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Wednesday, December 15, 2021

quashing the Chargesheet Sections 498-A, 323, 504, 506, 304-B of IPC and Sections 3 & 4 of the D.P. Act = It is the well-settled principle laid down in cases too numerous to mention, that if the FIR did not disclose the commission of an offence, the court would be justified in quashing the proceedings preventing the abuse of process of law. Simultaneously, the courts are expected to adopt a cautious approach in matters of quashing, especially in cases of matrimonial disputes whether the FIR in fact discloses commission of an offence by the relatives of the principal accused or the FIR prima facie discloses a case of overimplication by involving the entire family of the accused at the instance of the complainant, who is out to settle her scores arising out of the teething problem or skirmish of domestic bickering while settling down in her new matrimonial surrounding.”

  SLP(Crl.) No. 2786 of 2019

 REPORTABLE

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CRIMINAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

 CRIMINAL APPEAL NO. 1628 OF 2021

(Arising out of SLP (Crl.) No.2786 OF 2019)

Mirza Iqbal @ Golu & Anr. ...Appellant(s)

vs.

State of Uttar Pradesh & Anr ...Respondent(s)


J U D G M E N T

R. SUBHASH REDDY,J.

1. Leave granted.

2. This Criminal Appeal is filed aggrieved by the

order dated 10.12.2018 passed by the High Court of

Judicature at Allahabad in Application No.44475 of

2018.

3. The aforesaid application was filed before the

High Court under Section 482 of Cr.P.C. for quashing

the Chargesheet No.01 of 2018 dated 12.10.2018 and

order of Chief Judicial Magistrate, taking cognizance

of the case vide order dated 22.10.2018 for the

1

 SLP(Crl.) No. 2786 of 2019

offences punishable under Sections 498-A, 323, 504,

506, 304-B of IPC and Sections 3 & 4 of the Dowry

Prohibition Act, 1961 (D.P. Act) in Case Crime

No.0136 of 2018 registered on the file of PS-Kotwali,

District Gorakhpur.

4. The 2nd respondent – complainant Shri Nisar Ullah

father of the deceased, Rushda Nisar has lodged a

complaint on 25.07.2018 at 09:31 p.m. at PS-Kotwali,

District Gorakhpur to the effect that his younger

daughter namely Rushda Nisar was married to Mirza

Ismail Beg alias Amir s/o Zaki Ullah r/o MohallaMuftipur of Gorakhpur District on 25.12.2015. After

the solemnization of marriage, the accused persons

Mirza Ismail Beg alias Amir (husband), brother-in-law

(devar) Mirza Iqbal alias Golu (1st Appellant herein),

sister-in-law (nanad) Hifza alias Chinki and motherin-law (saas) Sammi (2nd Appellant) continuously used

to demand a four-wheeler vehicle and Rs.10,00,000/-

in cash as dowry. It is alleged that as the said

demands were not met, they used to beat his daughter

and threatened to kill her. It is, further, alleged

that ten days prior to the date of incident, all the

accused persons with a common intention had severely

2

 SLP(Crl.) No. 2786 of 2019

beaten up his daughter and threatened to kill, if the

demands of dowry of cash and car were not met. On

being compelled, he had also given an amount of

Rs.2,70,000/- cash from his business earning, in

spite of the same, accused was adamant in demanding

the car. On 24.07.2018 at about 8 p.m., the accused

persons with a common intention beat his daughter,

killed her by putting a noose around her neck and

hanged her. On coming to know of the incident, he

went along with his son from Surat and he was shocked

to see his daughter in such a state. When the

situation has become slightly normal, he has lodged a

report to take necessary action and to initiate legal

proceedings against the accused. Based on the

aforesaid complaint, a case was registered against

all the named accused including the appellants

herein, who are brother-in-law and mother-in-law of

the deceased for the alleged offences under Sections

498-A, 323, 504, 506, 304-B of IPC and Sections 3 & 4

of the D.P. Act.

5. When the appellants have filed quash petition

before the High Court, it was disposed of by impugned

order directing the appellants to surrender before

3

 SLP(Crl.) No. 2786 of 2019

the Court below and apply for grant of bail and the

same was directed to be considered in accordance with

law.

6. Pursuant to the complaint, crime was registered

and after registration, investigation was taken up

and after completing the investigation, final report

was filed on 12.10.2018 and the same was taken

cognizance by learned Chief Judicial Magistrate by

order dated 22.10.2018.

7. We have heard Ms. Vibha Datta Makhija, learned

Senior Counsel appearing on behalf of the appellants

and Mr. Sahdev Singh, learned counsel for State of

Uttar Pradesh and Mohd. Asad Khan, learned counsel

for the respondent no.2/Complainant.

8. Learned senior counsel appearing for the

appellants has contended that the 1st Appellant

herein, is brother-in-law of the deceased is working

as a Cashier in ICICI Bank, Khalilabad. On the date

of incident i.e. on 24.07.2018, he was on duty. It is

submitted that he resides at Khalilabad in view of

his employment in ICICI Bank and his mother–2nd

Appellant Shamima Bano alias Sammi is also living

4

 SLP(Crl.) No. 2786 of 2019

with him at Khalilabad since 2017. It is submitted

that even as per the case of the prosecution, the

incident has taken place at about 8 p.m. at

Gorakhpur, which is 40 kms away from Khalilabad. On

the date of incident, he was on duty at ICICI Bank

and entered the branch at 09:49 a.m. and came out at

06:25 p.m. In spite of the same, on vague and bald

allegations, appellants are sought to be prosecuted,

without any specific allegations either in complaint

or in the chargesheet. It is submitted that during

the pendency of investigation, the appellant has

filed affidavit before the Senior Superintendent of

Police, District Gorakhpur, stating that he was in

the Bank on the date of incident and requested to

investigate by looking into the call details of his

mobile number and also CCTV footage of the bank. It

is submitted that his sister-in-law i.e. the deceased

was under mental depression and was undergoing

treatment for the same. It is submitted that in spite

of such an affidavit filed by the appellants without

any investigation, in a casual and routine manner,

final report was filed with vague and omnibus

allegation against the appellants. It is submitted

5

 SLP(Crl.) No. 2786 of 2019

that in absence of any specific allegations against

the appellants disclosing their active involvement,

the learned Chief Judicial Magistrate has taken

cognizance in a routine and mechanical manner. It is

submitted that as there is no material or any

specific allegations against the appellants/accused

and if they are allowed to face the trial, it is

nothing but abuse of the process of law. Learned

counsel has submitted that it is evidently a fit

case to quash the proceedings, by allowing the

appeal.

9. On the other hand, learned counsel appearing for

1

st respondent-State and 2nd respondent-Complainant,

have submitted that in view of specific mention of

the names in the complaint as well as in the

chargesheet, it is not a case to quash the

proceedings at this stage. It is submitted that the

appellants have to prove their innocence in the

trial. It is submitted that all the accused were

demanding dowry of Rs.10,00,000/- and a car from the

deceased and on 24.07.2018 with a common intention,

all of them caused injuries to the deceased and

ultimately killed her. It is submitted that as the

6

 SLP(Crl.) No. 2786 of 2019

postmortem report clearly reveals cause of death as

asphyxia, there are no grounds to quash the

proceedings. Further, it is submitted that the quash

petition filed by the sister-in-law of the deceased

was dismissed by this Court vide order dated

15.04.2019.

10. Having heard the learned counsels on both the

sides, We have carefully perused impugned order,

other material placed on record and counter

affidavits filed on behalf of 1st Respondent–State as

well as on behalf of 2nd Respondent–complainant.

11. The appellants are brother-in-law and mother-inlaw respectively of the deceased. A perusal of the

complaint filed by the 2nd respondent, pursuant to

which a crime was registered, does not indicate any

specific allegations by disclosing the involvement of

the appellants. It is the specific case of the 1st

appellant that he was working as a cashier in ICICI

Bank at Khalilabad branch, which is at about 40 kms

from Gorakhpur. The alleged incident was on

24.07.2018 at about 8 p.m. When the investigation was

pending, the 1st appellant has filed affidavit before

Senior Superintendent of Police on 08.08.2018, giving

7

 SLP(Crl.) No. 2786 of 2019

his employment details and stated that he was falsely

implicated. It was his specific case that during the

relevant time, he was working at ICICI Bank,

Khalilabad branch, Gorakhpur and his mother was also

staying with him. The Branch Manager has endorsed his

presence in the branch, showing in-time at 09:49 a.m.

and out-time at 06:25 p.m. Even in the statement of

2

nd respondent recorded by the police and also in the

final report filed under Section 173(2) of Cr.P.C.,

except omnibus and vague allegations, there is no

specific allegation against the appellants to show

their involvement for the offences alleged. This

Court, time and again, has noticed making the family

members of husband as accused by making casual

reference to them in matrimonial disputes. Learned

senior counsel for the appellants, in support of her

case, placed reliance on the judgment of this Court

in the case of Geeta Mehrotra and Anr. v. State of

Uttar Pradesh and Anr.1. In the aforesaid case, this

Court in identical circumstances, has quashed the

proceedings by observing that family members of

husband were shown as accused by making casual

1

 (2012) 10 SCC 741

8

 SLP(Crl.) No. 2786 of 2019

reference to them. In the very same judgment, it is

held that a large number of family members are shown

in the FIR by casually mentioning their names and the

contents do not disclose their active involvement, as

such, taking cognizance of the matter against them

was not justified. It is further held that taking

cognizance in such type of cases results in abuse of

judicial process. Paras 18 and 25 of the said

judgment, which are relevant for the purpose of this

case, read as under:

“18. Their Lordships of the Supreme

Court in Ramesh case [(2005)3 SCC

507 : 2005 SCC (Cri) 735] had been

pleased to hold that the bald

allegations made against the sisterin-law by the complainant appeared to

suggest the anxiety of the informant

to rope in as many of the husband's

relatives as possible. It was held

that neither the FIR nor the chargesheet furnished the legal basis for

the Magistrate to take cognizance of

the offences alleged against the

appellants. The learned Judges were

pleased to hold that looking to the

allegations in the FIR and the

contents of the charge-sheet, none of

the alleged offences under Sections

498-A, 406 IPC and Section 4 of the

Dowry Prohibition Act were made

against the married sister of the

complainant's husband who was

undisputedly not living with the

family of the complainant's husband.

Their Lordships of the Supreme Court

9

 SLP(Crl.) No. 2786 of 2019

were pleased to hold that the High

Court ought not to have relegated the

sister-in-law to the ordeal of trial.

Accordingly, the proceedings against

the appellants were quashed and the

appeal was allowed.

25. However, we deem it appropriate to

add by way of caution that we may not

be misunderstood so as to infer that

even if there are allegations of overt

act indicating the complicity of the

members of the family named in the FIR

in a given case, cognizance would be

unjustified but what we wish to

emphasise by highlighting is that, if

the FIR as it stands does not disclose

specific allegation against the

accused more so against the co-accused

specially in a matter arising out of

matrimonial bickering, it would be

clear abuse of the legal and judicial

process to mechanically send the named

accused in the FIR to undergo the

trial unless of course the FIR

discloses specific allegations which

would persuade the court to take

cognizance of the offence alleged

against the relatives of the main

accused who are prima facie not found

to have indulged in physical and

mental torture of the complainant

wife. It is the well-settled principle

laid down in cases too numerous to

mention, that if the FIR did not

disclose the commission of an offence,

the court would be justified in

quashing the proceedings preventing

the abuse of process of law.

Simultaneously, the courts are

expected to adopt a cautious approach

in matters of quashing, especially in

cases of matrimonial disputes whether

the FIR in fact discloses commission

of an offence by the relatives of the

principal accused or the FIR prima

10

 SLP(Crl.) No. 2786 of 2019

facie discloses a case of

overimplication by involving the

entire family of the accused at the

instance of the complainant, who is

out to settle her scores arising out

of the teething problem or skirmish of

domestic bickering while settling down

in her new matrimonial surrounding.”

12. From a perusal of the complaint filed by the 2nd

respondent and the final report filed by the police

under Section 173(2) of Cr.P.C., We are of the view

that the aforesaid judgment fully supports the case

of the appellants. Even in the counter affidavits

filed on behalf of respondent nos.1 and 2, it is not

disputed that the 1st appellant was working in ICICI

Bank at Khalilabad branch, but merely stated that

there was a possibility to reach Gorakhpur by 8 p.m.

Though there is an allegation of causing injuries,

there are no other external injuries noticed in the

postmortem certificate, except the single ante-mortem

injury i.e. ligature mark around the neck, and the

cause of death is shown as asphyxia. Having regard to

the case of the appellants and the material placed on

record, we are of the considered view that except

vague and bald allegations against the appellants,

there are no specific allegations disclosing the

involvement of the appellants to prosecute them for

11

 SLP(Crl.) No. 2786 of 2019

the offences alleged. In view of the judgment of this

Court in the case of Geeta Mehrotra and Anr.1, which

squarely applies to the case of the appellants, we

are of the view that it is a fit case to quash the

proceedings.

13. For the aforesaid reasons, this appeal is allowed

and the impugned order dated 10.12.2018 passed in

Application No.44475 of 2018 by the High Court, is

set aside. Consequently, the chargesheet no.01 dated

12.10.2018 filed in FIR No.136 of 2018 on the file of

PS-Kotwali, District Gorakhpur for the offences under

Sections 498-A, 323, 504, 506, 304-B of IPC and

Sections 3 & 4 of the D.P. Act and the consequential

order dated 22.10.2018, passed by the Chief Judicial

Magistrate, Gorakhpur, is hereby quashed.

 ………………………………………………J

 [R. Subhash Reddy]

………………………………………………J

 [Hrishikesh Roy]

New Delhi.

December 14, 2021

12

“65. Levy of market fees:= We also endorse the view in the aforesaid judgments but in the case on hand respondent is a buyer as defined under sub-section (2) of Section 65 of the Act and we cannot ignore the second proviso 14 and Explanation to Section 65(2) of the Act. It is not a case where the respondent is denying sale of the imported agricultural produce within the market area of the appellant after processing. In that view of the matter it is not entitled for exemption from payment of market fees.

  REPORTABLE

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

 CIVIL APPEAL NO. 7706 OF 2021

(Arising out of Special Leave Petition(C) No.18761 of 2013)

APMC Yashwanthapura

through its Secretary ...Appellant

vs.

M/s. Selva Foods

through its Managing Partner ...Respondent


J U D G M E N T

R. SUBHASH REDDY, J.

1. Leave granted.

2. This appeal is filed aggrieved by the judgment

and order dated 11.01.2013 passed in Writ Appeal

No.18000 of 2011, dismissing the intra-court appeal

filed by the appellant herein by confirming the order

of the learned Single Judge allowing the Writ

1

Petition in W.P. No.11816 of 2009 on 22.08.2011,

filed by the respondent herein.

3. The respondent herein is a trader engaged in the

business of selling cleaned and processed spices in

the name and style of M/s. Selva Foods within the

market area of the appellant. They buy spices like

turmeric, chilli, coriander, methi and mustard seeds

etc., from the market areas of various Agricultural

Market Committees within the State of Karnataka and

they also import such spices from outside the State.

After importing such agricultural produce, they

undertake cleaning and processing of the spices and

sell the processed items within the market area of

the appellant.

4. During the year 2008, authorities of the Market

Committee have inspected the records of the

respondent and found that respondent had purchased

methi and mustard seeds from outside the State of

Karnataka and after importing they sold the processed

goods within the market area of the appellant and has

2

not paid the market fee. When At first instance,

order dated 12.08.2008 was passed by the appellantAPMC cancelling the licence of the respondent on the

ground that the market fee of Rs.28,422/- and the

penalty amount was not paid. When such order was

questioned in Writ Petition No.11211 of 2008 the High

Court has allowed the writ petition on the ground

that the respondent was not given proper opportunity

and remitted the matter back for fresh consideration,

to the appellant. Further it was observed, the amount

of Rs.28422/- which was paid pursuant to interim

order would be subject to decision of the authority.

5. Subsequently after giving opportunity, order

dated 24.03.2009 was passed confirming the earlier

demand and directed the payment of Rs.85,266/- which

was payable out of the total demand of Rs.1,13,688/-.

Questioning such demand again writ petition was filed

in the High Court in W.P. No.11816 of 2009 which is

allowed by the learned Single Judge of the High court

as against which the appellant Market Committee has

3

preferred intra-court appeal in Writ Appeal No.18000

of 2011 which is dismissed by the impugned judgment

and order dated 11.01.2013. As against the same this

appeal is preferred.

6. We have heard Dr. Nanda Kishore, learned counsel

for the appellant and Mr. Haris Beeran, learned

counsel for the respondent.

7. Having heard the learned counsel for the

parties, we have perused the impugned judgment and

other material placed on record. Before we deal with

the rival contentions of both sides, we deem it

appropriate to refer to the relevant provisions of

the Karnataka Agricultural Produce Marketing

(Regulation and Development) Act of 1966. Section 65

of the Act reads as under:

“65. Levy of market fees:-

(2) The market committee shall levy

and collect market fees from every

buyer in respect of agricultural

produce bought by such buyer in the

market area, at such rate as may be

specified in the bye-laws which shall

not be more than two rupees per one

4

hundred rupees of the value of such

produce bought except in case of

livestock where the market fee shall

not be more than five rupees per head

of cattle other than sheep or goat, and

in the case of sheep or goat such fee

shall not be more than one rupee per

head in such manner and at such times

as may be specified in the bye-laws:

Provided that in the case of any cooperative society doing business in

agricultural produce within a market

yard, market fee shall be levied and

collected at the rate of eighty per

cent of the market fee payable under

this Act:

Provided further that, if on any

agricultural produce market fee has

already been levied and collected under

sub-section (2) in any market area

within the State and such agricultural

produce is processed and sold in any

other market area within the State or

exported outside the State it shall be

exempted from the levy of market fee:

Explanation. – Nothing in this proviso

shall apply to –

(i) any processed agricultural produce

imported from outside the State and

sold in any market area within the

State; or

(ii) any agricultural produce imported

or caused to be imported by any person

either on his own account or as an

agent for another person, from outside

the State into any market area within

the State for the purpose of processing

or manufacturing except for one’s own

domestic consumption.

5

Provided also that in case of a buyer

in a spot exchange established by a

licensee or a licensee for direct

purchase of notified agricultural

produce or a contract farming sponsor

buying from a contract farming

producer, market fee shall be levied

and collected at the rate of seventy

per cent of the market fee payable

under this Act:

Provided also that in case of any

private markets established under

Section 72-A of the Act, market fee

shall be levied and collected at the

rate of thirty three percent of market

fee payable under this Act, provided

that no market fee is leviable on

flowers, fruits and vegetables.

Instead the Market committee may

collect user charges in respect of the

above articles, user charges for such

services provided by the Market

Committee from the buyer of the produce

at such rates as may be specified in

the bye-laws as approved by the

Director of Agricultural Marketing.

(2-A) The market fee payable under

this section shall be realised as

follows namely.-

(i) if the produce is sold through a

commission agent, the commission agent

shall realise the market fee from the

purchaser and shall be liable to pay

the same to the committee;

(ia) if the produce is sold by an

importer to the purchaser, the importer

shall realise the market fee from the

purchaser and shall be liable to pay

the same to the committee;

6

(ii) if the produce is purchased

directly by a trader from a producer

the trader shall be liable to pay the

market fee to the committee;

(iii) if the produce is purchased by a

trader from another trader, the trader

selling the produce shall realise it

from the purchaser and shall be liable

to pay the market fee to the committee;

and

(iv) in any other case of sale of such

produce, the purchaser shall be liable

to pay the market fee to the committee.

(2-B) The market fee payable under

clause (i), (ia), (ii) or (iii) of subsection (2-A) shall be paid to the

market committee within such time as

may be specified in the bye-laws.”

8. Dr. Nanda Kishore, learned counsel for the

appellant, has contended that as per sub-sections (2)

and (2-A) of Section 65 of the Act, market fee is

payable on the agricultural produce, which is

purchased from outside the State as an importer and

sell the processed goods within the area of the

Market Committee. It is submitted that agricultural

produce, which is subject matter of the petition is a

scheduled item, as such, after processing market fee

is leviable on such processed goods. It is submitted

7

that as per Section 65 of the Act the Market

Committee shall levy and collect market fee from

every buyer in respect of the agricultural produce

bought by such buyer in the market area at such rate

as may be specified in the bye-laws. It is submitted

that as per the second proviso to Section 65(2) of

the Act, if on agricultural produce, the market fee

has already been levied and collected under subsection (2) in any market area within the State and

such agricultural produce is processed and sold in

any other market area within the State or exported

outside the State, it is exempted from levy of the

market fee. However, in view of the explanation, it

is clear that any agricultural produce, imported or

caused to be imported by any person either on his own

account or as an agent for any other person from

outside the State into any market area within the

State for the purpose of processing or manufacturing,

except for one’s own domestic consumption, is liable

for market fee.

8

9. It is submitted that exemption under second

proviso to Section 65(2) of the Act, is not

applicable for the importers, on processed goods and

sales within the market area as per the explanation.

It is further submitted that in view of clause (ia)

of sub-section (2-A) of Section 65 of the Act, if the

produce is sold by an importer to the purchaser, the

importer shall realise the market fee from the

purchaser and shall be liable to pay the same to the

committee. It is submitted that the interpretation

of the relevant provisions by the learned Single

Judge, as confirmed by the Division Bench of the High

Court, is erroneous and runs contrary to the plain

reading of the Section 65 of the Act. The learned

counsel also placed reliance on the judgment of this

Court in the case of G. Giridhar Prabhu and others

v. Agricultural Produce Market Committee1.

10. On the other hand, the learned counsel appearing

for the respondent has strenuously contended that

since the respondent has purchased the agricultural

1

(2001) 3 SCC 405

9

produce from outside the State of Karnataka as and

when such produce is processed within the market area

of the appellant and sell, they are not liable to pay

market fee. By referring to amendments made to the

Act (by Act 22 of 2004), it is submitted that Section

65(2) of the Act is the charging Section and a

reading of the said provision makes it clear that

market fee can not be collected on the produce which

the respondent has purchased from outside the State

as an importer and processed within the area of the

appellant Market Committee. In support of his

contentions, the learned counsel has placed reliance

on the judgment in the case of Gujarat Ambuja

Exports Limited and Another v. State of Uttarakhand

and Others2 and also the judgment in the case of ITC

Ltd., v. State of Karnataka and Others3.

11. In this case, it is not in dispute that the

respondent is a trader as defined under provisions of

the Act and has purchased spices, which are notified

2

 (2016) 3 SCC 601

3

2005 SCC OnLine Kar 86 : 2005 AIHC 2950

10

as agricultural produce, not only from market areas

within the State of Karnataka but also from outside

the State of Karnataka. After such imports, they

process the goods and sell the processed goods within

the market area. Even the processed goods are

notified items as per the schedule under the Act.

12. A reading of Section 65 of the Act, which is the

charging section, it is clear that, the Market

Committee shall levy and collect the market fees from

every buyer in respect of agricultural produce bought

by such buyer in the market area, at such rate as may

be specified in the bye-laws. As per the second

proviso to Section 65(2) of the Act, if on any

agricultural produce market fee has already been

levied and collected under sub-Section (2) in any

market area within the State and such agricultural

produce is processed and sold in any other market

area within the State or exported outside the State,

it shall be exempted from the levy of market fee.

However, a reading of the explanation, makes it

11

clear, the applicability of second proviso excluded

to any agricultural produce imported from outside the

State and processed and sold in any market area

within the State; or any other agricultural produce

imported or caused to be imported by any person

either on his own account or as an agent for another

person, from outside the State into any market area

within the State for the purpose of processing or

manufacturing except for one’s own domestic

consumption. Further, as per Section (2-A)(ia), if

the produce is sold by an importer to the purchaser,

the importer to realise the market fee from the

purchaser and shall be liable to pay the same to the

committee. A harmonious reading of the Section 65(2)

of the Act, its second proviso, and explanation to

the same and clause (2-A)(ia), makes it clear that if

any dealer imports agricultural produce from outside

the State into any market area within the State of

Karnataka for the purpose of processing and sale, the

applicability of second proviso to sub-section (2) of

12

Section 65 of the Act stands excluded. The

explanation to sub-section (2) of Section 65 of the

Act, makes it clear that even the processed items

from the agricultural produce imported from outside

the State of Karnataka, attract market fee on sales

within the market area of the appellant – Market

Committee. It is also clear from the aforesaid

Section, it is the obligation of the importer to

realise the market fee from the purchaser and pay the

same to the Market Committee.

13. In the case of G. Giridhar Prabhu & Ors.1 while

interpreting the provisions of Karnataka Agricultural

Produce Marketing Regulation Act, 1966 this Court has

held that a person purchasing the raw cashew nuts,

then extracting cashew kernels by means of

manufacturing process for the purpose of sale in

domestic and international market, is held to be a

trader within the meaning of sub-section (2) of

Section 48 or importer under Section 2(14-A) of the

Act, therefore, would be liable to collect the market

13

fee from his buyers and to pay such fees to the

Marketing Committee.

14. In the case of Gujarat Ambuja Exports Limited &

Anr.2 while considering the provisions of Uttarakhand

Agricultural Produce Marketing (Development and

Regulation) Act, this Court has held that

agricultural produce which is brought into market

area not for the purpose of sale, but only for the

purpose of manufacture or further processing

activities, cannot be subjected to market fees.

Similarly, in the case of ITC Ltd.3

, learned Single

Judge of the High Court of Karnataka has held that

mere activity of stocking and processing of even the

imported notified agricultural produces, which are

imported into the market area do not attract payment

of market fees.

15. We also endorse the view in the aforesaid

judgments but in the case on hand respondent is a

buyer as defined under sub-section (2) of Section 65

of the Act and we cannot ignore the second proviso

14

and Explanation to Section 65(2) of the Act. It is

not a case where the respondent is denying sale of

the imported agricultural produce within the market

area of the appellant after processing. In that view

of the matter it is not entitled for exemption from

payment of market fees. At the same time we make it

clear that if one merely imports notified

agricultural produce from outside the State for the

purpose of cleaning and processing without selling

the processed produce within the market area is not

liable to pay market fee. As much as in this case

without disputing the factum of sale within the

market area post the import, the respondent has

defended the proceedings only on the ground that once

the agricultural produce is processed it will not

attract market fee as such the same cannot be

accepted. It is the sale within the market area that

attracts levy of market fee, and not the first

purchase that was outside the market area. Notably

the goods sold are also notified agricultural produce

15

specified in the Schedule. Validity of the item

under the Schedule is not under challenge.

16. For the aforesaid reasons, the appeal is

allowed. The impugned judgment and order passed in

W.A. No.18000/2011 dated 11.01.2013 is set aside.

Consequently, the Writ Petition No.11816 of 2009

stands dismissed. No order as to costs.

 .....................J.

[R. SUBHASH REDDY]

.....................J.

 [SANJIV KHANNA]

New Delhi

December 14, 2021.

16

whether the limitation period under Section 13(2)3 of the Consumer Protection Act 1986 could not be extended beyond the statutorily prescribed period of forty-five days as held by New India 1 “NCDRC” 2 Assurance Company Limited v. Hilli Multipurpose Cold Storage Private Limited . = In the present case, before the decision of the Constitution Bench, the delay was condoned by the NCDRC by furnishing reasons for the exercise of such discretion. Having regard to the prospective effect of the judgment of the Constitution Bench in New India Assurance Company Limited (supra) and the orders of this Court in Reliance General Insurance Company Limited (supra) and Bhasin Infotech-2018 (supra), which had recognized an element of discretion pending the reference, we are of the considered view that no case for interference is made in the order of the NCDRC allowing the application for condonation of delay on merits.

 1

Reportable

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

Civil Appeal No. 7546 of 2021

Diamond Exports & Anr. ....Appellants

Versus

United India Insurance Company Limited & Ors. .... Respondents

J U D G M E N T

Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, J

1 This appeal arises from a judgment dated 25 February 2020 of the National

Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission1

.

2 While entertaining IA Nos 15390 of 2019, 15391 of 2019 and 18307 of 2019

in Consumer Complaint No 2645 of 2018, the NCDRC has condoned the delay of

100 days in filing a written statement. The order of the NCDRC was a few days

before the judgment of a Constitution Bench dated 4 March 2020, in New India

 1 “NCDRC”

2

Assurance Company Limited v. Hilli Multipurpose Cold Storage Private

Limited 2 which held that the limitation period under Section 13(2)3 of the Consumer

Protection Act 1986 could not be extended beyond the statutorily prescribed period

of forty-five days.

3 The appellants filed a consumer complaint before the NCDRC on 3 December

2018 based on two insurance policies. The claim is on the ground of an alleged fire

that took place at the factory of the appellant. On 6 December 2018, the NCDRC

passed the following order:

“Heard. Complaint is admitted, subject to just exceptions.

Issue notice to Opposite Parties under Section 13(2) of the

Consumer Protection Act, 1986 making it clear that if the

Opposite Parties wish to contest the allegations in the

Complaint, they may file the Written Statements within 30

days of the receipt of notice in the Complaint, failing which

their right to file Written Statement may be closed."

4 The respondent received the summons on 20 May 2019 together with the

order of the NCDRC and a complete set of papers consisting of the consumer

complaint and documents. The respondent filed its written statement on 23

 2 (2020) 5 SCC 757 [“New India Assurance Company Limited”] 3 “13 (2) The District Forum shall, if the complaint 54[admitted] by it under Section 12 relates to goods in respect of

which the procedure specified in sub-section (1) cannot be followed, or if the complaint relates to any services,—

(a) refer a copy of such complaint to the opposite party directing him to give his version of the case within a period of

thirty days or such extended period not exceeding fifteen days as may be granted by the District Forum;

(b) where the opposite party, on receipt of a copy of the complaint, referred to him under clause (a) denies or

disputes the allegations contained in the complaint, or omits or fails to take any action to represent his case within the

time given by the District Forum, the District Forum shall proceed to settle the consumer dispute,—

(i) on the basis of evidence brought to its notice by the complainant and the opposite party, where the opposite party

denies or disputes the allegations contained in the complaint, or

(ii) ex parte on the basis of evidence brought to its notice by the complainant where the opposite party omits or fails to

take any action to represent his case within the time given by the Forum;

(c) where the complainant fails to appear on the date of hearing before the District Forum, the District Forum may

either dismiss the complaint for default or decide it on merits.”

3

September 2019 together with IA No 15390 of 2019 for condonation of a delay of

100 days. The appellant filed IA No 15391 of 2019 for the dismissal of the complaint.

5 On 26 September 2019, the NCDRC permitted the appellants to file their reply

to the respondent’s application for condoning the delay. The appellants contested

the respondent’s application for condonation of delay. The NCDRC, by its order

dated 25 February 2020, condoned the delay subject to the respondent paying costs

of Rs 50,000.

6 Mr Salil Paul, learned counsel appearing on behalf of the appellant, has

submitted that given the judgment of the Constitution Bench in New India

Assurance Company Limited (supra), a delay in excess of the period which is

stipulated in Section 13(1)(a) read with Section 13(2)(a) of the Consumer Protection

Act 1986, i.e. thirty days extendable by fifteen days, could not have been condoned.

The provisions of Section 13 are made applicable to proceedings before the NCDRC

by Section 22.

7 On the other hand, it has been urged on behalf of the respondent that (i) the

decision in New India Assurance Company Limited (supra) has been given

prospective effect; (ii) before the decision in New India Assurance Company

Limited (supra) and during the pendency of the reference to the Constitution Bench,

a two-judge bench of this Court in Reliance General Insurance Company Limited

v. Mampee Timbers and Hardwares Private Limited4 held the field in pursuance

 4 (2021) 3 SCC 673 [“Reliance General Insurance Company Limited”]

4

of which the consumer fora were permitted to accept written statements filed beyond

the stipulated time of 45 days in an appropriate case on suitable terms; and (iii) in

the present case, the NCDRC has exercised its discretion while condoning the

delay, prior to the decision of the Constitution Bench; (iv) hence, the order would not

merit interference in appeal. More so because the NCDRC noted that the delay was

occasioned due to the respondent filing a criminal case alleging fraud and forgery

against the second surveyor.

8 The judgment of the Constitution Bench in New India Assurance Company

Limited (supra) has held that the outer limit of time for filing a written statement in

Section 13 of the Consumer Protection Act 1986 is binding. The conclusion in the

decision of the Constitution Bench is extracted below:

“62. To conclude, we hold that our answer to the first

question is that the District Forum has no power to extend the

time for filing the response to the complaint beyond the period

of 15 days in addition to 30 days as is envisaged under

Section 13 of the Consumer Protection Act; and the answer to

the second question is that the commencing point of limitation

of 30 days under Section 13 of the Consumer Protection Act

would be from the date of receipt of the notice accompanied

with the complaint by the opposite party, and not mere receipt

of the notice of the complaint.

63. This judgment to operate prospectively. The referred

questions are answered accordingly.”

Significantly, in paragraph 63, it has been clarified by the Constitution Bench that the

judgment would operate prospectively.

5

9 Prior to the judgment of the Constitution Bench in New India Assurance

Company Limited (supra), there was a judgment of a three-judge Bench of this

Court in Dr J J Merchant v. Shrinath Chaturvedi5 which held that to ensure a

speedy trial, the legislative mandate of not granting more than forty-five days to

submit the written statement requires adherence, failing which the purpose of the

statute would not be fulfilled. Several conflicting decisions of this Court6 led to a

reference to the Constitution Bench. Eventually, as noted above, the Constitution

Bench in New India Assurance Company Limited (supra) held that the District

Forum has no power to condone a delay beyond a discretionary period of fifteen

days, in addition to thirty days as envisaged in Section 13 of the Consumer

Protection Act 1986. However, given the conflicting decisions which previously held

the field, the judgment has been made prospective.

10 The issue in the present appeal pertains to a situation where prior to the

decision of the Constitution Bench, the NCDRC had condoned a delay for a period

beyond the prescribed statutory outer limit. In the present case, the NCDRC had

exercised its discretion on 25 February 2020 to condone the delay prior to the

decision of the Constitution Bench on 4 March 2020. In Reliance General

Insurance Company Limited (supra), a two-Judge Bench of this Court had, on 10

February 2017, issued directions to the consumer fora as regards applications for

 5 (2002) 6 SCC 635 [“Dr. J J Merchant”] 6 Topline Shoes Ltd. v. Corporation Bank, (2002) 6 SCC 33; Kailash v. Nanhku, (2005) 4 SCC 480; Salem Advocate

Bar Assn. (2) v. Union of India, (2005) 6 SCC 344; J.J. Merchant v. Shrinath Chaturvedi, (2002) 6 SCC 635; New

India Assurance Co. Ltd. v. Hilli Multipurpose Cold Storage (P) Ltd., (2015) 16 SCC 20.

6

condonation during the pendency of the reference to the Constitution Bench. The

Court observed thus:

“5. We consider it appropriate to direct that pending decision

of the larger Bench, it will be open to the Fora concerned to

accept the written statement filed beyond the stipulated time

of 45 days in an appropriate case, on suitable terms,

including the payment of costs, and to proceed with the

matter.”

Similarly, during the pendency of the reference to the Constitution Bench, on 11

February 2016, a two-judge Bench of this Court in Bhasin Infotech and

Infrastructure Private Limited v. Grand Venezia Buyers Association 7 had

permitted parties to file written statements beyond the prescribed limitation period,

subject to payment of appropriate costs:

“4. Stay of the proceedings before the National Commission

would in our opinion not only result in procrastination but also

cause prejudice to the complainant. The proper course in our

opinion is to permit the appellant Company to file its

response, which was delayed by just about one day. We

accordingly permit the appellant to file its reply before the

National Commission within two weeks from today subject to

payment of Rs 50,000 as costs to be paid to the opposite

party. The Commission can upon deposit of costs proceed

with the trial of the complainant on merits after receiving the

reply filed by the respondent. The pendency of present

proceedings shall not be an impediment for the Commission

to do so. This however is subject to the condition that the

respondent complainant is ready and willing to take the

proceedings forward on the conditions aforementioned. In

case the respondent complainants have any objection to the

continuance of the proceedings before the Commission they

shall be free to seek stay of such proceedings pending


7 (2018) 17 SCC 255 [“Bhasin Infotech-2018”]

7

disposal of these appeals in which event the proceedings

shall remain stayed till disposal of the present appeals.”

11 Subsequently, there was another judgment of a two-judge Bench of this Court

in Daddy’s Builders Private Limited v. Manisha Bhargava8

. The decision was

rendered on 11 February 2021 after the judgment of the Constitution Bench in New

India Assurance Company Limited (supra). That was a case where the NCDRC in

a judgment dated 4 September 2020, had confirmed the order of the Karnataka

State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission dated 26 September 2018

rejecting an application seeking condonation of delay in filing the written statement.

The decision of the two-judge Bench in Reliance General Insurance Company

Limited (supra) was cited before the Court. Referring to the said decision, this Court

observed that in the order dated 10 February 2017 pronounced in Reliance General

Insurance Company Limited (supra), it was specifically stated that it would be

open to the fora concerned to accept written statements filed beyond the stipulated

period of 45 days in an appropriate case on suitable terms including the payment of

costs. Referring to the above order, this Court in Daddy’s Builders (supra)

observed that ultimately it was left to the concerned fora to accept written

statements beyond the stipulated period of 45 days in an appropriate case. The

Court held that the NCDRC had found no reason to condone the delay on its merits:

“6. Now so far as the reliance placed upon the order passed

by this Court dated 10-2-2017 in Reliance General Insurance

Co. Ltd. [Reliance General Insurance Co. Ltd.v. Mampee

 8 (2021) 3 SCC 669 [“Daddy’s Builders”]

8

Timbers & Hardwares (P) Ltd., (2021) 3 SCC 673] is

concerned, the same has been dealt with in detail by the

National Commission by the impugned order [Daddy's

Builders (P) Ltd. v. Manisha Bhargava, 2020 SCC OnLine

NCDRC 697] while deciding the first appeal. As rightly

observed by the National Commission, there was no mandate

that in all the cases where the written statement was

submitted beyond the stipulated period of 45 days, the delay

must be condoned and the written statement must be taken

on record. In order dated 10-2-2017 [Reliance General

Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Mampee Timbers & Hardwares (P) Ltd.,

(2021) 3 SCC 673] , it is specifically mentioned that it will be

open to the Fora concerned to accept the written statement

filed beyond the stipulated period of 45 days in an appropriate

case, on suitable terms, including the payment of costs and to

proceed with the matter. Therefore, ultimately, it was left to

the Fora concerned to accept the written statement beyond

the stipulated period of 45 days in an appropriate case.”

The Court also referred to the decision of the Constitution Bench in the following

terms:

“7. As observed by the National Commission that despite

sufficient time granted the written statement was not filed

within the prescribed period of limitation. Therefore, the

National Commission has considered the aspect of

condonation of delay on merits also. In any case, in view of

the earlier decision of this Court in J.J. Merchant [J.J.

Merchant v. Shrinath Chaturvedi, (2002) 6 SCC 635] and the

subsequent authoritative decision of the Constitution Bench of

this Court in New India Assurance Co. Ltd. v. Hilli

Multipurpose Cold Storage (P) Ltd. [New India Assurance Co.

Ltd. v. Hilli Multipurpose Cold Storage (P) Ltd., (2020) 5 SCC

757 : (2020) 3 SCC (Civ) 338] , Consumer Fora have no

jurisdiction and/or power to accept the written statement

beyond the period of 45 days, we see no reason to interfere

with the impugned order [Daddy's Builders (P) Ltd. v. Manisha

Bhargava, 2020 SCC OnLine NCDRC 697] passed by the

learned National Commission.”

9

12 A few months after the decision in Daddy’s Builders (supra), on 8 July 2021,

a two-judge Bench of this Court in Dr A Suresh Kumar v. Amit Agarwal 9

considered a factual situation where the NCDRC summarily dismissed an

application for condonation of delay filed before the decision of the Constitution

Bench in New India Assurance Company Limited (supra). The Court in Dr A

Suresh Kumar (supra) held that since the decision of the Constitution Bench was to

operate with prospective effect, applications for condonation of delay filed before 4

March 2020 ought to be considered on merits:

“2. In our view, since the application for condonation of delay

was filed prior to the judgment of the Constitution Bench,

which was delivered on 4-3-2020 [New India Assurance Co.

Ltd. v. Hilli Multipurpose Cold Storage (P) Ltd., (2020) 5 SCC

757 : (2020) 3 SCC (Civ) 338] , the said application for

condonation of delay ought to have been considered on

merits and should not have been dismissed on the basis of

the Constitution Bench judgment in New India Assurance Co.

Ltd. [New India Assurance Co. Ltd. v. Hilli Multipurpose Cold

Storage (P) Ltd., (2020) 5 SCC 757 : (2020) 3 SCC (Civ) 338]

because the said judgment was to operate prospectively and

the written statement as well as the application for

condonation of delay had been filed much prior to the said

judgment. Accordingly, the impugned order [Amit Agrawal v.

A. Suresh Kumar, 2020 SCC OnLine NCDRC 927] of Ncdrc

deserves to be, and is, hereby set aside.”

The decision in Dr A Suresh Kumar (supra) did not notice the observation of a prior

bench of co-equal strength in Daddy’s Builders (supra).

13 The divergence between the positions in Dr A Suresh Kumar (supra) and

Daddy’s Builders (supra) in interpreting the prospective effect of the decision of the

 9 (2021) 7 SCC 466 [“Dr. A Suresh Kumar”]

10

Constitution Bench in New India Assurance Company Limited (supra) was

recently noticed on 6 December 2021 by a two-judge Bench of this Court in Bhasin

Infotech and Infrastructure Private Ltd. v. Neema Agarwal and Others10. The

Court was considering a consumer complaint and an application for condonation of

delay which were filed before 4 March 2020 but decided after the decision of the

Constitution Bench. The Court noted the conflicting positions in the following terms:

“9. Two contrary views have emerged as regards what would

be meant by the phrase….. “This judgment to operate

prospectively” mandated in the Constitution Bench judgment.

In the case of Daddy's Builders Private Limited (supra), the

application for condonation of delay had been rejected by the

State Commission prior to the Constitution Bench opinion on

the aspect of power and jurisdiction of the consumer fora to

condone delay beyond the stipulated 45 days in filing written

submission/reply. The appeal against that decision was

rejected by the NCDRC on 4th September, 2020, following

the Constitution Bench decision. On prospective operation of

the Constitution Bench Judgment, opinion of the Coordinate

Bench in the case of Daddy's Builders Private Limited (supra)

was that the prospective operation of the judgment would

apply only in cases where delay stood condoned on a date

prior to 4th March, 2020. In expressing this view, the

Coordinate Bench noted that one of the members of the

Bench was also a party to the said Constitution Bench

decision. The position, as regards composition of the Bench

is similar in the case of Dr. A. Suresh Kumar (supra) and in

that judgment, a more liberal approach has been adopted.

The prospectivity of the Constitution Bench decision has been

held to cover cases where an application for condonation of

delay was filed prior to the judgment of the Constitution

Bench, but whose outcome was yet to be determined at the

time the Constitution Bench judgment was delivered.”

 10 2021 SCCOnLine SC 1186 [“Bhasin Infotech-2021”]

11

The two-judge Bench in Bhasin Infotech-2021 (supra) followed the line of

precedent in Dr A Suresh Kumar (supra) and noted that the prospective effect of

the Constitution Bench would preserve the benefit of the position laid down in

Reliance General Insurance Company (supra) concerning applications for

condonation that had been pending or decided as of 4 March 2020:

“10. In our view, the prospective operation of the Judgment in

the case of New India Assurance Company Limited (supra)

ought to cover both sets of the cases in which delay in filing

written reply stood condoned after accepting the application

for condonation of delay in filing written statement/reply as

well as the cases where the decision on condonation of delay

in filing written replies were pending on 4th March, 2020.

Once an application is filed for condonation of delay, there

may be cases where such applications are decided upon on

dates earlier than applications already filed but yet to be

determined. We do not have any laid down administrative

mechanism to decide in what manner applications of this

nature would be decided and the consumer fora or the Courts

apply their own discretion on the basis of various relevant

factors involved in individual cases, to prioritise their hearing.

In our opinion, it would be artificial distinction to distinguish

between applications for condonation of delay already

decided before 4th March, 2020 and the applications for

condonation of delay pending on that date. So far as persons

with pending applications for condonation of delay in filing

written replies are concerned, their right to have their

applications for condonation of delay in filing written replies to

be considered, would stand crystallised on 4th March, 2020.

Such right has also been recognised in the case of Reliance

General Insurance Company Limited (supra). Such right

could be extinguished only by specific legal provisions. In the

event the Constitution Bench judgment had altogether

negated the right to have delay in filing written statement

condoned beyond the period of 45 days, the right of such

applicants could stand extinguished. But as the judgment of

the Constitution Bench is to operate prospectively, in our

understanding of the said judgment, those with pending

applications for condonation of delay would retain their right

to have their applications considered. But we refrain from

expressing any definitive opinion on this point as the two 

12

Benches of equal strength have taken differing views on the

manner in which the prospective application of the

Constitution Bench judgment would be affected. In our

opinion, this issue ought to be decided by a larger Bench.”

However, in view of the conflicting position in Daddy’s Builders (supra), the twojudge Bench in Bhasin Infotech-2021 (supra) sought the reference of the matter to

a larger bench.

14 To recapitulate, in Daddy’s Builders (supra), this Court refused to interfere in

a decision of the NCDRC which had affirmed the judgment of the SCDRC rejecting

the application for condonation. The application for condonation had not been

entertained on merits. However, there are observations in Daddy’s Builders

(supra), based on the decision of the Constitution Bench, which state that a delay

beyond the outer limit prescribed by Section 13 could not have been condoned.

While this is the position which emerges from the decision of the Constitution Bench,

the decision has been made prospective. In Daddy’s Builders (supra) the

application for condonation had been filed before the decision of the Constitution

Bench and had been rejected on merits. Strictly speaking, the observations in

Daddy’s Builders (supra) were not necessary for its decision since, even on merits,

no case for condonation had been found by the NCDRC in that case. As noted

above, this Court in Daddy’s Builders (supra) after noticing the decision in

Reliance General Insurance Company (supra) held that it left the discretion to be

exercised by the fora during the pendency of the reference to the Constitution Bench

and in that case, the NCDRC found no reason to condone the delay. The 

13

subsequent observation of this Court in Daddy’s Builders (supra) which implies that

the principle laid down by the Constitution Bench will even apply to applications for

condonation filed prior to the decision of the Constitution Bench were unnecessary

(once it had been held that even on merits there was no case for condonation).

Moreover, those observations are with respect not consistent with the legal position

that the Constitution Bench gave prospective effect to its decision.

15 The discretion for condonation of delay under Section 13 of the Consumer

Protection Act 1986 is specifically circumscribed by the statute. Similar statutory

provisions exist in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 2015 and the Insolvency and

Bankruptcy Code 2016 though in a different statutory context – facilitating the

sanctity of the arbitral process in the former and the legislative intent of ensuring

timely disposal and corporate rehabilitation in the latter. The Consumer protection

Act 1986 and its successor are social welfare legislations designed to protect the

interests of consumers. The Constitution Bench had thus noted:

“28. It is true that “justice hurried is justice buried”. But in the

same breath it is also said that “justice delayed is justice

denied”. The legislature has chosen the latter, and for a good

reason. It goes with the objective sought to be achieved by

the Consumer Protection Act, which is to provide speedy

justice to the consumer. It is not that sufficient time to file a

response to the complaint has been denied to the opposite

party. It is just that discretion of extension of time beyond 15

days (after the 30 days' period) has been curtailed and

consequences for the same have been provided under

Section 13(2)(b)(ii) of the Consumer Protection Act. It may be

that in some cases the opposite party could face hardship

because of such provision, yet for achieving the object of the

Act, which is speedy and simple redressal of consumer

disputes, hardship which may be caused to a party has to be

ignored.”

14

This was owing to the social welfare intention of the consumer protection legislation,

which essentially seeks to protect the rights of consumers who avail of myriad goods

and services. The welfare of litigating consumers has been the guiding principle for

interpreting several procedural and substantive questions arising out of the

Consumer Protection Act 1986. Recently, a two-judge Bench considered the effect

of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 which amended the pecuniary jurisdiction of

consumer fora, on pending proceedings. In arriving at its decision, the Court noted:

“82. It would be difficult to attribute to Parliament, whose

purpose in enacting the Act of 2019 was to protect and

support consumers with an intent that would lead to financial

hardship, uncertainty and expense in the conduct of

consumer litigation….”

A similar principle is inherent in the decision of the Constitution Bench in New India

Assurance Company Ltd. (supra). However, given the conflicting decisions

concerning the nature of such discretion, the Constitution Bench considered it

appropriate to give prospective effect to the decision. It did not make a distinction

between applications for condonation which had been decided and those which

were pending on the date of the decision. Thus, the decision in Daddy’s Builders

(supra) would not affect applications that were pending or decided before 4 March

2020. Such applications for condonation would be entitled to the benefit of the

position in Reliance General Insurance Company Limited (supra) which directed

consumer fora to render a decision on merits. We have expounded on the above

principles in order to adopt a bright-line standard which obviates uncertainty on the

legal position before the consumer fora and obviates further litigation. 

15

16 In the present case, before the decision of the Constitution Bench, the delay

was condoned by the NCDRC by furnishing reasons for the exercise of such

discretion. Having regard to the prospective effect of the judgment of the

Constitution Bench in New India Assurance Company Limited (supra) and the

orders of this Court in Reliance General Insurance Company Limited (supra) and

Bhasin Infotech-2018 (supra), which had recognized an element of discretion

pending the reference, we are of the considered view that no case for interference is

made in the order of the NCDRC allowing the application for condonation of delay

on merits.

17 Learned counsel for the appellant states that the payment of costs of Rs

50,000 could not be effected because of the lockdown, but a demand draft is ready.

The amount shall be transmitted into the account stipulated by the NCDRC within

two weeks.

18 Liberty is granted to the appellants to file their replication within a period of

four weeks.

16

19 The appeal is accordingly disposed of.

20 Pending applications, if any, stand disposed of.

…….…………………………...............................J.

 [Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud]

…….…………………………...............................J.

 [Surya Kant]

…….…………………………...............................J.

 [Vikram Nath]

New Delhi;

December 14, 2021

Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code = whether, in terms of the provisions of the IBC, the Adjudicating Authority can without applying its mind to the merits of the petition under Section 7, simply dismiss the petition on the basis that the corporate debtor has initiated the process of settlement with the financial creditors.

 1

Reportable

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

Civil Appeal No 3325 of 2020

E S Krishnamurthy & Ors. …. Appellants

Versus

M/s Bharath Hi Tech Builders Pvt. Ltd. …. Respondent

J U D G M E N T

Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, J

1 Admit.

2 The present appeal under Section 62 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code

20161 has arisen from a judgment of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal2

dated 30 July 2020, which upheld an order dated 28 February 2020 of the National

Company Law Tribunal3 at its Bengaluru Bench.

 1 “IBC” 2 “NCLAT”/“Appellate Authority” 3 “NCLT”/“Adjudicating Authority”

2

3 On a petition4 which was instituted by the appellants (and others) under

Section 7 of the IBC for initiating the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process5 in

respect of the respondent, the NCLT declined to admit the petition and instead

directed the respondent to settle the claims within three months. The NCLAT found

no merit in the appeal6 against the NCLT’s order.

4 The issue which arises for adjudication before this Court is whether, in terms

of the provisions of the IBC, the Adjudicating Authority can without applying its mind

to the merits of the petition under Section 7, simply dismiss the petition on the basis

that the corporate debtor has initiated the process of settlement with the financial

creditors.

5 The genesis of the case arises from a Master Agreement to Sell7 which was

entered into between the respondent, IDBI Trusteeship Limited and Karvy Realty

(India) Limited8 on 22 June 2014, in order to raise an amount of Rs 50 crores for the

development of 100 acres of agricultural land. Under the terms of the Master

Agreement, the Facility Agent was to sell the plots to prospective purchasers against

the payment of a lumpsum amount. The respondent was then required to pay

interest at the rate of 25 per cent per annum compounded annually to the purchaser,

under the Master Agreement. It has been stated that in furtherance of the Master

Agreement, the ninth appellant was allotted a plot in the project being developed by

the respondent on the payment of a sum of Rs 12,50,000. Thus, the respondent was

 4 C.P(IB)No. 188/BB/2019 5 “CIRP” 6 Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No 649 of 2020 7 “Master Agreement” 8 “Facility Agent”

3

obligated to convey and register the plots to the ninth appellant within 21 months

from the date of execution of the Master Agreement (i.e., by 21 March 2016).

6 Since the requisite funds could not be generated through the Master

Agreement, a Syndicate Loan Agreement 9 was entered into between the

respondent, IDBI Trusteeship Limited and the Facility Agent on 22 November 2014

for availing a term loan of Rs 18 crores from prospective lenders. Such prospective

lenders were to lend moneys by executing a Deed of Adherence. In accordance with

the terms of the Loan Agreement, the respondent had to utilise the funds raised for

developing the proposed residential layout in its project and it was to pay an assured

return at the rate of 20 per cent annum on the principal amount. Further, the tenure

of the loan was to be 24 months from the execution of the Loan Agreement, and in

the event of default, the respondent was liable to pay an additional interest of one

per cent for every month.

7 The case of the appellants is that during the year 2015-2016, the Facility

Agent acting through its sister concern (Karvy Private Wealth) advised its clients to

extend loans to the respondent. The appellants claim that they (with the exception of

the ninth appellant), along with several others, extended term loans to the

respondent acting on the advice of the Facility Agent and its sister concern. Thus,

requisite Deeds of Adherence were signed. It is alleged by the appellants that

through the Loan Agreement, the respondent raised over Rs 15 crores from nearly

300 investors in the first tranche of loans.

 9 “Loan Agreement”

4

8 By a letter dated 29 February 2016, addressed to one of the original

petitioners in the petition before the NCLT who was allotted a plot under the Master

Agreement, the respondent sought an extension of time till 31 October 2016 for

conveying the plots. It has been alleged that in its letter, the respondent undertook

that in the event of its failure to convey the plots by 31 October 2016, the entire

amount which was paid would be returned, together with interest as agreed in the

Master Agreement itself.

9 Further, on 30 November 2016, the respondent is stated to have extended the

term of the Loan Agreement, due to its alleged inability to refund the principal

amount along with interest. The respondent is also alleged to have sought an

extension of the loan period by 12 months, with an assurance that the principal

amount would be repaid in three equal instalments in the 13th, 14th and 15th months.

10 However, on 26 April 2019, 11 out of the 17 appellants before this Court

(together with 72 other petitioners) instituted a petition under Section 7 of the IBC

before the Adjudicating Authority, due to the respondent’s default in making the repayment of an amount of Rs 33,84,32,493.

11 On 11 September 2019, the Adjudicating Authority adjourned the proceedings

on the ground that the parties were attempting to resolve the dispute. A further

extension of time for exploring the possibility of a settlement was sought on 24

October 2019 by the respondent, which was granted by the Adjudicating Authority

and the petition was posted for 5 November 2019. On 22 November 2019, the 

5

respondent informed the Adjudicating Authority that it was exploring the possibility of

a settlement, following which it was observed that any proposal for settlement

should be furnished to the petitioners well before the next date of hearing. On 20

December 2019, with the respondent having failed to resolve the issue, the

Adjudicating Authority posted the petition for admission on 29 January 2020. On 29

January 2020, on the respondent’s request, the Adjudicating Authority granted a

further opportunity to the respondent to settle the dispute with the petitioners before

it. On 27 February 2020, the respondent filed a memo before the Adjudicating

Authority stating that it had reached a settlement with 140 investors. According to

the appellants, however, out of 83 petitioners who were before the Adjudicating

Authority in the petition, a settlement had been arrived at only with 13 petitioners.

There was, in other words, no settlement with the other 70 petitioners before the

NCLT.

12 Eventually, by its order dated 28 February 2020, the NCLT disposed of the

petition. The Adjudicating Authority noted that “both the learned Counsels have filed

Joint Consent Terms dated 12.02.2020”. Admittedly, however, these consent terms

were arrived at by the respondent with only one of the petitioners before the

Adjudicating Authority, and not with all of the petitioners (including the appellants).

Before the Adjudicating Authority, the respondent submitted that “subsequently they

have settled the claims of about 140 Creditors” and counsel for the respondent also

filed a memo indicating the steps that they had taken to settle the claims of “various

others creditors and clients”. In this backdrop, the Adjudicating Authority observed:

6

“6. It is not in dispute that the Corporate Debtor with bona fide

intention is exploring the possibility of the settlement in

question and the project is in advanced stage of completion,

and if the Company is put under CIRP, interest of all the

Home Buyers as well as other Creditors will be in jeopardy.

He further submits that the Corporate Debtor is taking all

steps to settle the remaining claims of the Petitioners as well

as other Creditors within a time frame. Lists showing the

number of cases settled and those remaining have been filed.

7. It is a settled position of law that this procedure under the

Code is contemplated to be summary in nature, and it cannot

manage or decide upon each and every case of individual

homebuyers. Lists of Individual cases have been placed on

record which show that 140 investors have been fully settled

by the Corporate Debtor and an amount of Rs.27.25 crore

has been paid to them. 13 claims/Petitioners before us have

been settled, 40 are in the process of settlement and 39

pending settlement. Thus the process of settlement appears

to be progressing in all seriousness. Instead of examining all

the individual claims in detail, we would like to dispose of the

instant case by directing the Corporate Debtor to settle all the

remaining claims sincerely within a definite lime frame.”

Thus, the Adjudicating Authority decided to dispose the petition based on the

following factors: (i) that respondent’s efforts to settle the dispute were bona fide, as

evinced by the fact that they had already settled with 140 investors, including 13

petitioners before it; (ii) the settlement process was underway with 40 other

petitioners; (iii) the procedure under the IBC was summary in nature, and could not

be used to individually manage the case of each of the 83 petitioners before it; and

(iv) initiation of CIRP in respect of the respondent would put in jeopardy the interests

of home buyers and creditors, who have invested in the respondent’s project, which

was in advanced stages of completion. In disposing of the petition, the Adjudicating

Authority issued the following directions:

7

“a. The Corporate Debtor is directed to settle the remaining

claims as expeditiously as possible, but not later than 3

months, and communicate this decision to all the concerned

parties.

b. If aggrieved by the settlement process of the Corporate

Debtor, the remaining Petitioners, if any, would be at liberty to

approach this Adjudicating Authority again, in accordance

with law.”

13 The order of the Adjudicating Authority was challenged in appeal before the

NCLAT by 7 of the original petitioners, all of whom are appellants before this Court

as well, along with certain other allottees who were not original petitioners before the

NCLT. By its impugned judgment 30 July 2020, the Appellate Authority dismissed

the appeal, noting thus:

“3. It is manifestly clear that the application under Section 7 of

the l&B Code came to be disposed of at the pre-admission

stage and no order of admission or rejection of application

was passed by the Adjudicating Authority keeping in view the

nature of claims which admittedly were relatable to a Housing

Project. The Adjudicating Authority appears to have been

influenced by the fact that claims of the maximum number of

stakeholders have been settled which included some claims

settled at pre-admission stage before the Adjudicating

Authority. In so far as the remaining claims were concerned,

the Adjudicating Authority allowed a definite time frame viz. 3

months giving liberty to the claimant(s} whose claims would

remain unsettled after expiry of the given time frame, to come

back and re-agitate the matter.

4. Viewed in these circumstances, it cannot be said that the

impugned order is of such a nature which is prejudicial to the

rights and interests of any of the stakeholders. The

claimant(s) who may be dissatisfied or whose claims remain

unsettled during the given time frame can approach the

Adjudicating Authority who has not shut its doors. Assailing of

the impugned order in appeal would not be the appropriate

course.

8

5. It is a fact that the given time frame has already elapsed

but we take judicial notice of the fact that normal business

operations had been adversely affected by the imposition of

lockdown due to outbreak of COVID-19 which has been

declared pandemic. Even after unlocking, the pace of

business operations is far from normal. In these

circumstances, some concession has to be given in

adherence to the timelines set in terms of the impugned

order. Be-that-as-it-may, this situation may also have to be

addressed by the Adjudicating Authority, if approached by a

claimant whose claim has not been settled so far. It is not

disputed that the resolution of disputes relating to claims,

more particularly of Allottees in Housing Projects, has to be

given primacy and pushing the Corporate Debtor into

liquidation would only be the last option.

6. In view of the foregoing discussion and also bearing in

mind that the settlement process set in motion at the preadmission stage is supported by the Consent Terms filed by

some of the stakeholders, though it may not be all

encompassing, this appeal would not lie. We accordingly hold

that the appeal is not maintainable. There being no legal

infirmity in the impugned order, the appeal is dismissed.”

The Appellate Authority’s decision to dismiss the appeal and uphold the Adjudicating

Authority’s order was thus based upon the following considerations: (i) the NCLT

decided to dismiss the petition under Section 7 at the ‘pre-admission stage’ itself,

since the settlement process was underway; (ii) the NCLT protected the rights of all

the appellants/petitioners by setting a time-frame for settlement by the respondent,

and leaving them open the option of approaching it in case their claims remained unsettled; (iii) while the timeframe for settlement had elapsed, the respondent had to

be shown leniency due to the effects of the COVID-19 pandemic on businesses; and

(iv) in disputes of this nature, the claims of the home buyers have to be given 

9

priority, and the respondent should not be pushed into liquidation, until as the last

resort.

14 The NCLAT’s judgment and order dated 30 July 2020 has now been

challenged before this Court by a variety of individuals – some of whom were

original petitioners before the NCLT and went in appeal before the NCLAT, some

who joined the appeal before the NCLAT directly, some who were original

petitioners before the NCLT but did not join the appeal before the NCLAT and others

who have joined the cause before this Court for the first time. A tabular

representation is provided below:

S.No. Name Position before this

Court

Position before

NCLAT

Position before

NCLT

1 Brig. E.S. Krishnamurthy First Appellant Appellant Petitioner

2 Dhwani Nishith Sanghvi Second Appellant Appellant Petitioner

3 Kriti Milind Ranka Third Appellant Appellant Petitioner

4 Marie Therese Lima

Fernandes

Fourth Appellant Appellant Petitioner

5 Nitin Dinkar Palekar Fifth Appellant Appellant Petitioner

6 Sunil Jain Sixth Appellant Appellant Petitioner

7 Bhupesh Dinger Seventh Appellant Appellant Petitioner

8 Battula Satish Eight Appellant Appellant Not a Party

9 Shashi Arora Ninth Appellant Appellant Not a Party

10 Gangasagar Neminath

Hemade

Tenth Appellant Not a Party Petitioner

11 P.V. Lakshminarayana Eleventh Appellant Not a Party Petitioner

12 Shaila S Kothari Twelfth Appellant Not a Party Not a Party

13 Nemmara Raju Dorai

Mahadevan

Thirteenth Appellant Not a Party Not a Party

14 Mayank Gupta Fourteenth Appellant Not a Party Not a Party

15 Manjushri Basu Fifteenth Appellant Not a Party Petitioner

16 Madhukar V. Limaye Sixteenth Appellant Not a Party Petitioner

17 Dipankar Kanjilal Seventeenth Appellant Not a Party Not a Party

10

During the course of the appeal, there have also been two applications10 seeking

impleadment in the proceedings by ten individuals who are similarly placed to the

appellants. Some of these individuals were also original petitioners before the NCLT.

15 We have heard Mr Srijan Sinha, Counsel for the appellants and Ms

Aakanksha Nehra, Counsel for the respondent.

16 On behalf of the appellants, the principal challenge is on the ground that:

(i) The Appellate Authority as well as the Adjudicating Authority have acted

beyond the scope of their jurisdiction under the IBC, and thus their orders are

liable to be set aside since they were coram non judice. Reliance has been

placed upon the judgment of this Court in Embassy Property Developments

(P) Ltd. v. State of Karnataka11 in support of this proposition;

(ii) The impugned orders are contrary to the mandate of Section 7 of the IBC.

This ground has been sought to be substantiated by urging as follows:

(a) The orders of the Adjudicating Authority and the Appellate Authority are

contrary to the principles enunciated in the judgment of this Court in

Innoventive Industries Ltd. v. ICICI Bank 12 ("Innoventive

Industries”), with respect to the scope and extent of the enquiry which

has to be made in a petition under Section 7 of the IBC. This Court has

held that while entertaining the petition under Section 7, the

Adjudicating Authority has to merely satisfy itself whether a default has

 10 IA No 4783 of 2021 and IA No 97193 of 2021 11 (2020) 13 SCC 308 12 (2018) 1 SCC 407, paras 28 and 30

11

occurred. As such, Section 7(5) only provides the Adjudicating

Authority with two options – to pass an admission order under Section

7(5)(a) or reject the petition under Section 7(5)(b). Thus, unless the

debt has not become due or is interdicted by some law, the

Adjudicating Authority must admit a petition under Section 7;

(b) Admittedly, in the present case, the respondent has committed an act

of default as understood in the provisions of Section 3(12) of the IBC.

This is evident from the fact that it is willing to settle the debt owed to

the appellants, which was also noted by the Adjudicating Authority.

Further, the dispute between the respondent and as many as 70

original petitioners had not been settled, at the time when the

Adjudicating Authority passed its order. In spite of this, the Adjudicating

Authority failed to act in accordance with the provisions of Section

7(5)(a) and issue an order admitting the application; and

(c) Further, the Appellate Authority has also erred in observing that the

petition under Section 7 was disposed of at a ‘pre-admission stage’ by

the Adjudicating Authority. Where the Adjudicating Authority is not

satisfied that the financial debt is owed and a default has occurred,

Section 7(5)(b) provides that it shall reject the application. Thus, an

option to dispose at a ‘pre-admission stage’ is not available to the

Adjudicating Authority;

12

(iii) The Adjudicating Authority and Appellate Authority have acted beyond the

scope of their jurisdiction in ‘directing’ the parties to settle with the

respondent. To substantiate this argument, it has been urged:

(a) The Adjudicating Authority as well as the Appellate Authority are

creatures of the statute – the IBC – and are bound by its provisions.

Thus, their jurisdiction is limited by the provisions of the IBC;

(b) Hence, once there is an admitted default by the respondent, the

Adjudicating Authority was statutorily bound to admit the petition and

has acted patently beyond its jurisdiction in not entertaining it on the

ground that there was a possibility of a settlement. The Appellate

Authority has merely placed its stamp of approval on the judgment of

the Adjudicating Authority. In doing so, Adjudicating Authority and

Appellate Authority have acted as courts of equity, which is not

prescribed by the IBC. In support of this proposition, reliance has been

placed upon the judgment of this Court in Pratap Technocrats (P) Ltd.

and Others v. Monitoring Committee of Reliance Infratel Limited

and Another13 (“Pratap Technocrats”);

(c) In any case, out of 83 petitioners before the Adjudicating Authority, only

13 had entered into a settlement. As a result, there was no settlement

with the remaining 70 petitioners. Moreover, even in respect of the

financial creditors with whom the respondent had entered into a

 13 2021 SCC OnLine SC 569, paras 37, 47 and 50

13

settlement, the respondent had failed to comply with the settlement

even before the passing of the impugned order;

(d) Further, the direction by the Adjudicating Authority to the respondent to

settle all individual claims is beyond its jurisdiction, as a judicial

authority cannot dispose of a petition with a direction to settle a dispute.

At the highest, a proceeding may be adjourned in order to enable the

parties to explore the possibility of a settlement. In the present case, as

many as four opportunities were granted to the respondent to resolve

the dispute with the petitioners, but to no avail. Hence, once the parties

failed to arrive at a settlement, the judicial authority was duty bound to

decide the case on merits alone; and

(e) Finally, the admission of the petition by the Adjudicating Authority

would not have automatically nullified any potential for settlement. This

Court has held in its judgment in Swiss Ribbons Pvt Ltd and Anr. v.

Union of India and Ors.14 that even after a petition under Section 7 of

the IBC is admitted and before the Committee of Creditors15 is formed,

the parties can settle the dispute. Further, even after the CoC is

formed, Section 12A of the IBC does provide for a mechanism through

which the petition can be withdrawn (if the parties were to reach a

settlement);

 14 (2019) 4 SCC 17 15 “CoC”

14

(iv) The IBC envisages two classes of creditors – financial and operational

creditors. Except some differences in their rights and role in the CIRP, the IBC

confers equal rights upon both the classes of creditors. However, through the

impugned judgment, the Appellate Authority has created a sub-class within

the class of financial creditors by observing that in the resolution of disputes

relating to claims of allottees in housing projects, their rights have to be given

primacy and the project entity/corporate debtor should not be sent into

liquidation only at the behest of the other investors; and

(v) The threshold requirement of 10 per cent allotees of a housing project filing a

petition under Section 7 of the IBC has been upheld by this Court in Manish

Kumar v. Union of India16 ("Manish Kumar”). However, in paragraph 181,

this Court has held that such a requirement only needs to be assessed at the

threshold while admitting the petition. Hence, if subsequent to the admission,

withdrawal applications are preferred and the 10 per cent threshold is

reduced, it shall not affect the maintainability of the original petition. Thus, in

the present case, the 83 original petitioners did meet the 10 per cent

threshold and the petition should have been admitted.

Based on the above submissions, the appellants have prayed that the orders of the

NCLAT and NCLT be set aside, and the original petition under Section 7 of the IBC

be restored for a decision on its admissibility under Section 7(5) of the IBC.

 16 (2021) 5 SCC 1

15

17 On the other hand, the respondent counters by submitting that:

(i) The present appeal has been filed by the appellants to obviate the procedural

requirements of Section 7 of the IBC. It has been urged:

(a) The petition under Section 7 was instituted by the first appellant on

behalf of himself and 82 other petitioners/proposed purchasers. Out of

these 83 petitioners, only 7 of the original petitioners (including the first

appellant) approached the NCLAT in appeal. The present appeal has

been filed by the first appellant on behalf of the following persons:

i. First to seventh appellants, who were parties before the NCLT and

the NCLAT;

ii. Eight and ninth appellants, who were not parties to the original

petition under Section 7 but had filed an appeal before the

NCLAT;

iii. Tenth, eleventh, fifteenth and sixteenth appellants, who were

parties before the NCLT but not before the NCLAT; and

iv. Twelfth to fourteen and seventeenth appellants, who were neither

parties before the NCLT nor the NCLAT;

The reduced number of litigants establishes that the respondent has

made efforts to settle the disputes with many of the proposed

purchasers;

(b) Further, the Parliament has amended Section 7 with effect from 28

December 2019, which was upheld by the judgment of this Court in 

16

Manish Kumar (supra). The amendment has introduced the threshold

requirement (of 10 per cent or 100 home buyers) for filing a petition

under Section 7, with the objective of protecting a corporate debtor

from being dragged into insolvency proceedings by an isolated set of

creditors;

(c) Thus, the present appeal being a continuation of the original

proceedings under Section 7, the threshold requirement would have to

be met. Evidently, with the reduced number of litigants, it is not met;

and

(d) Further, if the appellants have to file a fresh proceeding before the

Adjudicating Authority or if their proceedings are restored before the

Adjudicating Authority at this stage, they would still have to fulfil the

mandatory requirement of bringing together 100 creditors in the same

class or 10 per cent of the total number of such creditors;

(ii) The present proceedings have only been filed by the appellants to arm-twist

the respondent, instead of taking up the settlements offered to them:

(a) The first appellant preferred a petition on behalf of 82 home buyers.

The Adjudicating Authority in its order dated 28 February 2020

recorded that the respondent had fully settled with 140 investors

against a payment of Rs 27.25 crores. Further, it was noted that the

claims of 13 petitioners before the NCLT were settled, 40 were in the

process of settlement and 39 were pending settlements. It was in this 

17

backdrop that the NCLT disposed of the petition, with specific

directions that the appellants could approach it if the respondent did not

settle their claims within three months;

(b) Even after the disposal of the proceedings by the NCLT, the

respondent has continued to settle with proposed purchasers.

However, while numerous efforts have been made to arrive at a

settlement with the appellants, none of the options offered were

agreeable to them;

(c) During the pendency of the appeal, agreed amounts have been paid in

full to the eighth, fourteenth and sixteenth appellants in November

2020. With respect to the tenth, twelfth, thirteenth and seventeenth

appellants, a settlement was arrived at and cheques have been handed

over by the respondent to them, which have not been encashed; and

(d) The respondent reiterates its commitment to settle with the proposed

purchasers, despite the real-estate industry being severely affected

due to the COVID-19 pandemic; and

(iii) The respondent should not be pushed to insolvency merely because a few of

its alleged creditors are not willing to settle. In any case, the appellants are

merely speculative investors and are not allottees within the meaning of

Section 5(8)(12) of the IBC, and thus they have no claim under Section 7 of

the IBC.

18

On the above hypothesis, it has been submitted that the appellants are utilising the

process to facilitate recovery whereas the primary focus of IBC is to ensure revival

and continuation of the corporate debtor, and to protect it from corporate death by

liquidation.

18 The rival submissions will now be considered.

19 At the very outset, there is a factual question in relation to the settlements

which have been made by the respondent with the present appellants. The

respondent has alleged that settlements have been reached with the eighth,

fourteenth and sixteenth appellants and agreed amounts have been paid in full.

Further, settlements were arrived at with tenth, twelfth, thirteenth and seventeenth

appellants and cheques have been handed over to them, but they have not been

encashed. However, the appellants note that while a settlement amount was agreed

between the respondent and the fourteenth appellant, it was never actually paid

before the appeal was filed. Further, upon the filing of the present appeal, when the

respondent offered a new settlement amount, it was rejected by the fourteenth

appellant. Similarly, no settlement has been arrived at with the sixteenth appellant.

In respect of the tenth, twelfth, thirteenth and seventeenth appellants, it is submitted

that the cheques were issued in June 2020 but the respondent itself in October 2020

told them not to encash them till the outcome of the present appeal. Presently, the

appellants acknowledge that final settlements have been reached between the

respondent and the eighth, tenth and twelfth appellants. This position has not been

controverted by the respondent.

19

20 The central question in this appeal then is whether the NCLT and the NCLAT

were correct in their approach of rejecting the appellants’ petition under Section 7 of

the IBC at the ‘pre-admission stage’, and directing them to settle with the respondent

within 3 months. Section 7 of the IBC provides for the initiation of CIRP by a financial

creditor or a class of financial creditors. Section 7, as it stood prior to its

amendments in 201917, is reproduced below:

“7. Initiation of corporate insolvency resolution process

by financial creditor.—(1) A financial creditor either by itself

or jointly with other financial creditors, or any other person on

behalf of the financial creditor, as may be notified by the

Central Government, may file an application for initiating

corporate insolvency resolution process against a corporate

debtor before the Adjudicating Authority when a default has

occurred:

Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section, a default

includes a default in respect of a financial debt owed not only

to the applicant financial creditor but to any other financial

creditor of the corporate debtor.

(2) The financial creditor shall make an application under subsection (1) in such form and manner and accompanied with

such fee as may be prescribed.

(3) The financial creditor shall, along with the application

furnish—

(a) record of the default recorded with the information utility or

such other record or evidence of default as may be specified;

(b) the name of the resolution professional proposed to act as

an interim resolution professional; and

(c) any other information as may be specified by the Board.

(4) The Adjudicating Authority shall, within fourteen days of

the receipt of the application under sub-section (2), ascertain

the existence of a default from the records of an information

 17 Through Act 26 of 2019 and Act 1 of 2020

20

utility or on the basis of other evidence furnished by the

financial creditor under sub-section (3):

(5) Where the Adjudicating Authority is satisfied that—

(a) a default has occurred and the application under subsection (2) is complete, and there is no disciplinary

proceedings pending against the proposed resolution

professional, it may, by order, admit such application; or

(b) default has not occurred or the application under subsection (2) is incomplete or any disciplinary proceeding is

pending against the proposed resolution professional, it may,

by order, reject such application:

Provided that the Adjudicating Authority shall, before rejecting

the application under clause (b) of sub-section (5), give a

notice to the applicant to rectify the defect in his application

within seven days of receipt of such notice from the

Adjudicating Authority.

(6) The corporate insolvency resolution process shall

commence from the date of admission of the application

under sub-section (5).

(7) The Adjudicating Authority shall communicate—

(a) the order under clause (a) of sub-section (5) to the

financial creditor and the corporate debtor;

(b) the order under clause (b) of sub-section (5) to the

financial creditor, within seven days of admission or rejection

of such application, as the case may be.”

21 Sub-Section (1) of Section 7 enables the financial creditor to file an

application for initiation of CIRP against the corporate debtor before the Adjudicating

Authority “when a default has occurred”. The expression “default” is defined in

Section 3(12) of the IBC in the following terms:

“(12) “default” means non-payment of debt when whole or any

part or instalment of the amount of debt has become due and

payable and is not paid by the debtor or the corporate debtor,

as the case may be;”

21

The definition of default adverts to the non-payment of a debt, when it has become

due and payable in whole or in part, by the debtor or the corporate debtor. Since the

definition of “default” incorporates the expression “debt”, it is necessary to advert to

the definition of the latter expression under Section 3(11) of the IBC:

“(11) “debt” means a liability or obligation in respect of a claim

which is due from any person and includes a financial debt

and operational debt;”

Thus, a “debt” is defined to be a liability or an obligation in respect of a claim due

from any person. This includes a financial debt and an operational debt.

22 If the above criteria are met, the financial creditor can make an application

under sub-Section (2) of Section 7, in the manner prescribed, along with the

necessary fees. Sub-Section (3) requires the financial creditor, inter alia, to furnish a

record of the default with the information utility or such other record or evidence of

default as may be specified along with the application. Under sub-Section (4), the

Adjudicating Authority must, within 14 days of the receipt of the application under

sub-Section (2), ascertain the existence of a default from the record of an

information utility or on the basis of other information furnished by the financial

creditor under sub-Section (3).

23 Sub-Section (5) of Section 7 is comprised in two parts: Clause (a), which is

the first part, empowers the Adjudicating Authority to admit the application where it is

satisfied that: (i) a default has occurred; (ii) the application under sub-Section (2) is

complete; and (iii) no disciplinary proceeding is pending against the proposed 

22

resolution professional; Clause (b), which is the second part, empowers the

Adjudicating Authority to reject the application where it is satisfied that: (i) default

has not occurred; or (ii) the application under sub-Section (2) is incomplete; or (iii) a

disciplinary proceeding is pending against the proposed resolution professional.

Under sub-Section (7), the Adjudicating Authority has to communicate its order of

acceptance or rejection to the financial creditor and the corporate debtor or the

financial creditor, as the case may be. In accordance with sub-Section (6), the CIRP

process commences from the date of the admission of the application under subSection (5). Thus, a time limit for the completion of the CIRP within a period of 180

days (under sub-Section (1) of Section 12, subject to a further extension under subSection (3)) commences from the date of the admission of the application to initiate

the process.

24 On a bare reading of the provision, it is clear that both, Clauses (a) and (b) of

sub-Section (5) of Section 7, use the expression “it may, by order” while referring to

the power of the Adjudicating Authority. In Clause (a) of sub-Section (5), the

Adjudicating Authority may, by order, admit the application or in Clause (b) it may,

by order, reject such an application. Thus, two courses of action are available to the

Adjudicating Authority in a petition under Section 7. The Adjudicating Authority must

either admit the application under Clause (a) of sub-Section (5) or it must reject the

application under Clause (b) of sub-Section (5). The statute does not provide for the

Adjudicating Authority to undertake any other action, but for the two choices

available.

23

25 In Innoventive Industries (supra), a two-judge Bench of this Court has

explained the ambit of Section 7 of the IBC, and held that the Adjudicating Authority

only has to determine whether a “default” has occurred, i.e., whether the “debt”

(which may still be disputed) was due and remained unpaid. If the Adjudicating

Authority is of the opinion that a “default” has occurred, it has to admit the

application unless it is incomplete. Speaking through Justice Rohinton F Nariman,

the Court has observed:

“28. When it comes to a financial creditor triggering the

process, Section 7 becomes relevant. Under the Explanation

to Section 7(1), a default is in respect of a financial debt owed

to any financial creditor of the corporate debtor — it need not

be a debt owed to the applicant financial creditor. Under

Section 7(2), an application is to be made under sub-section

(1) in such form and manner as is prescribed, which takes us

to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy (Application to Adjudicating

Authority) Rules, 2016. Under Rule 4, the application is made

by a financial creditor in Form 1 accompanied by documents

and records required therein. Form 1 is a detailed form in 5

parts, which requires particulars of the applicant in Part I,

particulars of the corporate debtor in Part II, particulars of the

proposed interim resolution professional in Part III, particulars

of the financial debt in Part IV and documents, records and

evidence of default in Part V. Under Rule 4(3), the applicant is

to dispatch a copy of the application filed with the adjudicating

authority by registered post or speed post to the registered

office of the corporate debtor. The speed, within which the

adjudicating authority is to ascertain the existence of a default

from the records of the information utility or on the basis of

evidence furnished by the financial creditor, is important. This

it must do within 14 days of the receipt of the application. It is

at the stage of Section 7(5), where the adjudicating

authority is to be satisfied that a default has occurred,

that the corporate debtor is entitled to point out that a

default has not occurred in the sense that the “debt”,

which may also include a disputed claim, is not due. A

debt may not be due if it is not payable in law or in fact.

The moment the adjudicating authority is satisfied that a

default has occurred, the application must be admitted 

24

unless it is incomplete, in which case it may give notice

to the applicant to rectify the defect within 7 days of

receipt of a notice from the adjudicating authority. Under

sub-section (7), the adjudicating authority shall then

communicate the order passed to the financial creditor and

corporate debtor within 7 days of admission or rejection of

such application, as the case may be.

[…]

30. On the other hand, as we have seen, in the case of a

corporate debtor who commits a default of a financial

debt, the adjudicating authority has merely to see the

records of the information utility or other evidence

produced by the financial creditor to satisfy itself that a

default has occurred. It is of no matter that the debt is

disputed so long as the debt is “due” i.e. payable unless

interdicted by some law or has not yet become due in the

sense that it is payable at some future date. It is only

when this is proved to the satisfaction of the adjudicating

authority that the adjudicating authority may reject an

application and not otherwise.”

(emphasis supplied)

26 In the present case, the Adjudicating Authority noted that it had listed the

petition for admission on diverse dates and had adjourned it, inter alia, to allow the

parties to explore the possibility of a settlement. Evidently, no settlement was arrived

at by all the original petitioners who had instituted the proceedings. The Adjudicating

Authority noticed that joint consent terms dated 12 February 2020 had been filed

before it. But it is common ground that these consent terms did not cover all the

original petitioners who were before the Adjudicating Authority. The Adjudicating

Authority was apprised of the fact that the claims of 140 investors had been fully

settled by the respondent. The respondent also noted that of the claims of the

original petitioners who have moved the Adjudicating Authority, only 13 have been 

25

settled while, according to it “40 are in the process of settlement and 39 are pending

settlements”. Eventually, the Adjudicating Authority did not entertain the petition on

the ground that the procedure under the IBC is summary, and it cannot manage or

decide upon each and every claim of the individual home buyers. The Adjudicating

Authority also held that since the process of settlement was progressing “in all

seriousness”, instead of examining all the individual claims, it would dispose of the

petition by directing the respondent to settle all the remaining claims “seriously”

within a definite time frame. The petition was accordingly disposed of by directing

the respondent to settle the remaining claims no later than within three months, and

that if any of the remaining original petitioners were aggrieved by the settlement

process, they would be at liberty to approach the Adjudicating Authority again in

accordance with law. The Adjudicating Authority’s decision was also upheld by the

Appellate Authority, who supported its conclusions.

27 The Adjudicating Authority has clearly acted outside the terms of its

jurisdiction under Section 7(5) of the IBC. The Adjudicating Authority is empowered

only to verify whether a default has occurred or if a default has not occurred. Based

upon its decision, the Adjudicating Authority must then either admit or reject an

application respectively. These are the only two courses of action which are open to

the Adjudicating Authority in accordance with Section 7(5). The Adjudicating

Authority cannot compel a party to the proceedings before it to settle a dispute.

28 Undoubtedly, settlements have to be encouraged because the ultimate

purpose of the IBC is to facilitate the continuance and rehabilitation of a corporate 

26

debtor, as distinct from allowing it to go into liquidation. As the Statement of Objects

and Reasons accompanying the introduction of the Bill indicates, the objective of the

IBC is to facilitate insolvency resolution “in a time bound manner” for maximisation of

the value of assets, promotion of entrepreneurship, ensuring the availability of credit

and balancing the interest of all stakeholders. What the Adjudicating Authority and

Appellate Authority, however, have proceeded to do in the present case is to

abdicate their jurisdiction to decide a petition under Section 7 by directing the

respondent to settle the remaining claims within three months and leaving it open to

the original petitioners, who are aggrieved by the settlement process, to move fresh

proceedings in accordance with law. Such a course of action is not contemplated by

the IBC.

29 The IBC is a complete code in itself. The Adjudicating Authority and the

Appellate Authority are creatures of the statute. Their jurisdiction is statutorily

conferred. The statute which confers jurisdiction also structures, channelises and

circumscribes the ambit of such jurisdiction. Thus, while the Adjudicating Authority

and Appellate Authority can encourage settlements, they cannot direct them by

acting as courts of equity. In Pratap Technocrats (supra), a two-judge Bench of this

Court, speaking through Justice DY Chandrachud, held:

“47. These decisions have laid down that the jurisdiction of

the Adjudicating Authority and the Appellate Authority cannot

extend into entering upon merits of a business decision made

by a requisite majority of the CoC in its commercial wisdom.

Nor is there a residual equity based jurisdiction in the

Adjudicating Authority or the Appellate Authority to

interfere in this decision, so long as it is otherwise in 

27

conformity with the provisions of the IBC and the

Regulations under the enactment.

[…]

50. Hence, once the requirements of the IBC have been

fulfilled, the Adjudicating Authority and the Appellate

Authority are duty bound to abide by the discipline of the

statutory provisions. It needs no emphasis that neither

the Adjudicating Authority nor the Appellate Authority

have an uncharted jurisdiction in equity. The jurisdiction

arises within and as a product of a statutory framework.”

(emphasis supplied)

30 In Arun Kumar Jagatramka v. Jindal Steel & Power Ltd.18, a two judge

Bench of this Court issued a note of caution to the Adjudicating Authorities and the

Appellate Authority against judicial interference with the framework created by the

IBC. Speaking through Justice DY Chandrachud, the Court held:

“95…we do take this opportunity to offer a note of caution for

NCLT and NCLAT, functioning as the adjudicatory authority

and appellate authority under the IBC respectively, from

judicially interfering in the framework envisaged under the

IBC. As we have noted earlier in the judgment, the IBC was

introduced in order to overhaul the insolvency and bankruptcy

regime in India. As such, it is a carefully considered and well

thought out piece of legislation which sought to shed away

the practices of the past. The legislature has also been

working hard to ensure that the efficacy of this legislation

remains robust by constantly amending it based on its

experience. Consequently, the need for judicial intervention or

innovation from NCLT and NCLAT should be kept at its bare

minimum and should not disturb the foundational principles of

the IBC…”

 18 (2021) 7 SCC 474

28

31 In the synopsis which has been appended to the paper book, a tabulated

statement has been appended for the purpose of indicating the status of the

settlement process. The statement is reproduced below:

Sl.

No.

Name Settlement

Proposed

Date of

Proposal

Accepted/

Rejected

Defaulted

in

Settlement

Date of

Default

1 E.S.

Krishnamurthy

Yes 14.12.2019 Rejected N.A. N.A.

2 Dhwani Sanghvi Yes 14.12.2019 Rejected N.A. N.A.

3 Sunil Jain Yes September

2019

Rejected N.A. N.A.

4 Lakshminarayan

P.V.

Yes May 2019 Accepted

then

subsequently

rejected

N.A. N.A.

5 Milind Raka No N.A. N.A. N.A. N.A.

6 Nitin Palekar No N.A. N.A. N.A. N.A.

7 Marie Therese

Lima Fernandes

No N.A. N.A. N.A. N.A.

8 Shashi Arora Yes 30.08.2019 Rejected N.A. N.A.

9 Bhupesh Dinger Yes December

2019

Rejected N.A. N.A.

10 Shaila S Kothari Yes 13.07.2019 Accepted Yes 31.10.2019

11 Nemmara

Mahadevan

Yes 24.06.2019 Accepted Yes August

2018

12 Satish Battula Yes 06.07.2018 Accepted Yes 31.08.2019

13 Mayank Gupta Yes 08.03.2018 Accepted Yes 30.09.2019

14 Gangasagar

Neminath

Hemade

Yes 02.08.2029 Accepted Yes 2019

15 Manjushri Basu No (not till

the passing

of order by

Adjudicatin

g Authority)

Settlement

received

after

passing of

order by

Adjudicatin

g Authority

however no

cheques

provided.

N.A. N.A. N.A.

16 Madhukar V.

Limaye

No (not till

the passing

of order by

Adjudicatin

g Authority)

Settlement

received

after

passing of

order by

Adjudicatin

N.A. N.A. N.A.

29

g Authority

however no

cheques

provided.

17 Dipankar Kanjilal Yes July 2019 Accepted Yes September

2019

The above statement indicates that a settlement has admittedly not been arrived at

by the respondent with all the appellants. Moreover, in the present appeal,

impleadment applications have also been filed on behalf of an additional set of

individuals claiming non-payment of their dues by the respondent.

32 For the above reasons, we have come to the conclusion that the order of the

Adjudicating Authority, and the directions which eventually came to be issued,

suffered from an abdication of jurisdiction. The Appellate Authority sought to make a

distinction by observing that the directions of the Adjudicating Authority were at the

‘pre-admission stage’, and that the order was not of such a nature which was

prejudicial to the rights and interest of the stakeholders. The Appellate Authority was

cognizant of the fact that even the time schedule for settlement which had been

indicated by the Adjudicating Authority had elapsed, but then noted the impact of the

outbreak of COVID-19 pandemic on the real estate market, including on the

respondent. While acknowledging that the consent terms were “filed by some of the

stake holders though may not be all encompassing”, the Appellate Authority

nonetheless proceeded to dismiss the appeal as not maintainable. The observation

that the appeal was not maintainable is erroneous. Plainly, the Adjudicating

Authority failed to exercise the jurisdiction which was entrusted to it. A clear case for 

30

the exercise of jurisdiction in appeal was thus made out, which the Appellate

Authority then failed to exercise.

33 We may note at this stage that the provisions of Section 7 of the IBC have

been amended with retrospective effect from 28 December 2019 by Act 1 of 2020.

These provisions have been construed in the judgment of this Court in Manish

Kumar (supra). Since we are inclined to restore the proceedings back to the

Adjudicating Authority for a fresh consideration, it is not necessary for this Court to

dwell on any other aspect, save and except for what weighed with the Adjudicating

Authority in disposing of the petition without adjudicating on other issues of

maintainability or merits. We leave open all the rights and contentions of the parties

to be urged before and decided by the Adjudicating Authority.

34 We accordingly allow the appeal and set aside the impugned judgment and

order dated 30 July 2020 of the NCLAT in Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No

649 of 2020 and of the NCLT dated 28 February 2020 in CP (IB) No.188/BB/2019.

The petition under Section 7 of the IBC (i.e., CP (IB) No.188/BB/2019) is accordingly

restored to the NCLT for disposal afresh. 

31

35 The impleadment applications shall stand disposed of, with liberty being

granted to the applicants to adopt appropriate proceedings in accordance with law

before the Adjudicating Authority, or before such other forum as they may be

advised.

36 Pending application(s), if any, shall stand disposed of.

…….…………………………...............................J

 [Dr Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud]

…….…………………………...............................J.

 [A S Bopanna]

New Delhi;

December 14, 2021