) defines gift as under:-


“122. “Gift” defined.—“Gift” is the transfer of certain existing moveable or immoveable property made voluntarily and without consideration, by one person, called the donor, to another, called the donee, and accepted by or on behalf of the donee.


Acceptance when to be made.— Such acceptance must be made during the lifetime of the donor and while he is till capable of giving,


If the donee dies before acceptance, the gift is void.”


27.A perusal of Section 122 of the TP Act would make it clear about the pre-requisites of a valid gift. Going by the same, two things are necessary to constitute a valid gift, namely, (i) an offer and, (ii) its acceptance. A scanning of the judgment of the trial Court in regard to the alienation by a gift by the defendant No.1 in favour of defendant Nos.4 and 5 it is to be noted that several reasons have been given for holding the same as null and void. To start with, it is to be noted that in the gift deed dated 27.08.2008 it is recited thus:-


“WHEREAS, the Donees are natural Grand Childrens of Donor i.e., (Donor’s own daughter’s own childrens), the Donor is full and absolute owner of the Properties, more fully described in the Schedule hereunder and hereinafter referred to as the Schedule Property’, by virtue of Final Court Decree No. FDP-75/88, dated 02.01.1990 & Exe. Nos. 319/90 R. No.: 1799 dated 05.09.1990. And the said Schedule mentioned properties are exclusive properties which are in actual physical possession and enjoyment of the said Donor.”


28.Going by the afore extracted recital in the deed of gift, the donees are natural grand-children of donor i.e., donor’s own daughter’s own children. But the fact is that even the defendant witnesses who are related to defendant Nos.2 and 3 would admit the fact that defendant Nos.4 and 5 are not the children of own daughter of defendant No.1. The adoption deed itself would go to show that the adoptive mother who is defendant No.1 was issueless. Thus, when the admitted position is that defendant No.1 got no children, the defendant Nos.4 and 5 cannot claim the status that they are the own children of the own daughter of defendant No.1. That apart, going by the afore extracted recital, the schedule mentioned properties in the gift deed viz., the suit schedule ‘B’ and ‘C’ properties are exclusive properties in the actual physical possession and enjoyment of defendant No.1. It is to be noted that the very case of appellant/plaintiff is that he is in exclusive possession of the said suit schedule properties. In the contextual situation, it is to be noted that in Ext.D6(a) gift deed there is no reference about the delivery of property by the donor and taking possession of property by the donee. Defendant No.4 was examined in the suit as DW-3. During cross-examination he would depose that he did not know as to who are in possession of properties comprised in CTS No.667 and CTS No.4879/67 and 278, he also would say that he is absolutely unaware as to who is using CTS 667 and who is residing in CTS No.4879/67, it is to be noted that they are the properties described as ‘B’ and ‘C’ schedule properties in the suit and also as properties gifted to defendant Nos.4 and 5 as per Ext.D6(a) gift deed dated 27.08.2008. It is also relevant to note that while being cross-examined as DW-3 the fourth defendant would also depose that when the gift deed was registered the said properties covered by the same were not in his possession and he voluntarily stated that it was with defendant No.1 till her lifetime. It is also evident from his oral testimony that he would admit that the possession of the said property was not taken either on the date of Ext.D6 or even thereafter. It is in the said circumstances specifically dealt with in detail that the trial Court arrived at the conclusion that defendant No.1 was not knowing the contents of Ext.D6(a) gift deed and further that ‘B’ and ‘C’ schedule properties referred to in Ext.D6(a) were not delivered to the possession of defendant Nos.4 and 5 even on the date of execution of Ext.D6(a) and even at the time of examination before the Court defendant Nos.4 was not aware as to who are the persons who are in possession of ‘B’ and ‘C’ schedule properties. Same was the case with respect to defendant No.5. Moreover, the trial Court took note of the fact that the evidence on record would reveal that defendant No.1 was residing at Nanawadi at the time of her death along with DW-5. As noticed hereinbefore when the fact is that the properties covered by the gift deed are not delivered either at the time of the alleged execution of the gift deed or at any later point of time and the fact that the defendant(s) got no case that at any later point of time that they had initiated any steps to get possession of the same either during the lifetime of defendant No.1 or even after her lifetime, we do not find any reason as to how the trial Court could be said to have erred in holding that defendant Nos.4 and 5 could not become absolute owners of ‘B’ and ‘C’ schedule properties through Ext.D6(a) gift deed.


29.It is the said finding of the trial Court that was set aside by the High Court in the first appeal with respect to the alienation under the gift deed dated 27.08.2008. A careful scanning of the impugned common judgment of the High Court would reveal that the sound reasoning of the trial Court in regard to this issue was interfered with and set aside without detailed discussion and at the same time without providing any good and sustainable reason therefor. It appears that the High Court was carried away by the fact that the gift deed is a registered one. We have already taken note of the fact that in order to be valid, acceptance of the gift is a pre-requisite. When the very case of one of the donees of the gift viz., the defendant No.4 that the property was in the possession of the donor herself till her death itself would reveal that the properties were not delivered and in other words in the legal sense there was no acceptance. The fact that defendant No.4 himself depose before the Court that he was not aware of the fact as to in whose possession the gifted properties lie with, would justify the conclusions arrived at by the trial Court. True that the First Appellate Court will be having the power to reappreciate the entire evidence and to substitute any finding of the trial Court if it is legally required. At the same time, when once it is found that a sound reasoning given by a trial Court for returning a finding with respect to a definite issue the same cannot be likely interfered without giving appropriate sustainable reasons. The position with respect to the gift deed is discussed in detail by the trial Court and when it arrived at the conclusion that the pre-requisite for making the same valid was absent such a finding could be reversed only if it is found that the said finding was based on perverse precision of evidence. In the case on hand, the discussion as above would reveal that the pre-requisite to constitute a valid gift is lacking and the evidence discussed by the trial Court would support the said finding we do not find any reason for the Appellate Court to interfere with the same. The declaration that gift deed dated 27.08.2008 is null and void is made by the trial Court in the aforesaid circumstances and it is only as a necessary sequel that the trial Court held that the appellant/plaintiff is entitled to entire ‘B’ and ‘C’ schedule properties as the sole legal heir of deceased defendant No.1. As noted hereinbefore, DW-1 herself in her written statement admitted the adoption of the appellant/plaintiff as her son and the registered adoption deed could fortify the same. When that be so the finding that the appellant is entitled to the said properties being the sole legal heir of deceased defendant No.1 cannot be said to be faulty as it is the inevitable consequence of application for the ‘Doctrine of Relation Back’ and the ratio of the decisions in Kasabai Tukaram Karvar’s case (supra) and Sripad Gajanan Suthankar’s case (supra).


30.In the result the appeal is partly allowed. The concurrent finding of the courts below that the sale deed dated 13.12.2007 in favour of defendant Nos.2 and 3 is valid and that the appellant/plaintiff is not entitled to any share in ‘A’ schedule property is confirmed and consequently the appeal against the judgment in RFA No.100247 of 2018, viz., SLP (C) No.10558 of 2024 is dismissed.


31.The appeal against the judgment in RFA No.100168 of 2018 against the reversal of the judgment and the decree of the trial Court pertaining to the alienation of properties through gift deed dated 27.08.2008 and the gift deed itself, is allowed and the judgment of the High Court in RFA No.100168/2018 is quashed and set aside. Consequently, the judgment and decree of the trial Court holding the gift deed dated 27.08.2008 as null and void and the finding that the appellant/plaintiff is entitled to entire ‘B’ and ‘C’ schedule properties as the sole heir of deceased defendant No.1 are restored.


32.In the circumstances there will be no order as to costs.


Result of the case: Appeal partly allowed.


1 (1998) 8 SCC 701


2 2022 INSC 733 : [2022] 5 SCR 899 : 2022 SCC Online 918


3 1974 INSC 43 : [1974] 3 SCR 474 : (1974) 2 SCC 156



Whether senior’s admonition can be attributed to mean an ‘intentional insult with the intent to provoke’ within the means of s.504, Penal Code, 1860.


[2025] 3 S.C.R. 48 : 2025 INSC 194


B.V. Ram Kumar v. State of Telangana and Another

(Criminal Appeal No. 654 of 2025)


10 February 2025


[Sanjay Karol and Sandeep Mehta,* JJ.]

Issue for Consideration


Whether senior’s admonition can be attributed to mean an ‘intentional insult with the intent to provoke’ within the means of s.504, Penal Code, 1860.


Headnotes


Penal Code, 1860 – ss.269, 270 and 504 – On 02.02.2022, appellant-Officiating Director of Institute called respondent no.2-complainant to his chamber and reprimanded her in a high-pitched voice for having filed complaints against him to the higher authority – Complainant filed FIR against appellant u/ss.269, 270 and 504, IPC – Trial Court took cognizance of the offences and summoned the appellant – Appellant preferred criminal petition u/s.482, CrPC and sought quashing of proceedings – Criminal petition was dismissed by the High Court – Correctness:


Held: There is a reasonable expectation on the part of a person, who caters to the affairs at the helm, that his juniors should attend to the professional affairs of the Institute (workplace) with utmost sincerity and dedication – The circumstances that existed during the times of Covid-19 pandemic and the pressure on the medical professionals was multiplied manifold, therefore, it was reasonable for the appellant to contemplate similar expectations from his juniors/associates – The intention behind this was simply to control the perceived indiscipline of the subordinates who were alleged to be shirking from the performance of their duties and were displaying lethargic, lackadaisical and laid-back approach towards the profession – In the facts and circumstances of the present case, appellant’s act of reprimanding the complainant cannot by any stretch of imagination be treated to be an ‘intentional insult’ meted out to the complainant so as to provoke her to commit breach of peace or any other offence – If the interpretation advanced from the side of prosecution and the complainant is accepted, it may lead to gross misuse of liberty in workplaces – Therefore, senior’s admonition cannot be reasonably attributed to mean an ‘intentional insult with the intent to provoke’ within the means of Section 504, IPC, provided that the admonition relates to the matters incidental to the workplace covering discipline and the discharge of duties therein – The statements recorded by the Investigating Officer during the course of investigation, it is discernible that the appellant has been roped in the present criminal proceedings on account of his strict demeanour and the tendency to maintain discipline which is reasonably expected of individuals who serve a noble vocation of a medical profession while also serving as the head of the Institution during the difficult time of Covid-19 pandemic – No existence of the necessary ingredients constituting the offences applied in the chargesheet so as to allow further prosecution of the appellant and hence, it is a fit case to quash the criminal proceedings initiated against the appellant. [Paras 26, 27, 28, 29]


Penal Code, 1860 – s.504 – Intentional insult with intent to provoke breach of peace:


Held: Section 504, IPC consists of two parts – Firstly, the actus reus being the intentional insult which gives rise to the provocation – Secondly, the mens rea, i.e., the intention or knowledge on the part of the accused that such intentional provocation is likely to cause the person insulted to break public peace or commit any other offence – The animus nocendi in Section 504, IPC is that the accused should ‘intentionally insult’ the other person with the intention or knowledge that the provocation caused by such insult is likely to result in the commission of breach of public peace or any other offence by the person who has been so insulted – The offence is said to be complete once the accused person makes ‘intentional insult’ with the aforesaid mens rea – Hence, intention or knowledge on the part of accused person that his actions of making ‘intentional insult’ have the potential to provoke the person insulted is sine qua non for the commission of the offence under Section 504, IPC. [Paras 22, 23]


Case Law Cited


State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal [1992] 3 Supp. SCR 735 : (1992) 1 Supp. SCC 335; Fiona Shrikhande v. State of Maharashtra [2013] 9 SCR 240 : (2013) 14 SCC 44; Mohammad Wajid v. State of U.P. [2023] 11 SCR 313 : 2023 SCC Online SC 951 – relied on.


List of Acts


Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973; Penal Code, 1860.


List of Keywords


Reasonable expectation; Covid-19 pandemic; Intentional insult; Breach of peace; Senior’s admonition; Section 504 of Penal Code, 1860.


Case Arising From


CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION: Criminal Appeal No. 654 of 2025


From the Judgment and Order dated 03.05.2024 of the High Court for the State of Telangana at Hyderabad in CRP No. 11653 of 2022


Appearances for Parties


Challa Kodanrama, Sr. Adv., Hitendra Nath Rath, Parma Nand, Ms. Laxmi, Advs. for the Appellant.


Ms. Uttara Babbar, Sr. Adv., Ms. Devina Sehgal, Ms. Somaya Gupta, Shri Singh, Harsh Parashar, Chanakya Sharma, Ms. Arunima Nair, Advs. for the Respondents.


Judgment / Order of the Supreme Court


Judgment


Mehta, J.


1.Heard.


2.Leave granted.


3.The instant appeal by special leave preferred by the appellant takes exception to the judgment dated 3rd May, 2024, passed by the High Court of Judicature for the State of Telangana at Hyderabad1 in Criminal Petition No. 11653 of 2022, whereby the learned Single Judge dismissed the petition under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 19732 preferred by the appellant, seeking quashment of the chargesheet in Case Crime No. 1771 of 2022, submitted against the appellant for the offences punishable under Sections 269, 270 and 504 of the Indian Penal Code, 18603 before the Court of learned XI Additional Chief Metropolitan Magistrate, Hyderabad4.


Brief facts: -


4.Respondent No. 2(complainant) was working as an Assistant Professor, Pediatrics in National Institute for Empowerment of Persons with Intellectual Disabilities, Secunderabad5. On 2nd February, 2022, the complainant was called by the appellant, through his attender, to come to his chamber. During the time, appellant was discharging his duties as Officiating Director of the Institute(workplace). It is alleged that no sooner the complainant entered the chamber of the appellant, he started addressing her in a high-pitched voice reprimanding her for having filed complaints against him to the higher authority. The complainant immediately protested and apprised the appellant that as she had just recovered from Covid-19 virus and was continuously facing various medical issues, he must refrain from raising his voice at her. Immediately thereafter, her hands began to tremble and she started sweating profusely. She left the chamber of the appellant stating that she would submit a written reply in this regard.


5.The complainant filed a complaint against the appellant on the same day, pursuant to which an FIR6 came to be registered on 5th February, 2022 at Police Station, Bowenpalli, Hyderabad for the offences punishable under Sections 269, 270, 504 and 354, IPC. Investigation was commenced and statements of various witnesses were recorded. The Investigating Officer submitted a chargesheet dated 27th September, 2022, against the appellant in the Court concerned for the offences punishable under Sections 269, 270 and 504, IPC. It was primarily alleged in the chargesheet7 that the appellant failed to provide and maintain adequate PPE kits and gloves in the Institute(workplace), which posed a great risk of spreading infectious diseases such as Covid-19. The trial Court took cognizance of the above offences and summoned the appellant. Aggrieved by the chargesheet and the cognizance taken by the trial Court, the appellant preferred a criminal petition8 under Section 482, CrPC before the High Court, seeking quashment of proceedings sought to be taken against him in Case Crime No. 1771 of 2022.


6.The High Court, while dismissing the above criminal petition, held that there was no merit in the quashing petition filed by the appellant. It further opined that as the allegations against appellant were serious in nature, therefore, the true facts of the case required to be elicited and proved during the trial before the trial Court. Accordingly, the quashing petition came to be dismissed vide order dated 3rd May, 2024, which is assailed in the present appeal by special leave.


Submissions on behalf of the appellant: -


7.Learned counsel for the appellant submitted that the proceedings of the criminal case registered against him tantamount to sheer abuse of the process of law, being initiated maliciously, with an ulterior motive and a mala fide intent. To buttress his submissions, learned Counsel stated that similar complaints were also made by the complainant to the concerned Ministry, which had sought reply from the appellant. As on date, all these complaints have been closed being satisfied with the reply of the appellant.


8.Learned counsel further contended that even if the allegations in the FIR and chargesheet are accepted to be true and taken on their face value, they lack the basic ingredients to constitute the offences set out therein. These allegations do not make out a prima facie case against the appellant. The alleged act of speaking in a brusque manner by the appellant, even if accepted on the face value, was without any mens rea as he was only making a query from the complainant about her lackadaisical and lazy approach towards the discharge of duties in the Institute(workplace). Numerous complaints were made on behalf of the students and their parents against the complainant for not being available during the duty hours. These complaints were pending with the appellant while he was discharging his duties as Officiating Director of the Institute(workplace) and the query which the appellant made from the complainant in his chamber was in this regard only, and was without any mala fide intent. He also urged that the chargesheet filed against the appellant lacks the fundamental facts and material constituting the necessary ingredients of the offences for which the appellant has been summoned.


On these grounds, learned counsel for the appellant urged this Court to accept the appeal, set aside the impugned judgment and quash the proceedings of the criminal case pending against the appellant in the trial Court pursuant to the impugned chargesheet.


Submissions on behalf of the respondents: -


9.Per contra, learned counsel for the complainant contended that the High Court was justified in dismissing the quashing petition filed by the appellant as it was sans merit. The contents of the FIR and the chargesheet make out a prima facie case of a continuous harassment of the complainant by the appellant. He was in the habit of maltreating the complainant before her clients and other office staff. To buttress this contention, learned Counsel has placed reliance on the deposition of witnesses examined by the police during investigation who have supported the version of the complainant with respect to the verbal altercation that had taken place on 2nd February, 2022, between the complainant and appellant.


10.Learned counsel further contended that the act/omissions on behalf of the appellant as the Director, in not maintaining and providing adequate supplies of PPE kits, masks and sanitizers, make out a prima facie case for the offences under which he has been charge-sheeted by the police.


On these grounds, learned counsel for the complainant implored this Court to refrain from interfering with the impugned judgment and dismiss the appeal.


11.The learned standing counsel appearing for the State of Telangana also adopted the submissions of the complainant’s counsel and prayed for dismissal of the appeal.


Analysis and Conclusion:


12.We have given our thoughtful consideration to the arguments advanced at bar and have gone through the impugned judgment and the material placed on record.


13.The case of the complainant is primarily based on the allegation that the appellant used to unjustifiedly scold and reprimand her in front of the other employees of the Institute(workplace). She lodged an FIR for the offences punishable under Sections 269, 270, 504 and 354, IPC against the appellant, which led to the submission of the chargesheet dated 27th September, 2022, for the offences under Sections 269, 270 and 504, IPC. However, section 354 of IPC, which was incorporated in the FIR, was deleted from the chargesheet on the ground that it became clear during the investigation that there was no attempt to outrage the modesty of the complainant.


14.The position of law is well settled by catena of judgments of this Court that in order to entertain a challenge to the FIR, chargesheet or an order taking cognizance, all that has to be seen is, whether from a bare reading of the chargesheet, the ingredients of the sections charged therein are being prima facie made out or not. Reference in this regard may be made to the judgment of this Court in State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal,9 wherein it was held that:-


“102. In the backdrop of the interpretation of the various relevant provisions of the Code under Chapter XIV and of the principles of law enunciated by this Court in a series of decisions relating to the exercise of the extraordinary power under Article 226 or the inherent powers under Section 482 of the Code which we have extracted and reproduced above, we give the following categories of cases by way of illustration wherein such power could be exercised either to prevent abuse of the process of any court or otherwise to secure the ends of justice, though it may not be possible to lay down any precise, clearly defined and sufficiently channelised and inflexible guidelines or rigid formulae and to give an exhaustive list of myriad kinds of cases wherein such power should be exercised.


(1) Where the allegations made in the first information report or the complaint, even if they are taken at their face value and accepted in their entirety do not prima facie constitute any offence or make out a case against the accused.


(2) Where the allegations in the first information report and other materials, if any, accompanying the FIR do not disclose a cognizable offence, justifying an investigation by police officers under Section 156(1) of the Code except under an order of a Magistrate within the purview of Section 155(2) of the Code.


(3) Where the uncontroverted allegations made in the FIR or complaint and the evidence collected in support of the same do not disclose the commission of any offence and make out a case against the accused.


(4) Where, the allegations in the FIR do not constitute a cognizable offence but constitute only a non-cognizable offence, no investigation is permitted by a police officer without an order of a Magistrate as contemplated under Section 155(2) of the Code.


(5) Where the allegations made in the FIR or complaint are so absurd and inherently improbable on the basis of which no prudent person can ever reach a just conclusion that there is sufficient ground for proceeding against the accused.


(6) Where there is an express legal bar engrafted in any of the provisions of the Code or the concerned Act (under which a criminal proceeding is instituted) to the institution and continuance of the proceedings and/or where there is a specific provision in the Code or the concerned Act, providing efficacious redress for the grievance of the aggrieved party.


(7) Where a criminal proceeding is manifestly attended with mala fide and/or where the proceeding is maliciously instituted with an ulterior motive for wreaking vengeance on the accused and with a view to spite him due to private and personal grudge.”


(emphasis supplied)


Thus, it is trite that the constitutional courts are wholly competent to exercise their extraordinary power to quash the criminal proceedings to prevent abuse of the process of the Court or otherwise to secure the ends of the justice if the allegations in the FIR or complaint neither disclose the commission of any offence nor make out a prima facie case against the accused.


15.In order to ascertain, whether appellant in the present case has committed any offence punishable under Sections 269, 370 and 504, IPC, it is necessary to reproduce the allegations levelled in the chargesheet filed against the appellant, which read thus:-


“On examination they all stated that the accused Mr. B.V. Ram Kumar is of the said firm and he will strict with his official works and there was some among them regarding Project Work since last few days. On 02.02.2022 at about some argument ensued among the LW-1 and accused. The accused warned why she is not present in the allotment room; in turn she replied to give the instructions in written. In this regard there were loud shouting among Director Mr. B.V. Ram Kumar and LW-1 Mrs. Mary Anurupa and the Smt. Jyothi LW-7 who is the nurse had checked the BP of Mrs. Mary Anurupa and Mr. B.V. Ram Kumar.


Further it came to know that due to inadequate supply of PPE Kits and gloves to working staff, the staff may be effected covid and due to the act of the accused there likely to spread infection diseases dangerous to life and also provoke breach of peace in the institution.



The facts and evidence collected during the course of investigation it is elicited that the accused is the director of NIMH. The accused Harassing the LW-1 mentally in her working place, since from October, 2021 on one or other pretext. On 02.02.2022 at 23.00 hours when she was seeing (sic) her clients at CDEIC unit in NIEPID the accused sends his attender and called the LW-1 to his chamber and asked her whether she knows about conduct rules when she gave complaint against him to higher authority and talking with her in loud voice and shouted on her as she submitted (sic) grievance related on him to her higher authorities on his behaviour. The LW-1 suffered with covid and facing a lot of Medical Issues and she should not shout as her hands shivering and sweating and also breathing difficulty. The accused used to call her to his chamber and scolding by interfering in internal complaints. She was sincerely affected with covid due to inadequate supply of PPE Kits and gloves to working staff in early intervention and she was in ICU and rejoined her duties. She had to face his shouting and even during her medical leave he send memo to reply for no mistake from her side. Due to the act off the accused there likely to spread infection diseases dangerous to life and also provoke breach of peace in the institution. Thus, the acts of the accused BV Ram (sic) Kumar has committed an offence which liable to be punished U/sec. 269, 270 and 504 IPC.”


(emphasis supplied)


16.On a threadbare reading of the chargesheet, we find that the highest allegation levelled against the appellant is that he had been scolding the complainant in the Institute(workplace) and thereby causing mental harassment to her since October, 2021. On 2nd February, 2022, at 11 o’clock in the night, while the complainant was attending to her clients, the appellant called her to his chamber. When the complainant entered the chamber of the appellant, he raised his voice and asked her whether she knew about the conduct rules before having submitted her grievance related to him to the higher authorities. The chargesheet also narrates that the complainant was affected by Covid-19 because of the inadequate supply of PPE kits and gloves maintained by the appellant as the Director of the Institute(workplace).


17.From the bare perusal of the chargesheet and documents relied therein, apart from the fact that the allegations are purely conjectural, by no stretch of imagination they can be considered sufficient to constitute the ingredients of the offences under Sections 269 and 270, IPC. The Investigating Officer seems to have been unduly influenced by the sensitive situation prevailing during Covid-19 and relied upon the bald allegations of the complainant, who alleged that the appellant did not provide and maintain an adequate supply of PPE kits and gloves for the working staff at the Institute(workplace). The allegation with respect to failure to maintain adequate supply of PPE kits and gloves stands refuted by the statements of witnesses, namely Smt. K. Nagarani dated 8th February, 2022, working as Hindi Translator and Sh. Bharat Naik dated 9th February, 2022, working as Data Entry Operator at the Institute(workplace), who have categorically stated during the investigation that there was no shortage of supply of PPE kits, masks or sanitizers at the Institute(workplace).


18.Admittedly, the appellant had called the complainant to his chambers. When she entered, the appellant is alleged to have raised his voice to ask her whether she had made sure about the conduct rules before having submitted a complaint against him to the higher authorities. We thus, fail to see how the Investigating Officer was able to reach a conclusion that a simple verbal spat which took place between the appellant and complainant in the chamber of the appellant would make the former liable under Section 504, IPC. At best, what can be inferred from the allegations is that the appellant spoke to the complainant in a loud voice and a belligerent tenor.


19.For appreciating the necessary ingredients required to substantiate a charge under Section 504, IPC, a reference in this regard may be made to the judgment of this Court in Fiona Shrikhande v. State of Maharashtra,10 wherein the Court discussed the essential ingredients of Section 504, IPC. The Court held as follows: -


“13. Section 504 IPC comprises of the following ingredients viz. (a) intentional insult, (b) the insult must be such as to give provocation to the person insulted, and (c) the accused must intend or know that such provocation would cause another to break the public peace or to commit any other offence. The intentional insult must be of such a degree that should provoke a person to break the public peace or to commit any other offence. The person who intentionally insults intending or knowing it to be likely that it will give provocation to any other person and such provocation will cause to break the public peace or to commit any other offence, in such a situation, the ingredients of Section 504 are satisfied. One of the essential elements constituting the offence is that there should have been an act or conduct amounting to intentional insult and the mere fact that the accused abused the complainant, as such, is not sufficient by itself to warrant a conviction under Section 504 IPC.”


14. We may also indicate that it is not the law that the actual words or language should figure in the complaint. One has to read the complaint as a whole and, by doing so, if the Magistrate comes to a conclusion, prima facie, that there has been an intentional insult so as to provoke any person to break the public peace or to commit any other offence, that is sufficient to bring the complaint within the ambit of Section 504 IPC. It is not the law that a complainant should verbatim reproduce each word or words capable of provoking the other person to commit any other offence. The background facts, circumstances, the occasion, the manner in which they are used, the person or persons to whom they are addressed, the time, the conduct of the person who has indulged in such actions are all relevant factors to be borne in mind while examining a complaint lodged for initiating proceedings under Section 504 IPC.”


(emphasis supplied)


20.Thus, upon reading the complaint as a whole, if the Magistrate comes to a conclusion, prima facie, that there has been an intentional insult made by the accused to the complainant so as to provoke the latter to break the public peace or to commit any other offence, then only the act complained of would fall within the ambit of Section 504, IPC. The law does not mandate that the complainant should verbatim reproduce each word or words capable of provoking him/her to commit breach of peace or any other offence. The background facts, circumstances, the occasion, the manner in which the offending words are used, the person to whom they are addressed, the time, the conduct of the person who has indulged in such actions are all relevant factors to be borne in mind while examining a complaint lodged for initiating proceedings under Section 504, IPC.


21.Further, this Court in the case of Mohammad Wajid v. State of U.P.,11 while discussing Section 504, IPC, propounded the test for considering the circumstances wherein, an abusive language takes the form and shape of an intentional insult and held thus:-


"28.Section 504 of the IPC contemplates intentionally insulting a person and thereby provoking such person insulted to breach the peace or intentionally insulting a person knowing it to be likely that the person insulted may be provoked so as to cause a breach of the public peace or to commit any other offence. Mere abuse may not come within the purview of the section. But, the words of abuse in a particular case might amount to an intentional insult provoking the person insulted to commit a breach of the public peace or to commit any other offence. If abusive language is used intentionally and is of such a nature as would in the ordinary course of events lead the person insulted to break the peace or to commit an offence under the law, the case is not taken away from the purview of the Section merely because the insulted person did not actually break the peace or commit any offence having exercised self-control or having been subjected to abject terror by the offender. In judging whether particular abusive language is attracted by Section 504, IPC, the court has to find out what, in the ordinary circumstances, would be the effect of the abusive language used and not what the complainant actually did as a result of his peculiar idiosyncrasy or cool temperament or sense of discipline. It is the ordinary general nature of the abusive language that is the test for considering whether the abusive language is an intentional insult likely to provoke the person insulted to commit a breach of the peace and not the particular conduct or temperament of the complainant.


29.Mere abuse, discourtesy, rudeness or insolence, may not amount to an intentional insult within the meaning of Section 504, IPC if it does not have the necessary element of being likely to incite the person insulted to commit a breach of the peace of an offence and the other element of the accused intending to provoke the person insulted to commit a breach of the peace or knowing that the person insulted is likely to commit a breach of the peace. Each case of abusive language shall have to be decided in the light of the facts and circumstances of that case and there cannot be a general proposition that no one commits an offence under Section 504, IPC if he merely uses abusive language against the complainant.”


(emphasis supplied)


22.Needless to say, that mere abuse, discourtesy, rudeness or insolence does not amount to an intentional insult within the meaning of Section 504, IPC. Furthermore, it would be immaterial that the person who has been insulted and provoked did not actually break the peace or commit any offence.


23.Section 504, IPC consists of two parts. Firstly, the actus reus- being the intentional insult which gives rise to the provocation. Secondly, the mens rea, i.e., the intention or knowledge on the part of the accused that such intentional provocation is likely to cause the person insulted to break public peace or commit any other offence. The animus nocendi in Section 504, IPC is that the accused should ‘intentionally insult’ the other person with the intention or knowledge that the provocation caused by such insult is likely to result in the commission of breach of public peace or any other offence by the person who has been so insulted. The offence is said to be complete once the accused person makes ‘intentional insult’ with the aforesaid mens rea. Hence, intention or knowledge on the part of accused person that his actions of making ‘intentional insult’ have the potential to provoke the person insulted is sine qua non for the commission of the offence under Section 504, IPC.


24.The natural corollary of the above discussion is that if the accused does not intend to give provocation, the offence is not made out. An insult without an ‘intention to insult’ is not punishable under Section 504, IPC. Further, ‘intentional insult’ must be of such a degree that it has the potential to provoke a reasonable person to break the public peace or to commit any other offence.


25.It is trite that whether the person provoked further commits an illegal act or not is immaterial to draw the conclusion of culpability under Section 504, IPC. The ‘intentional insult’ and provocation must be so proximate and close that the accused has either the intention or the knowledge that the intentional insult made by him is likely to cause the provoked person to break public peace or commit some other offence. However, what would be the nature of ‘intentional insult’ causing provocation, to draw culpability under Section 504, IPC would depend upon the facts and circumstances of each case. The test to be applied to determine if the intentional insult made by the accused is sufficient to cause provocation is that of a reasonable person, i.e., if the insult is sufficient to provoke any reasonable person to break peace or commit any other offence, only then the accused will be liable for the offence under Section 504, IPC.


26.In the case at hand, all that the chargesheet discloses is that the appellant and the complainant had a verbal altercation which became unbearable for the complainant owing to her medical conditions. At the time of the incident, the appellant was discharging his functions as the Director of the Institute(workplace) and he was therefore, entrusted with the administration and management of the entire Institute(workplace) and in addition, he was required to discharge his own professional obligations as a medical professional to both the Institute(workplace) and the society at large. It is, therefore, a reasonable expectation on the part of a person, who caters to the affairs at the helm, that his juniors should attend to the professional affairs of the Institute(workplace) with utmost sincerity and dedication. We are equally cognizant of the circumstances that existed during the times of Covid-19 pandemic and the pressure on the medical professionals was multiplied manifold, therefore, in our view it was reasonable for the appellant to contemplate similar expectations from his juniors/associates.


27.Furthermore, it is also pertinent to note the fact that complaints with respect to indiscipline in the Institute(workplace) were already pending with the office of the Director of the Institute(workplace). In addition, the appellant while discharging his duties as Director had received numerous complaints from the parents of students against the complainant about negligence in the discharge of her duties. In this backdrop, there was nothing out of ordinary for the person in charge of the Institution(workplace) to call such subordinate to the chambers and reprimand them in order to restore discipline in the Institute(workplace). The intention behind this was simply to control the perceived indiscipline of the subordinates who were alleged to be shirking from the performance of their duties and were displaying lethargic, lackadaisical and laid-back approach towards the profession. If such a behaviour is not checked by superior officers, who have been entrusted with the task of administration, it could lead to become a premium for other employees to follow suit.


28.In the facts and circumstances of the present case, appellant’s act of reprimanding the complainant cannot by any stretch of imagination be treated to be an ‘intentional insult’ meted out to the complainant so as to provoke her to commit breach of peace or any other offence. If the interpretation advanced from the side of prosecution and the complainant is accepted, it may lead to gross misuse of liberty in workplaces. Therefore, in our opinion, senior’s admonition cannot be reasonably attributed to mean an ‘intentional insult with the intent to provoke’ within the means of Section 504, IPC, provided that the admonition relates to the matters incidental to the workplace covering discipline and the discharge of duties therein.


29.From a perusal of the impugned chargesheet and the statements recorded by the Investigating Officer during the course of investigation, it is discernible that the appellant has been roped in the present criminal proceedings on account of his strict demeanour and the tendency to maintain discipline which is reasonably expected of individuals who serve a noble vocation of a medical profession while also serving as the head of the Institution during the difficult time of Covid-19 pandemic. Therefore, we are of the firm view that allowing criminal charges to be pressed against the individual being the Director of the Institute(workplace) for trying to maintain discipline may lead to disastrous consequences crippling the entire disciplinary atmosphere required in the workplace. We do not find existence of the necessary ingredients constituting the offences applied in the chargesheet so as to allow further prosecution of the appellant and hence, it is a fit case to quash the criminal proceedings initiated against the appellant.


30. As a consequence of the discussion made hereinabove, the impugned judgment dated 3rd May, 2024, passed by the High Court for the State of Telangana at Hyderabad is quashed and set aside. Resultantly, the impugned chargesheet being CC No. 1771 of 2022 for offences punishable under Sections 269, 270 and 504, IPC filed before the Court of learned XI Additional Chief Metropolitan Magistrate at Hyderabad and all the proceedings sought to be taken thereunder against the appellant are hereby quashed.


31.The appeal is allowed accordingly.


32.Pending application(s), if any, shall stand disposed of.


Result of the case: Appeal allowed.


1 Hereinafter, referred to as the “High Court”.


2 For short, ‘CrPC’.


3 For short ‘IPC’.


4 Hereinafter, referred to as “trial Court”.


5 For short ‘Institute(workplace)’.


6 FIR No. 65 of 2022.


7 Case Crime No. 1771 of 2022.


8 Criminal Petition No. 11653 of 2022.


9 (1992) Supp. 1 SCC 335.


10 (2013) 14 SCC 44


11 2023 SCC Online SC 951